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275 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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When we look at the most common electric tools you use in the munitions storage area, when using a drill, what is the first thing you do? a. Make sure the diameter of the hole to be drilled is within the capacity of the drill. b. Connect the drill to the power source. c. Put on your safety goggles. d. Insert the chuck key. |
A) Make sure the diameter of the hole to be drilled is within the capacity of the drill |
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Which article(s) of safety gear must be worn when using a bench grinder? A) Apron B) Gloves C) Eye or face protection D) Eye protection and gloves |
C) Eye or face protection |
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Which diameter (in inches) electric saw blade is the most common found in maintenance? A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12 |
B.8 |
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An electric saw's blade must be operating at what speed before it contacts the material being cut? A. Full B. Slow C. Moderate D. Accelerated |
A. Full |
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Which pneumatic impact tool is designed to install or remove nuts and bolts? A. Hammer B. Wrench C. Socket D. Drill |
B. Wrench |
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At what variation in pounds of pressure, while using an impact wrench, can the excess pressure become serious? A. 20 B. 15 C. 10 D. 5 |
d. 5 |
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When operating mechanical lifting devices, safety is a function of operating technique, maintenance, management, and A. Sound operational practices B. not so common "common sense" C. Good hand and eye coordination D.Sound mechanical knowledge of the device |
B. Not so common "common sense" |
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What is worn if there is a potential for injury from falling objects? A. Gloves B. Face Shield C. Goggles D. Protective Helmets |
D. Protective helmets |
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What is the most common type of sling used in your everyday job? A. Chain assembly B. Web strapping C. Metal Mesh D. Wire Rope |
D. Wire Rope |
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Hoist hooks must be replaced when they have more than A. 5% in the excess of normal throat opening or more than 15 degrees twist from the plane B. 10% in excess of normal throat opening or more than 15 degrees twist from the plane C. 15% in excess of normal throat opening or more than 10 degrees twist from the plane D. 20% in excess of normal throat opening or 10 degrees twist from the plane |
C. 15% in excess of normal throat opening or more than 10 degrees twist from the plane |
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The following are all good safety practices to consider when using a sling except A. Standing clear of the attached load B. Keeping the sling well lubricated in order to prevent corrosion C. Keeping your hands and fingers from between the sling and the load D. Inspecting the sling by passing your bare hand over the body of the sling |
D. Inspecting the sling by passing your bare hand over the body of the sling |
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Which meter is a four-wire Kelvin digital ohmmeter used for testing the AIM-9 and the AIM-120 missile system? A. 101-5BFG B. AN/PSM-6 C. AMTEC 620 D. Galvanometer |
C. AMTEC 620 |
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The maximum load capacity of the MHU-141/M is A. 1,500 B. 3,000 C. 5,500 D. 5,700 |
C. 5,500 |
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The steering system on the MHU-141/M trailer has a turning radius of how many inches? A. 100 B. 200 C. 400 D.550 |
B. 200 |
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When the MHU-141 trailer is loaded or towed with the hinged deck open, what must be done? A.The two deck-panel support must be properly positioned and locked in place with quick-release pins B. The two deck-panel supports must be properly positioned and locked in place with bolts and self-locking nuts C. The two deck-panel supports remain in the stowed position with quick-relase pins D. The trailer cannot be towed with the deck panels opened |
A. The two deck-panel supports must be properly positioned in place with quick-release pins |
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The MHU-141/M trailer praking brake is classified as A. electrical B. hydraulic C. mechanical D. automatic surge
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C. mechanical |
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What is the maximum load capacity of the MHU-110/M trailer? A. 5,000 B. 5,500 C. 15,000 D. 15,500 |
c. 15,000 |
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The parking brakes on the MHU-110/M trailer are applied to which wheels? A. Four inboard rear B. Two onboard rear C. Rear two outboard rear D. Front two outboard rear |
A. Four inboard rear |
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How many trolley and chock assemblies are supplied with the MHU-110/M respectively? A.10 and 20 B. 20 and 40 C. 20 and 10 D. 40 and 20 |
B. 20 and 40 |
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What is the maximum load capacity of the MHU-226 trailer? A. 6,000 B. 9,000 C. 12,000 D. 15,000 |
c. 12,000 |
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How many openings are on the deck of the MHU-226 trailer? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four |
C. Three |
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What type of steering aids the MHU-226 in a tighter steering radius? A. Rack and pinion B. Automotive type C. Recirculating ball D. Double Ackerman |
D. Double Ackerman |
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What ensures the HCU-6/E pallets transfer smoothly from a rollerized trailer to an aircraft/K-loader? A. A winch B. The use of J-bars C. An adjustable ramp D. The speed the pallet is moved |
C. An adjustable ramp |
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After HCU-6/E pallets are positioned on a rollerized trailer, what can you use to secure the pallets to the trailer? A. Tie-down straps only B. Tie-down straps only C. Nails or wood bracing D. MB-1 chain assemblies or tie-down straps |
d. MB-1 chain assemblies or tie-down straps |
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Moving munitions and weapons from one base to another, depot to depot, or base to depot is called what kind of movement? A. An off-base B. A logistical C. An interbase D. An operational |
b. a logistical |
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What kind of movement supports on-base operations to or from the flight line? A. On-base B. Intrabase C. Operational D. Logistical |
c. operational |
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All of these are loaded into transport modules except? A. BDU-33 B.MK 106 C. ALE-50 D. 20 MM |
D. 20 MM |
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What transport module has a maximum capacity of 30 magazines? A. BDU-33 B. ALE-40 C. ALE- 50 D. 20 MM |
c. ALE-50 |
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How often should the positive locking devices on a transport be checked? A. After loading, unloading, and periodically between stops B. After loading and periodically between stops C. At the beginning of each day D. After unloading is complete |
A. After loading, unloading, and periodically between stops |
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Which lift truck has a manually extendible wheelbase? A. 6,000-pound all-terrain forklift B. MHU-83-series bomb-lift truck C. MJ-1 series aerial stores lift truck D. 6,000-pound rough-terrain forklift |
b. MHU-83-series bomb-lift truck |
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The purpose of the transport beam beneath the lift arm assemblies on the MJ-1 series lift truck is to A. provide added support and the relieve excess hydraulic pressure from the lift arms in carrying loads for long distances B. provide added support and relieve excess hydraulic pressure from the lift boom in carrying load for long distances C. relieve excess hydraulic pressure from the lift boom when the lift truck is parked D. relieve excess hydraulic pressure from the lift arms when the lift truck is parked |
A. provide added support and the relieve excess hydraulic pressure from the lift arms in carrying load sfor long distances |
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How pounds max can MJ-1 lift? A. 3,000 B. 3,500 C. 6,000 D. 6,500 |
a. 3,000 |
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What is lifting capacity of the MHU-83-series lift truck? A. 3,000 B. 3,500 C. 6,000 D. 7,000 |
d. 7,000 |
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When using the MHU-83B with fork adapter, you immediately A. Reduce its lifting capacity by 800 pounds B. Increase its lifting capacity by 800 pounds C. Reduce its lifting capability by 1,000 pounds D. Increase its lifting capability by 1,000 pounds |
A. Reduce its lifting capacity by 800 pounds |
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What happens when you release the accelerator pedal on a vehicle driven with a hydrostatic transmission? a. The lift truck stops immediately. b. The unit rolls until its inertia is spent. c. The unit coasts to a stop very quickly. d. The transmission automatically drops to a lower gear, stopping forward motion. |
