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119 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Which metals found in aviation equipment will normally begin to corrode if salt deposits, other corrosive soils, or electrolytes are allowed to remain? |
Aluminum and magnesium alloys |
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For aircraft cleaning chloride content should be less than how many parts per million, approximately the same limit as that for potable water? |
400 parts |
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The two most important factors in preventing corrosion, and the only ones which can be controlled by field personnel, are the removal of the electrolyte and the application of what? |
Protective coatings |
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As many as how much of all military avionic failures are due to the corrosion process? |
30% to 40% |
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Corrosion control program shall be structured as required by what? |
COMNAVAIRFORINST 4790.2 |
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Those aircraft and avionics systems exposed to salt air and what environments require the most stringent corrosion control programs? |
Tropical |
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What enables a record of corrosion-related failures to be submitted to the appropriate technical services facility for analysis? |
maintenance data collection system(s) |
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Refer to what or the appropriate parent service organization documents for the handling, storage, and disposal of hazardous materials? |
DODI 6050.05, DoD Hazard Communication (HAZCOM) Program |
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NAVAIR maintains the what to assist Navy and Marine Corps personnel in selecting the NSN for hazardous materials listed in technical publications? |
AVIATION HAZARDOUS MATERIALS LIST (AHML) |
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What is the most common type of corrosion (and the one that can be most effectively treated by maintenance personnel)? |
electrochemical corrosion |
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Electrons flow through liquid solutions only in the presence of what? |
ions |
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When is the best time to prevent corrosion? |
the design stage |
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The most active metals (those which tend to lose electrons easily), such as what, corrode easily? |
magnesium and aluminum |
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When some of the electrolyte on a metal surface is partially confined, metal in this confined area corrodes more rapidly than other metal surfaces of the same part outside this area. This type of corrosion is called what or differential aeration cell? |
an oxygen concentration cell |
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Many alloys used in aircraft construction are sensitive to a form of corrosion known as what? |
stress corrosion cracking |
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What type of corrosion is probably the most common type of corrosion? |
Uniform surface corrosion |
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What type of corrosion is usually recognizable by the presence of a buildup of corrosion deposits at the joint between the metals? |
Galvanic |
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What is an advanced form of intergranular corrosion where the surface grains of a metal are lifted up by the force of expanding corrosion products occurring at the grain boundaries? |
Exfoliation |
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What kind of corrosion occurs because the environment of the local area is very different from the larger environment? |
Crevice |
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What can develop at any point where the oxygen in the air is not allowed to diffuse into the solution, thereby creating a difference in oxygen concentration between two points? |
An oxygen differential cell |
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Metals which depend on a tightly adhering passive film, such as the oxide film on corrosion resistant steel, are prone to rapid corrosive attack by what? |
active/passive cells |
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What type of corrosion is characterized by grooves, gullies, waves, rounded holes and/or valleys in the metal surface? |
Erosion |
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Stress corrosion can be prevented by placing what between the metal and the corrosive environment, or by applying protective coatings and/or water displacing corrosion preventive compounds? |
insulating barrier |
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What increases resistance to corrosion fatigue by creating protective compressive stresses on the surface, which discourages crack initiation? |
Shot peening |
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What corrosion occurs at contact areas between materials under load subject to repeated vibration? |
Fretting |
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What are the most widely used materials for aircraft construction? |
Aluminum and aluminum alloys |
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The corrosion product of what is a white to gray powdery material which can be removed by mechanical polishing or brushing with abrasives? |
aluminum |
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aluminum alloys are often covered with a thin layer of nearly pure aluminum, called what? |
cladding or Alclad |
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What are used extensively throughout avionic systems as antennas, structures, chassis, supports, and frames (radar)? |
Magnesium alloys |
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The corrosion products of what are white powdery snow-like mounds? |
Magnesium |
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What are non-magnetic and can only be hardened by cold working? |
