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371 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
cranial nerves:

(3)
1. 12 pairs

2. *all* exit the skull

3. ***part of PNS***
some CN's are ONLY motor, some ONLY sensory; some carry parasympathetic fibers - which ones?
3, 7, 9, and 10
cervical vetebrae:

(2)
1. triangular vertebral foramen

2. possess **transverse foramen**
what are transverse foramen for?
**the vertebral arteries**, going up
Atlas = C1; has the following 3 things:
1. facets for articulaiton with occipital condyles

2. anterior and posterior arches

3. **facet on ANTERIOR arch to articulate with the dens**
Axis =
C2

- has dens
atlanto-occipital joint; what kind of movement does it allow?
*yes* head movements

- sagittal
Jefferson Fracture =
fracture of C1
Jefferson Fracture:

(2)
1. ~~ multiple fracture sites (burst fracture)

2. ~~ diving/head-first injuries
atlanto-axial joint =
3 joints grouped as one

- altogether, allow "no" head movement
what 3 joints make up the atlantoaxial joint?
1 median atlantoaxial joint

2 lateral atlantoaxial joints
**median atlantoaxial joint = articulation between:
dens and anterior arch

- pivot type
2 lateral atlantoaxial joints = articulations between:
inferior and superior processes

- gliding type
hangman fracture =
fracture of C2

- may involve dens ==> SC injured => quadriplegia
levels: C1 ~~
top of teeth
levels: C2 ~~
level of teeth
levels: C3 ~~
body of mandible
levels: C4~~
b/w hyoid and thyroid cartilage
levels: C6~~
cricoid cartilage
levels: C7~~
just below cricoid
the larynx is found between:
C4 and C6
functions of larynx:

(2)
1. voice production

2. maintains open airway
larynx =

(3)
thyroid + epiglottic + cricoid cartilages
hyoid bone:

(3)
1. opposite C3/C4

2. body, greater and lesser horns

3. **NO** articulations with other bones
hyoid muscles' function:

(2)
1. **swallowing**

2. accessory chewing
suprahyoids =

(3)
1. mylohyoid

2. digastrics (two bellies)

3. stylohyoid
mylohyoid:

(2)
1. ~~floor of mouth

2. inn. by CN V3
digastric, anterior belly:

(2)
1. attached to mandible

2. inn. by CN V3
digastric, posterior belly:

(2)
1. attached to mastoid

2. inn. by CN 7
stylohyoid is innervated by:
CN 7
infrahyoids =

(4)
1. sternohyoid

2. sternothyroid

3. thyrohyoid

4. omohyoid
what nerve innervates ALL infrahyoids?
**ansa cervicalis**

- EXCEPT thyrohyoid
what innervates thyrohyoid?
C1, directly
infrahyoids are also called:
strap muscles
cervical plexus =
ventral rami of SN's C1-C4
sensory branches of cervical plexus provide:
cutaneous sensation to cervical region
all 4 sensory branches of the cervical plexus exit at:
Erb's Point,

right behind SCM
4 sensory branches of cervical plexus:
1. lesser occipital (C2)

2. greater auricular (C2, C3)

3. transverse cervical (C2, C3)

4. supraclavicular (C3, C4)
motor portion of cervical plexus =
ansa cervicalis, C1-C3

- a large loop
the inferior root of the ansa cervicalis is formed by:
C1
the superior root of ansa cervicalis is formed by:
C2 and C3
SCM:

(2)
1. flexing neck or rotating it contralaterally

2. inn. by CN 11
torticollis =
head turned and tilted
muscular torticollis = result of:
damage to SCM from tumor or injury
spasdmodic torticollis =
neurological disorder of abnormal tonicity

- emerges b/w 20 and 60
cervical fascia:

(2)
1. superficial

2. deep (3 layers)
superficial cervical fascia :

(2)
1. right beneath skin

2. contains neurovasculature, fat, lymph, and **platysma muscle**
the platysma is innervated by:
CN 7
deep cervical fascia, investing layer

(3)
1. most superficial

2. surrounds entire neck

3. **encloses SCM and traps**
deep cervical fascia, prevertebral layer:

(2)
1. **encloses VC, intrinsics of back, scalenes, and longus colli**

2. extends laterally as the axillary sheath (surrounding brachial plexus)
deep cervical fascia, pretracheal layer: actually split into:
2 layers
function of Muscular layer of pretracheal fascia:
**surrounds infrahyoids**
Visceral layer of pretracheal fascia:

