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451 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Female external genitalia |
Vulva, labia majora, mons pubis, labia minora, clitoris, vestibule, perineum |
|
Female internal genitalia |
Vagina, uterus, corpus, cervix, fallopian tubes, ovaries |
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Male external genitalia |
Penis, scrotum |
|
Male internal genitalia |
Testes, prostate gland |
|
Drug and alcohol abuse can affect |
Sperm production, libido, erections |
|
Can cause orchitis or sterility in men |
Mumps |
|
Reasons people usually seek treatment |
Pain, bleeding, discharge, masses |
|
Patient education prior to pap smear exam |
Do not douche, use vaginal medications or deodorants or have Intercourse 24 hrs prior, schedule appointment in between menstrual periods |
|
Cytologic vaginal cultures |
Pap screenings after age 21 |
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HPV test |
HPV with pap over age 30 if abnormal pap |
|
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test |
Elevated result will require further testing |
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Hysterosalpingogram |
X-ray that uses contrast medium to visualize the cervix, uterus and fallopian tubes (elevates tubal patency, lithotomy position) |
|
Mammography |
Over age 40 |
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Cervical biopsy post-procedure instructions |
No douching, Intercourse or tampon use until biopsy site is healed, rest 24 hrs post procedure, no heavy lifting for 24-48hrs |
|
Endometrial biopsy post procedure teaching |
Report fever or chills immediately |
|
Fibroademona |
Mass of connective tissue unattached to surrounding breast tissue (most common benign tumor in women during reproductive yrs) Tumors are oval, freely movable, rubbery Vary in size: 0.5in to 6 in |
|
Fibrocystic breast condition |
Common in premenopausal women between age 20 and 50 Thought to be caused by imbalance of normal estrogen to progesterone ratio |
|
Symptoms of fibrocystic breast condition |
Breast pain, tender lumps, swelling (often before menstruation) |
|
Management of fibrocystic breast condition |
Analgesics, limit salt intake before menses, wear supportive bra at all times, ice or heat may help, reduce or eliminate caffeine or dairy, needle aspiration may be necessary, oral contraceptives or selective estrogen receptor modulators may be prescribed; most women with this have minimal issues. Treat with tylenol, aspirin, motrin |
|
Ductal ectasia |
Benign breast problem of women approaching menopause. Caused by dilation and thickening of collecting ducts in subareolar area. Hard mass, irregular borders, tender. Greenish-brown nipped discharge, enlarged axillary nodes, redness and edema over mass |
|
Management of ductal ecstasia |
May improve without treatment. Reduce anxiety regarding threat of breast cancer. Warm compresses. Antibiotics. May require surgical removal |
|
Intraductal papilloma |
Occurs most often in women 40-55. Benign process in epithelial lining of duct, forming a pedunculated outgrowth of tissue. Trauma and erosion within the duct, bloody or serous nipple discharge. Mass is rarely palpable. Must rule out breast cancer. |
|
Gynecomastia |
Benign condition of breast enlargement in men. Can be result of a primary cancer or drugs, aging, obesity, underlying disease causing estrogen excess, androgen deficiency. |
|
Modifiable risk factors for breast cancer |
Alcohol use, oral contraceptive use, have first child after age 30, obesity, hormone replacement therapy |
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Breast cancer |
Most common cancer in women. Non tender, immobile mass in upper quadrant of breast. Early detection is key to effective treatment and survival. Most common sites of mets are bone, lungs, brain and liver. BRCA1, BRCA2 genetic predisposition |
|
Elevated alkaline phosphate and calcium equals |
Bone mets |
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Breast cancer in men |
Usually presents as hard, painless, subareolar mass. Should be carefully evaluated. Treatment is the same as for women at similar stage. |
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Breast cancer screenings |
Screening mammogram for women age 40 and older. Clinical breast exam at least every 3 years for women age 20-40 |
|
Options for high risk women |
Close surveillance. Annual mammography and clinical breast exam. Annual breast MRI screening. Prophylactic mastectomy. Prophylactic oophorectomy. Anti estrogen chemopreventive drugs. |
|
Care of the patient with a breast mass |
Develop coping strategies (support persons, support groups). Decreasing risk for mets. Surgical management. Radiation/chemotherapy. Drug/hormone therapy. Stem cell transplant. |
|
Mastectomy |
Lumpectomy - tumor removal. Sentinel lymph node biopsy - injection of a dye and cancerous nodes are removed. Mastectomy - removal of breast. Radical mastectomy - removal of breast and nodes. |
|
Mastectomy post op care |
Focus on relieving anxiety. Drainage tube. Mobility restrictions. Address body image issues. Avoid using affected arm for BP, injections, blood draws. Hand wall climbing. Elevate head of bed. Arm elevated to enhance lymphatic flow. Support arm initially when ambulating |
|
Endometriosis |
Endometrial tissue implantation outside the uterine cavity |
|
Most common symptom of endometriosis |
Pain, peaking just before menstrual flow |
|
Treatment of endometriosis |
Reduction of pain, restoration of sexual function, decrease in anxiety, education, prevention of self-concept disturbance r/t infertility |
|
Dysfunctional uterine bleeding |
Excessive and frequent bleeding - most common at beginning or end of a woman's reproductive years |
|
Treatment of dysfunctional uterine bleeding |
Prevention or treatment of anemia, control of bleeding via surgical or nonsurgical methods (hormone replacement, ablation, hysterectomy if all else fails) |
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Vulvovaginitis |
Inflammation of lower genital tract resulting from imbalance of hormones and flora in vagina and vulva |
|
Characteristics of vulvovaginitis |
Itching, change in vaginal discharge, odor or lesions |
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Toxic shock syndrome (TSS) |
Usually results from menstruation and tampon use - can be fatal. *Staphylococcus aureus. |
|
Symptoms of toxic shock syndrome |
Develops within 5 days after menstruation. Fever, rash, my alias, sore throat, edema, hypotension |
|
Treatment of TSS |
Focuses on removal of infection source. Change tampon every 8 hrs |
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Pelvic organ prolapse |
Pelvic organ muscles can become weak and no longer able to hold organ in place. Can be uterine, cystic electronic or rectocele. Pts often report the feeling of "something falling out" |
|
Symptoms of pelvic organ prolapse |
Dyspareunia (painful intercourse), backache, heaviness or pressure in pelvis, bowel or bladder problems |
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Treatment of pelvic organ prolapse |
Focuses on degree of POF. Conservative treatment is preferred over surgical treatment when possible. Kegal exercises, pessaires, intravaginal estrogen therapy |
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Uterine leiomyoma |
Benign solid growing tumors. Unknown cause. May not need treatment if asymptomatic. Nonsurgical/surgical management |
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Colporrhaphy |
Vaginal wall repair (minor surgery) For discomfort - heating pad, warm compresses, hot bath |
|
Men should have what vaccine to prevent sterility issues |
MMR (mumps can cause orchitis - infection of testes, and sterility) |
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Priority assessments for reproductive system |
Pain, bleeding, discharge, masses |
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During physical assessment of women, what requires further evaluation |
Increased size of uterus |
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Bimanual pelvic examination |
Feels for enlarged uterus and masses |
|
Prior to Pap smear |
Avoid anything that could interfere with outcome of pathology study (no douching, vaginal meds or deodorants, no sex for 24 hrs prior) |
|
What age is recommended for all screenings in women |
21 |
|
Hormone levels studies done when |
If women have missed menstrual cycles |
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Elevated result of what test will require further testing in men |
Prostate specific antigen (PSA) - men start getting this screening at age 40 but it is a routine test if they have an enlarged prostate |
|
After a laparascopy |
No strenuous activity for 7 days post op |
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After endometrial biopsy |
Report fever and chills immediately |
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After cervical biopsy |
No douching, Intercourse or tampon use until biopsy site is healed; rest for 24 hrs post procedure; no heaving lifting for 24-48 hrs |
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Which ethnic group has a higher frequency of developing testicular cancer |
Caucasian |
|
Teaching for someone scheduled for a routine mammogram |
If you might be pregnant, the test should be rescheduled; you should not eat or drink after midnight before your mammogram |
|
Does NOT increase a woman's chance of developing breast cancer |
Fibrocystic breast condition |
|
Uterine leiomyoma |
Benign solid growing tumors. Unknown cause. May not need treatment if asymptomatic but there is surgical and nonsurgical management |
|
Treatment of POP |
Conservative treatment preferred if possible. Kegal exercises, pessaires (attachment to hold up the organs), intravaginal estrogen therapy |
|
To avoid TSS |
Change tampon at least every 8 hours |
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Hysterectomy |
Many methods of removal including laparoscopically. Psychosocial assessment is essential! |
|
Postoperative hysterectomy care |
Management of vaginal bleeding (normal = pt saturates 1-2 pads per shift. Anything more than that = contact provider), monitor incisional intactness, urinary output and pain |
