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141 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is the name of the Fast Glycoltic Type of muscle fibers?
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Type IIB
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What is the name of the Fast Oxidative Type of muscle fibers?
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Type IIA
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What is the name of the Slow Oxidative Type of muscle fibers?
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Type IA
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What are characteristics of Fast Glycolytic type of muscle fibers?
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Type IIB; have few mitochondrion (since they do not do much oxidation), abundant Glycogen and primarily do Glycolysis leading to lactic acid build up, do not require oxygen thus not as much myoglobin (or vascularization?), fibers have larger diameter, fatigue easily, and have large motor units.
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Muscle fibers according to Dr. Elmoselhi
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Type IA is slow oxidative (Red); Type IIA is fast oxidative (Red); Type IIB is fast glycolytic (White). Need to be able to differentiate difference in ATP source, mitochondria, glycogen, myoglobin, fatigue resistance, contraction speed, fiber diameter, functional role in body, etc.
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Latch Bridge in Smooth muscle - how does it compare to skeletal muscle contraction?
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Latch-bridges (Tonic Contractions) occur when myosin is dephosphorylated, and they allow for the continued interaction between myosin and actin.Latch-bridges, rather than cross-bridges allows, do not detach - or detach slowly such that they maintain a tonic level of tension in smooth muscle with little ATP consumed.
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Afterload vs preload
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Afterload represents Istonic contraction and is the variable used is Velocity-Force relationships for muscles; the muscle is only allowed to contract while there is an afterload and the force of the weight is held CONSTANT. Preload relates to Isometric conctractions where the variable can be used for Tension-Length relationships.
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What myocardial cells have the slowest conduction velocity?
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AV nodal cells (AV delay); this ensures ventricles will not contract too early. Note Purkinje fibers have VERY fast conduction velocity
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What myocardial cells have the fastest conduction velocity?
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Purkinje fiber cells. Slowest conduction is at AV nodal cells.
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Which myocradial cells have an unstable resting membrane potential (in its Action Potential)?
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SA Node cells
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Describe the action potential for a Purkinje fiber
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Similar to Ventricular fiber but its Duration would be slightly longer.
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In skeletal muscle how can you increase the tension while maintaining the muscle length constant?
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Increase number of stimulated motor units; works to reqruit more fibrils with cross-bridge cycling producing more tension.
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CDP-diacylglycerol
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Can lead to syntesis of all (5) Phospholipids
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How does Pepsin cut immunoglobin?
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To produce two fragments, one with Fc portion and second with both Fab portions connected.
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What is one of the major sites where γδT cells activity is observed
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Skin epithelium
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What is Angiotensin?
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Protein that causes blood vessels to constrict and increaseing blood pressure; from the renin-angiotensin system.
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Antigen presenting cells are reposnible for the activation of which T-cells?
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Helper T-cells
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Which antibody can travel to fetus by translocation across placenta?
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IgG
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Where are Hassel's Corpuscles found?
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Medulla of Thymus; these are reticular cells that have condensed.
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Where are Preyers Patches found?
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Lymphoid tissue found in small intestine, ileum. This is a Lymphoid Nodule that predominantly contains B-cells in germinal center but also has few T-cells present.
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What are Continues (somatic) capillaries?
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These are capallaries that are not fenestarted, they are continues.
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What is genomic imprinting?
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Gene expression only occurs from one allele of the two inherited (one from meach parent). One allele is silenced by methylation and the one expressed is the imprint.
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Where is the subdural space in the CNS?
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Space between arachnoid and dura mater.
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Where is the subdural space in the CNS?
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Space outside of the Dura Matter (between dura matter and surrounding vertebrae.
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To direct blood away from skin of extremeties what occurs at metarterioles and arteriovenous?
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arteriovenous shunts activated and open (connect arteries to veines); metarterioles have constricted (connect arterioles to capillaries).
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What is the order of things pierced in a lumbar puncture?
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skin, subcutaneous tissue, supraspinal ligament, interspinal ligament, ligamentum flavum, dura mater, the arachnoid mater and into the subarachnoid space.
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In wjhich cases of spina bifida will you see a tuft of hair?
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Occulta
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What is the location of the internal vertebral plexus and external vertebral plexus? Which facilitates spread of cancer?