(2)
1. encloses thyroid gland, trachea, esophagus

2. ***has a posterior extension: buccopharyngeal fascia***
the carotid sheath is comprised in part by:
all 3 deep cervical fascia layers
contents of carotid sheath:

(3)
1. common carotid

2. IJV

3. vagus nerve
***between prevertebral and buccopharyngeal fascia is:***
a loose CT region,

a major pathway for spread of infection b/w neck and thorax
loose CT region is divided into 2 spaces , by:
**alar fascia**
alar fascia =
extension of prevertebral fascia
2 spaces of loose CT region of the neck =
1. retropharyngeal space

2. danger space
4 subdivisions of the anterior triangle:
1. submental triangle

2. submandibular triangle

3. muscular triangle

4. carotid triangle
boundaries of carotid triangle =

(3)
1. superior omohyoid

2. anterior SCM

3. posterior digastric
***contents of carotid triangle*** =

(3)
1. carotid sheath

2. ansa cervicalis

3. CN12
external carotid artery:
1. from bifurcation of C4

2. lots of branches
first 3 branches of external carotid:
1. superior thyroid

2. lingual artery

3. fascial artery
contents of the posterior triangle:

(4)
1. Erb's Point

2. EJV

3. CN 11

4. roots of brachial plexus
floor of psterior triangle =

(4)
1. splenius capitis

2. levator scapula

3. scalenes

4. inferior omohyoid
EJV exam: higher level of jugular pulsations =
greater backup into the venous system

- evaluates systemic venous pressure
CN 11:

(6)
1. spinal accessory nerve

2. arises from C1 - C5

3. enters foramen magnum

4. **exits skull via jugular foramen**

5. innervates SCM, traps

6. ***purely somatic motor***
pharyngeal arches are derived from:

(4)
1. MOSTLY NC

2. paraxial mesoderm

3. LPM

4. ectoderm
how many pharyngeal arches are there?
5 pairs

(#6 instead of #5)
aortic arches run through
pharyngeal arches
each pharyngeal arch has 4 components:
1. cartilage (NC)

2. CN (NC + ectoderm)

3. muscle (paraxial mesoderm)

4. aortic arch (LPM)
cartilage of pharyngeal arches =>
Meckel's cartilage, thyroid/cricoid cartilage, ear bones, styloid process, hyoid bone
CN's 5, 7, 9 and 10 are formed from:
placodes

(thickened ectoderm)
1st pharyngeal arch contains:

(3)
1. trigeminal ganglion (CN V)

2. muscles of mastication, others

3. 1st aortic arch
2nd pharyngeal arch contains:

(3)
1. geniculate ganglion (CN 7)

2. muscles of facial expression, others

3. 2nd aortic arch
3rd pharyngeal arch contains:

(3)
1. sup. and inf. (petrosal) ganglia (CN 9)

2. stylopharyngeus muscle

3. 3rd aortic arch
the 3rd aortic arch forms the:

(2)
1. common carotid

2. external carotid
4th pharyngeal arch:

(2)
1. sup and inf (nodose) ganglia (CN X)

2. cricothyroid, levator palatine, and pharyngeal constrictor muscles
the internal carotid is formed by:
the dorsal aortae
the skul is divided into 2 parts:
1. neurocranium

2. viscerocranium
function of neurocranium:
surrounds and protects brain
neurocranium is split into 2 parts:
1. membranous neurocranium

2. cartilagenous neurocranium
membranous neurocranium:

(4)
1. majority of neurocranium

2. ~~ intramembranous ossificaion

3. its front bones are derived from NC

4. bones in back, from paraxial mesoderm
cartilagenous neurocranium:

(4)
1. forms floor of skull

2. ~~endochondal ossification

3. front derived from NC,

4. back from **occipital sclerotomes** (mesoderm)
viscerocranium:

(4)
1. => facial bones

2. ALL from NC

3. mostly intramembranous ossification

4. *some* endochondal ossification
fontanels =

(2)
unossified regions of the skull

- permit molding of skull through 18 months

- anterior is largest
craniosynostosis =
**premature** closure of cranial structures
Treacher Collins Syndrome =
a type of **neurocristopathy**
***neurocristopathy = ***
*concurrent* cranialfacial AND heart septation defects
why do craniofacial AND heart septation defects occur concurrently so often?
**because NC cells are highly vulnerable to teratogens or genetic disorders**
teratogen =
substance, like alcohol, that interferes with development
the thoracic inlet is *completely* surrounded by skeletal elements - what are they?