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Salpingo-oophorectomy |
Removal of uterus and ovaries. Psychosocial assessment!!! Pts have concerns with sexuality and libido. Teach about vaginal estrogen cream |
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Bartholin cyst |
Obstruction of the duct of the bartholin gland. Caused by infection, thickened mucus near ductal opening or trauma (lacerations) |
|
Treatment of bartholin cysts |
Pts may be asymptomatic or in extreme pain. May need simple incision and drainage (I&D). Obtain fluid sample for lab analysis |
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Cervical polyp |
Pedunculated tumors that arise from mucosa that extends through opening of cervical os |
|
Treatment of cervical polyps |
Pts may be asymptomatic but common symptoms are bleeding, leukorrhea. Usually removed during an office visit via clamp and cautery. Little or no discomfort during procedure |
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Endometrial (uterine) cancer |
Cancer of the inner uterine lining. Slow growing |
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Adenocarcinoma |
Most common type of tumor r/t endometrial cancer. Arises from the glandular part of endometrium |
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Main symptom of endometrial cancer |
Postmenopausal bleeding |
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Psychosocial care of pt with endometrial cancer |
Relationship with pt is key! Provide emotional support. Very traumatic to pt |
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Diagnostic assessment for endometrial cancer |
CA-125 tumor marker, transvaginal ultrasound, endometrial biopsy |
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Cervical cancer |
This form of cancer is a progression. Pts go from normal cervical cells to premalignnant changes in appearance of cervical cells (dysplasia), to changes in function and ultimately transform to cancer |
|
Most cases of cervical cancer are caused by |
Certain types of HPV |
|
Gardisil or Cervarix |
HPV vaccine for girls and women ages 9-26. Educate families with young girls about vaccination |
|
Risk factors for cervical cancer |
Smoking, multiple partners, first Intercourse before age 18 |
|
Brachytherapy |
Internal radiation delivery. Ensure applicator is in correct position. Radio Radioisotope remains in place for several minutes. Generally 2-5 times once or twice a week. Pt is NOT radioactive between treatments and there are no restrictions on interactions with others |
|
Normal after brachytherapy |
Vaginal bleeding |
|
Not normal after brachytherapy |
Constipation, elevated temp |
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Ovarian cancer |
Leading cause of death from female reproductive cancer (but not most common). Vague abdominal and GI symptoms. Survival rates are low due to late detection. Treatment involves surgery and chemo. BRCA1 and BRCA2 can test for predisposition |
|
Tests most likely to be ordered for patient with suspected endometrial cancer |
Transvaginal ultrasound and endometrial biopsy |
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Pt teaching before brachytherapy |
It will require a hospital stay. The purpose is to prevent recurrence of the disease. They will be isolated in private room while the isotope is in place |
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"Menopausal" definition |
A woman who has not had a period for 1 full year |
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"Perimenopausal" definition |
The months leading up to menopause |
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Normal psychological response after hysterectomy |
Grief reaction to removal of uterus, tubes and ovaries may be experienced |
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The nurse understands that which physical change may be expected by the patient who has undergone a total abdominal hysterectomy |
The patient will not longer have a period |
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A 51 yr old female who is Perimenopausal broke her arm after a fall in her home. She also reports progressive fatigue, insomnia and hot flashes. What is the priority assessment question to collect more data regarding pt's health history |
Do you engage in exercise? |
|
Cialis |
Helps with benign prostatic hyperplasia as well as erectile dysfunction (increases blood flow to area). Caution with pts presenting with MI and on cialis. If given nitroglycerin as both are vasodilators |
|
Benign prostatic hyperplasia |
Glandular units in the prostate multiple, resulting in enlargement of the prostate. Puts extra pressure on urethra |
|
Symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia |
Hyperirritable bladder, urinary urgency and frequency, hypertrophied bladder wall muscles, hydroureter, hydronephrosis, overflow urinary incontinence, nocturia |
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Bactrim |
Sulfa drug. Given for UTI before giving pt heavy duty antibiotics |
|
When taking five-alpha reductase inhibitor meds |
Monitor for orthostatic hypotension, liver problems, amylase lab levels |
|
Chance of erectile dysfunction with TURP |
80-85% |
|
If irrigating bladder and we see frank red blood |
Get a set of VS and notify provider |
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Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) |
Laparoscopic procedure |
|
Postoperative TURP |
Catheter with retention balloon placed into bladder. Traction via taping to pts abdomen or thigh. Uncomfortable urge to void continuously |
|
Postoperative monitoring for TURP |
Watch for bleeding. We do not want clots (once a clot forms, the prostate will bleed excessively). All fluids should be clear. If sodium levels start dropping, decrease amount of fluids being put in with bladder irrigation |
|
Distended bladder |
Irrigation needed |
|
Green light laser |
Laser cauterizes during procedure. Less risk than TURP. No overnight admission needed. No post op bleeding. Minimal risk of erectile dysfunction |
|
Prostate cancer |
Slow-growing predictable malignancy. First symptoms r/t bladder neck obstruction |
|
Assessment for prostate cancer |
Digital rectal exam, prostate specific antigen, biopsy to confirm |
|
Luteinizing releasing hormone |
To reduce testosterone and decrease related bone issues |
|
Erectile dysfunction |
Inability to achieve or maintain erections for sexual intercourse |
|
Assessment for ED |
Medical, social, sexual history; complete physical exam; duplex doppler ultrasonography test |
|
Risk factors for ED |
Diabetes, alcoholism, hypertension, atherosclerosis |
|
Testicular cancer |
Most common malignancy in men 15-34; curable with early detection by testicular self exam and treatment with combination chemotherapy. Be sensitive to pts of reproductive age - may want to salvage sperm. |
|
Hydrocele |
Cystic mass usually filled with straw-colored fluid forms around testis. Results from impaired lymphatic drainage of scrotum resulting in swelling of tissue surrounding testes |
|
Treatment of hydrocele |
Drainage via needle and syringe or surgical removal |
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Spermatocele |
Sperm containing cyst develops on epididymis alongside the testicle. Normally small and asymptomatic requiring no intervention. If large enough to cause discomfort, spermatocelectomy performed |
|
Varicocele |
Cluster of dilated veins occurring behind and above testis. Can cause infertility. Varicocelectomy performed through inguinal incision. Spermatic veins ligated in the cord |
|
Circumcision in infants almost always eliminates possibility of |
Cancer of the penis |
|
Cancer of the penis |
Painless, wartlike growth or ulcer. Excisional biopsy, radiation therapy, penectomy |
|
Phimosis and paraphimosis |
Constricted prepuce that cannot be retracted over the gland. Medical emergency: requires immediate treatment (circumcision, warm bath to allow dressing to loosen, barbiturate sleeping meds) |
|
Foley catheter care for uncircumcised pts |
Ensure foreskin is back down after Foley placement. If skin left up, it can obstruct blood flow |
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Priapism |
Uncontrolled and long maintained erection without sexual desire. Can occur as result of: thrombosis, leukemia, sickle cell disease, spinal cord injury and as a side effect of cialis or viagra |
|
Treatment of priapism |
Multiple injections of epinephrine |
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Prostatitis |
Inflammation of prostate gland. Acute or chronic |
|
Epididymitis |
Inflammation of epididymis resulting from infection (STDs) or trauma. Treatment: bedrest, elevation of scrotum, scrotal support when ambulating |
|
Orchitis |
Acute testicular inflammation resulting from trauma or infection. Mumps orchitis - can cause sterility. Treatment: bedrest with scrotal elevation, application of ice, analgesics and antibiotics |
|
Priority for care of pts with reproductive problems |
Be sensitive to situation. Pts often embarrassed to talk about it |
|
Expected finding in pt with BPH |
Distended bladder |
|
Medications used to treat BPH |
Can take several weeks to reach full effect |
|
Priority interventions after TURP |
Assess for signs of infection, check urine output every 2 hrs, remind pt that urine will be blood tinged, admin pain and antispasmodic drugs as needed |
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An older male pt is being evaluated for hydronephrosis. What priority health history question will the nurse ask? |
Have you had a recent UTI? |
|
Priority concern after TURP |
Hemorrhage |
|
Transgender |
An inner sense of being born in the wrong body |
|
Transsexual |
A person who has modified his or her natal body to match the appropriate gender identity either through cosmetic, hormonal or surgical means |
|
Natal sex |
A person's genital Anatomy at birth |
|
Gender dysphoria |
Discomfort with one's natal sex |
|
Problems associated with transgender pts |
Drug and alcohol abuse, violence, relationship abuse |
|
Important with transgender pts |
Ask how they would like to be addressed. Use correct pronouns. Remain non-judgmental |
|
Gender reassignment |
Can take several years to complete |
|
Health history assessment for transgender pts |