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Internal (located between pia matter and dura matter) - is the one that facilitates metastisis; external (superficial to vertebral bodies)
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Interspinous ligament
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weakly conncets spinous process of adjacent vertebra
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Ligamentum flavum
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connects lamela of adjacent vertebra (lamela are what comes out of forming the posterior arch that will then lead into the thin/sharp spinous process)
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Costovertebral ligament
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connects transverse process of the vertebra to the ribs
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Supraspinous ligament
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is superior to interspinous ligament and forms a stronger connection
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Nuchal ligament
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is superior to supraspinous ligament and is the strong median ligament of the neck, it allows muscles to connect to cervical vertebrae especially since they (C3-C5) have small spinous process.
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Herniation of the L4-L5 disc affects what nerve?
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L5 nerve root; b/c L4 exits through superior bony portion of forman
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What contributes nitorgens to both purine and pyrimidine rings?
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Aspartate
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How does cirrhosis of the liver manifest?
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Due to lack of oxygen flow to hepatocytes. Reults from long term damage by toxic agents such as alcohol, viruses, etc. In the case of alcohol - ethanol metabolism leads to fatty liver that further constricts the vascularization of hepatocytes. Cirrhosis is characterized by the entire organ being invaded by fiborous material (may be from fibroblast filling in scar tissue over damaged hepatocytes).
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Ketonemia
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increased blood ketone bodies
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Ketonuria
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level of ketone bodies high enough that they appear in urine
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Ketosis
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level of ketone bodies higher than tissues ability to use them. Ketosis leads to ketonuria or ketoacidosis.
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ketoacidosis
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Level of ketones in plasma exceeds the bloods buffering capacity; pH falls
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How does ethenal metabolism affect Fatty Acid synthesis?
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Etyhanol metabolism takes place in the liver and creates Acetyl CoA and NADH (these steps are in mitochondria of liver cells) as end products. Chain elongation of fatty acids in the mitochondria of liver cells requires a high ratio of NADH:NAD+ and it uses Acetyl CoA as the two carbon molecule to add to the growing FA (it does not require Malonyl CoA as is required in cytosol for FA synthesis and elongation). The result is FA elongation in the liver; fatty liver, and after manny years could lead to cirrhosis of the liver if blood flow is blocked to hepatocytes.
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How are unsaturated fatty acids synthesized?
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The saturated fatty acid is synthesized and then chain desaturation is accomplished by enzymes in microsomes - microsomal desaturases (vesicles formed form the ER). Chain desaturation can be combined with elongation.
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We have microsomal desaturase to create double donds at which locations?
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9, 4, 5, an 6. But nothing for 12 and 15, these we have to obtain from only plants in diet.
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IN synthesis of fatty acids which carbons from malonyl are added to growing FA?
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C1 and C2
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What is the oxidation/synthesis ratio of net ATP produced/Consumed for Fatty Acids
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58%
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How are branched chain Fatty Acids produced?
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By using Methylmalonyl CoA is used as a substrate for FA synthesis instead of Malonyl. And Methylmalonyl is synthesized by the carboxylation of propionyl CoA.
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When will odd chained fatty acids be produced during FA synthesis?
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When propionyl CoA is used instead of acteyl CoA for the initial transfer to ACP.
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PPAR gama (y)
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Nuclear receptors activated by the binding of polyunsaturated fatty acids. This one functions in liver and induces protiens involved in adipose fat synthesis, lipoprotein lipase, and CD36 (carries Fatty Acids across plasma membrane). Also makes cell more sensitive to Insulin and it could be used to treat Type II Diabetes.
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PPAR alpha
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Nuclear receptors activated by the binding of mono and poly unsaturated fats. Stimulates peroxisomal lipid metabolism and mitochondrial beta-oxidation to a lesser extent.
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Can Fatty acids regulate gene expression? If so, how?
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Yes. They bind to nuclear receptors that are less sensitive, called "Orphan Receptors" such as Peroxisome Proliferators-Activated Receptors (PPAR)
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What are Orphan Receptors?
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Less sensitive Nuclear Receptors that can influence transcription when bound by Fatty Acids. Ex: Peroxisome Proliferators-Activated Receptors (PPAR).
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When a Triglyceride is synthesized are the Acyl (fatty acids) groups added saturated or unsaturated?