c. The unit coasts to a stop very quickly. |
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How many cubic feet is the rated capacity of air per minute needed for the MC–7 air compressor to discharge 100 psi of pressure? a. 50. b. 75. c. 100. d. 125. |
d. 125 |
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What is the MC–7 air compressor designed for? a. Vehicle maintenance. b. General maintenance. c. Aircraft servicing. d. Paint sprayers. |
B. General Maintenance |
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The diesel model of the MC–7 air compressor is capable of operating up to how many hours at a time without refueling? a. 4. b. 6. c. 8. d. 10. |
c. 8 |
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The maximum tow capacity of the bobtail towing support equipment is how many pounds? a. 20,000. b. 30,000. c. 40,000. d. 50,000. |
c. 40,000 |
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The maximum towing speed of the bobtail while towing equipment is a. 10 mph. b. 15 mph. c. 20 mph. d. 25 mph. |
b. 15 mph |
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What is the purpose behind good operator maintenance of all assigned vehicles? a. Mission readiness. b. Reduce maintenance costs. c. Maintain vehicle serviceability at reduced cost. d. Make sure vehicles are serviceable and in good condition |
c. Maintain vehicle serviceability at reduced cost. |
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How many pounds maximum can the MB–4 aircraft towing tractor tow and push? a. 120,000. b. 130,000. c. 140,000. d. 150,000. |
c. 140,000 |
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What should you do if the differential shift lever of the MB–4 aircraft towing tractor is difficult to shift? a. Pump the clutch several times and attempt to shift the lever. b. Drive forward or backward a short distance, stop the tractor, and attempt to shift the lever. c. Shift the transmission through all of the gears including reverse, and then attempt to shift the lever. d. Shift the transmission back and forth between forward and reverse gears, then attempt to shift the lever. |
b. Drive forward or backward a short distance, stop the tractor, and attempt to shift the lever. |
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Which position should the differential shift lever be in while driving the MB–4 towing tractor on dry road surfaces? a. Unlocked. b. Locked. c. Neutral. d. Drive. |
a. Unlocked |
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Pintle safety pins must remain attached to the pintle assembly a. to prevent the possibility of foreign object damage. b. to ensure it is available when needed. c. to prevent the pintle from unlocking. d. by a chain only |
c. to prevent the pintle from unlocking |
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What range should be selected in a tractor with an automatic transmission while going down grades? a. Neutral. b. Low range. c. High range. d. Any range is acceptable |
b. low range |
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What is the purpose of the trailer hand valve (Johnson bar)? a. Test the trailer brakes. b. Slow the tractor on wet pavement. c. Slow the tractor to prevent skidding. d. Straighten the trailer in a jackknife skid |
a. Test the trailer brakes |
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Which procedure is not a consideration for backing a tractor/trailer combination? a. Use a spotter. b. Use mirrors on both sides. c. Turn toward the driver’s side. d. Turn toward the passenger’s side |
d. Turn toward the passenger’s side |
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What is the maximum depth of water you may drive a rough-terrain forklift through? a. Three feet. b. Four feet. c. Five feet. d. Six feet. |
c. Five Feet |
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Which forklift has the solid front axle and a pivot pin that allows the front end to pivot when turning the steering wheel, making it very dangerous when climbing in or out? a. Adverse-terrain. b. Variable-reach. c. Rough-terrain. d. Swingmast |
a. Adverse-terrain |
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What is the maximum speed limit of a forklift when operating around aircraft? a. 5 mph. b. 10 mph. c. 15 mph. d. 20 mph. |
a. 5 mph |
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When are unfuzed loaded weapons transported on the tines of a forklift? a. Never, this is an example of a safety violation. b. When mission accomplishment is at risk and permission of the squadron commander is given in writing. c. When the weapons body is strong enough to prevent damage and is long enough to be transported safely. d. Only when no other transport vehicle is available and the weapons are securely fastened to the forklift tines. |
c. When the weapons body is strong enough to prevent damage and is long enough to be transported safely. |
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When can you store powered equipment in a building with explosives? a. Never, this violates storage regulations. b. Only when such equipment is essential to day-to-day operations. c. Anytime, as long as the equipment is kept 10 feet from combustible material. d. Only when stored in fire-resistive buildings and such equipment is essential to day-to-day operations. |
d. Only when stored in fire-resistive buildings and such equipment is essential to day-to-day operations. |
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Which weapons replaceable assembly has no moving parts? a. Conveyor. b. Transfer unit. c. Trailer chassis. d. Storage container |
d. storage container |
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Which weapons replaceable assembly receives ammunition from three bays of the container assembly and merges them into a single stream? a. Conveyor. b. Transfer unit. c. Storage container. d. Ammunition drum. |
b. transfer unit |
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Which weapons replaceable assembly consists of the flex drive assembly? a. Conveyor. b. Transfer unit. c. Storage container. d. Ammunition drum |
a. conveyor |
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Which component of the conveyor assembly transfers rounds into the aircraft gun feed system? a. Transfer unit assembly. b. Conveyor belt assembly. c. Storage container assembly. d. Universal aircraft interface unit |
d. universal aircraft interface unit |
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What is the maximum number of rounds the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) drum can hold? a. 2,000. b. 2,100. c. 2,200. d. 2,400. |
b. 2,100 |
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Which subassembly of the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) provides the means to load live rounds into the aircraft gun system? a. Inner drum. b. Outer drum. c. Interface unit. d. Ammunition conveyor |
c. interface unit |
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Which of the following is not counted by the three counters on the interface unit of the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) record during load/download operations? a. Live rounds loaded. b. Spent cases downloaded. c. Cleared rounds downloaded. d. Damaged rounds downloaded |
d. damaged rounds downloaded |
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The bypass mode of the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) allows the gun to cycle a. manually. b. without using the counter. c. without using the interface unit. d. without loading or downloading ammunitions or links |
d. without loading or downloading ammunitions or links |
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What is the inspection cycle for the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) replenisher? a. Every 30 days when in use and annually when in storage. b. Every 45 days when in use and annually when in storage. c. Every 60 days when in use and annually when in storage. d. Every 90 days when in use and annually when in storage. |
a. Every 30 days when in use and annually when in storage |
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Which subassembly on the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) replenisher prevents accidentally loading a spent cartridge into the loader assembly? a. Drive assembly. b. Delinker loader unit. c. Empty space preclusion device. d. Rigid ammunition chute assembly. |
c. Empty space preclusion device. |
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What tool can initiate cycling ammunition through the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) replenisher manually? a. ¼-inch speed wrench. b. ½-inch speed wrench. c. ¼-inch ratchet and socket. d. ½-inch ratchet and socket. |
b. 1/2- inch speed wrench |
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What happens to the unfired rounds returning from the loader when the linked ammunition is being processed? a. Manually separated and counted for the next upload. b. Automatically counted and then uploaded back into the loader. c. Manually downloaded through the second gate in the bottom of the replenisher. d. Automatically downloaded through the second gate in the bottom of the replenisher. |
d. Automatically downloaded through the second gate in the bottom of the replenisher. |
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Which 30 millimeter (mm) cannon is internally mounted in the A–10 aircraft? a. M39. b. M61. c. GAU–8/A. d. GPU–5/A. |
