Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
375 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Which class of drug is the oldest injectable anesthetic?
|
Barbituates
|
|
Which barbituate is on of the few available today in vet med?
|
Thiopental
|
|
In solution, thiopental is highly alkaline, what effect does this have on tissues?
|
Highly irritant if extravasated
|
|
What is the mechanism of action of barbituates?
|
Depresses the RAS in the brainstem responsible for wakefulness, interacts with GABA
|
|
Which is the active portion of a barituate...the protein bound or unbound?
|
The unbound is active
|
|
Thiopental is up to 40% unionized in plasma, making it lipid soluble. In this form, what can the drug do?
|
Cross the blood brain barrier
|
|
What biochemical condition will increase the intensity of the barbituate effect?
|
Acidosis
|
|
Is recovery from a drug due to metabolism or redistribution?
|
Redistribution
|
|
In which breeds should Thiopental be avoided?
|
Sight hounds (low body fat = lack of depot for the drug)
|
|
How quickly does Thiopental take effect?
|
One arm-brain time...unconsciousness in 30 seconds
|
|
What effect does Thiopental have on intracranial pressure?
|
Lowers it
|
|
What are the CVS effects of Thiopental?
|
Cardiovascular depression, vasodilation, drop in output. arrhythmogenic
|
|
What respiratory effect is usually seen post induction?
|
Apnea
|
|
What caution must be taken with preparing Propofol?
|
Contains no preservative, can grow bacterial
|
|
What is the mechanism of action of Propofol?
|
Enhances GABA activity, enhances NMDA activity
|
|
What effect does Propofol have on intraocular pressure?
|
Reduces it
|
|
What are Propofol shakes?
|
Some animals can develop muscle rigidity and spasm following induction. responds to Ketamine
|
|
Does Propofol raise the seizure threshold?
|
No, used as an anti-convulsant in dogs with refractory epilepsy
|
|
What are the CVS effects of Propofol?
|
CVS depression, vasodilation, decreased aterial blood pressure, stroke volume and cardiac output Little effect on heart rate
|
|
What are the respiratory effects with Propofol?
|
Respiratory depression
|
|
How can the pain of injecting Propofol be reduced?
|
Draw blood back into the syringe prior to injection, use a low dose of lidocaine
|
|
Do pigs require higher or lower doses of Propofol?
|
Higher
|
|
What caution should be taken when using Propofol in cats?
|
Prolonged recovery if used as CRI
|
|
Which neuroreactive anesthetic agent is not yet licensed in the US?
|
Alfaxalone
|
|
What is the mechanism of action of Alfaxalone?
|
Enhances inhibitory effects of GABA, acts on central glycine and nicotinic Ach receptors
|
|
Alfaxalone has CVS effecst similar to what agent?
|
Propofol
|
|
In which species is Alfaxan not used?
|
Dogs, histamine release
|
|
Name the 2 common dissociative drugs used in vet med
|
Ketamine, Tiletamine
|
|
Ketamine is usually co-administered with what other class of drugs?
|
Rarely given alone, usually given with BZ, ACP, A2 agonist
|
|
What is the mechanism of action of Ketamine?
|
Unclear. Believed to be a result from inhibition of excitatory neurotransmitters
|
|
What is the name of the Ketamine metabolite formed in the liver?
|
Nor-ketamine
|
|
What is a disadvantage of Ketamine in terms of recovery?
|
Usually an unpleasant recovery
|
|
What are the CNS affects of Ketamine?
|
-increased cerebral blood flow -increased cerebral O2 consumption -increased intracranial pressure -epileptogenic -good analgesic -increases muscle tone
|
|
What ocular effects are seen with Ketamine?
|
-eyelids remain open (use eye gel) -increases intra-ocular pressure -dilated, centrally fixed pupils
|
|
What effect does Ketamine have on the CVS?
|
Stimulates the CVS, indirect sympathomimetic action
|
|
What are the respiratory effects of Ketamine?
|
Minimal respiratory depression Pharyngeal/laryngeal reflexes maintained Apneustic breathing Hypersalivation
|
|
What are some conditions that contra-indicate the use of Ketamine?
|
-increased ICP -hepatic, renal disease w/ obstruction -risk of seizure -increased intra-ocular pressure
|
|
How does Tiletamine compare to Ketamine?
|
Similar in action, but more potent and a longer duration of action
|
|
What are the common uses for Tiletamine?
|
-aggressive dogs, feral cats -horses, pigs, exotics
|
|
What is the advantage of using Etomidate?
|
Has minimal CVS depressant effects, minimal effects on the sympathetic nervous system and barorecptors
|
|
What is the effect of Etomidate on the adrenals?
|
Temporary adrenal suppression
|
|
What is TIVA?
|
Using drugs in combination as a continuous IV infusion to maintain anesthesia when an inhalational agent is not desirable or possible
|
|
What are the properties of the ideal drugs for TIVA?
|
non cumulative -rapidly metabolized -non irritant -no undersirable properties from long administration
|
|
What is an example TIVA technique used in equine medicine?
|
Triple drip...Guaphenesin, ketamine and xylazine
|
|
In which breeds do you avoid Thiopental?
|
Sight hounds
|
|
What issues are associated with brachycephalic dogs and inducing anesthesia?
