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100 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1. Changes to the contents of the Level "A" or "B" Medical Kits by local commands are:
a. CNO approved b. Authorized with CO approval c. Not authorized d. As required |
c. Not authorized (3-50 p5-67)
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2. What shock position would you use on a victim with blood coming from his ears?
a. Knees flexed position b. Traditional shock position c. Flat on back position d. Semi-sitting position |
c. Flat on back position
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3. What shock position would you use for a survivor with nausea, vomiting, bleeding from the mouth, a sucking chest wound, deviated trachea, or if a compressed air injury is suspected?
a. Flat on back position b. Traditional shock position c. Side position d. Knees Flexed Position |
c. Side position (SAR CD First Aid 1)
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4. What type of blood is brick red and oozes from the wound?
a. Arterial b. Venous c. Capillary d. Hemorrhaging |
c. Capillary
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5. What is the primary method of controlling external bleeding?
a. Tourniquet b. Direct pressure c. Pressure point d. Elevation |
c. Pressure point
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6. When should you remove a bandage you have placed on an open wound?
a. Never b. When replacing it with a new bandage c. After applying a tourniquet d. After the bleeding has stopped |
a. Never
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7. What should you do to treat a victim with a sucking chest wound?
a. Apply an airtight dressing with on side/corner open b. Use rescue breathing to assist victim if necessary c. Leave any impaled objects in the victim d. All of the above |
d. All of the above
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8. True/False. A splint must be long enough to immobilize the joint above and below the fracture site and immobilize the entire bone?
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True
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9. True/False. When treating someone with a skull fracture, have him or her drink a lot of water if they are conscious.
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False
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10. What is the primary treatment for a closed fracture?
a. Treat the wound first b. Elevate area above the heart c. Splint area d. Reduce swelling |
c. Splint area
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11. Which of the following apply when applying splints?
a. Tie knots over splint, not victim's flesh b. Pad hard splints c. Check pulse of limb before and after application of splint d. All of the above |
d. All of the above
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12. How many sections and how many vertebrae does the spine have?
a. 4, 33 b. 4, 30 c. 5, 33 d. 5, 30 |
c. 5, 33
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13. What are the three types of burn classifications?
a. Heat, chemical, sun b. Minor, major, deep c. Superficial, partial thickness, full thickness d. Heat, electrical, radiation |
c. Superficial, partial thickness, full thickness
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14. What is a partial thickness burn?
a. Damage to deep layers of skin, blisters result b. Destruction of all layers, no pain c. Damage to outer layer of skin d. Damage to outer layer of skin, like sunburn |
a. Damage to deep layers of skin, blisters result
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15. What are the symptoms of heat stroke?
a. Skin dry and hot, pupils constricted, very hot body temperature b. Skin moist and clammy, pupils normal, no abnormal body temperature c. Skin cold and rigid, pupils normal, no abnormal body temperature d. Skin dry and clammy, pupils glassy, fluctuating body temperature |
a. Skin dry and hot, pupils constricted, very hot body temperature
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16. Which publication provides technical information related to the configuration, application, inspection, and maintenance of all rescue and survival equipment?
a. NWP 3-50 (Series) b. OPNAVINST 3130.6 (Series) c. NAVAIR 13-1-6.5 d. NWP 3-22.5 SAR-TAC |
c. NAVAIR 13-1-6.5
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17. Which publication promotes and maintains standardization of search and rescue procedures and equipment within the US Navy?
a. NTTP 3-50.1 b. OPNAVINST 3130.6 Series c. NAVAIR 13-1-6.5 d. NWP 3-22.5 SAR-TAC |
a. NTTP 3-50.1
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18. Which publication provides tactical search and rescue information for planning, communications, search patterns, and briefing?
a. NTTP 3-50.1 Series b. OPNAVINST 3130.6 Series c. NAVAIR 13-1-6.5 d. NWP 3-22.5 SAR-TAC |
d. NWP 3-22.5 SAR-TAC
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19. Which publication implements standardization in naval search and rescue policies, procedures, training, and evaluation program?
a. NTTP 3-50.1 Series b. OPNAVINST 3130.6E c. NAVAIR 13-1-6.5 d. NWP 3-22.5 SAR-TAC |
b. OPNAVINST 3130.6E
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20. To avoid fatigue the rescue swimmer avoid multiple rescues
when a great deal of swimming is required between survivors. a. May b. Shall (3-50 pl-6) c. Should d. Will |
b. Shall (3-50 pl-6)
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21. When a parachute is in the rescue area, it shall be approached no closer than rotor diameter width(s) outside the rotor wash area.
a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four |
a. One
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22. Which of the following is not required to be carried in rescue swimmer's harness?
a. Strobe light b. 2MK-124 Mod 0 flares c. Pocket shroud cutter d. None of the above |
d. None of the above
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23. How many chem-lights are required for the Tri-SAR swimmer harness?
a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four |
d. Four
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24. True/False. The quick strop harness can only be used with the TRI-SAR harness.