c. GAU-8/A |
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During in-shop maintenance, 30 mm ammunition loading assembly power comes from the a. GFU–7/E. b. GFU–8/E. c. GPU-5/A d. GAU-8/A |
b. GFU-8/E |
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Which 30 mm ammunition loading system is used to service the GPU–5/A gun pod? a. GFU–7/E. b. GFU–8/E. c. GFU–10/E. d. GFU–11/E. |
c.GFU-10/E |
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Which component of the A/E32K–3 munitions assembly conveyor (MAC) can be used as a forklift adapter to raise the gantry to full height? a. Gantry. b. Rail conveyor. c. Pneumatic hoist. d. Interface control board (ICB). |
d. Interface control board (ICB) |
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The triple bomb bar is fitted with bomb slings and is used with each hoist to provide for lifting a. three 500-pound munitions at a time or two 2,000-pound munitions items. b. three 500-pound munitions at a time or one 2,000-pound munitions item. c. two 500-pound munitions at a time or two 2,000-pound munitions items. d. two 500-pound munitions at a time or one 2,000-pound munitions item. |
a. three 500-pound munitions at a time or two 2,000-pound munitions items |
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How many feet minimum is the area required to assemble the A/E32K–3? a. 50 × 100. b. 75 × 150. c. 100 × 200. d. 100 × 500. |
a. 50 X 100 |
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Why is it important to monitor net explosive weight (NEW) during a bomb buildup operation? a. Excessive NEW at your location probably means a shortage at other sites. b. Excessive NEW at your location means you may run out of operating room. c. If ignited, excessive NEW may cause propagation of an explosive from one location to another. d. Excessive NEW means the breakout crew has to work harder just to keep up with the flow of munitions. |
c. if ignited, excessive NEW may cause propagation of an explosive from one location to another |
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Which component of the munitions assembly conveyor (MAC) is disassembled last? a. Gantry. b. Conveyor. c. Arming wire dispenser. d. Interface control board. |
A. Gantry |
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What does not apply to munitions and explosives in the transportation mode? a. Tie-down criteria. b. Placarding requirements. c. Compatibility requirements. d. Quantity distance (QD) criteria |
d. quantity distance (QD) criteria |
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Generally, transportation of munitions and explosives on an Air Force installation is subject to the criteria in a. 11A–1–63. b. Title 49 CFR. c. TO 11A–1–10. d. AFMAN 91–201 |
AFMAN 91-201 |
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When is it permissible to transport explosives in privately owned vehicles (POV)? a. Never. b. During contingency operations. c. Must have written approval from squadron commander. d. Movements beginning and ending within the confines of a military base or installation |
a. Never |
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When is it permissible to leave explosives-laden vehicles unattended? a. Never. b. During shift change. c. During electrical storms. d. During contingency operations. |
c. During electrical storms |
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What is the philosophy when designing explosive movement routes? a. Designate the most concealed possible primary and alternate explosives routes. b. Designate the securest possible primary and alternate explosives routes. c. Designate the fastest possible primary and alternate explosives routes. d. Designate the safest possible primary and alternate explosives routes. |
d. designate the safest possible primary and alternate explosive routes |
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The purpose of placarding explosives-laden vehicles is to provide a. a general warning to all personnel and to furnish specific fire-fighting guidance. b. withdrawal distances to all personnel and to furnish specific fire-fighting guidance. c. vehicle identification to all personnel and to furnish specific fire-fighting guidance. d. explosives identification to all personnel and to furnish specific fire-fighting guidance. |
a. a general warning to all personnel and to furnish specific fire-fighting guidance |
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What may be omitted from munitions and explosives transported on base? a. Compatibility group letters. b. Placards for transporting HD 1.4 material. c. Placards where necessary to avoid attention of hostile forces. d. All of the above |
d. All of the above |
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While using TO 11–1–38, if a conflict occurs between the illustrations and the written procedures, which takes precedence? a. Use either one. b. The illustrations. c. The written procedures. d. Consult your shop chief. |
c. The written procedures |
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What type of information is given in the general notes on the first card of each trailer and weapon-type section in TO 11–1–38 and is required to be reviewed? a. Illustrations for each trailer configuration. b. Equipment and quantity required for each trailer. c. Equipment and quantity required for each trailer and weapon. d. WARNINGS, CAUTIONS, and NOTES pertaining to each trailer and weapon. |
d. WARNINGS, CAUTIONS, and NOTES pertaining to each trailer and weapon |
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If you cannot close the load-binder handle by hand, a. use a cheater bar to close the handle. b. use an extension to secure the handle. c. adjust the load-binder hooks on the chain. d. replace the defective load binder with one that works. |
c. adjust the load-binder hooks on the chain. |
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What chapter of TO 11–1–38 covers configuration of the MHU–141/M trailer? a. One. b. Two. c. Three. d. Four. |
a. One |
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What piece of equipment must be used with the MHU–110/M to prevent the trailer from becoming unstable while loading or unloading? a. M10 adapter. b. Wheel chocks. c. Rail extenders. d. Stabilizer jack. |
d. stabilizer jack |
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Which are constructed and attached to the bed of a 40-foot trailer to facilitate support of rounded munitions? a. Chocks. b. Wooden rails. c. Conveyor belt. d. Pneumatic hoist. |
b. wooden rails |
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What provides an itemized list of all equipment authorized for use with nuclear weapons? a. Master nuclear certification list. b. TO 00–35D–54. c. TO 11A–1–10. d. TO 11A–1–63. |
a. Master nuclear certification list |
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How are items identified as being nuclear certified? a. A certified item will be stamped “Nuclear certified.” b. A certified item will be stenciled “Nuclear certified.” c. Positive identification by a stamp, stencil, or etching. d. Positive identification by a nameplate, label, appropriate markings, or by official documents |
d. Positive identification by a nameplate, label, appropriate markings, or by official documents |
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Which statement about pintle hooks and their use in operations with nuclear weapons is not correct? a. Original equipment pintle hook assemblies are not authorized. b. Off-center rear of vehicle pintle hooks shall not be used for nuclear operations. c. Replacements are authorized if procured and installed per appropriate technical orders. d. Front mounted pintle hooks are only authorized for local positioning tasks such as inner warehousing. |
a. Original equipment pintle hook assemblies are not authorized |
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Which equipment does not require nuclear safety certification before being used in operations with nuclear weapons? a. Combat delivery vehicles. b. General-purpose hand tools. c. Noncombat delivery vehicles. d. Equipment used to transport nuclear weapons |
b. General-purpose hand tools |
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Which action is not an authorized method for securing loose chain assembly ends? a. Wrap the loose ends around the tie-down device; tape to the device. b. Loop the excess chain around the chain assembly; secure with duct tape. c. Coil the excess chain around itself; secure with pressure-sensitive adhesive tape. d. Wrap the loose ends around the container tie-down point; secure with a cable tie |
a. Wrap the loose ends around the tie-down device; tape to the device. |
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After final tightening of the cable-type load binder, verify a. the cable deflection is less than ¾ inch using hand pressure only. b. threads (more than one) are exposed inside the turnbuckle. c. the wing nuts are close to but not touching the turnbuckle. d. the clevis is centered on the tie-down point |
b. threads (more than one) are exposed inside the turnbuckle |
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How many CGU–1/B straps are you authorized to use for one MB–1 tie-down assembly? a. One. b. Two. c. Three. d. Four. |
b. Two |
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How do you extend the CGU–1/B strap? a. Close the tensioning mechanism; pull the strap. b. Release the adjusting mechanism; pull the strap. c. Engage the release mechanism; the strap automatically releases. d. Disengage the spindle mechanism; the strap automatically releases |