|
-stenotic nares
-elongated soft palate -braod, thick muscular tongue -narrow laryngeal opening, everted saccules |
|
All of the physical issues with brachycephalic dogs place them at risk for what?
|
Respiratory obstruction
|
|
Which dog breeds are more sensitive to ACP?
|
Boxers, giant breeds, setter
|
|
What effect can opiois have on sled dogs?
|
Dysphoria
|
|
In older dogs (5-10 years), what pre-anesthesia lab work should you perform?
|
Assessment of renal function
|
|
When would you preform a complete biochem profile prior to anesthesia?
|
Older animal, elective procedure of more than 30-40 minutes
|
|
If a breed is associated with a coagulation problem, what test should you perform?
|
BMBT
(Doberman, corgi) |
|
In a diabetic animal, what level would you check just prior to anesthesia?
|
Glucose
|
|
Sedation can be thought of as what?
|
Heavy pre-mediation
|
|
Sedation is usually a combination of a tranquillizer and an opioid. This combination is called a what?
|
Neurolepanalgesic
|
|
What is the purpose of sedation vs anesthesia?
|
Allows for relatively non-painful procedures or manipulation with the need for GA.
|
|
What are the default drugs for sedation in a dog?
|
ACP plus morphine
|
|
In what cases would you reduce the amount of ACP given?
|
-sensitive breed (Boxer)
-older animal -older, sensitive -when prolonged sedation is not wanted |
|
When using the IV route instead of the IM route for sedation, by how much is the dose decreased?
|
one-half
|
|
When would ACP not be used?
|
-hypovolemia, shock or hypotension
-skin testing -impaired liver function |
|
When might the morphine dose be increased for sedation?
|
-aggressive, boisterous temperament
-increased potential pain -if a lower dose of ACP is used |
|
When would morphine not be used for sedation?
|
-concerned about vomiting
-not a painful procedure -don't want prolonged sedation -skin testing (histamine release) -certain breeds can react (sled dogs) |
|
What sedative would you used for an aggressive dog?
|
Medetomidine
|
|
By which route is it best to administer pre-med drugs?
|
IV- allows accurate titration
|
|
As a premed, Thiopental should be given in a concentration of 2.5% max. Why?
|
To reduce the risk of arrhythmias or perivascular slough
|
|
When would you not use Thiopental?
|
-hypovolemic animals
-liver, kidney, heart dz |
|
How is Propofol administered?
|
Slow IV to effect
|
|
Giving Propofol too quickly can induce what?
|
Apnea
|
|
During induction with Propofol, what side effect might you seen?
|
Muscle twitching
|
|
What other pre-med drug has similar effects to Propofol?
|
Alphaxalone
|
|
Why would you choose Etomidate as a pre-med?
|
-preserves cardiac function
-minimal respiratory depression |
|
What are the drawbacks to Etomidate?
|
-pain on injection
-high incidence of nausea & vomiting |
|
Which combination of pre-med drugs are very unpleasant and can cause dysphoric recoveries in dogs?
|
Diazepam/Ketamine
|
|
Diazepam/Ketamine should be avoided in which situations?
|
Animals at risk of seizuring or with increased CSF pressure
|
|
What is the last choice method for induction in dogs?
|
IM- medetomidine-xylazine plus ketamine
|
|
When would sevoflurane be the inhalational agent of choice in dogs?
|
For mask induction
|
|
Halothane should be avoided in dogs with what conditions?
|
-CV dz
-cardiac arrhythmias -hepatic/renal dz -IICP |
|
If using nitrous oxide, what must you monitor?
|
Oxygenation- at least with pulse ox
|
|
When do you extubate a dog?
|
When he starts to swallow
|
|
What are the default pre-meds given to cats?
|
ACP plus morphine IM or SC
|
|
For fractious cats, what drug could you add?
|
Ketamine
|
|
What adjustment would you make to the ACP dosage in older cats?
|
Lower it
|
|
When would you decrease the dose of morphine in cats?
|
Old and quiet cats, cats with impaired liver function
|
|
When should morphine not be used in cat anesthisia?
|
When skin testing is the procedure
|
|
What other opioid works well in cats?
|
Buprenorphine
|
|
Why do some vets give atropine to cats?
|
To reduce salivation caused by ketamine
|
|
When would you give a high dose of ketamine to a cat?
|
-young, bouncy cat
-nasty/aggressive cat |
|
As a last result, in dealing with an agressive cat, what pre-med drug could you give?
|
Ketamine- PO
|
|
When would you not use Ketamine in a cat?
|
-older, quiet cat
-quesitonable liver/kidney function -urethral obstruction -risk of seizure |
|
Compared to dogs, the induction dose of propofol needs to be higher or lower?
|
Higher induction dose
|
|
During intubation of a cat , how could you reduce the occurrence or laryngospasm?
|
Apply lidocaine to the larynx
|
|
What triad of signs should you watch for in cats?
|
Hypotension
Bradycardia Hypothermia |
|
What are inhalational anesthetic agents?
|
Drugs that reach the circulation by the respiratory system
|
|
How are these drugs absorbed into the bloodstream?
|
Via the capillaries
|
|
What is saturated vapor pressure?
|
The equilibrium point for a vessel containing a volatile liquid, at a specific temp, where the number of molecules entering the gaseous phase equal the number of molecule leaving it
|
|
What is a partition coefficient?
|
The relative affinity that 2 tissues (or phases) that are in contact with each other have for the same substance.