300 series steels |
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What is used as a protective plating, to provide a smooth, wear-resistant surface, and to reclaim worn parts? |
Chromium |
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What is common on avionic RF shields, filters, crystal covers, and automatic switching devices? |
tin plating |
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Nonmetallic materials (plastics, elastomers, paints and adhesives) are not subject to what, since ions are not easily formed from nonmetallic materials and the electrical conductivity of non-metals is extremely low? |
electrochemical corrosion |
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What or carbon fiber composites are materials which consist of reinforcing fibers in a matrix made of organic resin, usually epoxy? |
Graphite |
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Encapsulants and conformal coatings are used to envelop a/an what, module or assembly? |
avionic component |
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What are used to encase a part or component, such as in an electrical connector? |
Potting compounds |
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Graphite and moisture will promote what kind of corrosion in many metals? |
galvanic |
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The primary source of the world’s salt is the ocean, which is what % salt? |
3.5% to 3.9% |
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Most fungus growth is inhibited by temperatures above? |
104°F (40°C) |
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Most military equipment is intended for service in what environments? |
low pressure (high altitude) |
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What is the deterioration of a material by corrosion processes that occur as a result of the activity of a living organism? |
Biological corrosion |
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What kind of bacteria require oxygen to live |
Aerobic |
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Ideal growth conditions for most fungi and bacteria are temperatures between 68° and 104°F (20° and 40°C) and relative humidities between what? |
85 and 100% |
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Equipment shall be properly packaged in accordance with what to minimize damage during shipment? |
MIL-STD-2073-1 |
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In P-3 two what, one installed on each inboard engine, indirectly provide the air pressure necessary for cabin pressurization? |
Engine Driven Compressors (EDCs) |
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In P-3 the isobaric and differential subsystems are both part of the cabin pressure control unit, and control cabin pressure by use of what? |
the outflow valve |
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In P-3 If cabin differential pressure reaches 11.7 ( + 0.5,--0.0) inches of mercury (5.75 psi) on aircraft not incorporating AFC 341, or 13.9 (+0.5, --0.0) inches of mercury (6.83 psi) on aircraft incorporating AFC 341, and on P--3C aircraft BUNO 160290 and subsequent, what opens as necessary to limit cabin differential pressure to this higher but still safe value? |
the safety relief valve |
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In P-3 selection range, of the rate–of–change control on the cabin pressure controller, is what of pressure change, and operates automatically as selected during isobaric subsystem operation? |
from 200 to 2000 feet per minute |
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In P-3, the cabin pressure controller is divided internally into how many major chambers by the rectangular rate control diaphragm? |
two |
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In P-3, what limits maximum differential pressure across the diaphragm to approximately 4 to 5 inches of water? |
Two small relief valves |
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In P-3, the differential control system comes into operation whenever cabin differential pressure reaches how many inches of mercury (5.46 psi)? |
11.1 (+0.3,--0.1) |
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In P-3, The barometric correction mechanism consists of a barometric correction indicator tape, graduated through a range of how many inches of mercury? |
from 28.0 to 31.0 |
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In P-3, a cabin altitude selector indicator tape is graduated from what? |
1000 feet below sea level to 10,000 feet above |
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In P-3 what valve, in conjunction with the cabin pressure controller, provides automatic control of cabin pressure throughout the operating range of the aircraft by controlling flow of cabin air to atmosphere in response to the selected cabin rate--of--pressure change and cabin altitude selection? |
Cabin outflow valve |
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In P-3 the safety relief valve opens at how many (+0.5, --0.0) inches of mercury (5.75 psi) on aircraft not incorporating AFC 341, or how many (+0.5, --0.0) inches of mercury (6.83 psi) on aircraft incorporating and on P-3C aircraft BUNO 160290 and subsequent? |
11.7/ 13.9 |
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In P-3 what valve protects the cabin against excessive pressure that could result from malfunction of the isobaric and differential control systems andthecabinoutflow valve? |
safety relief |
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In P-3 negative pressure relief valve, a small adjustable stop on the yoke is set opposite the hinge to provide a how many inch clearance when the valve is closed? |
0.07 (+/-0.01) |
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In P-3, a normally open switch closes when cabin altitude increases to how many feet and sends a signal through the indicator lights control to the CABIN PRESS warning light on the center instrument panel annunciator panel? |
10,000 (+/-300) |