(3)
body of T1

1st ribs

manubrium
LOTS of structures pass through the thoracic inlet; it also houses:
the apex of the lungs
the trachea is anterior to:
the esophagus, which is anterior to the VC
the EJV drains:

(2)
scalp and face
***what is the venous angle?***

(2)
1. the point at which the IJV and the subvlavian vein come together

2. the point at which the major lymphatics join venous drainage
major lymphatics =
right lymphatic duct,

thoracic duct
another name for the brachiocephalic trunk =
innominate artery
where does the common carotid bifurcate?
at C4
the internal carotid has NO branches in the:
neck;

supplies brain
external carotid branches, mnemonic:
Sometimes Ladies Feel Amiable; Only Physicians, Mostly Surgeons
external carotid branches:

(8)
1. superior thyroid

2. lingual

3. facial

4. ascending pharyngeal

5. occipital

6. posterior auricular

7. maxillary

8. superficial temporal
the ansa cervicalis is found atop the:
carotid sheath
**carotid body** =
ovoid **chemo**receptor
chemoreceptors monitor:
blood oxygen, CO2, and H+

- low oxygen => inc. HR, respiration
carotid sinus =
**baroreceptor**

- measures arterial pressure
**BOTH the carotid body and the carotid sinus are:**

(2)
1. found at the carotid bifurcation

2. innervated by CN 9 (glossopharyngeal), via VSF's
3 branches off the subclavian artery:
1. vertebral

2. internal thoracic

3. thyrocervical trunk

(+ costocervical trunk and dorsal scapular artery)

VIT C+D
***the Anterior Scalene divides the subclavian artery into 3 parts:**
1. Medial to AS

2. *behind* AS

3. Lateral to AS
branches of the thyrocervical trunk:

(4)
1. **inferior thyroid**

2. suprascapular

3. transverse cervical

4. ascending cervical
the transverse cervical artery supplies:
the traps
***the brachial plexus and subclavian artery pass between:***
anterior and middle scalene muscles
***the subclavian **vein** passes ANTERIOR to:***
the anterior scalene
***the phrenic nerve lies ON the:***
anterior scalene
the thyroid gland produces:

(2)
1. T3/T4

2. calcitonin
T3/T4:

(2)
1. iodine-containing

2. regulate metabolic rates
thyroid gland =
two lobes connected by isthmus

- pyramidal lobe = small superior projection
they thyroid gland gets EXTENSIVE:
supply/drainage
blood supply to thryoid gland:

(3)
1. superior thyroid artery

2. inferior thyroid artery

3. thyroid ima artery (in 10% of people)
**the superior and inferior thyroid come off of:

(2)
1. the external carotid

2. the thyrocervical trunk

**respectively**
venous drainage of thyroid gland =

(3)
superior, middle, and inferior thyroid veins
**the superior and middle thyroid veins drain into ___________; the inferior thyroid vein drains into _____________
IJV;

brachicephalic vein
4 parathyroid glands:

(2)
1. secrete parathyroid hormone

2. supplied by **superior and inferior** thyroid arteries
3 nerves of the deep neck:
1. phrenic

2. vagus

3. sympathetic chain
the vagus nerve gives off 2 major branches:
1. superior laryngeal nerve

2. recurrent laryngeal nerves
***the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve of the vagus innervates:***
the cricothyroid muscle
surgery that damages the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve will result in:
a monotone voice, since the cricothyroid muscle isn't being innervated
***the internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve innervates:***
mucous membrane (inside the larynx) ABOVE the vocal cords
the right recurrent larygneal nerve loops around:
the right subclavian
the left recurrent larygneal nerve loops around:
the aortic arch
BOTH the right and left recurrent laryngeal nerves innervate:

(2)
1. mucous membrane (within larynx) BELOW vocal cords

2. remaining muscles of the larynx
the vagus nerve innervates the ENTIRE:
larynx
in the neck, ***the sympathetic chain is found:***
POSTERIOR to the carotid sheath
3 main ganglia of the sympathetic chains in the cervical region =
1. superior cervical ganglion