Ask about interventions pt has used if any; inquire about use of drug therapy; record surgical history; pts in transition will need to be assessed for any interventions, like catheter placement |
|
Patients in transition |
Will need screenings pertaining to whatever body parts that still apply (prostate, breast exams?) |
|
Psychosocial assessment of transgender pts |
Ask specific questions to determine what factors may affect care; reassure patient regarding confidentiality; evidence of abuse must be reported by law |
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Nonsurgical management of transgender pts |
Drug therapy, reproductive health options, voice and communication therapy for MtF |
|
Surgical management of transgender pts |
Gender reassignment surgery, much can be done under epidural anesthesia - post op ensure pt is assisted when getting out of bed for the first time |
|
Community based care for transgender pts |
Teach pts that ongoing follow up is needed to maintain health and detect any complications; assess support systems and coping mechanisms; collaborate with care manager; urogenital care needed for pts who have gender reassignment surgery; preventive health screenings are important!!!!! |
|
MtF drug therapy |
Estrogen therapy (estradiol, transdermal estrogen) - DVT risk; androgen reducing agents, block testosterone (Aldactone, Proscar, zoladex) - Aldactone also used as diuretic to help with BP |
|
FtM drug therapy |
Testosterone therapy (andriol, androgel) - if pts have heart palpitations, get EKG! |
|
How is Zoladex given |
Subcu injection (androgen reducing agent for MtF transition) |
|
Which patient teaching about testosterone therapy will the nurse provide to a female transitioning to male (FtM) patient |
Avoid sharing needles as this can transmit HIV or hepatitis. A lot of these meds are given as injections |
|
More susceptible to STDs |
Women |
|
Syphilis |
Caused by T. Pallidum; transmitted by sexual contact or kissing; 4 stages; wear gloves for any visible signs of the disease like chancres or scaly rash |
|
Primary phase of syphilis |
Chancre, develops at site of innoculation, highly infectious, spreads throughout the body, lasts up to 6 weeks |
|
Second stage of syphilis |
Develops 6 wks to 6 months, vague symptoms, spirochetes circulate throughout the blood, malaise, low grade fever, HA, sore throat, pustules, highly contagious |
|
Latent stage of syphilis |
Early latent = first year, late latent = 4-20 years, infectious only to fetus, can affect mental capabilities |
|
Testing for syphilis |
VDRL, if positive, FTA-ABS (fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption). Immediate treatment with penicillin |
|
Complications of syphilis |
Can become systemic and cause serious complications including death |
|
Palmar and plantar secondary syphilis |
Contact precautions!!!!! |
|
Genital herpes |
Viral infection - acute, recurring, incurable. When immune system is compromised, outbreak more likely |
|
Assessment of genital herpes |
History, physical exam, viral culture |
|
Treatment of genital herpes |
Address symptoms, decrease discomfort, promote healing, decrease viral shedding, prevent transmission, refer to a support group. If mother has suspected genital herpes, vaginal delivery is not allowed |
|
Condylomata acuminata (genital warts) |
Caused by certain types of HPV. Single, small papillary growth that may grow into large, cauliflower like masses (will keep growing, removal may be needed). |
|
Treatment of genital warts |
Remove warts, treat symptoms, prevent development of atypical or dysplastic cells, annual PAP recommended due to strong link of warts and dysplasia of cervix |
|
Chlamydia infection |
Chlamydia trachomatis - intracellular bacterium. Reportable to health dept. Females often asymptomatic (70%) but symptoms include discharge, painful urination |
|
Treatment of chlamydia |
Zithromax 1G orally, single dose treatment |
|
Complications of chlamydia |
Any infection or inflammation of reproductive tract can cause infertility issues later in life |
|
Gonorrhea |
Seuxally transmitted bacterial infection; possible anal and oral manifestations. Many pts often embarrassed to go to primary care Dr with these symptoms and will end up in ED |
|
Symptoms of gonorrhea is women |
Change in vaginal discharge, urinary frequency or dysuria, ascending spread that can cause endometritis, salpingitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease |
|
Symptoms of gonorrhea in men |
Dysuria and penile discharge |
|
Pelvic inflammatory disease |
Complex infectious process, organisms from lower genital tract migrate from endocervix upward through uterine cavity into fallopian tubes |
|
Infections related to PID |
Endometritis, salpingitis, oophoritis, parametritis, peritonitis |
|
Complications of PID |
Must rule out ectopic pregnancy and appendicitis. STDs are most often (but not always) responsible for PID. Sepsis and death can occur if treatment is delayed or inadequate. Internal scarring remains even after treatment and can cause problems in fallopian tubes affecting fertility |
|
What position is most comfortable for pts with PID |
Semi fowlers |
|
Risk factors for PID |
Multiple sexual partners, under age 26, IUD within 3 weeks, smoking, history of STDs (alcohol is NOT a risk factor) |
|
HPV |
Many different strains of virus (over 100); affects 80% of all women by age 30. 90% of healthy people clear virus on their own but this can take up to 3 years. Routine pap is important for monitoring |
|
PID medication treatment |
Doxycycline (vibramycin) 100 mg twice a day for 14 days OR ceftriaxone (rocephin) IM one time dose if pt is homeless or has no access to medicine |
|
Discharge teaching for pt with PID |
Abstain from sexual intercourse, check temp twice a day, make follow up appt with provider within 72 hrs, take all medications as directed |
|
Estrogen medication |
Estradiol (estrace): used for relief of postmenopausal symptoms. Prolonged use can contribute to endometrial and ovarian cancers. Risk for MI, PE, DVT, stroke. Client teaching - take med at same time each day. Report menstrual changes (dysmenorrhea, amenorrhea, breakthrough bleeding) and breast changes. Annual breast and gynecologic exam |
|
Medroxyprogesterone (Provera) |
For dysfunctional uterine bleeding, amenorrhea rt hormonal imbalance and endometriosis and advanced endometrial cancer |
|
Side effects of medroxyprogesterone |
Breast cancer, thromboembolic events, breakthrough bleeding, edema, jaundice, migraines |
|
Client teaching for medroxyprogesterone |
Anticipate withdrawal bleeding 3-7 days after stopping med. Stop taking immediately if pregnancy is suspected (conception should be delayed 3 months following use). |
|
Testosterone (androderm 50, testopel) |
To treat: Postmenopausal breast cancer, delayed puberty in boys, muscle wasting in aids pts, androgen replacement in testicular failure and transgender transitions. Monitor women for signs of masculinization |
|
Testosterone side effects |
Edema from Salt and water retention, epiphyseal closure, weight gain, deepening of voice, increased facial hair, cessation of menses |
|
Client teaching for testosterone |
When using gel formations, wash hands after every application because of possibility of skin to skin transfer; inject IM formulations into large muscles and rotate sites. Reduce cholesterol in diet, advise clients about abuse potential |
|
5-alpha reductase inhibitors |
Finasteride (proscar): treats benign prostatic hyperplasia |
|
Side effects of 5-alpha reductase inhibitors |
Decreased libido, gynecomastia, orthostatic hypotension |
|
Teaching for 5-alpha reductase inhibitors |
Therapeutic effects may take 6 months or longer |
|
Alpha1-adrenergic antagonist |
Tamsulosin (flomax): treats benign prostatic hyperplasia, thus increasing urinary flow |
|
Side effects of tamsulosin |
Hypotension, sleepiness, problems with ejaculation |
|
Client teaching for tamsulosin |
Advise clients to take medication 30 min after a meal at same time each day |
|
Sildenafil (viagra) |
Treats erectile dysfunction (it is a PDE5 inhibitor). Side effects are MI, sudden death, priapism. Combined use with organic nitrates can lead to fatal hypotension |
|
The nurse is interviewing a 52 yr old woman who reports irregular and decreased flow of menses for several months. Which question does the nurse ask? |
Are you having any discomfort during intercourse? |
|
The nurse is assisting a patient to assume the correct position for a hysteroscopy procedure. Which position is correct? |
Lithotomy position |
|
An insufficient estrogen level is related to what condition? |
Osteoporosis |
|
A male patient had mumps as a child which caused orchitis. Which potential complication could result? |
Testicular atrophy |
|
A male patient reports that he has decreased libido. The nurse assesses for which factors related to this condition? |
- tobacco use - alcohol consumption - illicit drug use |
|
Most diseases that alter a woman's metabolism or nutrition can result in which condition? |
Amenorrhea |
|
A 60 yr old female patient informs the nurse that she has experienced some vaginal changes since menopause. What gynecologic change is the patient most likely to report? |
Vaginal dryness |
|
The mother of a 17 year old adolescent girl tells the nurse that her daughter has been purging, showing anorexic behavior and continuously exercising. Based on the mother's report, which question related to reproduction would the nurse ask the girl? |
When was your last normal menstrual period? |
|
A 29 year old patient has strictures and adhesions in her fallopian tubes. This may be a result of which condition? |
Pelvic inflammatory disease |
|
In a patient with a reproductive health problem, what health and lifestyle habits would the nurse assess? |
- diet - exercise pattern - sleep pattern |
|
A patient is diagnosed with a chlamydial infection but is reluctant to spend the money for treatment because she is asymptomatic and does not have a job or health insurance. The nurse advises her that chlamydial infections can result in which condition? |
Female infertility |
|
A 40 yr old woman has heavy vaginal bleeding. Which question is the priority in evaluating the patient's chief complaint? |
Are you feeling weak, dizzy or lightheaded? |
|