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In P-3 the CLIMB indicator is vented to cabin pressure and displays cabin pressure change on a scale of what in an equivalent altitude change rate of 1000 feet per minute? |
0 feet to +/-2000 feet |
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In P-3, the Ground Pressure Test Selector Switch must be in which position for normal in-flight cabin pressure control? |
NORMAL |
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In P-3 ice detector probe, the channel containing seven small holes, serves as what? |
Sensing element |
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In P-3 the wing anti-icing system is a what type system utilizing hot compressed air from the engines? |
Hot wing |
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In P-3 wing anti-icing system, the ejector manifolds (piccolo tubes) have jet pump type venturi that mix the hot compressed bleed air with what? |
Wing leading edge open area air |
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In P-3 wing anti-icing system, four blowout doors, located where, open when wing leading edge open area pressure reaches 5 psi? |
In the bottom of each wing |
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In P-3 wing anti-icing system two blowout panels, one in each center section compartment service bay access door open when internal air pressure in the center section compartment reaches what? |
1.4 psi |
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In P-3 directly below each engine block is an OPEN light that comes on when the bleed air valve is open how many degrees? |
2 degrees or more |
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In P-3 the fuselage bleed air shutoff valve (open or close) switches are normally in which position? |
CLOSE with guards |
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In P-3 if the ambient temperature in an area exceeds the limit of what, the light for that wing comes on? |
88°C (190°F) for inboard and center and 104°C (220°F) for outboard |
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In P-3 the circuit on LW HOT and RW HOT warning lights can be tested by pressing what switch? |
the BLEED AIR OVERHEAT |
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In P-3 the LE HOT light comes on when the leading edge temperature exceeds what at any one of six temperature sensors? |
110°C (230°F) |
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In P-3 how many engine compressor 14th-stage bleed air ports are connected by elbows to a common manifold? |
two |
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In P-3 engine bleed air check valve spring-loaded to what position provide a reverse flow check for the 14th stage? |
closed |
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In P-3 what permits passage in one direction of anti-icing hot air to cross ship manifold and also allows starting airflow to pass in the opposite direction to the engine? |
Engine Nacelle Bleed Air Shutoff Valves |
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In P-3 the engine nacelle bleed air shutoff valve is normally closed and is opened only when what system is in operation or when the engines are being started? |
anti-icing |
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In P-3 which valves isolate the left and right wing duct sections from the fuselage duct section? |
fuselage bleed air shutoff valves |
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In P-3 how many 2-inch modulating wing anti-icing valves maintain the constant engine compressor bleed air temperature required for anti-icing the wing leading edge? |
six |
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In P-3 the wing leading edge thermostat in the outboard leading edge plenum areas are set at what. The wing inboard and center section thermostats are set at what? |
63°C (145°F)/ 49°C (120°F) |
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In P-3 when wing leading edge open area air pressure builds up to approximately what psi, the spring tension is overcome and the door opens, thus relieving wing leading edge open area air pressure overboard? |
5 psi |
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In P-3 when service bay air pressure builds up to approximately what psi, the spring tension is overcome and the blowout panel opens, thus relieving service bay air pressure? |
1.4 psi |
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In P-3 when the temperature at one or more of the sensors exceeds what relay K1 energizes, providing a ground for the LE HOT caution light circuit, causing the light to come on? |
110°C (230°F) |
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In P-3 skin temperature sensor senses temperature ranging from –18°C (0°F) to what? |
+ 175°C (350°F) |
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In P-3 there are how many bleed air leak detection thermal switches to detect dangerous temperatures in the vicinity of ducts carrying hot air? |
nine |
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In P-3 the outboard bleed air leak detection thermal switches open at approximately and close at approximately all others open at approximately and close at approximately? |
96°C (205°F)/104°C (220°F) 79°C (175°F)/88°C (190°F) |
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In P-3 controls maintain bomb bay temperature above what during both flight and ground operations? |
-1°C (30°F) |
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In P-3 the bomb bay heating system, using bleed air for heat source, is designed to provide environmental control for the what in the bomb bay area? |
MK 46 torpedo |
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In P-3 enter bomb bay from where? |
left side forward |
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In P-3 the air ejectors, one on each side of the bomb bay, mix the hot bleed air with ambient bomb bay air by means of what (similar to the piccolo tube arrangement)? |
aspiration |
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In P-3 hot air for the bomb bay heating system is taken from where? |