2. middle cervical ganglion

3. inferior (stellate) cervical ganglion
***the MAJORITY of preganglionics in the cervical region synapse onto:***
the **superior** cervical ganglion
after synapsing on cervical ganglia, what do nerve fibers do?
**travel to their targets by coursing with the internal or external carotid**
**carotid plexus** =
network of sympathetic fibers and the blood vessels that they course with, in the cervical region
sympathetics arise from:
the lateral horn b/w T1 and L2
suboccipital triangles:

(2)
1. one on each side, under occipital bone

2. covered by splenii
splenii =
superficial intrinsic back muscles
each suboccipital triangle contains:

(2)
1. vertebral artery

2. suboccipital nerve
suboccipital nerve =
dorsal ramus of C1 SN
also associated with each suboccipital triangle:

(2)
1. great occipital nerve (DR of C2 SN)

2. least occipital nerve (DR of C3)
the greater occipital nerve provides::
cutaneous innervation to post. head
the least occipital nerve provides:
cutaneous innervation to post. head AND neck
muscular boundaries of each suboccipital triangle =

(3)
1. rectus capitis (major and minor)

2. obliquus capitis superior

3. obliquus capitis superior
the muscular boundaries of each suboccipital triangle are ALL:

(2)
1. involved in **proprioception/posture**

2. innervated by the suboccipital nerve
10% of strokes are a result of:
atherosclerotic plaque at the proximal internal carotid
bones of face =

(5)
1. frontal

2. nasal (bridge of nose)

3. maxillae

4. zygomatic (cheek)

5. mandible
foramina of face =

(3)
supraorbital, infraorbital, and mental

~~ nerves and vessels of same name
stylomastoid foramen:

(2)
1. between styloid and mastoid

2. **what CN 7 comes out of to terminate**
muscles of facial expression:

(6)
1. obcularis oris

2. depressor anguli oris

3. zygomaticus

4. buccinator

5. levator labii superioris alaeque nasi

6. orbicularis oculi
what portions of the obcularis oculi are responsible for shutting and keeping the eye closed?
the orbital portions
palpebral portion of of orbicularis oculi is responsible for:
blinking
buccinator ~
whistling
2 major sources of blood to face =
branches of internal and external carotids

-***extensive anastomoses between the 2***
internal carotid =>

(branch to face)
ophthalmic branch
external carotid branches to face =

(2)
1. facial artery

2. superficial temporal artery
(=> transverse facial artery)
the facial artery crosses:
the mandible
facial artery gives off:

(3)
1. inferior labial

2. superior labial

3. lateral nasal branches
the facial artery terminates as:
the angular artery,

near medial eye
what vein drains the majority of the vein?
the facial vein
facial vein:

(2)
1. courses with facial artery

2. drains into IJV
***the facial vein has extensive connections to:***

(2)
1. deep veins of head and neck

2. dural venous sinuses inside cranium
significance of facial vein's connection to other veins =
***infection can travel INTO cranium***

(head veins have no valves)
parotid gland:

(4)
1. largest salivary gland

2. inn. by parasympathetic fibers of CN 9

3. enclosed in continuation of investing layer of deep cervical fascia

4. drains into mouth via parotid duct
3 structures passing *through* parotid gland:
1. Facial nerve

2. retromandibular vein

3. external carotid
main temporal branches of facial nerve, mnemonic:
To Zanzibar By Motor Car
temporal branches of Facial nerve:

(5)
1. termporal

2. zygomatic

3. buccal

4. mandibular

5. cervical
why is injury to the facial nerve relatively common?
b/c its temporal branches are relatively superficial
**Bell's palsy =
idiopathic cease of function of CN7 on ONE side

- sometimes temporary
retromandibular vein: anterior branch drains into:
the facial vein
posterior branch of retromandibular vein drains into:
EJV
the external carotid terminates within the parotid gland, into:

(2)
1. maxillary artery

2. superficial temporal artery
lymph drainage of head and neck:
superficial nodes (ring) drain face and scalp => deep nodes (chain along IJV) => deep cervical nodes => right lymphatic OR thoracic duct
apart form the usual 4, CN's can also carry:

(3)
1. special sensory fibers (taste, smell, etc)

2. bronchiomotor fibers

3. parasympathetic fibers
"bronchiomotor" =
innervating muscles of pharyngeal arches
which of the CN's carry parasympathetic fibers?
3, 7, and 9, and 10
out of 3, 7, 9, and 10, which CN's carry parasympathetic fibers to the head and neck?
3, 7, and 9