|
|
What does a partition coefficient greater than 1 mean?
|
That the FIRST names tissue is going to hold more of the substance
|
|
The ratio of the amount of anesthetic dissolved in blood and in gas is called what?
|
Blood-gas solubility coefficient
|
|
Does a soluble inhalational agent have a large of small blood-gas coefficient?
|
Large
|
|
As a general rule of thumb, what type of inhalational agent works faster?
|
A more insoluble agent
|
|
The extent to which any tissues take up an anesthetic agent depends on its what?
|
Blood supply and size
|
|
Based in perfusion and proportion of body mass, the body can be divided into what 4 basic groups?
|
-vessel-rich
-muscle/skin -fat -vessel poor (connective tissue etc) |
|
Of the four body groups of tissue, which one has the highest perfusion (as a % of cardiac output)?
|
Vessel rich tissue
|
|
The vessel-rich groups is composed of which tissues?
|
-brain
-heart -liver -kidneys -endocrine glands -splanchnic bed |
|
When will uptake of an inhalational agent stop in a particular tissue?
|
When the tissue is saturated
|
|
Which is the first tissue to saturate?
|
Brain- small volume, high affinity, well perfused
|
|
What is MAC?
|
The minimum concentration of an anesthetic agent(measured at the alveolus) which will prevent purposeful movement in response to a supramaximal (painful) stimulus, in 50% of patients
|
|
MAC is a way of comparing what, across agents?
|
Potency
|
|
Is a lower MAC more or less potent than a higher MAC?
|
More potent
|
|
How would you monitor the MAC during anesthesia?
|
Expired, or end tidal, concentraions are a close approximation
|
|
What factors can decrease a MAC?
|
-narcotics, sedatives, tranq
-nitrous oxide -age (old animals & neonates) -hypothermia -pregnancy -severe hypoxia -sever hypercapnia -hypotentsion |
|
What factors can increase MAC?
|
-hyperthermia
-neurotransmitter release |
|
What is the approximate MAC of
Halothane Iso Sevo Des? |
H = 0.8-0.9
I = 1.5 S = 2.4 D = 8 |
|
How do you tell the amount of remaining nitrous oxide in a cylinder?
|
Weigh it
|
|
Under which conditions would you not use N2O as an anesthetic agent?
|
Head trauma or cerebral edema
(raises cerebral blood flow of ICP) |
|
Compared to other inhalational agetns, N2O is the only one that has what additional property?
|
Analgesia
|
|
What effects does N2O have on the CVS?
|
-mild sympathetic stimulation (maintains BP, HR, CO)
|
|
N2O has min respiratory effects. At 100% it is lethal, never use a flow greater than what?
|
66%
|
|
How is N2O eliminated?
|
Through the lungs
|
|
What is the difference between the use of N2O in animals compared to humans?
|
N2O is only half as potent in animals
|
|
What are the benefits of using N2O?
|
-accelerates uptake of volatile anesthetics via second gas effect
-good analgesia -decreases amount of inhalation agent needed to maintain plane |
|
What are the disadvantages of nitrous oxide?
|
-low potency
-expensive -potential for human abuse -potential for hypoxia if wrong conc. given -potential for diffusion hypozia at end of anesthesia |
|
N2O can reduce the MAC of other inhalational agents by how much?
|
20-25%
|
|
What is the danger is using N2O in terms of gas-filled spaces?
|
N2O has low solubility and can diffuse into gas filled spaces such as the rumen, a GDV, pneumothorax and cause increased pressure
|
|
At the end of anesthesia with N2O, how do you avoid diffusion hypoxia?
|
Administer O2 for 5-10 mins following the cessation of N2O
|
|
What is the special storage requirement for Halothane?
|
Unstable in UV light- stored in a dark bottle
|
|
Halothane has what added to it as a preservative?
|
Thymol
|
|
Why is Halothane the most dangerous inhalational agent to use in animals with head trauma or suspected brain tumors?
|
Increases cerebral blood flow and decreases cerebral metabolic rate
|
|
What are the CVS effects of Halothane?
|
-dose-dependent CVS depression
-direct myocardial depression -decreases stroke vol, CO, BP -arrythmogenic |
|
What are the respiratory effects of Halothane?
|
Dose-related respiratory depression
|
|
How does Halothane depress hepatic function in animals?
|
Decreased hepatic perfusion associated with decreased cardiac output
|
|
Halothane undergoes more metabolism in which organ than any other inhalational agent used in vet med?
|
The liver
|
|
What effects does Halothane have on the Gi system?
|
-reduces GIT motility
-reduces splanchnic blood flow by up to 33% |
|
What other effects does Halothane have?
|
-profound relaxation of uterine muscles
-relatively poor skeletal muscle relaxation |
|
Does Isoflurane require a preservative?
|
No
|
|
Should Isoflurane be used in the case of head trauma?
|
Yes, increases cerebral blood flow less than Halothane
|
|
Does Isoflurane cause CVS depression?
|
Yes, but by a different mechanism than Halothane
|
|
What kindof myocardial effect does Isoflurane have?
|
No direct myocardial depression
|
|
Isoflurane causes vasodilation which has what effect on blood pressure?
|
Hypotension
|
|
What are the respiratory effects of Isoflurane?
|
-respiratory depression
-irritant to upper airway |
|
What effects does Isoflurane have on hepatic and skeletal blood flow?