the bleed air system right wing manifold |
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In P-3 bomb bay system, the what is set to maintain the bomb bay minimum temperature between approximately -1°C and +7°C (30°F and 44°F)? |
cycling thermostat |
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In P-3 if the cycling thermostat fails to open the valve, the thermostat can be bypassed by setting the BOMB BAY HEAT switch to what? |
OVRD |
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In P-3 a thermal switch actuates the BOMB BAY COLD light if the bomb bay temperature falls below approximately what degrees? |
-5°C (23°F) |
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In P-3 if the bomb bay temperature exceeds approximately what degree, a thermal switch actuates the BOMB BAY HOT light? |
54°C (130°F) |
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In P-3 the APU is not designed to supply bleed air to any aircraft systems during what? |
Flight |
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In P-3 preparatory to heating what during flight, ensure that the right fuselage bleed air shut-off valve is closed? |
the bomb bay |
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In P-3 when the bomb bay heating system air shutoff valve is open, the engine(s) supplying the bleed air experiences a total power loss of about how much? |
50 hp |
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In P-3 fire detection system, how many independent fire detecting channels are provided (one for each nacelle), which utilizes cable–type fire detector sensing elements which are routed through the three fire zones of the nacelle? |
Four |
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In P-3 fire detection system, the element of zone 1 is such that the control unit initiates an alarm when the temperature of the element exceeds what degree? |
316°C (600°F) |
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In P-3 fire detection system, the elements of which zone are such that the control unit initiates an alarm when the temperature of the element exceeds 204°C (400°F)? |
zones 2 and 3 |
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In P-3 fire detection system, the function of the what is to monitor the resistance of the sensing element and to activate the audio and visual warning devices? |
control unit |
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In P-3 fire detection system, there are how many advisory lights, 4 for each engine, which are mounted on the glareshield above the main instrument panel? |
16 |
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In P-3 fire detection system each container is pressurized to what and charged with 10.5(+0.25,-0.00) pounds of fire extinguishing agent? |
600 (+ 25,-0) psi |
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In P-3 fire detection system each system has how many containers, one container for each engine or two containers for the same engine? |
two |
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In P-3 fire detection system ifpressure gage reads in excess of how much above minimum, container must be removed not later than next phased inspection? |
100 psig |
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In P-3 the internal volume of the fire extinguishing container is how many cubic inches? |
400 (+20, -15) |
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In P-3 fire detection system, for storing cartridges, the ambient temperature should not exceed what? |
21°C (70°F). |
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In P-3 how many circuit breakers are used in the engine fire extinguishing system? |
eight |
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In P-3 the rate of discharge of a fire extinguisher system is approximately how many seconds? |
0.4 |
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In P-3 automatic extinguisher system if the primary channel fails to operate, the secondary channel, through what, fires the cartridge in approximately 20 seconds? |
a time delay relay |
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In E2C, servicing of the air cycle turbine is required every how often? |
200 hours |
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In E2C air cycle turbine servicing, allow how many minutes for oil to be distributed properly through turbine? |
15 |
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In E2C air cycle turbine servicing, approximately how many minutes is required to properly drain oil? |
20 |
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In E2C air from which system is used to pressurize the aircraft? |
Air cycle system |
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In E2C cockpit and CIC compartment temperature is monitored automatically by what? |
the air temperature sensing units |
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In E2C with the cockpit and/or CIC compartment MANUAL TEMP switch held at which position, the environmental controller applies a signal to open the cockpit and/or CIC compartment temperature control valve? |
INC |
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In E2C if the air temperature in the inlet ducts leading into the cockpit and/or CIC compartment exceeds what degree the inlet air maximum temperature switch closes a circuit that energizes a relay in the environmental controller? |
250°F (121°C) |
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In E2C if a power failure occurs in the environmental controller the system is automatically placed in the manual mode of operation and temperature is controlled by what? |
the MANUAL TEMP switches |
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In E2C, if an electrical failure occurs in the air conditioning system, the shutoff valve can be opened by rotating the what knob on the shutoff valve? |
manual override |
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In E2C at an aircraft altitude of 35,000 feet, the flow limiter passes a maximum of approximately how many pounds of air per minute? |
21.5 |