b. Release the adjusting mechanism; pull the strap |
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The key factors to consider during a nuclear weapons movement are a. time and money. b. safety and security. c. people and equipment. d. people and the mode of transportation. |
b. safety and security |
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Which term describes the type of area used during a delay of an off-base shipment involving nuclear weapons? a. Secure area. b. No-lone zone. c. Close-in security. d. National defense |
d. National defense |
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How often are couriers certified? a. Every six months. b. Every two years. c. Every five years. d. Annually. |
d. Annually |
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What AF IMT form is used to transfer custody of missile warheads? a. AF IMT 505. b. AF IMT 514. c. AF IMT 1348–1. d. AF IMT 2009–1. |
b. AF IMT 514 |
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When are nuclear weapons moved by convoy? a. When on base or within the confines of a military installation only. b. When off base and traveling over state highways only. c. Only when more than one vehicle is involved. d. Every time weapons are moved |
d. Every time weapons are moved |
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What is the most difficult job for escort guards during a convoy? a. Keeping other vehicles from entering the convoy. b. Maintaining the proper speed required in a convoy. c. Keeping the proper distance from the security forces. d. Identifying the correct checkpoints along the convoy route |
a. Keeping other vehicles from entering the convoy. |
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A requirement for military explosives is that raw materials must be a. cheap. b. nonhygroscopic. c. common to America. d. vital to the war effort |
a. Cheap |
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Volatility is the tendency of a substance to produce a. pressure. b. energy. c. vapors. d. heat. |
c. Vapors |
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What property of an explosive do we refer to by the word “hygroscopicity?” a. Moisture-absorbing property. b. Tendency to produce sensitive metallic salts. c. Ability of an explosive to be cast into a mold or form. d. Ability to liberate gaseous products during detonation. |
a. Moisture-absorbing property. |
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Upon what factor does the rate of detonation depend? a. Degree of confinement and loading density. b. Degree of confinement and volatility. c. Volatility and loading density. d. Loading density only. |
a. Degree of confinement and loading density |
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What are the basic components of an explosive train? a. Fuze, detonator, booster, and bursting charge. b. Detonator, booster, and a bursting charge. c. Fuze, booster, and a bursting charge. d. Detonator and booster only. |
b. Detonator, booster, and a bursting charge |
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What does an explosive train booster do? a. Detonates the fuze. b. Detonates the main charge. c. Transmits energy from one detonating component to the next. d. Controls the delay in the functioning of the fuze explosive train |
b. Detonates the main charge. |
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How can you achieve an airburst with a general-purpose bomb? a. Use a time action high-explosive (HE) train. b. With a super quick action HE train. c. With a delay action HE train. d. Use a nondelay delay. |
a. Use a time action high-explosive (HE) train |
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What effect does more damage than the fragmentation effect of a specific bomb? a. Heat. b. Blast. c. Detonation. d. Penetration. |
b. Blast |
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The penetrating action of a shaped charge is the result of the a. size of the burster charge. b. type and amount of explosive. c. shock wave and a jet of dense gas. d. density and thickness of the target |
c. shock wave and jet of dense gas |
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The four factors that control the visibility of pyrotechnics are candlepower, color, weather, and a. light. b. altitude. c. humidity. d. chemical composition |
A. light |
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What are the classifications of pyrotechnics? a. Illuminants and signals only. b. Illuminants and igniters only. c. Illuminants and combinations of signals only. d. Illuminants, signals, combinations of signals and illuminants, and simulators |
d. Illuminants, signals, combinations of signals and illuminants, and simulators |
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When considering pyrotechnics, two types of effects for signals are a. fire and flash. b. heat and flash. c. smoke and heat. d. light and smoke |
d. light and smoke |
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What do the colored bands, letters, or patches on signal munitions indicate? a. Color of the signal produced. b. Type of pyrotechnic ammunition. c. Different factory modification of signals. d. Different manufacturer identification codes. |
a. Color of the signal produced |
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What pyrotechnic effect is produced by the AN–MK13 signal? a. Noise only. b. Flare and noise. c. Smoke and flare. d. Smoke and noise. |
c. smoke and flare |
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When and where is the MK124 Mod 0 signal used? a. Day and land use only. b. Night and sea use only. c. Day or night, land use only. d. Day or night, land or sea use. |
d. day or night, land or sea use |
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How much light does the M127A1 signal produce? a. 50,000 candlepower. b. 100,000 candlepower. c. 1,000,000 candlepower. d. 2,000,000 candlepower. |
a. 50,000 |
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What is the largest caliber ammunition that we classify as “small arms”? a. Caliber .38. b. Caliber .50. c. 5.56 millimeter. d. 7.62 millimeter. |
b. Caliber .50 |
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What shotgun round is the exception to the gauging principle?
a. .22. b. .30. c. .50. d. .410. |
d. .410 |
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What hazard is involved in using blank ammunition? a. Ejection of the primer. b. The wad can cause injury. c. There is no significant hazard. d. Fragmentation of the projectile |
b. The wad can cause injury. |
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What are the components of a typical small-arms cartridge? a. Cartridge case, primer, bullet, and propellant. b. Cartridge case, primer, bullet, and detonator. c. Cartridge case, shot pellets, and propellant. d. Cartridge case, propellant, and tracer |
a. Cartridge case, primer, bullet, and propellant |
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What substance is the explosive filler for the M30 practice grenade? a. Inert powder. b. Black powder. c. Composition B. d. White phosphorus. |
b. Black powder. |
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How far in front of an M18A1 mine do we consider inside the danger zone? a. 50 meters. b. 100 meters. c. 250 meters. d. 300 meters. |
c. 250 meters. |
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How far behind an M18A1 mine should personnel take cover before they fire it? a. 50 meters. b. 100 meters. c. 250 meters. d. 300 meters. |
b. 100 meters. |
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What mortar has a short range and a small explosive charge? a. Short. b. Light. c. Heavy. d. Medium. |
b. Light. |
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What device(s) do we use to detonate high explosives (HE)? a. Firing wire. b. Blasting caps. c. Galvanometer. d. Detonating cord clip. |
b. Blasting caps. |
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What device is used to initiate time fuse? a. M60 igniter. b. Firing wire. c. Galvanometer. d. Blasting machine. |
a. M60 igniter |
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The M112 demo block is made of what substance? a. Ammonia. b. Nitroglycerin. c. Black powder. d. Composition C–4. |
d. Composition C–4. |
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The difference between commercial dynamite and military dynamite is that military dynamite does not contain a. initiators. b. nitroglycerin. c. gelatin dynamite. d. ammonia dynamite. |
b. nitroglycerin |
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In what length is fire wire issued?
a. 50 feet. b. 100 feet. c. 500 feet. d. 1000 feet. |
c. 500 feet. |
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How do we classify bomb fuzes? a. Action and contents. b. Position and action. c. Method of arming and contents. d. Position, action, and method of arming. |
d. Position, action, and method of arming. |
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The main types of fuze actions are impact, time, and a. electrical. b. hydraulic. c. proximity. d. inertia |
c. proximity |
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Where is a proximity fuze placed on the bomb? a. Nose. b. Tail. c. Nose and tail. d. Between the lugs. |
a. Nose |