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Usually the C1 acyl is Saturated, and the C2 acyl is Unsaturated, C3 can be either.
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What is the start and end molecules for Triacylglycerol synthesis?
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Start with Glycerol-3-Phosphate (produced from glycolysis or glycerol); end with Phosphatidic Acid (contains an acyl group on C1 and C2, then C3 has the phosphate group). If a thrid acyl group is added to C3 in place the phosphate group then a Triacylglycerol ahs been formed.
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Where does Triacylglycerol synthesis occur?
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It can occur in liver or adipocyte; if in these tissues then its starting molecule Glycerol-3-Phosphate can be created from Glycolysis - from Dihydroxyacetone Phosphate catalyzed by glycerol phosphate dehydrogenase. Secondly, it can occur strictly in liver when Glycerol is catalyzed by glycerol kinase to glycerol-3-phosphate.
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How do adipocytes get a hold of glucose?
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Only in the presence of insulin; thus insulin must be hight for adipocytes to synthesize Triacylglycerol
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What are factors that can lead to Fatty Liver?
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Chronic alcoholism; metabolic block in production of lipproteins for VLDL; inc. palsma fatty acids due to mobalization of triacylglycerol from adipocytes or hydrolysis of chylomicrons
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Ghrelin; where is it produced and main action?
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peptide hormone produced by stomach - acts on brain to boost appetite and food intake
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PYY 3-36; where is it produced and main action?
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Released by intestine when food begins to pass through and acts on brain to signal "full" feeling
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Cholecystokinin (CCK); where is it produced and main action?
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small peptide released fro intestine in response to meal, it stimulates the release of digestive enzymes from the pancreas and bile from gallbladder
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What creates the force to pump blood into systemic circulation?
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The elastic aorta and recoil against the closed aortic valve. Left ventricle pumps blood out of heart and into aorta that stretches (due to its elasticity), at the same time the aortic valve closes - the blood recoils against the closed aortic valve and now has the pressure or driving force to move into systemic circulation.
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Vas Vasorum - define and function?
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Network of small blood vessels that supply blood to the wal layers of large blood vessels. Important in both arteries and veins; however veins may have more vas vasorum since the blood is less oxygenated in veins and more is required to feed wall layers of veins.
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What are the 5 phospholipids we should know?
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Phosphatidyl Serine, Phosphatidyl Ethanolamine, Phosphatidyl Choline, Phosphatidyl Inositol, Diphosphatidyl Glycerol (Cardiolipin)
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Metarterioles - location and significance?
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At the end of arterioles right before they branch into capillaries. They control blood flow through capillaries.
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Arteriovenous Anastamoses - location and function?
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Forms bridge between arteries and veins, bypassing capillary beds; is regulated by smooth muscle contraction. This function allows for the best ditribution of blood during stress, heavy exertion, menstruation, erections, or temperature changes. A Glomera is when this anastamoses occurs between arterioles and venules, occuring mainly in ears, finger pads, and nail beds. The arterioles have no internal elastic lamina and its abundant smooth muscle allows for complete or partila closing of vessels.
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Carotid bodies - location and function?
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A chemical receptor located at the first branch (bifurcation) of each carotid artery. The carotoid bodies function as chemoreceptors that generate nerve impulses when there is a change in blood oxygen, CO2, or pH; the Glossopharyngeal nerve transmits these signals to brain.
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Carotid Sinus
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Is a mechanoreceptor (baroreceptor) at the small widening of the wall of each carotid artery located at the first branch (bifurcation), this area contains pressure sensitive nerve endings to monitor blood pressure and transmit this to the brain via the glossopharyngeal nerve. Doing a Carotid Massage would trigger a paraysmpathetic pathway that would lower the heart rate and dilate blood vessels; can be affective for someone experiencing tachacardia and reduced blood pressure as a result; never do for a patient with artherosclorosis.
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Name 5 functions of Endothelial cells of Capallaries
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(1) Regulate blood pressure by converting Angiotensin-I to Angiotensin-II; (2) Dilate blood vessels and prevet clots by secreting Nitric Oxide, Endotholin-1, and Prostacyclin (this prevents thrombosis); (3) Inactivated Bradykinin, Serotonin, Prostaglandins, thrombin, and epinephrin, (4) Lipolysis, breakdown of lipoproteins to triacylglycerides and cholesterol; (5) Participate inn capillary transport.