|
hepatic- well maintained
skeletal- increased |
|
What is compound A?
|
Some degradation of Sevoflurane occurs when exposed to CO2 absorbent, poducing compound A which has been shown to be nephrotoxic in rats
|
|
Sevoflurane has similar effects to Isoflurane. What are the CVS effects of Sevoflurane?
|
-CVS depression due to vasodilation
-does not sensitize the myocardium to catecholamines |
|
Desflurane requires what special equipment?
|
A heated vaporizer
|
|
Is the MAC of Desflurane higher or lower than other agents?
|
Higher- but with high SVP and BP, easy to achieve
|
|
What do muscle relaxant drugs do?
|
Act to modify the activity of the post-synaptic muscle membrane and thus produce muscle relaxation
|
|
What level of sedation and analgesia do muscle relaxants provide?
|
None
|
|
When are NMBD's used?
|
-intra-ocular surgery
-reduces surgical traction and post op discomfort -may facilitate intubation and IPPV -predictable total relaxation -non-depolarizing drugs can be antagonized |
|
Which surgical procedure is it often truly necessary to use NMBDs?
|
ocular surgery
|
|
Neuromuscilar blockade may alos be used on high risk cases such as....
|
-thoracotomy
-diaphragmatic hernia repair -laparotomy -othro sx -ear sx |
|
What are some disadvantages to using NMBDs?
|
-controlled ventilation is essential
-difficult to monitor anesthesia & analgesia -no motor response to stim- can cut a nerve -monitoring neuro blockade is complex -recurarisation |
|
What are the 3 essential prerequisites of using NMBD's?
|
-ensure unconsciousness
-ensure adequate analgesia -ensure ventilation support |
|
What are the absolute contraindications of using NMDB's in animals?
|
-inability to ventilate the animal
-inability to provide adequate anesthesia and analgesia |
|
Muscle paralysis follows what pattern?
|
From periphery to centrally- face and tail first, diaphragm last
return of function is opposite |
|
After paralysis with an NMBD, what autonomic response should you look for?
|
-mydriasis
-lacrimation -salivation -tachycardia -hypertension -arrhythmia -paradoxical jaw tone -paradoxical jaw twitching |
|
What is the preferred method for monitoring the use of a NMBD?
|
Peripheral nerve stimulator
|
|
if monitoring the effects of a NMDB by clinical signs, what do you look for?
|
-head lift
-cough -squeeze -inspiratory force |
|
Name the 3 centrally acting muscle relaxant drugs
|
-Guaifenesin
-Benzodiazepines -A2 agonists |
|
Guaifenesin is usually mixed with other anesthetic agents for which species?
|
Horses
|
|
Where is the effect of Guaifenesin?
|
Block transmission of nerve impuleses at the internuncial neurons of the spinal cord, brainstem and subcortical areas
|
|
What effect does Guaifenesin produce?
|
Tranquillization, ataxia and recumebency, no analgesia
|
|
When is Guaifenesin used?
|
Induction of anesthesia in horses and cattle
TIVA (w/ Ketamine and Xylazine) triple drip |
|
When has Guaifenesin been used in dogs?
|
To treat tetanus
|
|
Cattle are sensitive to a risk of hemolysis, what concentration of Guaifenesin is used?
|
Never more than 5%
|
|
What GGE should be used in horses?
|
Never more than 10%
|
|
Along with the centrally acting NMBD, name the 2 other types used?
|
Depolarizing
Non-depolarizing |
|
How are the depolarizing drugs (suxamehtonium) broken down?
|
By pseudocholinesterases
|
|
The non-depolarizing agents include which drugs?
|
-Vecuronium
-Rocuronium -Atracurium |
|
The non-depolarizing NMDB are structuarlly related to what drug?
|
ACh
|
|
How do the non-depolarizing NMDB's work?
|
By competitive block, compete with ACh the the nicotinic ACh receptors
|
|
How is a neuromuscular blockade with a non-depolarizing drug reversed?
|
With anticholinesterases
|
|
What is the onset of action in a dog given Vecuronium?
|
3 minutes
|
|
In terms of cardiac effects, why is Vercuronium a good choice for a NMBD?
|
Excellent Cv stability, wide spearation between vagal and neuromuscular blocking doses
|
|
Rocuronium has a duration of action of how long?
|
30 minutes
|
|
Which NMBD is used in dogs, cats and horses?
|
Atracurium
|
|
Atracurium is the NMBD of choice in which type of patient?
|
Critically ill..has rapid recovery and used in patients with renal and hepatic disease/failure
|
|
Which category of NMDB's are reversible?
|
Non-depolarizing
Vecuronium, atracurium |
|
What is the timing for giving a reversal agent?
|
Only when there are clinical signs or evoked signs of spontaneous recovery
|
|
In dogs and cats, what drugs are given to reverse NMDBs?
|
Anticholinesterases and an antimuscarinc (to protect against the muscaric effects of the build up of ACh)
|
|
When reversing an NMDB in a horse, is atropine also given?
|
No
|
|
Name the 2 anthicholinesterase drugs.
|
-Neostimine
-Edrophonium |
|
How do anticholinesterases work?
|
Stop the breakdown of ACh in the region of the muscle plate, the increase in ACh can then compete for the receptors and replace the NMBD
|
|
In the absence of a peripheral nerve stimulator, how do you know that the reversal of a NMDB is complete?