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In an electronically-timed fuze, what component replaces the arming vanes used in mechanically timed fuzes? a. Battery-firing device. b. Arming lanyard assembly. c. Electric charging assembly. d. Electronically timed sensor. |
c. Electric charging assembly. |
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The design of which safety feature is to prevent movement of the arming heads, arming stems, and strikers while the fuze is being handled? a. Seal wires. b. Cotter pins. c. Safety blocks. d. “Detonator safe” feature. |
b. Cotter pins. |
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What action must you take to set the “SECONDS TO ARM” setting below six seconds on an M904 fuze? a. Depress the time lock. b. Install the stop screw in the fuze body. c. Remove the stop screw from the fuze body. d. Depress the detent pin on the arming vane shaft. |
c. Remove the stop screw from the fuze body. |
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In a bomb body, where is the M905 fuze installed? a. Either the nose or the tail. b. The nose fuze well. c. The tail fuze well. d. Between the lugs. |
c. The tail fuze well |
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The FMU–54 series tail fuzes are used in a. laser-guided bomb series. b. BLU–109/B series guided bombs. c. MK80 and M series general-purpose bombs with conical fins. d. MK80 series general-purpose bombs with an air inflatable retarder. |
d. MK80 series general-purpose bombs with an air inflatable retarder. |
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With electrical fuzes, which device is used in place of arming wire? a. Bungee cord. b. Battery-firing device. c. Linear-shaped charge. d. Target-detecting device. |
b. Battery-firing device. |
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How many FZU–2/B boosters are used with the FMU–81/B fuze when installed in the nose fuze well and the tail fuze well, respectively? a. One; four. b. Four, two. c. Two; four. d. Four; one. |
d. Four; one. |
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What component provides the electrical power needed to operate the FMU–139A/B fuze? a. FZU–39/B sensor. b. FZU–48/B initiator. c. Battery-firing device. d. MK32 Mod 1 arming device |
b. FZU–48/B initiator. |
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The FMU–143 series fuze was designed for use in a. chemical bombs. b. penetration bombs. c. land and sea mines. d. blast and fragmentation bombs |
b. penetration bombs. |
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What provides the electrical power needed to operate the FMU–143 series fuze? a. FZU–39/B sensor. b. FZU–48/B initiator. c. FZU–55 series fuze initiator. d. FZU–32 series fuze initiator |
d. FZU–32 series fuze initiator |
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What hazard is associated with the DSU–33 proximity sensor? a. Explosives. b. Fragmentation. c. Thermal battery. d. Radio frequencies. |
c. Thermal battery. |
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Which sensor is a radio frequency (RF) radar ranging system used with the suspension utility unit (SUU)–64/B, SUU–65/B, and SUU–66/B dispensers? a. FZU–39/B. b. FMU–56/B. c. FMU–110/B. d. FMU–124/B. |
a. FZU–39/B. |
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What does HOF stand for on the FZU–39/B proximity sensor? a. Hour of flight. b. Hour of function. c. Height of function. d. Height of fragmentation. |
c. Height of function. |
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What component is used to adapt a nose fuze for an M series bomb? a. Fuze adapter. b. Bomb adapter. c. Adapter booster. d. Adapter burster. |
c. Adapter booster. |
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Which fin provides a high-drag, low-altitude bombing capability for the M117 bomb? a. BSU–50/B. b. BSU–49/B. c. BSU–93/B. d. MAU–103. |
c. BSU-93/B |
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Which air inflatable retarder (AIR) fin is used on the MK82 bomb? a. BSU–49/B. b. BSU–50/B. c. BSU–92. d. BSU–93/B. |
a. BSU-49/B |
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What air inflatable retarder (AIR) fin is used on the MK84 bomb? a. BSU–49/B. b. BSU–50/B. c. BSU–92. d. BSU–93/B. |
b. BSU–50/B. |
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Which bomb is used as the warhead in the GBU–28A/B? a. BLU–113. b. BLU–118. c. BLU–122. d. BLU–126. |
a. BLU–113 |
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Which bomb is filled with a thermobaric explosive? a. BLU–113. b. BLU–118. c. BLU–122. d. BLU–126. |
b. BLU–118 |
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Externally, the M129 leaflet bomb is similar to the a. M117, 750-pound bomb. b. MK82, 500-pound bomb. c. MK84, 2,000-pound bomb. d. BLU–109, 2,000-pound bomb. |
a. M117, 750-pound bomb |
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Which suspension utility unit (SUU) does the PDU–5/B utilize? a. SUU–64/B. b. SUU–65/B. c. SUU–66/B. d. SUU–76C/B. |
d. SUU–76C/B. |
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The BLU–126/B bomb is identical to the a. M117, 750-pound bomb. b. MK82, 500-pound bomb. c. MK84, 2,000-pound bomb. d. BLU–109, 2,000-pound bomb. |
b. MK82, 500-pound bomb |
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What is the net explosive weight (NEW) of the BLU–126/B? a. 27 pounds. b. 92 pounds. c. 192 pounds. d. 270 pounds. |
a. 27 pounds. |
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What is the weight of the BDU–33 series practice bomb? a. 10 pounds. b. 20 pounds. c. 25 pounds. d. 45 pounds. |
c. 25 pounds. |
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The BDU–48/B resembles the ballistics of the a. MK82 high-drag munition. b. MK82 low-drag munition. c. M117 high-drag munition. d. MK84 low-drag munition. |
a. MK82 high-drag munition. |
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Which suspension utility unit (SUU) dispenser does the CBU–87 cluster bomb use? a. SUU–66. b. SUU–65. c. SUU–64. d. SUU–30. |
b. SUU–65. |
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Which submunitions are loaded into a CBU–87 cluster bomb? a. BLU–61 bomblets. b. BLU–63 bomblets. c. BLU–97 bomblets. d. MK118 bomblets. |
c. BLU–97 bomblets. |
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What is the only difference between the CBU–87/B and the CBU–87A/B cluster bombs? a. The A/B has modified bomblets. b. The A/B has the live FZU–39/B sensor installed. c. The B comes in a different container. d. The B has the live FZU–39/B sensor installed |
b. The A/B has the live FZU–39/B sensor installed |
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How many different types of bomblets are loaded into a single CBU–89/B cluster bomb at one time? a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4. |
b. 2 |
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How many projectiles are contained in each BLU–108/B submunition? a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4. |
d. 4. |
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What ejects the BLU–108 series submunition into the airstream? a. Thermal battery. b. Drogue parachute. c. Airbag ejection system. d. Linear shape cutting charge |
c. Airbag ejection system. |
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The components of a wind corrected munitions dispenser consist of a fin guidance system, a variable position umbilical connector, and
a. dummy fuze. b. rocket motor. c. signal cartridge. d. operational flight program |
d. operational flight program |
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Which wind-corrected munitions dispenser component cants the fins to spin the dispenser during flight? a. Gas grain generator. b. Fin lanyard assembly. c. Fin stabilizer assembly. d. Control actuation assembly |
d. Control actuation assembly |
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What 20 millimeter (mm) round is used for drill or testing feeder assemblies? a. Target practice tracer. b. Target practice. c. Dummy. d. Inert. |
c. Dummy. |
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What M505 series fuze safety feature prevents accidental arming during handling? a. Fuze is bore safe. b. M505 series fuze is inertia armed. c. Rotor assembly is safety pinned until loading. d. M505 series fuze does not have a safety, but it does require very careful handling. |
a. Fuze is bore safe |
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What is the arming delay distance for the M505 fuze? a. 5–10 feet. b. 10–35 feet. c. 45–50 feet. d. 50–55 feet. |
b. 10–35 feet. |
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The identifying information on a 20 millimeter (mm) round of ammunition is marked on the a. bourrelet. b. projectile. c. primer. d. fuze. |
b. projectile. |
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When 20 millimeter (mm) ammunition is bulk-packed, how many rounds may you expect to find in an M548 container? a. 50–100. b. 150–175. c. 200–250. d. 275–300. |
c. 200–250. |
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What aircraft cannon fires the 25 millimeter (mm) round? a. GAU–2. b. GAU–8. c. GAU–12. d. GAU–18. |
c. GAU–12 |
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How can you tell a 25 millimeter (mm) dummy cartridge from other 25 mm rounds? a. Dummy cartridge is painted blue. b. Dummy cartridge is hollow and lighter. c. Dummy cartridge projectile is nonseparable and the total cartridge is gold in color. d. Dummy cartridge projectile is gold in color with white lettering on the cartridge case. |