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What are the three types of capillaries and where can they be found?
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Continues (blood brain barrier); Fenestrated (kideney glomerulous); Sinusoidal (liver sinusoids, bone marrow, spleen - where phagocytotic cells are aslo found)
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Name the walls of the blood and lymphatic vessels and describe their composition?
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Tunica Intima (Endothelial cells, thin basal lamina, Internal elastic lamina only in arteries), Tunica Media (Smooth Muscle, Elastic Lamina, external elastic lamina), and Tunica Adventia (Collagen Type I, Elastic Lamina, Nerve innervation, Vas Vasorum)
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What are Peyer's Patches?
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Lymphoid Nodules (unencapsulated lymphoid aggregates) occuring in clusters in lamina propia of the small intestine.
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What occurs to the thymus as a person ages?
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The thymus shrinks; notably the medulls is replaced with adipose tissue (fat), Hassal's Corpuscles increase in size and may become calcified, and the cortex also concenses. This may be casue of the loss of immunity in older age.
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Describe T-Lymphocyte development to maturity starting from bone marrow.
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Stem cells in bone marrow differentiate into T-Lymphocyte precursors that enter blood and travel to Thymus. These cells enter Thymus cortex where they undergo Antigen-independent thymocyte proliferation - T-cell programing. - As these T-cells mature they become programmed and move into the medulla of the thymus where they can enter circulation now has CD4+ (helper) cells and CD8+ (Kilelr cells). - These cells will travel to Secondary Lymphoid organ (ie Lymph Node, splee, tonsils) where they will undergo Antigen-Dependent programing and work in Immune response.
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What are the lymphnoid organs? -primary vs secondary?
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These are encapsulated lymphatic aggregates. Bone marrow and thymus are primary lymphoid organs b/c they have antigen-independent programing. Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Tonsils are Secondary lymphnoid organs b/c they undergo Antigen-Dependent programming
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What are the major components of lymphoid tissue?
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Lymphocytes, and Reticular Connective Stroma that has a meshwork of lymphocytes with Macrophages and Antigen pressenting cells (ie reticular and dendritic cells).
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What are the effector cells produced from T and B lymphocytes after they undergo blast transformation and differentiation?
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T cells (CD4+/helper cells, CD8+/killer cells, and CD8+/Supressor cells, not well understood); B cells only differentiate into Plasma Cells that’s ecret immunoglobins for Humoral response.
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What is a Hapten?
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It is an antigen that can be bound by an antibody but will not elicit an antibody response
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How do antigen and antibody maintain their associated/connection? This is directly from
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This is an immune complex (prodcut of antibody antigen interaction) that is formed by Hydrogen bonds and hydrophobic interactions. The tightness of this interaction is based on the afinity of the antibody.
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Why are high affinity interactions between antibody-antigen good for immune response? Why might this be dangerous?
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Tight interactions (high affinity)neutralize toxin (antigen); however, this tight interaction may lead to deposit in tissue and casue tissue destruction
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What is the Kaff affinity constant?
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Measure the tightness and stability of Antigen-Antibody complex.
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How can an antibody prevent an antigen from entering (infecting) a cell?
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Antodoies may neutralize the antigen by binding to it and blocking the antigens ability to recognize and bind to its target host cell.
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How is lympreturned to blood by the lymphatic system?
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Emptying lymph into the venous system at the junction of the jugular and subclavian veins in neck.
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What is the main function of the Lymph Nodes?
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Filter lymph; remove antigens, cellular debris, lymphocytes, Bacteria, Tumor cells; add Immunoglobins, Lymphocytes, and Plasma Cells
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What cell type is contained within the Germinal Center of the Nodules in the cortex of the Lymph Node?
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Lymphoblast; this area is surrounded by Mantle Zone that containes small lymphocytes and memory cells that will form Plasma Cells that travel to Medullary Chords and secrete Igs that will flow to the medullary sinus and out efferent lymphatic vessel.
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How does lymph flow through a lymph node?
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Enters through Afferent vessel -> Subcapsular Sinus -> Peritrabecular Sinus -> Medullary Sinus -> Efferent Vessel
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How do immunoglobins exit the lymph node?