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True
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25. How many survivors is the rescue net designed to accommodate?
a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four |
b. Two
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26. How many adjustable safety straps does the rescue seat have?
a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four |
b. Two
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27. What is worn by carrier-based tactical jet aircrew who use ejection seats for emergency egress?
a. Integrated Torso Harness b. NB-6/8 Navy Backpack c. CW-17 Torso Harness d. BA-18/22 Navy Backpack |
a. Integrated Torso Harness
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28. What type of lifting devices does the Integrated Torso Harness have?
a. Gated D-ring under the right koch fitting b. Gated D-ring under left koch fitting c. Lifting V-ring in center of chest strap d. There is no lifting device |
a. Gated D-ring under the right koch fitting
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29. How many quick ejector snaps are on the US Navy Backpack?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. The US Navy Backpack uses koch fittings |
b. 3
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30. What is worn by Air Force tactical jet aircrew who use ejection seats for egress?
a. Integrated Torso Harness b. NB-6/8 Navy Backpack c. CW-17 Torso Harness d. BA-18/22 Navy Backpack |
c. CW-17 Torso Harness
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31. The Air Force CW-17 Torso Harness is similar in appearance to which harness?
a. Integrated Torso Harness b. NB-6/8 Navy Backpack c. CW-17 Torso Harness d. BA-18/22 Navy Backpack |
b. NB-6/8 Navy Backpack
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32. Direct deployment procedures not be used on aviators who
have ejected from aircraft. a. May b. Should c. Shall d. Will |
b. Should
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33. Direct deployment procedures not be used if the survivor is
entangled in a parachute. a. May b. Should c. Shall d. Will |
c. Shall
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34. The proper order for hooking up the rescue swimmer for double lift procedure is:
a. Rescue strop, TRI-SAR, quick strop (detachable lifting strap last) b. Rescue strop, TRI-SAR Harness, quick strop (detachable lifting strap first) c. TRI-SAR Harness, rescue strop, quick strop (detachable lifting strap last) d. None of the above |
c. TRI-SAR Harness, rescue strop, quick strop (detachable lifting strap last)
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35. The key to the escape and release technique is that the rescuer submerges deeply enough that the survivor .
a. Is pushed away b. Panics and lets go c. Goes underwater d. Is left on the surface |
c. Goes underwater
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36. Lack of blood circulating through the body is called:
a. Poor tissue perfusion b. Shock c. Cardiac depression d. Vaso phagul |
b. Shock
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37. The Rescue net is a simple and safe device that can accommodate
up to survivors, or survivor accompanied by the RS during hoisting. a. One, one b. One, two c. Two, two d. Two, one |
d. Two, one
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38. True/False. Once a survivor is safely on board the aircraft, the survivor's personal flotation device should be deflated or replaced.
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True (3-50 pl-44)
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39. When using the quick splice place the bitter end of the cable back under itself between holes _ and _ ?
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 3 and 4 d. 4 and 5 |
c. 3 and 4 (3-50 pl-55)
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40. What SAR Condition shall the crew stand by in the ready rooms or in other suitable locations?
a. SAR Condition 1 b. SAR Condition 2 c. SAR Condition 3 d. SAR Condition 4 |
b. SAR Condition 2 (3-50 pl-56)
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41. __ is a state of circulatory deficiency associated with the
depression of vital body functions? a. Cardiac arrest b. Anemia c. Cardiogenics d. Shock |
d. Shock
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42. What are the signs and symptoms of a compensated shock?
a. Pulse strong and slow b. Skin pale, cold, and clammy c. Breathing slow and regular d. Pupils constricted |
b. Skin pale, cold, and clammy
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43. What shock position would you use for a victim with an abdominal evisceration?
a. Knees flexed position b. Traditional shock position c. Side Position d. Semi-sitting position |
a. Knees flexed position
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44. How should you hoist someone who is suffering from hydrostatic squeeze?
a. The fastest method possible b. Vertically in the litter c. Horizontally in the litter d. Any of the above |
c. Horizontally in the litter
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45. Which of the following is not a proper way to treat shock?
a. Maintain an open airway b. Keep the victim cool c. Maintain normal body heat d. Loosen restrictive clothing |
b. Keep the victim cool
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46. True/False. Providing the broken limb is splinted, you can elevate a broken limb to stop external bleeding.