c. Dummy cartridge projectile is nonseparable and the total cartridge is gold in color |
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When 25 millimeter (mm) ammunition is bulk-packed, how many rounds you expect to find in a CNU–405 container? a. 80 or 100. b. 150 or 175. c. 200 or 250. d. 275 or 300 |
a. 80 or 100 |
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How is ignition from the primer carried to the propellant in a 30 millimeter (mm) target practice round? a. The primer vents directly into the propellant. b. The propellant is ignited electrically when the gun is fired. c. The primer ignites black power in a flash tube, which ignites the propellant. d. The primer activates the M505 time delay fuze, which ignites the propellant after it is fully armed and detonates |
c. The primer ignites black power in a flash tube, which ignites the propellant. |
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What device holds the ball rotor of the 30 millimeter (mm) M505A3 impact fuze in an unarmed position until it is fired? a. Lock ring. b. Split latch. c. Safety block. d. Detonator safety latch. |
a. Lock ring. |
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Which component allows the 30 millimeter (mm) armor-piercing round to achieve target penetration? a. Fumer charge. b. Linear shape charge. c. Munroe effect shape charge. d. Depleted uranium penetrator |
d. Depleted uranium penetrator |
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What is the purpose of the 30 millimeter (mm) dummy ammunition? a. As ballast. b. For target practice on small ranges. c. For use in static displays and award presentations. d. As familiarization training and mechanical cycling of the gun system. |
d. As familiarization training and mechanical cycling of the gun system. |
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How long does the red tracer composition burn in the 40 millimeter (mm) AAA, target practice tracer (M91) round? a. 10 seconds. b. 12 seconds. c. 14 seconds. d. 16 seconds. |
b. 12 seconds |
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Name the components of a 40 millimeter (mm) round. a. Ignition booster, cartridge case, and projectile. b. Propellant, cartridge case, and ignition booster. c. Propellant, cartridge case, ignition booster, and fuze. d. Primer, cartridge case, propellant charge, projectile, and fuze. |
d. Primer, cartridge case, propellant charge, projectile, and fuze. |
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What is the total number of rounds can the MK1 ammunition box hold? a. 36. b. 24. c. 20. d. 16. |
d. 16. |
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What aircraft fires 105 millimeter (mm) ammunition? a. B–52. b. B–1B. c. KC–10. d. AC–130. |
d. AC–130. |
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What type of explosive is loaded in the projectile of the 105 millimeter (mm) high-explosive (HE) round? a. Comp B. b. Comp C. c. Cyclonite (RDX). d. Pentaerythritol Tetranitrate (PETN). |
a. Comp B |
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Approximately how many fragments will the high fragmentation (HF) PGU–45/B projectile produce? a. 300. b. 1,300. c. 3,300. d. 13,000. |
d. 13,000. |
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What is the factory set height of burst (HOB) for the FMU–160/B fuze to optimize lethality? a. 15 feet. b. 30 feet. c. 32 feet. d. 42 feet. |
a. 15 feet. |
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The 105 millimeter (mm) clearing cartridge was designed to a. clean the bore of a 105 mm cannon. b. prepare the 105 mm cannon for shipping. c. clear the immediate area around a ground target. d. clear a projectile lodged in the bore of a 105 mm cannon. |
d. clear a projectile lodged in the bore of a 105 mm cannon. |
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What are countermeasure flares designed to do? a. Emergency signaling by a downed aircraft. b. Illuminate emergency landing fields at night. c. Emergency signaling to rescue aircraft from the ground. d. Divert enemy aircraft infrared/heat-seeking missiles from friendly aircraft. |
d. Divert enemy aircraft infrared/heat-seeking missiles from friendly aircraft. |
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Which impulse cartridge initiates the MJU–7/B flare? a. BBU–35/B. b. BBU–36/B. c. BBU–46/B. d. BBU–47/B. |
b. BBU–36/B |
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The SD–206 infrared flare (Smokey Devil) provides a. less heat than the M206 flare. b. more heat than the M206 flare. c. more flexibility due to its smaller size. d. smoke to simulate a flare for training purposes. |
d. smoke to simulate a flare for training purposes |
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Which impulse cartridge does the RR–170 chaff cartridge use? a. BBU–35/B. b. BBU–36/B. c. BBU–45/B. d. BBU–46/B. |
a. BBU–35/B |
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The LUU–2 series aircraft flare produces
a. 500,000 candlepower for an average burn time of three minutes. b. 300,000 candlepower for an average burn time of two minutes. c. two million candlepower for an average burn time of five minutes. d. one million candlepower for an average burn time of five minutes.
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c. two million candlepower for an average burn time of five minutes |
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What output does the LUU–5/B target marker produce? a. Red light. b. Green light. c. White light. d. Yellow light |
b. Green light |
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What output does the LUU–19 series illumination flare produce? a. Red light. b. Green light. c. Visible light. d. Light in the near-infrared region. |
d. Light in the near-infrared region. |
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In which direction are flares launched from the SUU–25E/A flare dispenser? a. Downward. b. Rearward. c. Sideward. d. Forward. |
b. Rearward. |
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What impulse cartridge supplies the gas pressure to launch the flares from the SUU–25E/A dispenser? a. ARD 446–1. b. ARD 863–1. c. MK2 Mod 0. d. MK107 Mod 0. |
b. ARD 863–1. |
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The gas pressure produced by the impulse in an SUU–25 ejects the flare at a speed of approximately a. 50 feet per second (fps). b. 60 (fps). c. 65 (fps). d. 75 (fps). |
c. 65 (fps). |
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What are initiators, found in cartridge-actuated devices (CAD), designed to do? a. Supply gas pressure to operate other CADs. b. Supply gas pressure to remove aircraft canopies. c. Eject external stores. d. Eject seats |
a. Supply gas pressure to operate other CADs |
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What are removers, found in cartridge-actuated devices (CAD), designed to do? a. Remove obstacles from the ejecting pilot’s path. b. Remove the aircraft seat from the aircraft. c. Eject crew members safely. d. Eject aircraft canopy |
d. Eject aircraft canopy |
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What are the two types of impulse cartridges found in propellant-actuated devices (PADS)? a. Electric and gas. b. Explosive and gas. c. Percussion and electric. d. Explosive and nonexplosive. |
d. Explosive and nonexplosive |
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What must you do before you handle any impulse cartridge? a. Ensure service life is not expired. b. Ensure shelf life is not expired. c. Install shorting clips. d. Ground yourself. |
d. Ground yourself. |
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What adapter booster is used with the M904 fuze? a. T44. b. T45. c. T46. d. FZU–2/B. |
b. T45. |
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Which type of guidance system tracking energy produces a beam of coherent highly directional and intense light? a. Electro-optical. b. Light energy. c. Inertial. d. Radar. |
b. Light energy. |
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Which type of guidance system is also known as television guided? a. Electro-optical. b. Light energy. c. Inertial. d. Radar. |
a. Electro-optical |
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Which type of guidance system is nothing more than very high frequency radio waves? a. Electro-optical. b. Light energy. c. Inertial. d. Radar. |
d. Radar |
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Which type of guidance system gives the pilot a greater stand-off distance? a. Radar. b. Laser. c. Electro-optical/television (TV). d. Global positioning system aided inertial navigation system (GAINS). |
d. Global positioning system aided inertial navigation system (GAINS). |
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In which type of guidance system does the weapon send out the tracking energy? a. Active. b. Passive. c. Semi-active. d. Semi-passive. |
a. Active |
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Which type of precision-guided munitions (PGM) hones in on energy reflected off the target by another source? a. Active. b. Passive. c. Semi-active. d. Semi-passive. |
c. Semi-active |
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What system is actually the brain of precision-guided munitions (PGM)? a. Control. b. Guidance. c. Armament. d. Propulsion. |
b. Guidance. |
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The purpose of the fixed control surfaces used on guided munitions is to a. provide ballast in flight. b. stabilize the weapon in flight. c. steer the weapon to the target. d. provide aerodynamics in flight |