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B-lymphocytes mature in Nodules producing Plasma cells that move to Medullary Cords; from Medullary Cords the plasma cells secrete immunoglobins that move to Medullary sinus and are released into the efferent vessel that will lead the Igs being released into venous blood stream at the juntion of the jugular and subclavian veins.
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How does diapedesis relate to HEV (high endothelial venules)?
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This is a process that allows (T) Lymphocytes to exit blood stream quickly and enter directly into Lymph Node. Through the Rolling (associating with microvilli), Tethering (selective binding slows lymphocyte down further), Activation (binding trigger chemokine release), Strong Adhesion (chemokines initiate stronger adhesion), and Transmural Emigration (lymphocytes squeeze between endothelial cells to exit vessel).
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WHAt is splenomegaly?
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Spleen enlargement
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Describe blood flow in the spleen from arteries and back to body.
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Celiac trunk of Abdominal Aorta -> Splenic Artery -> Trabecular Artery -> Central Arteries -> Peniciliar Arterioles -> Sheated Arterioles -> Red Pulp Sinus -> Red Pulp Veins -> Trabecullar Veins -> Splenic Vein -> inferior mesenteric vein -> hepatic portal vein -> liver
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What is the main function of the spleen?
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Filter blood to remove Antigens and old erythrocytes.
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What is an immunogen?
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A substance that binds an antibody and as a result elicits an immune respponse (effector and memory cells produced).
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Why is an ELISA test used?
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Widley used test for the presence of a particular antibodies in blood. Common screening test for AIDS but can be used to test for any antibody that holds a specific antigen we are intersted in.
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In order to create diversity of antibodies what genes are required to produce different variable light chains.
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(V and J genes). Either two kappa or two lambda variable light-chains need top be produced. In either case we are able to create numerous varieties due to the Recombination of the geneome and selective splicing that goins together V and J genes.
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What genes account for producing the diversity that is present in the variable heavy-chain and light-chain of immunoglobins?
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Heavy-chain (V, D and J genes); Light-chains (V and J genes - both either kappa or lambda)
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What are the first two Immunoglobins produced by B-lymphocytes during Antigen-independent phase?
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IgM and then closely followed by IgD. Why is this?
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What is the term that describes the 3 layers of membrane that surround the brain and spinal cord? Name each layer?
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Meninges. Dura Mater (outer most layer that is tough, fiborous and protective); Arachnoid Mater (seperated from Dura Mater by cerebrospinal fluid and has many blood vessels); Pia Mater Idips into the brain furrows).
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Identify the features of spina bifida
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Vertebral column disorder. Developmental defect in the neural tube of the embryo. Can cause loss of one or more vertebra of the spine, such that the neural tissue and meninges can portrude. In severe cases meninges buldges through opening to form cyst like swelling in lower back. IN the worste cases the spinal cord is exposed and their may be total paralysis of the lower part of the body and incontinence. Can be easily prevented by an adequate intake of folic acid prior to and in the first weeks of conception.
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Lumbar punture (spinal tap) - how is it performed and its clinical significance.
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Passage of a needle between two vertebrae of the spine, dorsaly, into central lumen - the fluid filled (cerebrospinal flui) space lying below the termination of the spinal cord. It is done to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid; allows testing for disorders of the nervous system. Can also be done to inject antibiotic drugs, anaesthetic agents, and radio-opaque substances.
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Which antibody can cross into placenta?
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Ig G
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What are the functions of an antibody?
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Neutralization, Immune Phagocytosis, Antibody Dependent Cellular Cytotoxicity (ADCC), Compliment Activation, Antigen Presentation
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What are the steps that produce the diversity of antigens (variable light-chains)?
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Rearrangement of germinal genome; transcription of primary transcript; alternate splicing; results
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What is the first antibody created during the antigen-independent programming in the bone marrow? Why?
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Ig M; b/c the first C gene is always Mu and after splicing has occurred the Mu gene is connected to the mRNA. This Ig M is then transported to the cell surface of naive B-lymphocyte cell.
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What determines the type of immunoglobin produced? Which genes specificly?
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The heavy-chain and specificly the C gene (the first C gene in the line is Mu, then Delta, etc)
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What is a class switch or isotype switch?