- 10 carries parasympathetics only to thorax
****what are the 4 parasympathetic ganglia on each side of head/neck?****
1. ciliary

2. submandibular

3. pgp

4. otic


- preganglionics of CN's 3, 7, and 9 synapse onto them
***parasympathetics that travel in CN 3 ALWAYS synapse in:***
the ciliary ganglia
***parasympathetics that travel in CN 7 ALWAYS synapse in:***

(2)
1. pterygopalatine

OR

2. submandibular ganglia
***parasympathetics that travel in CN 9 ALWAYS synapse in:***
the otic ganglia
***4 major functions of CN 7:***
1. inn. muscles of facial expression

2. convey taste from tongue (special sensory)

3. convery parasympathetic fibers lacrimal, nasal, sublingual, and submandibular glands

4. supply general sensory to small portion of ear/canal
CN 5 = trigeminal nerve =
great sensory nerve of the face
trigeminal ganglion:

(3)
1. within cranium

2. like DRG - houses cell bodies

3. NO synapses here
V1 =

(3)
ophthalmic division

1. ~ gen. sense

2. exits skull via superior orbital fissure

3. => supraorbital nerve
V2 =

(3)
maxillary division

1. ~ gen. sense

2. exits skull via foramen rotundum

3. => infraorbital nerve
V3 =

(3)
mandibular division

1. ~ gen sense AND bronchiomotor to muscles of 1st pharyngeal arch

2. exits skull via foramen ovale

3. => mental nerve
muscles of mastication =

(5)
1. masseter

2. temporalis

3. pterygoids

4. mylohyoid

5. anterior digastric
tensor veli and tensor tympanis are also
muscles of the 1st pharyngeal arch, and thus innervated by V3

(even though they aren't muscles of mastication)
what does the face develop from?
5 NC-derived prominences
**the mandibular prominence = **
the 1st pharyngeal arch
the 5 prominences surround the:
stomadeum (primitive oral cavity)
nasal placodes invaginate, forming:
nasal pits
***formation of nasal pits produces:***
Medial and Lateral nasal prominences,

which eventually fuse
***Medial nasal prominences fuse to form:

(4)
1. bridge of nose

2. septum of nose

3. philtrum

4. primary palate (incisive bone)
what do both the primary and secondary palates do?
divide the oral cavity from the nasal cavity
Lateral nasal prominences form:
alar cartilage (sides of nose)
what forms the upper lip?

(2)
**both Medial nasal prominences,

both maxillary prominences**
each nasal pit elongates to form a:
nasal sac
what happens to the early oralnasal membrane?
it dgenerates
the palatine shelves grow toward the midline and:
fuse, forming the secondary palate
the nasal septum meets the primary and secondary palates, thereby:
separating the two halves of the nasal cavity
examples of anterior cleft disorders:
cleft lip, cleft upper jaw
incisive foramen marks:
the intersection of the primary palate with the two halves of the secondary palate
***anterior cleft disorders are the result of:***
partial or complete lack of fusion of the maxillary prominences and Medial nasal prominences
posterior cleft disorders - i.e. cleft palate - are the result of:
lack of fusion of palatine shelves

- **oral and nasal cavities are continuous**
combos of anterior and posterior cleft defects often occur;
very severe,

~ genetics and teratogens
contrecoup (counterblow) fracture =>
damage occurs on opposite side of skull
layers of scalp =
Skin
CT (dense)
Aponeuroses
Loose CT
Pericranium
which layers are considered the scalp proper?
S, C, and A

- tend to come off during scalping injuries
external and internal tables of skull =
compact bone
diploe of skull =
spongy
emissary veins are valveless; they connect:
dural venous sinuses to veins outside of the cranium
flow of emissary veins is usually:
inside TO outside
innervation of scalp/face =

(3)
1. V1, V2, V3

2. ventral rami of cervical plexus

3. dorsal rami of C2-C4
2 branches of ophthalmic artery =
1. supratrochlear

2. supraorbital
scalp lacerations =>
**profuse** bleeding due to extensive anastomoses

- unconscious patients may bleed to death
pus and blood can easily spread through:
loose CT of the scalp
what is the danger area of the scalp?
the loose CT
infections in loose CT can spread into cranial cavity through:
emissary veins
infections can easily enter:

(2)
1. eyelids (=> black eyes)

2. root of nose
**infections of the scalp CANNOT spread:***

(2)
1. posteriorly (to neck)

2. laterally (to cheeks)
the dura has 2 layers:
1. periosteal

2. meningeal
periosteal dura:

(3)
1. outer layer

2. attaches to skull

3. continuous with pericranium of skull on outside
meningeal dura:

(3)
1. inner layer

2. in contact with arachnoid

3. continuous with spinal dura matter
***the 2 dural layers separate to create:***

(2)
1. dural partitions

2. intracranial venous sinuses
**ALL dural partitions are:
meningeal dura
2 dural partitions:
1. falx cerebri - b/w cerebral hemis

2. tentorium cerebelli
**the tentorium cerebelli is between:**
cerebrum and cerebellum
arterial supply of dura =

(3)
ant, middle, and posterior meningeal arteries
**middle meningeal artery:**

(3)
1. largest

2. comes off of maxillary artery

3. *supplies bones* as well as dura
innervation of dura =

(5)
***general sensory fibers*** from V1, V2, V3, X, and C1-C3
arachnoid:

(3)
1. thin/avascular

2. pushes against dura but NOT adherent to it

3. attached to pia via trabeculae
pia:

(2)
1. shrink-wrapped to brain

2. covers roots of CN's
**epidural space** =
potential space between bone and periosteal dura
***epidural hematoma*** =
epidural space filled with blood
cause of epidural hematoma =
trauma to ***middle meningeal artery***
progressive results of epidural hematoma:

(4)
LOC => lucid period => drowsiness => coma
***subdural hematoma*** is the result of:
trauma to head that causes brain to move suddenly, thereby tearing cerebral veins
results of subdural hematoma =
blood pools b/w dura and arachnoid

=> potential space becomes real space
**classic sign of subdural hematoma** =
crescent shape on CT scan
subarachnoid space:

(2)
1. real space

2. contains CSF and blood vessels
***subarachnoid hemorrhage*** =
extravasation of blood into subarachnoid space, usually from cerebral arteries
causes of subarachnoid hemorrhage =

(2)
1. rupture of aneurysm

2. trauma
results of subarachnoid hemorrhage =

(3)
1. severe headache

2. stiff neck

3. LOC
special fact about the trochlear nerve:
the ONLY CN to exit posteriorly,

rather than ant/ventrally
**there is NO visceral motor sympathetic _____**
CN

- sympathetic action of brain is achieved by fibers running up from T1-L2
blood supply to brain =

(2)
1. vertebral arteries (form single basilar)

2. internal carotids
Circle of Willis =

(5)
1. posterior cerebral arteries

2. posterior communicating

3. internal carotids

4. anterior cerebrals

5. anterior communicating
what makes CSF?
choroid plexus in EACH ventricle
CSF otorrhea =
CSF leaking from ear
hydrocephalus =
excessive CSF
hydrocephalus is a result of:

(3)
1. overproduction

2. obstruction

3. failure of resorption
hydrocephalus causes:

(3)
1. dilated ventricles

2. thinned cerebral cortex

3. separation of bones
obstruction of CSF usually occurs because of blockage to:

(2)
1. interventricular foramina of Monro

2. cerebral aqueduct
neural induction =
notochord instructing overlying ectoderm to become neuroectoderm
in which direction does neural induction proceed?
caudally
the nueral plate folds into the:
neural tube
neural plate ultimately becomes:

(2)
brain and SC
***closure of anterior and posterior ends of neural tube is sensitive to:***
teratogens

- they close during a time in which the mother doesn't know she's pregnant
secondary neuralation =
development of medullary cord, which forms the sacral/coccygeal portion of the SC
spina bifida =
failure of neural tube to close
spina bifida:

(2)
1. ALL types occur in the *lumbar* region

2. ~ posterior closure
spina bifida occulta =
incomplete vertebral arch
spina bifida occulta:

(2)
1. benign

2. tuft of hair
2 types of spina bifida cystica:
1. meningocele

2. MMC
meningocele =
meninges protrude into cyst due to unclosed neural tube
MMC =
meninges AND SC/neural tissue protrude into cyst, due to failure of neural tube to close
anterior closure defects =>
meningoencepohalocele (cyst at head)