A 37 year old patient reports abdominal bleeding not related to her menstrual cycle. The nurse would ask the patient about which associated symptoms? |
- pain - change in bowel habits - abdominal fullness - urinary difficulties |
|
For a patient with low testosterone level, which symptom is the patient most likely to report? |
Change in sexual performance |
|
The Healthcare provider has just informed the patient about the diagnosis and complications of salpingitis. Which intervention is the nurse most likely to use with the patient? |
Use empathetic listening for feelings related to possible infertility |
|
What features would be considered normal findings for the scrotum of a young white male? |
- suspended below the pubic bone - contracts with exposure to cold - sparse hair follicles |
|
What is the function of the prostate gland? |
Secretes fluid to enhance sperm movement |
|
A 72 year old patient admitted to the med surg unit tells the nurse that he has benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which question will the nurse ask? |
Are you having urinary incontinence or frequency at night? |
|
A young woman reports that she has a genital discharge causing irritation and odor. She feels embarrassed but insists she has not had recent sexual relations. Which question is the nurse most likely to ask? |
Have you recently taken any antibiotic medications? |
|
The nurse is interviewing a patient to who reports a discharge from his penis thay started 3 days ago. What does the nurse ask regarding this problem? |
- has your sexual partner noticed a discharge? - does the discharge have an odor? - what is the consistency of the discharge? |
|
A nurse is working in an ambulatory clinic. Which patient is most likely to need to be prepared for a pelvic examination? |
62 year old who reports resumption of menses |
|
A 31 year old is diagnosed with salpingitis. Which area of the reproductive system is most affected by this condition? |
Fallopian tubes |
|
Which diagnostic test is used to differentiate solid tissue masses from cystic or hemorrhagic structures in the abdomen and pelvis? |
Computed tomography |
|
Which test detects cancerous and precancerous cells of the cervix? |
Pap smear |
|
A 79 year old man is being seen for difficulty voiding and some blood in the urine. Which is the first screening test likely to be done? |
Prostate specific antigen testing |
|
An African American male patient has a PSA level less than 2.5 ng/ml. Which information should the nurse give to the patient? |
PSA level less than 2.5 is generally considered normal |
|
A patient received treatment for prostate cancer. Which test is most likely to be ordered to monitor the disease after treatment? |
PSA test |
|
The patient reports fatigue and low libido. Based on the patient's report of symptoms, which lab result would the nurse seek out first? |
Red blood cell count |
|
Which patient is most likely to require an iron supplement? |
32 year old female with heavy menstrual bleeding and an IUD |
|
Which statement about PSA testing is true? |
It is used to screen for prostate cancer |
|
The nurse is teaching a patient about the contraindications for hysteroscopy. What does the nurse tell the patient? |
During the procedure, normal or abnormal cells can be pushed through the fallopian tubes and into your pelvic cavity. Therefore, pregnancy is contraindicated |
|
What test is used to assess tubal Anatomy and patency and uterine problems? |
Hysterosalpingography |
|
The nurse is caring for a patient who had a laparascopy. What is included in the postoperative care for this patient? |
- admin oral analgesics for incisional pain - instruct pt to change the small adhesive bandage as needed - teach pts to observe the incision for signs of infection or hematoma |
|
The nurse is helping a patient schedule an appointment for a hysteroscopy. When does the nurse advise the patient that the procedure should be done? |
5 days after menses have ceased |
|
Which man has the greatest risk for developing prostate cancer? |
Pts father was diagnosed and treated for prostate cancer at age 50 |
|
The nurse is assisting a patient who needs a pelvic examination. Which action will the nurse perform? |
Instruct to empty the urinary bladder |
|
A patient has just been informed that she has an abnormal pap smear and a positive HPV test. The nurse should be prepared to provide information about which topic? |
Increased risk for cervical cancer |
|
Which patient disclosure could result in rescheduling a hysterosalpingogram? |
Pt reports fever with malodorous vaginal discharge |
|
What preprocedural instructions would the nurse give the patient about a mammogram? |
Do not use lotions, creams or powder on breasts before the study |
|
What post-procedure instructions would the nurse give to a patient who just had a colposcopy? |
Do not use tampons and abstain from sexual intercourse for at least 1 week |
|
A patient needs to be scheduled for an endometrial biopsy to assess unusually heavy menstrual bleeding. Which question is most important to ask, in relation to scheduling the exam? |
What was the date of your last menstrual period and are you regular? |
|
What post-procedure instructions would the nurse give to a patient who had a prostate biopsy? |
Light rectal bleeding and blood in the urine or stools is expected for a few days |
|
For a patient with mild discomfort from fibrocystic breast condition, what will the nurse teach the patient about self care measures? |
Take analgesics and limit salt before menses to help decrease swelling |
|
A 22 year old woman is being seen for a self detected mass in her right breast. Clinical examination reveals an oval-shaped, freely mobile and rubbery lesion measuring 1cm x 2.5cm. What type of tumor is this most likely to be? |
Fibroadenoma |
|
A 33 year old woman reports that the skin over her left breast is reddened, warm and has swelling. These characteristics are typically found in which type of breast disorder? |
Inflammatory breast cancer |
|
What information does the nurse include about health risks for large breasted women? |
Increased risk for fungal infections and backaches |
|
A patient with FBC has just undergone fine needle aspiration to drain the cyst fluid and reduce pressure and pain. At what points does the nurse prepare patient education material about breast biopsy? |
- if fluid is not aspirated - if the mammogram shows suspicious findings - if the mass remains palpable after aspiration - if aspirated fluid reveals cancer cells |
|
A patient with FBC is prescribed drug therapy to manage symptoms. The nurse prepares teaching materials for which group of medications? |
Oral contraceptives, vitamin therapy, diuretics |
|
A 54 year old woman has identified a hard breast mass with irregular borders, redness and edema. She reports greenish brown nipple discharge and enlarge axillary nodes. Based on the patient's age and description of symptoms, what does the nurse suspect? |
Ductal ectasia |
|
The nurse notes in the electronic medical record that the patient has a round, firm, nontender, mobile breast mass not attached to breast tissue or the chest wall. What does this describe? |
Fibroadenoma |
|
The nurse is reviewing discharge instructions for a patient who had breast augmentation surgery. What does the nurse include in these instructions? |
- breasts will feel tight and sensitive, the breast skin may feel warm or itchy - anticipate having difficulty raising arm over head - walk every few hours to prevent DVT - expect some swelling for 3 to 4 weeks after surgery |
|
What is the most common breast dysfunction found in the male breast? |
Gynecomastia |
|
What does the nurse instruct the patient to do before a scheduled breast augmentation surgery? |
- stop smoking - avoid taking NSAIDS - avoid taking gingko biloba |
|
After surgery, a female patient has been told her breast tumor contains estrogen receptors. How will this type of cancer be treated? |
Hormonal therapy |
|
Which factor has the most influence on the choice for treatment of breast cancer? |
Extent and location of metastasis of the breast mass |
|
Which factor is the incidence of breast disease most closely related to? |
Aging |
|
Which combination of screening techniques is best for early detection of breast cancer? |
Mammogram Clinical breast exam Breast self awareness |
|
During which time should a patient perform a breast self exam? |
One week after menstrual period (For postmenopausal women, any time is best but follow a consistent schedule) |
|
Which factor makes the mammogram a more sensitive screening tool than other tests? |
Able to reveal masses too small to be palpated manually |
|
Correct actions for breast self exam? |
- lie down on your back and place your right arm behind your head - use three different levels of pressure - move around breasts in an up and down pattern - stand in front of a mirror, press hands firmly down on your hips and observe breasts |
|
Women who have a personal history of breast cancer are at high risk for developing recurrence if which factors are present? |
BRCA1, BRCA2, strong family history |
|
The nurse is instructing a patient with ductal ectasia about her risk for breast cancer. What does the nurse tell the patient? |
There is no increased risk for developing breast cancer |
|
A patient had a partial mastectomy. When teaching about care of the arm on the affected side, what does the nurse tell the patient? |
Keep the arm elevated so the elbow is above the shoulder and the wrist is above the elbow |
|
Which interventions would be used for a patient after a modified radical mastectomy? |
Teach signs and symptoms of infection and how to monitor for altered wound healing |
|
Prophylactic mastectomy would have what effect on a patient's risk for developing breast cancer? |
Reduces the risk for breast cancer |
|
Which woman had the highest risk for developing breast cancer? |
68 year old who takes hormone replacement therapy |
|
A patient found a mass in her breast 6 months ago. What question does the nurse ask related to possible metastases of potential cancer? |
Have you noticed any joint or bone pain or other changes in your body? |
|
What type of metastasis does an increased serum calcium and alkaline phosphatase levels suggest? |
Bone |
|