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Isotype means producing different Ig's. Production of different classes of immunoglobins by looping out portions of the C-gene (Recombination) thus allowing the specific C-gene that codes for the Ig needed comes into position to be included in splicing that will produce its mRNA.
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What is clonal selection theory?
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What three mechanisms generate the diversities possible for antigens?
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(1) The numerous possible pairings of V, D, and J genesin both the light and heavy chains; (2) Junctional Diversity (very, very important - when you gain J and V they are not exact); (3) Mutations in V, D, or J genes
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Where are Plasminogens found? Structuraly, what are they similar to?
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Myelin, Heart, Muscle, Brain, and other nervous tissue. It is similar to Phosphatidyl Choline, except the group connected to C1 has a double bond (unsaturated) as follows: C1-O-C=C-R
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What molecule gives rise to all Phospholipids?
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CDP-Diacylglycerol can lead to the synthesis of the 5 phospholipids. Phosphatidate is the precursor to CDP-diacyclglycerol and thus can also produce any phopsholip, unless it creates 1,2-diacyclglycerol - which can only lead to 3 phosphates (phosphatidyl serine, ethanolamine, and choline).
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What phoshplipids can 1,2-diacylglycerol synthesis?
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Only two: Phosphatidly-ethanolamine and -choline; however phosphatidylethanolamine can be convereted to phosphatidylserine.
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How are phospholipids broken down? - where?
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First with enzyme Phospholipase that cuts intact phospholipid; if initial enzyme was A1 or A2, they may be followed by Lysophospholipase that completes the degredation. These enzymes are secreted by liver cells, intestinal mucosa also secretes one of the enzymes.
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What is the key intermediate fro all sphingolipids?
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Ceramide
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What enzyme can breakdown Sphingomyelin? - what is produced?
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Phospholipase C; this produces Ceramide (the key intermediate for all sphingolipids. Note Phospholipase C only breaks down phospholipids and is able to catalyze the degreadtion of Sphingomyelin b/c this molecule is both a phospholipid and a sphingo;ipid.
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What is a great contributing factor for neonatal Respitory Distress Syndrome?
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At the core there is insufficient lung surfacent to prevent lung colapse; surfacent lines alveoli and allows them to stay open when expirating. This results from Prematuarity and the Lecithin/Sphingomyelin ration below 2.0; for diabetic moms this ratio needs to be at least 3.4. Diabetes in the mother delays development of the fetal lung.
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What is NANA always attached to (in sphingolipid syntehsis)? -
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Galactose.
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Phosphotase C - how is it activated, what reaction doe sit catalyze and it net result in cell?
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Adrenoreceptor binds Norepinephrine and actiavtes a G-protein that activates Phospolipase. This enzyme then catalyzes the degredation of the phospholipid, Phosphatidylinositol-4,5-diphosphate (PIP2) to Inositol-1,4,5-triphosphate (IP3) and Diacylglycerol. IP3 then binds IP3 channel receptors on Sarcoplasmic Reticulum and ER which releases Calcium from these compartments into the ICF of cell; thus increasing the cells excitability (contractility in cardiac muscle). Diacylglycerol, also produced by Phospholipase C, goes on to increase the Protein Kinase C in ICF that will lead to a biological response.
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The degredation of which phospholipids is significant in producing a cellular response? - what is the response and what enzyme catalyzes the phospolipid degradation?
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Prostaglandins/Leukotrienes (Phosphatidylcholine), & cell excitation (Phosphatidylinositol). Phosphatidylcholine is catalyzed by Phospholipase A2 into Arachidonic acid (an unsaturated fatty acid) that go on to create either Prostoglandins (Thromboxanes), or Luekotrienes. PIP2 is catalyzed by Phospholipase C into IP3 (increase ICF Calcium) and Diacylglycerol (increase Protein Kinase C).
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What are gangliosides?
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Glycosphingolipids which differe mainly in the position and number of NANA residues. It is a common component of the plasma membrane that is involved in cell signal transduction through lipid rafts. Are found predominantly in the nervous system.
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high levels of insulin will increase storage of TG in adipose tissue by stimulating lipoprotein lipase. How is this stimulating storage when lipoprotein lipase functions to break down TG?