- has various forms, just like spina bifida
anencephaly/exencephaly =
brain dea/exposed due to failure of neural tube behind the anterior closure to close
***neural tube closure forms:***

(3)
1. NC

2. SC

3. Brain
3 cells/layers of neural tube:
1. deep ring

2. mantle zone

3. (superficial) marginal zone
deep ring of neural tube consists of:

(2)
1. ventricular cells

2. glioblasts
**ventricular cells:**

(2)
1. mitotic precursors of neurons

2. continue to divide
mantle zone =>=>
gray matter
marginal zone =>=>
white matter (axons)
***cells of mantle zone form:***

(2)
1. alar plate

2. basal plate
**alar plate =>**
interneurons

- RECEIVE sensory info, transmit it
**basal plate =>**

(2)
motor neurons

(somatic AND preganglionic VMF's)
in the SC, somatic motor neurons are located:
ventrally,

and visceral motor neurons are located dorsally
***NC cells form:***
ALL ganglia outside of SC

(including DRG)
**interneurons (alar plate) and motor neurons (basal plate) ultimately come from:**
***the neural tube***
rhombencephalon's cervical flexure demarcates:
hindbrain from SC
pontine flexure of rhombencephalon divides:
metenceph from myelenceph
**caudal myelencephalon is very similar to SC, EXCEPT for:
the dorsal nuclei that form in it (cuneatus and gracilis)
**in the brain, motor nuclei are _______ to sensory nuclei**
medial
**in the brain, peripheral ganglia form from NC cells, but ALSO from:
placodes

- in SC, ALL peripheral ganglia are formed form NC
in the mesencephalon: migrating neuroblasts form:
corpora quadrigemina
aqueductal stenosis =>
hydrocephalus
diencephalon =

(4)
thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus, and pineal gland
***mantle zone of the diencephalon does NOT form:***

(2)
alar and basal plates
the pituitary gland comes from 2 sources:
1. nuerohypophyseal diverticulum

2. Rathke's pouch
nuerohypophyseal diverticulum =>
(post.) neurohypophysis
Rathke's pouch =>
(ant.) adenohypophysis
telencephalon =>

(2)
1. cerebral hemis

2. corpus striatum
telenchephalon:

(3)
1. grows the most

2. ~ lateral growth

3. contains lateral ventricles
***in the SC, basal plate motor neurons are ventral, and alar are dorsal; in the brain,
basal = Medial, and alar = Lateral
pituitary gland forms:

(2)
1. floor of diencephalon

2. roof of stomadeum
3 cranial fossa:
1. anterior

2. middle cranial fossa (x2)

3. posterior
*olfactory bulbs are NOT:*
the olfactory nerves

- rather, numerous olfactory nerves feed into the bulbs
the anterior cranial fossa is composed of:

(3)
1. frontal bone

2. ethmoid bone (central)

3. sphenoid bone
2 foramina of the anterior cranial fossa:
1. cribiform plate

2. optic canals
cribiform plate allows passage of:
numerous olfactory nerves to come from nasal mucosa to olfactory bulbs
optic canals allow passage of:

(2)
1. optic nerves

2. ophthalmic arteries
what does the tenrotirum cerebelli attach to:

(2)
1. anterior clinoid process

2. posterior clinoid process (of middle cranial fossa)
the middle cranial fossa are composed of:

(2)
sphenoid bone and temporal bones
the middle cranial fossa contain:

(2)
1. temporal lobes

2. pituitary gland
what does the pituitary gland sit in?
in the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone
7 foramina of the middle cranial fossa:
1. superior orbital fissure

2. foramen rotundum

3. foramen ovale

4. foramen spinosum

5. hiatus for greater petrosal nerve

6. " " lesser " "

7. carotid canal
the sup. orbital fissure allows passage of:

(5)
CN 3, 4, 6,

V1,

and ophthalmic veins
foramen rotundum allows passage of:
V2
foramen ovale allows passage of:
V3
foramen spinosum allows passage of:
middle meningeal artery
carotid canal allows passage of:

(2)
1. internal carotid

2. associated sympathetic fibers
foramen lacerum:

(3)
1. jagged

2. NOTHING passes through it

3. plugged with cartilage in real life
neurohypophysis:

(2)
1. = posterior pituitary

2. stores and releases ADH and oxytocin
posterior cranial fossa is made up of:

(2)
temporal bones and occipital bone
posterior cranial fossa contains:

(2)
1. BS

2. cerebellum
foramina of the posterior cranial fossa:

(4)
1. foramen megnum

2. internal acoustic meatus

3. jugular foramen

4. hypoglossal canal
foramen magnum allows passage of:

(3)
1. BS/SC

2. vertebral arteries

3. spinal roots of CN 11 (entry)
internal acoustic meatus allows passage of:

(2)
1. CN 7

2. CN 8
jugular foramen allows passage of:

(4)
CN 9, 10, 11, and sigmoid sinus (to IJV)
***which veins drain into the dural venous sinuses?***

(5)
1. cerebral veins

2. cerebellar veins

3. veins of BS

4. diploic veins

5. emissary veins
dural venous sinuses ultimately drain into:
the IJV
*the great cerebral vein drains into the:*
straight sinus
cavernous sinuses are essentially:
**large veins**
cavernous sinuses contain:

(6)
internal carotids

CN 3, 4, 6, V1, and V2
**after ventricles, CSF travels through subarachnoid space and is resorbed into:**
dural venous sinuses
transmission of sound:

(2)
1. vibration => tympanic membrane => 3 ossicles => oval window => vibrations through scala vestibuli => scala tympani dissipated at round window

2. basilar membrane of cochlear duct vibrates => receptor cells in spiral organ are stimulated => impulses communicated to brain via CN 8
inner ear ~
vestibulocochlear organ
lateral one-third of external acoustic meatus is:
cartilagenous
innervation of tympanic membrane:

(2)
1. skin by CN 5, 7, and 10 (gen. sense)

2. inner mucosa membrane by CN 9 (visceral sensory)
middle ear contains:

(4)
1. 3 ossicles

2. oval (vestibular) window

3. round (cochlear) window

4. tympanic plexus
roof of middle ear =
tegmen tympani bone
anterior wall of middle ear ~~

(2)
1. opening of eustachian tube

2. tensor tympani muscle
**role of eustachian tube:**
equalizes pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane,

by connecting middle ear to nasopharynx
**what does the tensor tympani muscle do?**
pulls on the malleus, tightening the tympanic membrane to protect from excessive noise
**what does the stapedius muscle do?**
pulls on the stapes to tighten it and protect form excessive noise (vibrations)
**where are CN 7 cell bodies located?**
geniculate ganglia

- no synapses here
3 important branches of CN 7:
1. greater petrosal nerve

2. nerve to stapedius

3. chorda tympani
what is the vestibulocochlear organ embedded in?
the petrous portion of the temporal bone
membranous labyrinth = hand =

(4)
1. three semicircular DUCTS

2. utricle

3. saccule

4. cochlear DUCT
membranous labyrinth is filled with:
endolymph
bony labyrinth = large glove =

(3)
1. three semicircular canals

2. vestibule

3. cochlea
vestibule = site of:
oval window

- receives vibrations from middle ear
orientation of semicircular canals:
**each at right angles to the other two**
***what do semicircular DUCTS convey?***
angular acc.
what does the utricle convery?
horizontal acc.
what does the saccule convey?
vertical acc.
blockage of endolyphatic duct =>
Meneire syndrome
symptoms of Meneire syndrome:
recurrent problems with hearing/balance
tinnitus =
ringing in ear
**another name for the cochlear duct = **
scala media
helicotrema =
point at which scala vestibuli and scala tympani meet
rubella during 7th week of pregnancy =>
congenital deafness
***CN 8 origin =

(2)
cochlear and vestibular nuclei of pons
***components of CN 8 =
special sensory
ganglia of CN 8 (cell bodies) =

(2)
1. cochlear (spiral) ganglion

2. vestibular ganglion
targets of CN 8 =

(4)
1. semicircular canals

2. utricle

3. saccule

4. cochlea
***chorda tympani of CN 7 crosses the middle ear but:***
does NOTHING there
orientation of cervical facets:
horizontal
pterion = point at which:
frontal, parietal, temporal, and sphenoid bones meet
calvaria =

(3)
frontal bone, 2 parietals, and occipital
coronoid of mandible is anterior to:
condyle of mandible
The palatine process of the maxilla forms:
the hard palate of roof of mouth
lambdoid suture =
where parietal and occipital bones meet (one on each side)
bregma =
intersection of coronal and saggital sutures
lambda =
intersection of lambdoid and coronal sutures