The nurse is caring for a patient who had a right sided modified radical mastectomy. Which task does the nurse delegate to the UAP? |
Assist the patient to ambulating the day after surgery |
|
A patient is lying in bed after a mastectomy. How does the nurse position the patient? |
Head of the bed up at least 30 degrees with the affected arm elevated on a pillow |
|
A patient is one day postsurgery after a mastectomy and is anxious to begin the prescribed exercises. Which exercise is appropriate for the patient's first efforts? |
Squeeze the affected hand around a soft, round object |
|
Because of the common side effect of tamoxifen, what does the nurse suggest to the patient in taking this drug? |
Purchase a scale to monitor body weight |
|
What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient taking trastuzumab (Herceptin) for breast cancer? |
Obtain an order for baseline ECG |
|
The nurse is caring for a patient who is diagnosed with ductal ectasia. What is the primary goal of the nursing care? |
Reduce anxiety associated with the threat of breast cancer |
|
When assessing a patient with very large breasts, in addition to routine breast assessment, what specific assessment will the nurse also perform? |
Observe underneath the breast for fungal infection |
|
What is important information regarding breast cancer surveillance for a patient who had breast augmentation surgery? |
Implant displacement x-rays allow more complete examination |
|
Which intervention would address one of the modifiable risk factors for breast cancer? |
Discuss strategies to avoid weight gain and obesity |
|
What subjective symptoms would a nurse anticipate in a patient who had a prophylactic oophorectomy? |
Menopausal symptoms |
|
Which diagnostic test is considered the most definitive for diagnosing breast cancer? |
Breast biopsy |
|
A patient with what laboratory levels should avoid acupuncture therapy? |
Low white blood cell count |
|
What is the most important question the nurse will ask a UAP who is assisting a patient during brachytherapy? |
Is there any chance you could be pregnant? |
|
The nurse is designing a teaching plan for a patient who had surgery for breast cancer. What information does the nurse include in the plan? |
- do not use lotions or ointments on the area - delay using Deodorant under effected arm until healing is complete - report any increased heat and tenderness of the area to the surgeon - begin range of motion exercises 1 week after surgery |
|
For a patient with endometriosis, which supplement might offer relief of the muscle cramping? |
Magnesium |
|
A 20 year old woman is being evaluated for possible toxic shock syndrome. What question would the nurse ask? |
Do you use internal contraceptives? |
|
A patient tells the nurse thay she was told that she had a "chocolate" cyst. Which assessment is the nurse most likely to perform? |
Assess onset and description of pain |
|
A 22 year old reports abdominal pain that seems to start several days before her menstrual period. What questions does the nurse ask in order to obtain a thorough menstrual history? |
- how old were you when you started menstruation? - typically how long does your period last? - how would you describe your menstrual flow? |
|
What self management strategy would the nurse recommend to a patient to prevent vulvovaginitis? |
Avoid wearing tight fitting clothing |
|
A current treatment of non-emergent dysfunctional uterine bleeding includes which medication? |
Oral or patch contraceptives |
|
The nurse is teaching self care management to a 39 year old woman who had an abdominal all hysterectomy. Which point would be emphasized to avoid complications of this surgery? |
Take temperature twice a day for the first 3 days after surgery |
|
What types of exams are done to reveal the presence of uterine enlargement related to fibroids? |
- abdominal exam - vaginal exam - rectal exam - transvaginal ultrasound with saline infusion |
|
Example of a woman at greatest risk for developing pelvic organ prolapse? |
48 year old obese mother of four children |
|
Example of a woman at greatest risk for dysfunctional uterine bleeding? |
45 year old attorney with a stressful life |
|
Following a uterine embolization using a vascular closure device, what patient care would the nurse provide? |
- assist the ambulating 2 hrs after the procedure - assess patient's pain level and admin analgesics as needed - raise the head of the bed |
|
The nurse educates the patient for which diagnostic test that is used to evaluate for endometrial cancer? |
Endometrial biopsy |
|
A patient has dysfunctional uterine bleeding. During a pelvic examination, the provider determines the bleeding is acute and heavy. What is the nurse's priority action? |
Prepare to administer combination hormonal therapy |
|
What signs/symptoms does the nurse assess in a patient with dysfunctional uterine bleeding? |
Male hair pattern Thyroid enlargement Abdominal pain Abdominal masses |
|
What is the primary treatment for dysfunctional uterine bleeding in Perimenopausal women? |
Progestin or combination hormone therapy |
|
A patient has excessive bleeding from uterine fibroids. Which therapy stops the blood flow to the fibroids? |
Endometrial ablation |
|
A patient has undergone a total hysterectomy with vaginal repair. The nurse advises her about careful intercourse and which OTC product to decrease sexual discomfort related to intercourse? |
Water based lubricants |
|
The nurse suspects the patient has vulvovaginitis. Based on knowledge about the common causes of vulvovaginitis, which question would the nurse ask? |
Have you recently been taking antibiotics? |
|
The nurse sees that a patient has been advised by the health care provider to apply lindane (Kwell) to the affected area. What is a self care measures for this patient to ensure that the symptoms do not return after using the medication? |
Wash clothes, linens and disinfect the home environment |
|
A patient with a fever, myalgia, sore throat and sunburn like rash is admitted with a diagnosis of TSS. What additional clinical manifestation should the nurse assess for? |
Hypotension |
|
What preventive measures regarding TSS should the nurse include? |
Avoid use of superabsorbent tampons Use sanitary napkins at night Avoid using internal contraceptives |
|
What organism is frequently associated with TSS when it occurs as a menstrually related infection? |
Staph. Aureus |
|
A patient reports the sensation of feeling as if something is "falling out" along with painful intercourse, backache and a feeling of heaviness or pressure in the pelvis. Which question does the nurse ask to assess for cystocele? |
Are you having urinary frequency or urgency? |
|
After an anterior colporrhaphy, what patient statement indicates that the procedure has achieved the desired therapeutic outcome? |
I have good control over my urination |
|
A patient had a posterior colporrhaphy. What is included in the nursing care of this patient? |
Admin pain meds before a BM Instruct to avoid straining during a BM Provide sitz baths Promote a low-residue (low fiber) diet |
|
The nurse is giving discharge teaching to a patient who had a transvaginal repair for pelvic organ prolapse using a surgical mesh. What does the nurse include? |
Abstain from sexual intercourse for 6 weeks |
|
A patient is diagnosed with uterine leiomyomas. What does the nurse expect to see in the documentation for this patient as the chief presenting symptom? |
Heavy vaginal bleeding |
|
A patient with uterine leiomyomas reports a feeling of pelvic pressure, constipation and urinary retention. What does the nurse assess for to further evaluate the patient's symptoms? |
Assess the abdomen for distention or enlargement |
|
A patient has had a pelvic examination and needs additional diagnostic test for possible uterine leiomyomas. The nurse prepares the patient design which first choice diagnostic test? |
Transvaginal ultrasound |
|
What is the priority nursing care most commonly seen preoperatively and postoperative in a patient with leiomyomas? |
Monitoring for bleeding |
|
What disease is strongly associated with prolonged exposure to estrogen without the protective effects of progesterone? |
Endometrial cancer |
|
A patient with cancer has also been diagnosed with uterine leiomyomas. Which procedure does the nurse prepare the patient for? |
Hysterectomy |
|
What post-procedure information does the nurse provide to the patient after a total abdominal hysterectomy? |
Avoid sitting for prolonged periods Do not lift anything heavier than 5-10 lbs When sitting, do not cross legs |
|
After receiving a total abdominal hysterectomy, which patient demeanor is the strongest indicator that there is a need for psychological referral? |
Disheveled and lackluster and displays lack of interest in questions |
|
The nurse is giving discharge teaching to a woman who had a local cervical ablation. What information would be included? |
Report heavy vaginal bleeding or foul smelling drainage Showering is permitted but no tub baths Avoid lifting heavy objects for 3 wks |
|
A patient with swelling in the perineum area is diagnosed with a bartholin cyst. Nonsurgical management is recommended. What does the nurse instruct the patient to do? |
Apply moist heat (sitz baths, hot wet packs) to the vulva |
|
What diagnostic tests are considered the gold standard tests for determining the presence of endometrial thickening and cancer? |
Transvaginal ultrasound and endometrial biopsy |
|
The surgical procedure for stage 1 disease of endometrial cancer involves the removal of which components? |
Uterus Fallopian tubes Ovaries |
|
The nurse is caring for a patient with a radioactive implant in the uterus. Which instruction will the nurse give to the UAP? |
Patient is on bedrest and excessive movement is restricted |
|
A patient is receiving external radiation therapy for treatment of endometrial cancer. What task does the nurse delegate to the UAP? |
Assist the patient to ambulate if she feels tired or fatigued |
|
Which classic symptom is indicative of invasive gynecologic cancer in an older patient? |
Painless vaginal bleeding |
|
The nurse is taking a history on a patient with probable gynecologic cancer. Which clinical manifestation is a sign of metastasis? |
Dysuria |
|
Which conditions does the nurse tell the patient to immediately report to the surgeon following a total abdominal hysterectomy? |