|
Good jaw tone
Brisk palberal reflex |
|
What is the "fish eye" sign?
|
Animal is still not completely reversed
|
|
When using a nerve stimulator, what is the most popular stimulation pattern used to check for nerve response?
|
Train of Four
|
|
What is the amount of nerve blockage as demonstarted by a train of four pattern that shows 1 twitch?
|
90% block
|
|
What is a common method of performing surgery on a ruminant?
|
Standing
|
|
A caudal epidural is used in a cow for what purpose?
|
Surgery of the tail, anus, vagina and perineum. Prevents rectal straining during calving
Replacement of prolapsed uterus |
|
What is the effect of a caudal epidural on the uterine motility and locomotor function of the hindlimbs on a cow?
|
Unaffected
|
|
Where should the approach for a caudal epidural be made?
|
Between Cd 2 and Cd3
|
|
What drugs can be used for the caudal epidural?
|
Lidocaine
Xylazine |
|
What local anesthetic technique can be used during flank surgery- c-section, abomasal surgery?
|
Inverted L-block
|
|
Where is the anesthetic agent injected for an inverted L block?
|
Below transverse process of lumbar vertebrae
|
|
What other type of flank procedure anesthesia can be used?
|
Paraverterbral anesthesia
|
|
The nerves for a paravertebral block are located where?
|
T13, L1, L2
|
|
What are the 2 approaches to a paravertebral block?
|
Dorsal
Lateral |
|
What are the signs of a successful lateral paravertebral block?
|
-Anesthesia of the skin, peritoneum & musculature of the flank, increased skin temp and scolisos towards the desensitized side
|
|
Whay arent line blocks recommended for C-section?
|
-distortion of normal tissue architecture
-incomplete anesthesia -incomplete muscle relaxation of dep players of abd muscle wall -formation of hematomas along site -increased cost- large doses |
|
What anesthetic technique is used for digital surgical procedures in large ruminants?
|
Intravenous regional analgesia
|
|
In cattle and sheep, dehorning is achieved using what kind of anesthetic procedure?
|
Cornual nerve block
|
|
Which approach to horn nerve block is taken?
|
Cornual branch of the lacrimal nerve
|
|
In goats, which additional nerve needs to be blocked for dehorning?
|
Medial cornual branch of the infratrochlear nerve
|
|
In goats and large ruminants what other block should be done?
|
Ring block around the horn base
|
|
What is a good sign of a successful zygomaticotemporal nerve block?
|
Eye blink during administration
Drooping of upper lid after |
|
Which nerve, in a ruminant, is blocked to paralyze the eyelid (without analgesia)?
|
Auriculopalpebral nerve
|
|
Why would you block the Auriculopalpebral nerve?
|
Removal of FB (in combo with local anesthetic
|
|
What 2 neve blocks are used for procedures on the eye?
|
Retrobulbar
Peterson's block |
|
Which solution strength of Xylazine should be used in cattle?
|
2%- extremely sensitive
|
|
A higher dose of Xylazine increases the risk of what?
|
Recumbency
|
|
In which situation should Xylazine not be used in cattle?
|
Last trimester of pregnancy
|
|
For diffcult ruminants, what drug can be used?
|
ACP
|
|
What drug can be given with Xylazine or ACP if you don't want the cow to go down?
|
Morphine
|
|
What type of regurgitation can occur in a cow during induction?
|
Active regurgitation
|
|
During surgery what type of regurgitation can occur?
|
Passive
|
|
During ruminant surgery, what can cause bloat?
|
Accumulation of CO2 and methane in the rumen, not able to eructate
|
|
What effects will increasing abdominal pressure have?
|
Impair repsiration and venous blood return to the heart
|
|
When will the ability to eructate return?
|
When the animal is in sternal recumbency and in an advanced stage of recovery
|
|
What complication can occur during ruminant anesthesia in regards to saliva?
|
Ruminants produce a huge amount of saliva, during anesthesia the swallowing response is suppressed, saliva accumulates- can cause upper airway obstruction
|
|
Hypoventilation during anesthesia can occur due to....
|
-central depression
-V/Q inequalities due to recumbency -low chest wall, lungs difficult to expand -more impedence due to diaphragm position -expanding rumen puts pressure n diaphragm |
|
How are complication minimized during ruminant anesthesia?
|
-starvation 12-18 hrs prior
-with hold water 12 hours -keep head elevated intubate asap -adequate depth |
|
How can the possibility of bloat be lowered?
|
With hold highly fermentable food for 24 hrs
|
|
Should atropine be give in cattle to reduce saliva production?
|
No, just makes saliva more viscous
|
|
What premeds are used in cattle?
|
none
|
|
IV access is best given where?
|
Auricular vein
|
|
What drugs for induction should be the first choices?
|
Ketamine/diazepam
|
|
What drugs comprise the triple drip?
|
GGE-Ketamine-Xylazine
|
|
What percentage of GGE should be mixed with Ketamine for triple drip?
|
5%
|
|
Why should you provide supplemental O2 when using triple drip in a cow?
|
associated with marked hypoxemia and respiratory depression
|
|
Entubation of an adult cow is performed how?
|
Blindly
|
|
Maintenance of anesthesia of a cow is achieved by using which inhalant?