b. stabilize the weapon in flight |
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The purpose of the movable control surfaces used on guided munitions is to a. provide ballast in flight. b. stabilize the weapon in flight. c. steer the weapon to the target. d. provide aerodynamics in flight |
c. steer the weapon to the target. |
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To move their control surfaces, precision guided munitions (PGM) use either hydraulic, pneumatic, or a. electro-servo actuators. b. proportional. c. electronic circuits. d. pressurized fluid. |
a. electro-servo actuators |
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A control system that can make minor or large corrections relative to the flight path of the target is said to have a. a “bang-bang” control system. b. a closed-loop control system. c. proportional navigation. d. directional navigation |
c. proportional navigation. |
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The air-to-air missile proximity fuze detonation occurs when a. a predetermined amount of time elapses. b. the missile senses the target getting closer. c. the missile senses the target moving farther away. d. the missile comes into direct contact with the target. |
c. the missile senses the target moving farther away. |
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What type of rocket motor propellant is used in air-to-air missiles? a. Gas grain. b. Granular. c. Liquid. d. Solid. |
d. Solid. |
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Live missiles must always have a ground wire attached to them to prevent static electricity from a. damaging the internal circuits. b. igniting their rocket motors. c. damaging the missile. d. arming the fuze |
b. igniting their rocket motors |
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What components, minimum, make up a propulsion system? a. Rocket motor (RM), RM igniter, and nozzle. b. RM, propellant, and nozzle. c. Fuel and RM igniter. d. RM and RM igniter. |
d. RM and RM igniter. |
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What warhead does the guided-bomb unit (GBU)–12 laser guided bomb (LGB) use? a. MK–82. b. MK–83. c. MK–84. d. BLU–109. |
a. MK-82 |
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The MAU–169 series computer control group (CCG) consists of a detector, a. computer unit, and warhead section. b. computer, and control section. c. igniter, and computer control section. d. control section, and warhead. |
b. computer, and control section |
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Which guided-bomb unit (GBU) laser guided bomb (LGB) uses a 2,000 pound bombs? a. GBU–10. b. GBU–12. c. GBU–39. d. GBU–54. |
a. GBU-10 |
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What purpose does the WGU–12/WGU–39 series guidance control unit (GCU) seeker platform assembly serve? a. Send signals to the computer group which determines the direction to target. b. Connect the GCU to the warhead. c. “Look” for the reflected laser light signal. d. Hold the GCU seeker. |
c. “Look” for the reflected laser light signal. |
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The purpose of the BSU–84 airfoil group (AFG) is to a. provide aerodynamic lift and stability during flight. b. create smooth and stable flight while in glide mode. c. provide steering commands for the control surfaces. d. steer the bomb and provides aerodynamic lift |
a. provide aerodynamic lift and stability during flight. |
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The purpose of the aft faring assembly used on the GBU–24A/B is to a. provide an aerodynamic interface between the bomb and wing assembly. b. extend the bomb charging well conduit to the hardback assembly. c. provide more distance between the bomb and bomb rack. d. provide the aerodynamic lift and stability during flight |
a. provide an aerodynamic interface between the bomb and wing assembly. |
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What work package (WP) contains procedures for testing a laser guided bomb (LGB) computer control group (CCG)? a. WP 070 00. b. WP 080 00. c. WP 090 00. d. WP 998 00. |
b. WP 080 00 |
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What tester is the TTU–595 designed to replace for field testing all laser guided bomb (LGB) computer control groups (CCG)? a. Computer test set, AN/GJM–50. b. Digital test set, AN/GYQ–79. c. Digital test set, TTU–395. d. Digital test set, TTU–373. |
d. Digital test set, TTU–373 |
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The wing actuator tool used to perform what maintenance task? a. Install the forward adapter. b. Install and remove the wing. c. Deploy the wing in flight. d. Open and close the wings. |
d. Open and close the wings |
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The typical Joint Direct Attack Munition (JDAM) tail assembly consists of a tail fairing/structure, tail actuator subsystem (TAS), wire harness assembly, guidance control unit (GCU), a. Global positioning system (GPS) antenna, two moveable control fins, and two fixed fins. b. GPS antenna, three moveable control fins, and one fixed fin. c. three moveable control fins, and one fixed fin. d. and control fins. |
b. GPS antenna, three moveable control fins, and one fixed fin |
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Which type of guidance system does the Joint Direct Attack Munition (JDAM) use? a. Global positioning system (GPS) and inertial navigation system (INS). b. Semi-active radar homing. c. Infrared (IR). d.GPS. |
a. Global positioning system (GPS) and inertial navigation system (INS). |
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Which statement is not a benefit of off-axis delivery of the Joint Direct Attack Munition (JDAM)? a. Allows the JDAM to reach a target without requiring the aircraft to directly overfly that target. b. Provides increased aircraft and aircrew survivability. c. Allows the JDAM true “fire and forget” weapon capability. d. Provides increased weapons range. |
d. provides increased weapons range |
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What Joint Direct Attack Munition (JDAM) guidance set components provide lift and maneuverability? a. Tail assemblies. b. Aerosurfaces. c. Wings. d. Fins. |
b. Aerosurfaces |
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Which guided-bomb unit (GBU) uses a 2,000 pound warhead? a. GBU–31. b. GBU–32. c. GBU–38. d. GBU–54. |
a. GBU-31 |
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Which guided-bomb unit (GBU) decreases the likelihood of collateral damage? a. GBU–24. b. GBU–31. c. GBU–32. d. GBU–38. |
d. GBU-38 |
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Which guided-bomb unit (GBU) adds a Precision Laser Guidance Set (PLGS)? a. GBU–31. b. GBU–32. c. GBU–38. d. GBU–54. |
d. GBU-54 |
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What variant of the guided bomb unit (GBU)–39 small diameter bomb is named the Focused Lethality Munition (FLM)? a. GBU–39A/B. b. GBU–39/B. c. GBU–39/A. d. GBU–39. |
a. GBU-39A/B |
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Which guided bomb unit (GBU)–39 small diameter bomb uses a warhead manufactured as an advance penetrator in a high strength steel case? a. GBU–39A/B. b. GBU–39/B. c. GBU–39/A. d. GBU–39. |
b. GBU-39/B |
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Which guided bomb unit (GBU)–39 small diameter bomb uses a warhead manufactured from a filament wound, carbon fiber composite material? a. GBU–39A/B. b. GBU–39/B. c. GBU–39/A. d. GBU–39. |
a. GBU-39A/B |
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The guided bomb unit (GBU)–39 small diameter bomb Focused Lethality Munition (FLM) contains approximately a. 137 pounds of a multi-phased blast explosive (MBX). b. 37 pounds of a MBX. c. 36 pounds of a MBX. d. 16 pounds of a MBX |
c. 36 pounds of a MBX |
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What selectable height of burst (HOB) does the guided bomb unit (GBU)–39 small diameter bomb detonate? a. 30 or 33 feet. b. 14 or 28 feet. c. 7 or 14 feet. d. 5 or 7 feet. |
c. 7 or 14 feet |
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How many guided bomb unit (GBU)–39 small diameter bombs can the CNU–660/E container hold? a. Two. b. Three. c. Four. d. Five. |
c. Four |
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The loaded BRU–61 carriage system controls all of the following except a. targeting information passed from the aircraft to the weapon. b. weapon initiated built-in test (IBIT). c. weapon release on aircraft command. d. weapon power up sequence. |
b. weapon initiated built-in test (IBIT). |
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Which test set is called the common munitions built-in test/reprogramming equipment (CMBRE)? a. AN/GJM–396. b. AN/GYQ–79. c. AN/GJM–64. d. AN/GJM–65 |
b. AN/GYQ–79. |
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The common munitions built-in test/reprogramming equipment (CMBRE) is composed of three boxes that contain the a. digital computer system assembly, controller unit, and interface cable assembly. b. digital computer system assembly, controller unit, and accessory kit. c. test adapter unit, controller unit, and interface cable assembly. d. test adapter unit, controller unit, and accessory kit. |
d. test adapter unit, controller unit, and accessory kit. |