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Lipoproteins transport TG in the circulation. These have to be hydrolyze by lipoprotein lipase before the products can be taken up by a tissue. Adipose tissue will take up the hydrolysis products (free FA) and will use these to synthesize TG for storage. Insulin promotes hydrolysis of lipoprotein TG by lipoprotein lipase in the capillaries of adipose tissue; the FA released are taken up and stored as TG.
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How does lipoprotein lipase function?
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It hydorlyzes (breaks down) Triacylglycerol in Lipoproteins to form Fatty Acids that can be taken up by Adipose tissue to convert the Fatty Acid back to a Triacylglycerol and store the TG in adipocytes.
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What is the most imporatnt enzyme in triacylglycerol (fat) digestion?
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Pancreatic Lipase; it worls in small intestine.
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What is the second most imporant enzyme in fat digestion?
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Lingual Lipase; secreted in mouth but works in stomach
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What structures of the body wall are under efferent Autonomic Control?
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Cutaneous blood vessels, sweat glands, and pilorector muscles.
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What is self efficacy?
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the belief that one is capable of performing in a certain manner to attain certain goals, as a person’s belief about their capabilities to produce designated levels of performance that exercise influence over events that affect their lives.
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What is albumins function?
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Main protein of plasma it binds water (keeping water in blood and not in tissues), cations (Ca++, Na+, K+), Fatty Acids, and unconjugated bilirubin, and also drugs.
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What is a neuromuscular jitter?
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The time lapse between nerve stimulus and the action poential
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Monoamine Oxidase (MOA) - function?
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Metabolizes (breaks down) Catecholamines such as NE
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Catechol-O-methytransferase (COMT) - function?
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Degrades (metabolizes) NE and epinephrine circulating in blood and caught by liver
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Why do sympathetic effects tend to last longer than parasympathetic effects?
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B/c adronorogic effects are longer lasting since cholinergic effects are short lived due to the action of acetylcholinesterase.
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How does melanin from melanocyte enter the keratinocytes?
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Through Cytocrine secretion
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What is melnain pigment in red haired people called?
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Pheomelanin
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What three factors give skin its color?
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Melanin (gives brow tint), Caroten (yellow tint), Oxygentaed-hemoglobin in dermis capillaries (stratum papillary) (gives Red tint)
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What kind of hair is the fetus predominantly covered in? name of hair that replaces it?
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Lanugo (by 6 months covered in it and shed just before birth) -> Terminal hair (a few months after birth)
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Trichohyalin
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Keratin of hair; produced by hair follicle
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Name the structure of hair
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Cuticle-Cortex-Medulla-Cortex-Cuticle
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Sebum - location and function?
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mixture of lipid, cholesterol, triglyceride, and squalene secreted by sebaceous glands into hair follicles ducts, through a holocrine process (a form of exocrine gland that bursts plasma membrane and releases content). Subaceous glands become active after puberty when they are stimulated by sex hormones to secrete Sebum
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What are the two types of sweat glands - differences?
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Eccrine and Apocrine. Eccrine is present at birth and distributed throughout skin, except on lips, penis, and clittoris. Secretes watery, clear, nonsmelly substance including NaCl, urea, ammonia, and uric acid, it helps cool down body; and secretes substances through an exocrine system called Merocrine. APOCRINE, located at specific skin sites, axilla, pubic, anal regions, and areola of breast. Sweat is viscous, and once secreted becomes smelly.
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What are the T-cell dpendent regions of the spleen and lymph gland?
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Spleen (white pulp with periarterial lymphatic sheaths (PALS) - this srrounds arterioles); Lymph Node (paracortical zone)
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Humoral response
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Immunity response through antibodies, B-cells rather than the cell mediated response of T-cells.
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Do lymph nodules occur in all lymphatic aggregates?
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All, except thymus.
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How do glucocorticoids affect Triacylglycerol metabolism?
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These steroids promote the syntesis of TAGs by increasing the activity of "Phosphatase" enzyme that catalyzes the step required prior to being able to add the 3rd FA (R group); enzyme produces 1,2-Diacylgylcerol
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Which are the branched chain AA that will pass directly to muscle?
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Leucine, Isoleucine, and Valine.
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Why is arginine a conditionally essential AA?
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The body creates it in suffieicnt quantity for adults; but not for children who are growing - they require it in higher quantity.
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