Vaginal drainage that becomes thicker or foul smelling Temp over 100 Burning during urination |
|
A patient had a total abdominal hysterectomy. Which patient behavior is the best indicator that she is coping and adapting successfully? |
Asks questions about the wound care but seems reluctant to do self care |
|
The home health nurse is reviewing a patient's medication list and sees that the patient was given doxorubicin (Adriamycin) at the hospital. What gynecologic diagnosis would the nurse expect to see? |
Endometrial cancer |
|
Which surgical procedure is most likely to induce menopausal symptoms? |
Bilateral Salpingo-oophorectomy |
|
What information does the nurse include to a patient receiving brachytherapy for cervical cancer? |
You are not radioactive between treatments Report any blood in the urine or several diarrhea immediately You will be on bedrest during the treatment session |
|
What is the primary factor for the low survival rates for patients diagnosed with ovarian cancer? |
Symptoms are mild and vague therefore the cancer is often not detected until on the late stage |
|
Young women who have Intercourse as teenagers and/or have multiple sex partners are at high risk for what disease? |
Cervical cancer |
|
A fast food and high fat diet places the patient at risk for which disorder? |
Cancer of the ovaries |
|
A patient tells the nurse that he was diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which symptoms is the patient most likely to report? |
Trouble passing urine |
|
The nurse teaches a patient with BPH to follow which instructions? |
Avoid diuretics Avoid antihistamines Avoid caffeine Avoid drinking large amounts of fluid in a short time |
|
What type of surgery is most commonly used to treat BPH |
Transurethral resection of the prostate |
|
The nurse is preparing to assess and obese patient who reports subjective symptoms and urinary patterns associates with BPH. Which technique does the nurse use to perform the physical assessment? |
Instruct the patient to void and then use the bedside ultrasound bladder scan |
|
The nurse is interviewing a patient to determine presence of lower urinary tract symptoms associated with BPH. Which questions would the nurse ask? |
Do you have difficulty starting and continuing urination? Reduced force and size of urinary the? Post void dribbling or leaking? How many times to you get up at night to urinate? Blood at the start or end of voiding? |
|
The advanced practice nurse is preparing to examine a patient's prostate gland. Before the exam, what does the nurse tell the patient? |
The gland will be massaged to obtain a fluid sample for possible prostatitis |
|
What does an elevated prostate specific antigen level and serum acid phosphatase level indicate? |
Prostate cancer |
|
A patient is taking tamsulosin (Flomax). What question does the nurse ask to determine if medication is achieving the desired therapeutic effect? |
Are you having any trouble passing urine? |
|
Which assessment tool is commonly used to ask patients about the effect of urinary symptoms in their quality of life? |
International prostate symptom score |
|
A patient has an enlarged prostate. Which procedure does the nurse anticipate the health care provider will order to test for bladder obstruction? |
Urodynamic pressure flow study |
|
The nurse is designing a teaching plan for a patient with an enlarged prostate and obstructive symptoms. What does the nurse teach the patient to avoid? |
Diuretics |
|
Patients with which condition meet the criteria for having a TURP? |
Acute urinary retention Hydronephrosis Hematuria |
|
A patient had a TURP and has a three way urinary catheter taped to the left thigh. What does the nurse instruct about the position of the left leg? |
Keep the leg straight |
|
An older patient is scheduled for annual physical including a PSA and a digital rectal examination. How are these two tests scheduled for the patient? |
PSA is drawn before the DRE is performed |
|
The nurse notes bright red blood with numerous clots in the urinary drainage bag for a patient who had a TURP. After notifying the surgeon, what does the nurse do next? |
Irrigate the catheter with normal saline per protocol |
|
The nurse is giving discharge instructions to a patient who had a TURP. What does the nurse include in the instructions? |
Reassurance that loss of control of urination or dribbling of urine is temporary |
|
A nurse is giving instructions to UAP about hygienic care for an older patient who is uncircumcised. What does the nurse instruct the UAP to do? |
Replace the foreskin over the penis after bathing |
|
An older patient reports that he has an enlarged prostate and chronic urinary retention but declines to seek treatment because "it's been that way for a long time." The nurse would encourage a follow up appointment to prevent which complication of this chronic condition? |
Hydronephrosis |
|
The nurse is teaching a patient who is taking finasteride (Proscar), a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor. What medication side effects does the nurse include in the teaching? |
ED Dizziness Decreased libido |
|
The nurse notes that the patient has just started taking an alpha blocker medication to treat BPH. What instruction, related to the medication side effects, will the nurse give to the UAP who will assist the patient with ADLs? |
Have him sit up slowly and pause before standing |
|
The nurse hears in shift report that the patient had a transurethral needle ablation. Which question would the nurse ask the patient to determine if the procedure achieved the intended therapeutic goal? |
Have your problems with urination been resolved? |
|
A patient is undergoing large volume bladder irrigation. During and after the procedure, the nurse observes the patient for confusion, muscle weakness and increased GI motility related to which potentially adverse effect of large volume irrigation? |
Hyponatremia |
|
What instructions does the nurse give the UAP regarding a TURP catheter? |
Maintain traction on the catheter |
|
The patient had a TURP several days ago and the urinary catheter was removed 6 hours ago. What sign/symptom must be resolved before the patient is discharged? |
Patient has not voided since the catheter was removed |
|
Example of a patient at high risk for prostate cancer? |
75 year old African American man whose brother had prostate cancer |
|
The nurse is reviewing PSA results for a patient who had a prostatectomy for prostate cancer several weeks ago. The PSA level is 40 ng/ml. How does the nurse interpret this data? |
The cancer is most likely reccurring |
|
What are common serum tumor markers that confirm a diagnosis of testicular cancer? |
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) Alpha fetoprotein (AFP) Beta human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) |
|
The nurse is reviewing the lab results for a patient with prostate cancer. Which lab result suggests metastasis to the bone? |
Elevated serum alkaline phosphatase |
|
A patient had a transrectal ultrasound with biopsy earlier in the day. What urine characteristic does the nurse expect to see? |
Light pink urine |
|
The nurse is teaching a patient diagnosed with ED about the common treatments and therapies. Which topics does the nurse include? |
PDE-5 inhibitors Intrauretheral applications Vacuum devices Penile implants |
|
During the first 24 hours after prostatectomy, what is the priority assessment in the nursing care plan? |
Hemorrhage |
|
An african american patient tells the nurse that his father and older brother were diagnosed with prostate cancer in their 50s. What should the nurse tell the patient? |
Your genetic and racial risk factors suggest testing should begin at age 40 |
|
The nurse is teaching a patient at risk for prostate cancer about food sources of omega 3 fatty acids. Which food does the nurse suggest? |
Fish |
|
Which sign or symptom is associated with advanced prostate cancer? |
Swollen groin lymph nodes |
|
What are common sites of metastasis for prostate cancer? |
Bones of the pelvis Liver Lungs |
|
A patient had a transrectal ultrasound with biopsy. After this procedure, what does the nurse instruct the patient to do? |
Report fever, chills, bloody urine and any difficulty voiding Avoid strenuous physical activity |
|
A patient was just told he has prostate cancer and the physician told him to watch and wait. What does this mean? |
Prostate cancer is slow growing. The patient need regular DRE and PSA testing and should watch for symptoms |
|
After an open radical prostatectomy, the nurse notes that the penis and scrotum are swollen. What does the nurse do next? |
Elevate the scrotum and penis and intermittently apply ice to the area for 24-48 hrs |
|
What nursing implication is related to brachytherapy? |
Teach the patient that fatigue is common but should pass after several months. |
|
What possible side effects of luteinizing releasing hormone agonist leuprolide (Lupron) does the nurse advise the patient about? |
ED |
|
A patient reports having uncomfortable and unsettling episodes of hot flashes after receiving hormonal therapy for prostate cancer. To alleviate this symptom, which prescription does the nurse assist the patient in obtaining? |
Hormonal inhibitor drug like megestrol acetate (Megace) |
|
What does the nurse include in the teaching regarding self care after a radical prostatectomy? |
How to care for indwelling catheter and manifestations of infection Walk short distances Maintain an upright position and do not walk bent or flexed Shower rather than soak in a bathtub for the first 2-3 weeks |
|
A patient is diagnosed with prostatitis. Which intervention does the nurse use to alleviate the discomfort associated with this condition? |
Assist with comfort measures such as sitz baths for pain |
|
A patient is diagnosed with acute bacterial prostatitis. What assessment findings does the nurse expect to find? |
Fever Chills Dysuria Urethral discharge |
|
The patient is prescribed trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra) for prostatitis. What lab result indicates the medication is achieving the desired therapeutic effect? |
Normalization of white blood cell count |
|
What are possible causes of organic ED? |