|
Iso or Halothane
|
|
What is the position of the eyes during deep anesthesia of a cow?
|
Central
|
|
What are sings of a lighter plane of anesthesia?
|
Chewing and swallowing
|
|
In which position should the cow be placed for recovery?
|
Sternal recumbency and supported
|
|
To which class of drugs are goats extremely sensitive?
|
A2 agonists
|
|
Even at very low doses, what side effect can xylazine cause in sheep?
|
Pulmonary edema
|
|
How can the risk of pulmonary edema in sheep be reduced?
|
Give IM
|
|
Whcih drug, unlicensed in sheep and goat, can give a moderate to deep sedation?
|
Medetomidine
|
|
ACP given at what level of dose can provide sedation?
|
Low levels
|
|
Which class of drugs has less CV depression than A2 agonists in sheep and goats?
|
Diazepam
|
|
A combination of Xylazine, Buprenorphine and what else can be used as cattle induction.
|
Ketamine and diazepam
|
|
Are llamas ruminants?
|
No strictly...have a 3 compartment stomach
|
|
Where is the best place to start an IV in a llama?
|
Right jugular, high up
|
|
Why might it be difficult to place a venous catheter?
|
Veins have valves
|
|
What length of ET tube is needed for llamas?
|
35-40 cm
|
|
What is a good alternative to orotracheal entubation?
|
nasotracheal
|
|
What premed is used for llamas?
|
Xylazine
Opioids for analgesia or sedation |
|
What induction drugs can be used?
|
Xylazine
Telazol Propofol |
|
How should the llama be maintained under anesthesia?
|
Small camelids are sensitive to inhalants, use ketamine to reduce the need
|
|
What is CPCR?
|
Cardiopulmonary Cerebral Resuscitation
|
|
The classic features of arrest include what signs?
|
-absence of ventilation/cyanosis
-absence of palpable pulse -absence of heart sounds -dilated pupils |
|
At what pressure does femoral pulse disappear?
|
systolic < 60mm Hg
|
|
At what pressure do heart sounds disappear?
|
Systolic < 50mm Hg
|
|
In contrast to humans. cardiac arrest in animals is usually the result of what?
|
A non-cardiac condition
-anesthetic overdose -primary cardiac disease that affects other organs -dz of respiratory system -systemic dz |
|
Being prepared to handle arrest means identifying high risk patients. which includes what conditions?
|
-vagally mediate cardiac arrest
-anesthetic overdose -trauma -systemic/metabolic disease -hypothemria -respriatory dz -cardiac dz -acid-base abnormalities |
|
In which species can vasovagal response primarily occur?
|
Brachycephalic
|
|
Boxers have enhanced parasympathetic tone combined with withdrawal of sympathetic tone...this usually manifests as bradycardia. What drug should you give?
|
Atropine..NOT adrenaline
|
|
What are the warning signs of a possible impending cardiorespiratory arrest?
|
-changes in resp rate, depth, pattern
-weak, irregular pulse, bradycardia -hypotension -unexplained change in depth of anes -cyanosis -hypothermia |
|
CPCR consists of what 3 major components?
|
-Basic life support (chest compression and artificial vent)
-Advanced life support (+ drugs) -Post -resuscitation care |
|
Extended hypoxia can lead to brain damage which usually manifests how, in a dog?
|
Blindness
|
|
What is the first step you take during an arrest?
|
Call for assistance
|
|
What are the ABC's of treating an arrest?
|
Airway
Breathing Circulatory support |
|
Advanced life support includes what steps...D-E-F?
|
Diagnosis and drugs
ECG Fabrillation |
|
G-H-I of prolonged life support means what?
|
Gauging response
Hopeful measures for brain Intensive care |
|
How many people are needed to competently perform CPR?
|
4
|
|
CPR will rarely be successful if there i no response after how much time?
|
15 mins
|
|
After turning off the inhalant, how many breaths do you give per minute?
|
10-15
|
|
Which acupuncture point may help reverse respiratory arrest?
|
Jen Chung GV26
|
|
If femoral pulse is low or weak, systolic must be what?
|
< 80 mm Hg
|
|
What are the 2 choices for chest resuscitation?
|
Closed compression
Open massage |
|
In which position is the patient for closed chest compression?
|
Left lateral or dorsal recumbency
|
|
How many compression per minute should be given?
|
100-120
|
|
In cats and small dogs., where do you compress?
|
Directly over the heart
|
|
Where do you perform compressions on a large dog?
|
Widest part of thorax
|
|
Lateral recumbency for chest compression is used on animals of what size?
|
Over 7kg
|
|
Cardiac compressions should be interspersed with what other compressions?
|
Abdominal
|
|
Through what 2 mechanisms does closed chest compressions produce flow?
|
-direct cardiac pressure (cardiac pump)
-pressure gradient (thoracic pump) |
|
Closed chest compression achieves a cardiac output of how much?
|
20%
|
|
To perform open cardiac massage a thoracotomy is performed where?
|
Left lateral thorax between 4-6 ICS
|
|
What is the advantage of open massage?
|
Does not raise atrial pressure, provides better cerebral and coronary perfusion
|
|
Monitoring during CPR is essential and should include what?
|
-MM, CRT, cranial nerve reflex
-CNS -peripheral and central pulses -capnography -pulse ox -ECG |
|
If needed, Doppler could be performed where to assess bloodflow?