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What component of the common munitions built-in test/reprogramming equipment (CMBRE) is considered the ruggedized computer? a. AN/GYQ–79 digital computer test set. b. Digital computer system assembly. c. Test adapter unit. d. Controller unit. |
b. Digital computer system assembly |
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The ADU–890 is used to perform build-in test (BIT) testing on what type of munition? a. GBU–54. b. GBU–32. c. GBU–39. d. AIM–9X. |
c. GBU–39. |
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The ADU–891, Adapter Group Computer Test Set, is used in conjunction with what test set? a. AN/GYQ–79. b. WGU–12. c. TS–4044. d. TTU–373. |
a. AN/GYQ–79. |
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What additional capability does the scene magnification upgrade provide to the air-to-ground missile (AGM)–65B? a. Increased lock on and tracking of the missile to the target. b. Wider view of the battlefield to the pilot. c. “Fire-and-forget” capability. d. Greater acquisition range |
d. Greater acquisition range |
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What component is installed on the training guided missile (TGM)–65 in place of the rocket motor and hydraulic actuation system? a. Film recorder or ballast. b. Missile ballast only. c. Film recorder only. d. Laser designator |
a. Film recorder or ballast. |
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What component is housed in the forward section of the air-to-ground missile (AGM)–65 series missile? a. Guidance unit. b. Control section. c. Computer unit. d. Warhead. |
a. Guidance unit |
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Which air-to-ground missile (AGM)–65 series does not use the 125 pound cone-shaped warhead? a. B. b. D. c. G. d. H. |
c. G. |
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In the direct current (DC) battery mode, from what source of power does the AN/DSM–129 missile test set operate? a. An auxiliary battery generator. b. A standard vehicle battery. c. A standard wall outlet. d. The test set batteries. |
d. The test set batteries. |
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You can use the AN/DSM–157 test set in place of the a. DSM–99 and DSM–100. b. AN/DSM–129 only. c. DSM–100 only. d. DSM–99 only. |
a. DSM-99 and DSM-100 |
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What type of target is the air-to-ground missile (AGM)–88 designed to destroy? a. Reinforced concrete bunker. b. Headquarters building. c. Flightline runway. d. A radar installation |
d. A radar installation |
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The type of guidance system the air-to-ground missile (AGM)–88 uses is a passive a. mixer radio frequency (RF) tracker. b. short-wave RF tracker. c. low-band RF tracker. d. broadband RF tracker. |
d. broadband RF tracker. |
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The air-to-ground missile (AGM)–88 rocket motor consists of the solid propellant, igniter, safe and arm (S&A) switch, and a. blow-out seal. b. connector. c. fire wire. d. closure. |
b. connector. |
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What number of miles is the effective range of the air-to-ground missile (AGM)–88? a. 11. b. 28. c. 30. d. 62. |
c. 30 |
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Which test set do we use to operationally test the air-to-ground missile (AGM)–88 high-speed anti-radiation missile (HARM)? a. AN/GSM–396. b. AN/DSM–157. c. AN/DSM–160. d. AN/DSM–162. |
a. AN/GSM–396 |
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What USAF’s delivery platform is used to launch the air-to-ground missile (AGM)–114 Hellfire missile? a. Predator/Reaper Remotely Piloted Aircraft (RAF). b. U–2 Surveillance aircraft. c. F–15E aircraft. d. A–10 aircraft. |
a. Predator/Reaper Remotely Piloted Aircraft (RAF). |
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Which air-to-ground missile (AGM)–114 variant uses a thermoberic warhead? a. AGM–114K. b. AGM–114M. c. AGM–114N. d. AGM–114P. |
c. AGM-114N |
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Which air-to-ground missile (AGM)–114 component is not part of the guidance section? a. Forward launch shoe. b. Guidance section. c. Dome assembly. d. Wings. |
d. Wings |
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What fuel source is used for the air-to-ground missile (AGM)–158? a. 60 gallons of JP 10. b. 40 gallons of JP–10. c. 60 gallons of JP–8. d. 40 gallons of JP–8. |
b. 40 gallons of JP-10 |
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What device provides a precision targeting capability on the air-to-ground missile (AGM)–158? a. Global positioning system (GPS) aided inertial navigation system (INS). b. Semi-active continuous wave pulse Doppler. c. Semi-active radar homing. d. Infrared (IR) seeker |
a. Global positioning system (GPS) aided inertial navigation system (INS). |
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What warhead class is used on the air-to-ground missile (AGM)–158? a. WDU–42/B 1,000 pound. b. WDU–42/B 750 pound. c. WDU–32/B 500 pound. d. WDU–32/B 300 pound. |
a. WDU–42/B 1,000 pound. |
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The air intercept missile (AIM)–9L/M is comprised of the guidance control section (GCS), target detector (TD), warhead, a. safe and arm device (S&A), and rocket motor (RM). b. flight control section, and RM. c. wing/fin assemblies, and RM. d. radome, and RM. |
a. safe and arm device (S&A), and rocket motor (RM). |
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To what pressure do we recharge TMU–72/B argon coolant tanks? a. 5,000 ± 100 pounds per square inch gage (psig). b. 5,100 ± 100 psig. c. 5,200 ± 100 psig. d. 5,300 ± 100 psig |
b. 5,100 ± 100 psig. |
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Which signals are transmitted and received by the air intercept missile (AIM)–9M target detector (TD)? a. Continuous wave (CW) radar energy. b. Pulsed infrared (IR) laser energy. c. Pulsed Doppler (PD) radar energy. d. Pulsed infrared (IR) energy. |
d. Pulsed infrared (IR) energy. |
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Depending on the model, the effective range in miles of the air intercept missile (AIM)–9M missile is between a. 2 to 8. b. 2 to 9. c. 2 to 10. d. 2 to 11. |
d. 2 to 11 |
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What type of guidance system does the air-to-ground missile (AGM)–65D employ? a. Imaging infrared (IIR). b. Television guidance. c. Electro-optical. d. Semi-active. |
a. Imaging infared (IIR) |
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The purpose of the AN/DSM–129 missile AGM–65 series missile test set is to a. provide a power source for checkout of the missile control surfaces. b. provide an operational checkout of the entire missile and missile launchers. c. project an optical image into the guidance section of the missile to test the operational readiness of the missile. d. provide the interface needed between missile and the computer that determines the operational readiness of the missile. |
c. project an optical image into the guidance section of the missile to test the operational readiness of the missile. |
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Which coolant recharge unit is portable and capable of filling one bottle at a time? a. Guidance control unit (GCU)–26A/E. b. AN/DSM–129. c. TS–4044/D. d. GCU–30/E. |
d. GCU–30/E. |
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What type of missile guidance system does the air intercept missile (AIM)–9X use? a. Semi-active continuous wave pulse Doppler (PD). b. Passive infrared (IR). c. Active infrared (IR). d. Passive radar. |
b. Passive infrared (IR). |
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What component provides air intercept missile (AIM)–9X flight control? a. Control actuation system. b. Fin actuator unit (FAU). c. Jet vane control (JVC). d. Contact fuze device. |
b. Fin actuator unit (FAU). |
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How does the air intercept missile (AIM)–9X digitally communicate with the launching aircraft? a. Electronic safety-arming device (ESAD). b. Mid-body umbilical connector. c. Analog umbilical connector. d. Contact buttons. |
b. Mid-body umbilical connector. |
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In the guidance section of the air intercept missile (AIM)–120, what allows it to perform the functions of acquisition and track, navigation, data link processing, and section secondary power? a. Hardware and software. b. Improved electronics. c. Thermal batteries. d. Active radar. |
a. Hardware and software. |
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What mechanism is the primary kill of the air intercept missile (AIM)–120 warhead? a. Advanced annular rod construction. b. Continuous rod construction. c. Fragments. d. Blast. |
c. Fragments |
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What number of pounds is the explosive weight of the air intercept missile (AIM)–120 warhead? a. 10. b. 15. c. 30. d. 45. |
b. 15 |
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What component prevents the air intercept missile (AIM)–120 rocket motor from becoming propulsive? a. Thermally initiated venting system (TIVS). b. Electronic-actuated firing device (ESAD). c. Arm-fire device (AFD). d. Umbilical receptacle |
a. Thermally initiated venting system (TIVS). |
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What missile test set used to verify serviceability of an air intercept missile (AIM)–120? a. AN/DSM–157. b. AN/DSM–99. c. TS–4108/G. d. TS–4044/D. |
c. TS-4108/G |