Medications for hypertension Thyroid disorders Diabetes mellitus |
|
A patient reports having ED and is seeking a prescription for sildenafil (Viagra). Because of the potential for dangerous drug to drug interactions, the nurse asks the patient specifically if he takes which type of drug? |
Nitrates |
|
A patient who has testicular cancer is likely to have which common problem? |
Azoospermia |
|
The practitioner finds a lump, which the patient reports is painless, in a young Caucasian male patient. This finding is the most common manifestation of which disease? |
Testicular cancer |
|
A young patient has been diagnosed with testicular cancer. What information does the nurse give the patient and his wife regarding sperm storage? |
Arrangements for sperm storage should be made as soon as possible after diagnosis |
|
A patient had an open retro peritoneal lymph node dissection. What instructions does the nurse give to the patient? |
Do not drive a car for several weeks Perform monthly testicular self exams on the remaining testes Have follow up diagnostic testing for at least 3 years after the surgery |
|
Which patient statement most accurately describes identifying oneself as transgender? |
"Since childhood, I have always felt like I was born into the wrong body" |
|
According to the American psychiatric association, which circumstance best describes gender identity? |
The person takes on the social roles of mother, wife and sister |
|
The nurse reads in the patient's medical record that the patient has gender dysphoria. Which question is the nurse most likely to first ask the patient? |
"How do you prefer to be addressed?" |
|
A male patient with gender dysphoria confides in the nurse that he notices that his 4 year old son shows a preference for playing with dolls and other traditional girls toys. What is the nurse's best response? |
When you see him playing with dolls, how does that make you feel? |
|
The nursing student is writing a report about caring for a 56 year old patient with diabetes who identifies himself as transgender. Which sentence reflects proper use of terminology? |
A 56 year old transgender patient was admitted for complications due to diabetes. |
|
Which comment from a family member would be most strongly associated with the term natal sex? |
My brother just called me. His wife delivered a healthy baby girl this morning. |
|
Which terms refer specifically to sexual orientation? |
Lesbian Gay Bisexual |
|
How does the nurse interpret the term genderqueer? |
Patient's gender identity does not conform to male or female |
|
In caring for transgender patients, under which circumstance would the nurse make a clinical judgment and decide to forego extensive questioning about gender identity? |
Needs treatment for a sprained ankle sustained during a soccer game |
|
A patient needs an indwelling catheter. The patient's natal sex is male but the patient appears female. What should the nurse do first? |
Introduce self, verify patient's identity by checking name band and explain the procedure for catheterization |
|
The staff is continuously debating about how to direct LGBTQ patients to public restrooms. What should the nursing staff do? |
Advocate for creation of designated unisex or single stall restrooms |
|
A nurse inadvertently makes an error in the name of a transgender patient. What should the nurse do? |
Self correct and continue with care rather than a prolonged apology |
|
The nurse is taking a health history and inquiring about any interventions that the patient has had for gender reassignment. Which questions would the nurse include? |
Have you made any changes in gender expression, such as clothes or hairstyle? Have you ever had psychotherapy for body image or to strengthen coping mechanisms? Are you currently taking any hormonal therapy to feminize or masculinize your body? Have you had or considered having surgery to change sexual characteristics? |
|
For a patient who is taking estrogen therapy, which vital signs is the most important to assess for the detection of a health risk that can be caused by this therapy? |
Blood pressure |
|
The nurse is caring for an older transgender adult who transitioned years ago from MtF. Which question is the nurse most likely to ask? |
Do you experience urinary retention or dribbling? |
|
The nurse must insert a urinary catheter in a transgender pt who is in early transition from female to male. The patient appears to be male and identifies self as male. Why would the nurse assess the genitalia prior to opening the sterile catheter kit? |
Genitals may not match physical appearance, so technique and equipment must be modified accordingly |
|
Examples of patients who would not meet the criteria for hormone therapy |
16 yr old with gender dysphoria since early childhood 35 yr old lesbian with history of suicide attempts 62 yr old with known gender dysphoria who has symptoms of dementia 22 yr old who has bisexual relationships but calls self queer/questioning |
|
A patient is considering estrogen therapy for MtF transition. What is an expected change that will occur with this therapy? |
Decreased testicular size |
|
A patient is taking estrogen therapy. Which patient report is cause for greatest concern? |
Tenderness and swelling in the calf |
|
The nurse sees that in addition to estrogen therapy, the patient is also taking spironolactone (Aldactone). Which laboratory result will the nurse assess to ensure the patient does not suffer adverse effects due to the medication? |
Serum potassium level |
|
What is an indication that testosterone therapy is having the desired effect? |
Nurse observes increased body hair |
|
What should be included in preoperative care for a MtF patient undergoing a vaginoplasty? |
Administer a fleet enema and laxatives as ordered Monitor and report hemoglobin and hematocrit results Administer preoperative antimicrobial to minimize infection |
|
The nurse is providing the first 12 hours of postoperative care for a MtF patient who underwent vaginoplasty with epidural anesthesia. What is an expected assessment finding? |
Patient is unable to move legs |
|
Which patient report indicates that the patient is experiencing the most serious complication of vaginoplasty? |
Reports leakage of stool from the vagina |
|
A FtM patient is seeking information about sex reassignment surgery. Which reconstructive surgery is the most difficult and least likely to yield patient satisfaction? |
Phalloplasty |
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What is the first symptoms of primary syphilis? |
Small painless, indurated, smooth, weeping lesion |
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A patient phones the clinic because of a onetime exposure to syphilis thay occurred about 6 weeks ago. He reports being asymptomatic and abstinent since the incident. What is the nurse's best response? |
The chancre can appear and then disappear so you must come in for testing |
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A patient has a pustular rash related to secondary syphilis. What instructions does the nurse give to the UAP? |
Gloves should be worn at all times when touching the patient |
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A patient is diagnosed with primary syphilis. The nurse prepares to administer and educate the patient about which treatment regimen? |
Benzathine penicillin G given intramuscularly as a single 2.4 million unit dose and follow up eval at 6, 12 and 24 months |
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A patient has no reaction to a penicillin skin test so the health care provider orders benzathine penicillin G intramuscularly. What does the nurse do immediately after the injection? |
Observe the patient for at least 30 minutes to detect any allergic reaction |
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The health care provider tells the nurse that a patient has Jarisch Herxheimer reaction. Which interventions does the nurse anticipate? |
Analgesics and antipyretics |
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A patient is diagnosed with late tertiary syphilis. In addition to benign lesions of the skin and mucous membranes, what other findings does the nurse expect to see documented in the patient's record? |
Cardiovascular syphilis |
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A patient is diagnosed with early latent syphilis. Which assessment will the nurse make related to the medication that is likely to be prescribed for the patient? |
Assess for allergies to penicillin |
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A patient reports possible exposure to syphilis. What screening tests are typically done first? |
Venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL) serum test and the more sensitive rapid plasma reagin (RPR) |
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Which STDs are reportable to the local health authorities in every state? |
Chlamydia Gonorrhea Syphilis Chancroid HIV |
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What is the causative organism of syphilis? |
Treponema pallidum |
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What sexually transmitted organisms are most often responsible for pelvic inflammatory disease? |
Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae |
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What are the goals of medication therapy used for treating genital herpes? |
Reduce symptoms Reduce the risk of transmission Reduce discomfort |
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Based on evidence from the US Preventive Task Force, which teaching strategy is most likely to yield a change in individual sexual behavior? |
Frequent high-intensity education and counseling |
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The nurse is teaching a patient being discharges after treatment for genital herpes. Which patient statement indicates a need for further teaching? |
After taking acyclovir (Zovirax), I will never have to worry about exposing my partner |
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A female patient is prescribed azithromycin (Zithromax) 1G orally in a single dose for treatment of Chlamydia. What additional information does the nurse give to the patient about treatment issues? |