|
On the cornea....with copious amounts of gel
|
|
What are the 4 cardiac rhythms that can cause a pulseless cardiac arrest?
|
Asystole
Pulseless electrical activity Ventricular tachycardia Ventricular fibrillation |
|
Which is the most common arrest rhythm in dogs and cats?
|
Asystole
|
|
What is meant by pulseless electrical activity (EMD)
|
Despite normal heart rate and rhythm on ECG, no contractility in the myocardium
|
|
What is the cause of ventricular tachycardia?
|
Repetitive firing of ectopic focus or foci in ventricular myocardium or Purkinje system
|
|
What is the only treat for ventricular fibrillation?
|
To de-fibrillate
|
|
What is the number one drug in CPR?
|
Oxygen
|
|
Which is the first vein of choice for drug access?
|
Jugular
|
|
Which injection route is the last resort?
|
Cardiac injection
|
|
How would you administer intratracheal meds?
|
Use a cat urinary catheter to access respiratory bronchioles
|
|
Why should you be careful in giving fluids?
|
could produce elevated pre-load/CVP, and reduce coronary perfusion, increase ICP and pulmonary edema
|
|
Name the 5 primary drugs used in CPR
|
-epinephrine
-atropine -lidocaine -vasopressin -reversal agent: naloxone, atipamezole, flumazenil |
|
What are the contraindications for using epi during an arrest?
|
-ventricular tachycardia
-ventricular fibrillation -presence of drugs that increase adrenergic effects incr v fib |
|
What effects does epinephrine have?
|
-arterial vasoconstriction
-increase myocardial contractility -bronchodilation |
|
What is the duration of action of epi?
|
Short 3-5 mins
|
|
When is atropine given?
|
To treat bradycardia
|
|
What effect does atropine have?
|
antimuscarinic
increases heart rate and systemic vascular resistance |
|
Why is vasopressin given?
|
Massive selective vasoconstriction, maintains blood supply to the cerebral and renal vasculature
|
|
what type of drugs are Lidocaine and Amiodarone?
|
Anti-arrhythmic
|
|
The role of lidocaine in CPR is changing, when is it now indicated?
|
For ventricular arrhythmias following resuscitation
|
|
Name the 3 anesthesia reversal drugs
|
-Naloxone
-Atipamazole -Flumazenil |
|
Electrical defib is the only treatment for what cardiac rhythm?
|
Ventricular fibrillation
|
|
What is involved in post resuscitation support?
|
-artificial ventilation
-inotropic support -sometimes pressor support -monitor urine and CVP -anticipate SIRS, renal failure, DIC -keep warm |
|
Local anesthetics are also referred to as what?
|
Local analgesics
|
|
What benefits are there to adding Local anesthetics to GA protocols?
|
-minimal equipment
-minimal systemic effects when given peripherally -reduce inhalational/IV anest reqs -reduce sympathetic response to surgery -improves post op analgesia |
|
What benefits does a local anesthetics given systemically have?
|
-central analgesic effect (Na channel blockade)
-prokinetic activity in GIT -antioxidant and inflammatory modulator |
|
LA's are classified into what 2 categories?
|
Esters and Amides
|
|
Which classification of LA's are used in vet med?
|
Amides
lidocaine bupivacaine mepivicaine |
|
How are amides metabolized?
|
Are very stable, metabolized by hepatic microsomes
|
|
How are esters degraded?
|
Degraded in plasma by pseudocholinesterases
|
|
Lipid solubility is responsible for which property of LA'a?
|
Anesthetic potency
|
|
In general potency of a LS increases with what?
|
Increase lipid solubility
|
|
What is the relationship between lipid solubility and speed of onset?
|
More lipid soluble the faster the speed of onset
|
|
Which property of LA's is responsible for the duration of action?
|
Protein binding
|
|
pKa determines what property of a LA?
|
Speed of onset
|
|
Onset of action is faster if the drug's pKa is what?
|
Close to physiologic pH
|
|
Which form of a drug crosses the cell membranes?
|
Un-ionized
|
|
What effect does dropping pH have on the un-ionized form of the drug?
|
With dropping pH non-ionized form decreases
|
|
What type of tissues have low pH, renedering a LA less effective?
|
Infected
|
|
How can you increase the portion of the drug into a non-ionized lipid soluble state to make it more effective?
|
Add sodium bicarb to alkalinize it
(also decreases pain on injection) |
|
LA's act on which part of the cell to prevent propagation of AP in all nerve?
|
Cell membrane
|
|
Which nerve requires a higher concentration of a LA to be effective?
|
Motor nerves
|
|
LAs can also effect the impulse transition in excitable tissue such as what?
|
heart, muscle and brain
|
|
What is the principle action of LAs on nerve cells?
|
Blocking sodium channels in the closed configuration
|
|
Which nerves are blocked first....smaller or larger?
|
Smaller
|
|
Generally in which order are nerves blocked?
|
-autonomic, pregang sympath
-slow pain post gang -fast pain temp -motor- muscle spindle, proprio -sensory- touch, pressure -motor- skeletal |
|
Esters are metabolized by what?
|
Para-amino benzoic acid (PABA)
|
|
Amides are metabolized where?
|
Liver with renal excretion
|
|
What is the half life of esters?
Amides? |
Esters = few minutes
Amides = few hours |
|
Why is regional nerve blockade preferred over local infiltration of tissues with LAs?
|
LA's can produce local tissue irritation and are neurotoxic
|
|
LA's can also be systemically toxic, the degree of systemic toxicity is based in what?
|
-dose
-route -rate of absorption -acid-base status (acidosis incr tox) -rate of metabolism -presence of epi |
|
What is the toxic IV dose of Lidocaine?
|
10 mg/kg
never give more than 6-8mgkg dog/cat |
|
What is the toxic IV dose of
Bupivacaine |
4 mg kg
never give more than 2 |
|
What are the toxic doses of Ropivacine and Mepivicaine?
|
Ropivacaine 4-9 mgkg
Mepivicaine 25 mgkg |
|
How do you calculate toxicity levels if a combination of LA's are used?
|
Toxicity is additive
|
|
These toxic doses produce what type of effects?
|
CNS signs (convulsions)
|
|
In the case of a LA overdose, which signs are seen first...CNS or CVS?
|
CNS
|
|
what are the CNS signs of a LA toxicity?
|
-initial transient CNS depression & resp depression
-agitation, muscle twitching, convulsion |
|
What are the CVS effects of a LA overdose?
|
-direct myocardial depression--bradycardia and decr CO
-hypotension (vasodilation) |
|
Which LA toxicity is more difficult to treat?
|
Bupivaciane- high binding affinity for cardiac myocytes
|
|
How are seizures from a LA overdose treated?
|
IV Diazepam/midazolam plus O2
|
|
What CV support is needed in an LA overdose?
|
symptomatic support: fluids, O2, inotropes, antimuscarinics if bradycardic
|
|
What are the preventive measures to be take when using LA's?
|
-dose according to lean bodyweight
-use caution in small pts -weigh small pts -dilute LA to safe working volumes -check to ensure no accidental IV injection |
|
Which LA in particular has vasodilator properties?
|
All do but esp Lidocaine
|
|
Why is Epinephrine sometimes added to LAs?
|
Delays absorption, prolongs action and improves intensity
|
|
Why would you NOT add epi with LAs for ring blocks, local anesthesia of distal extremities?
|
Potential local tissue ischemia
|
|
What effect would adding an opioid to a LA have?
|
-increase efficacy, extend duration of block
-may also mediate local analgesia |
|
Which A2 agonists have been added to LAs?
|
Medetomidine, dexmedetomidine
|
|
When is a topical anesthetic used on the skin?
|
EMLA cream for catheter placement, bx
|
|
What is a splash block?
|
Direct application of a LA to a site of interest, most commonly the body wall on closure of the abdomen, peritoneum intra-op, ovarian ligaments, on wounds
|
|
When closing small lacerations of excising small masses, what type of LA application would you use?
|
Incisional and infiltrative
|
|
When is intrapleuarl LA used?
|
Can be instill thru a chest drain to facilitate movement of the animal, pain control
|
|
When might intraperitenal anesthesia be used?
|
Following laparoscopy or hysterectomy (Bupivacaine)
|
|
What is a soaker catheter?
|
A fenestrated tube place deep into a surgical site to allow continuous or intermittent application of LA
|
|
What procedure can be performed using infiltration/field block of LA?
|
-small skin masses
-ring block for teat surgery -disbudding -inverted L for standing lap/c-section -equine castration |
|
Where is the LA injected for equine castration?
|
Spermatic cord or testis
|
|
Intravenous regional anesthesia is also called what?
|
Bier block
|
|
When is intravenous regional anesthesia used?
|
Ruminant digital amputation/surgery
|
|
The procedure for a Bier block is to inject a LA into a local vein and isolate it from general circulation by what?
|
Applying a tourniquet
|
|
What is regional anesthesia?
|
Injecting LA around the specific nerve or nerves that innervate a surgical site
|
|
Regional anesthesia given where is used for standing laps and c-section?
|
Proximal and distal paravertebral
|
|
A brachial plexus block provides anesthesia at what level?
|
Below the elbow
|
|
What type of nerve block is used for de-horning?
|
Cornual nerve block
|
|
Which nerve block prevents eyelid closure during surgery?
|
Auriculopalpebral
|
|
Where do you inject a LA to have it be in the CSF?
|
SAS
|
|
What are the primary site for performing an epidural injection of LA?
|
Caudal epidural, Lumbosacral epidural
|
|
Caudal epidurl analgesia provides analgesia to what region?
|
Pelvis viscera and genitalia
also abd and hind limbs if vol is large |
|
Which spinal anesthesia is used most in dogs and cats?
|
Lumbosacral epidural
|
|
When performing an epidural on a cat, what must you be sure of in your location?
|
That your are far enough distal to avoid the a spinal injection
|
|
What is the most popular combination of drugs for epidural injection?
|
Morphine w/ Lido or Bupi
|
|
If CSF is seen on an epidural, it is possible to continue the injection but reduce the dose by how much?
|
50%
|
|
What is an absolute contraindication for administering extradural anesthesia?
|
Never in a pt with coagulopathy or skin infection over injection site
|
|
Full doses of LA admimistered ito the CSF can produce what?
|
Total spinal block
|
|
What other side effects can LA's have?
|
-hypotension
-bradycardia -coat abnormalities -pruritus -respiratory depression or arrest |
|
When are epidural catheters used?
|
For prolonged analgesia
|