Abstinence from sex is required until 7 days from the date of treatment |
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Why do women develop complications more often than men when being treated for gonorrhea? |
Men are more likely to have symptoms and will seek curative treatment |
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The patient tells the nurse that he had unprotected sex 1 week ago and just found out that the person might have gonorrhea. The patient reports that he has been watching for symptoms but has not noticed anything so he is hoping that he is okay. What is the nurse's best response? |
Symptoms usually develop in 3 to 10 days but you should be tested even if there are no symptoms |
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The nurse is performing a history and physical on the male patient who suspects exposure to an STD. Which symptom is the most common in the male with chlamydia? |
Urethritis |
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When taking a sexual history from a patient, which approach is the most therapeutic to elicit information from the patient? |
Ask open ended questions |
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For the nurse to be an effective clinician when working with patients who have issues with sexuality, STDs or other sexual concerns, what must the nurse do first? |
Be aware of his or her own sexual values, attitudes and sexuality |
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A female patient is reporting troublesome vaginal discharge is diagnosed with trichomoniasis and is given medication to treat the infection. What does the nurse teach the patient about the diagnosis? |
The patient's sexual partner must be treated if the problem is to be resolved |
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Women with PID are at an increased risk for which condition? |
Infertility |
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What is the most common chief complaint that leads a patient with PID to seek medical attention? |
Lower abdominal pain |
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A patient with PID is on bedrest with bathroom privileges. What position is best for the patient while on bedrest? |
Semi fowlers |
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A patient with PID is discharged home on oral antibiotics. What are important measures for the nurse to include in patient teaching? |
Report an increase in temperature right away Continue taking the antibiotics until the medication is gone |
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When performing discharge teaching about resuming sexual relations to a female patient diagnosed with an STD, what does the nurse teach the patient? |
Intercourse should be postponed until the treatment regimen is completed |
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What does the nurse tell a patient with PID about the practice of vaginal douching? |
It increases a woman's risk for developing PID |
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Which infection describes an STD that is limited to the vagina, is very irritating but has no long term sequelae? |
Candida |
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A patient with HPV will commonly develop which disease? |
Genital warts |
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The nurse is preparing an information packet about women's health considerations for STDs. What information does the nurse include? |
Young women mistakenly believe that contraceptives protect them from STDs Mucosal tears in postmenopausal women may also place them at greater risk for STDs Women have more asymptomatic infections that may delay diagnosis and treatment |
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A young female patient requires hospitalization for a severe case of genital herpes. What information is given to the patient regarding the long term consequences? |
There is a risk of neonatal transmission and an increased risk for acquiring HIV infection |
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The nurse is counseling a patient who is experiencing recurrent outbreaks of genital herpes. What suggestions for symptomatic treatment does the nurse include? |
Oral analgesics, sitz baths and increased oral fluid intake |
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A patient is diagnosed with condylomata acuminata. What are the desired outcomes of management for this patient? |
Remove the warts and treat the symptoms |
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A patient requires treatment for genital warts. Which treatment is done by the patient at home if given proper instructions? |
Imiquimod (Aldara) 5% cream |
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What is the incubation period for genital warts? |
2 to 3 months |
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A patient has had podophyllin treatment for condylomata acuminata. For which sign/symptom does the nurse tell the patient to return for further treatment? |
Infection at the site |
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A male patient reports that a female sexual partner just told him that she was treated for gonorrhea. What symptoms does the nurse ask him about, because they are most likely to occur with gonorrhea in a male? |
Dysuria and a profuse yellowish green or scant clear penile discharge |
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A patient is being treated for gonorrhea. The nurse would question the use of which medication for this patient? |
Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) |
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A female patient is tested for and diagnosed with gonorrhea. The nurse advocates that the choice of drug therapy include medications that concurrently treat which condition? |
Chlamydia |
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A young woman discovers she has chlamydia after going to her health care provider for a routine pap smear. She is reluctant to accept the diagnosis because she is asymptomatic and does not have any money for unnecessary treatment right now. What is the nurse's best response? |
Talk to the woman about her financial situation and help her find resources |
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A patient with an STD freely admits to being a commercial sex worker. In talking to this patient, the nurse recognizes that she has not disclosed a true name, address or partner contact information. What is the best strategy to use with this patient? |
Administer a one dose course of treatment and dispense a box of condoms |
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What factors increase the risk for PID? |
Age younger than 26 Multiple sexual partners Smoking History of chlamydia or gonococcal infection |
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A young female patient with a history of previous STDs has a hunched over gait and has difficulty getting on the examination table. On observing this behavior, what does the nurse first assess for? |
Lower abdominal pain |
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The nurse is reviewing lab results for a patient with PID. Which lab results does the nurse expect to see? |
Elevated WBC Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) Presence of more than 10 wbcs per high power field for vaginal discharge |
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In the emergency dept, a patient is diagnosed with PID and there is an order to discharge the patient home with a prescription for antibiotics. What circumstance causes the nurse to question the order for discharge to home? |
The patient is pregnant but willing to attempt self care if properly instructed |
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The nurse is caring for a patient admitted for PID. Which task does the nurse delegate to the UAP? |
Place the patient in semi fowlers position |
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A patient reports an itching or tingling sensation felt in the skin 1 to 2 days followed by a blister on the perfect is which ruptured spontaneously with painful erosion. These symptoms are consistent with which condition? |
Genital herpes |
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The nurse is teaching a group of high school students about the use of condoms. What information does the nurse include? |
Keep condoms (especially latex) in a cool, dry place and out of direct sunlight Do not use condoms that are in damaged packages or that are brittle or discolored If you use lubricant, make sure it is water based |
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Which STD is associated with an increased risk for cervical cancer? |
Condylomata acuminata: HPV type 16 |
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Which group has the greatest risk for contracting primary and secondary syphilis? |
Men who have sex with men |
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Which patient statement most indicates that the patient will succeed in making a behavior change related to STD prevention? |
I am going directly to the pharmacy and buy a supply of condoms |
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Which patient circumstance is most appropriate for expedited partner treatment? |
Partner is afraid to come to health care facility |
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The nurse sees that the patient was prescribed valacyclovir (Valtrex). Which patient statement indicates the goal of therapy is being met? |
The sores are not as painful as they were before |
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How should the nurse respond to a patient with altered sexuality as a result of STD? |
Report and document all findings Provide pain control measures Teach about prescribed antibiotic or antiviral therapy Emphasize importance of treating all sexual partners |
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During a genital exam on a teenage patient, the examiner sees multiple large cauliflower like growths in the perineum area. The patient reports these appeared about 3 months after her first sexual experience. What does the examiner suspect? |
Condylomata acuminata (genital warts) |