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True
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47. How many pressure points are there?
a. 11 b. 18 c. 22 d. 33 |
c. 22
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48. What is the minimum number of inches that should be between the tourniquet and the wound?
a. M-l inch b. 1 inch c. 1M inches d. At least 2 inches(SAR CD Lessons) |
d. At least 2 inches(SAR CD Lessons)
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49. What should you do for a victim with something in his eye?
a. Remove the object b. Bandage both eyes c. Stabilize the object to prevent movement d. Both B and C above |
d. Both B and C above
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50. When would you not suspect a head and/ or spinal injury?
a. Fall from height greater than victim's height b. Any person involved in a crash without a seat belt c. A victim with more than one broken limb d. A victim that was struck by lightning |
c. A victim with more than one broken limb
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51. Which of the following are signs and symptoms of a head or spinal injury?
a. Tingling or loss of sensation in the hands, fingers, feet, or toes b. Impaired vision that victim did not have before injury c. Loss of balance d. All of the above |
d. All of the above
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52. What are the four types of burn?
a. Thermal, Chemical, Electrical, Radiation b. 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th c. Superficial, Partial Thickness, Deep Thickness, Full Thickness d. None of the Above |
a. Thermal, Chemical, Electrical, Radiation
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53. What is a critical burn?
a. A burn that involves difficulty breathing b. A burn that covers more than one part of the body c. A burn to the head, neck, hands, feet, or genitals d. All of the above |
d. All of the above
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54. True/False. A Rescue Report can be used as evidence in legal proceedings or disciplinary actions.
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False (3-50 pA-1)
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55. A Rescue Report (SAR Form 3-50.1/l) __ be submitted whenever a
SAR is __ or accomplished that involves Navy personnel or assets, regardless of the success of the effort. a. should, attempted b. shall, attempted c. will, planned d. shall, planned |
b. shall, attempted
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56. True/False. The medical rescue report shall be completed when a naval asset performs a rescue/MEDEVAC mission with medical department personnel attending the survivor.
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True
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57. The __ is normally the primary means of rescue during all- weather day and night operations.
a. RHIB b. Motor whale boat c. Helicopter d. None of the above |
c. Helicopter
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58. What are the recommended weather mins to launch on a SAR?
a. 300/1 b. 500/1 c. 1000/3 d. 1000/5 |
a. 300/1 (3-50 p2-7)
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59. Where shall the mask be tied to during SAR evolutions?
a. Flotation device b. Wetsuit top c. Either left or right shoulder straps of the harness d. Swimmer Harness |
c. Either left or right shoulder straps of the harness
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61. Under what circumstances can live parachute canopy escape be practiced in water?
a. Controlled pool environment b. Controlled by environment c. Never d. Both A and B |
c. Never
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62. Which of the following are dangers associated with a collapsed parachute?
a. Inability to breath through a wet parachute b. Rescue swimmer and/or survivor panicking and becoming more entangled c. The possibility of the parachute sinking and taking the survivor with it d. All of the above |
d. All of the above
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63. When pulling survivor out from under a ballooned canopy, swim to the edge of the parachute the survivor and the apex
a. Closest to, Closest to b. Opposite, opposite c. Closest to, opposite d. Opposite, closest to |
c. Closest to, opposite
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64. How much does the rescue seat weigh?
a. 12 lbs. b. 15 lbs. c. 18 lbs. d. 21 lbs. |
c. 18 lbs.
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65. True/False. The MK 25 Smoke Marine Marker is used in saltwater only.
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False
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66. According to the 3-50.1 Rev. A, what is the burn time of the MK25 Smoke Marine Marker?
a. 5-15 minutes b. 10-20 minutes c. 15-25 minutes d. 20-30 minutes |
b. 10-20 minutes
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67. The MK25 __ not to be launched while in a hover because of the
valve plug possibly striking aircraft or personnel. a. May b. Should c. Shall d. None of the above |
c. Shall
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68. How is the parachute disconnected from the CW-17 Torso Harness?
a. The quick ejector snaps at the shoulders b. They are disconnected where the riser attaches to the harness c. The entire harness is take off of the survivor d. None of the above |
b. They are disconnected where the riser attaches to the harness
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69. What type of fittings is currently in use for the oxygen mask?
a. Mini-koch fittings b. Bayonet fittings c. Quick ejector snaps d. None of the above |
b. Bayonet fittings
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70. The self-contained cartridge actuated device used as a backup to inflate the crewmember LPU-24 flotation gear is .
a. SV-2 b. MBU-12 c. SEAWARS d. FLU-8 A/P |
d. FLU-8 A/P
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71. If the crewman flashes the rescue light or the pilot flashes the hover light, the swimmer shall .
a. Illuminate a MK 124 b. Illuminate a blue strobe c. Both A and B d. Either A or B |
d. Either A or B
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72. The detachable lifting strap of the quick strop can be identified
by the of webbing located next to the detachable lifting strap's v-ring assembly. a. Red band b. Green band c. Yellow band d. There is no way to tell |
a. Red band
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73. True/False. During direct deployment, the swimmer is not required to give the "I am alright" signal.
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True
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74. True/False. The safety strap on the quick strop is not required in all direct deployment situations.
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True
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75. How shall the crew chief grab the survivor when pulling him into the cabin after recovery?
a. By the collar b. By the quick strop c. Around the survivor's waist d. All of the above |
c. Around the survivor's waist
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76. The Flu-8A/P incorporated in the LPU-24 will inflate the ejection seat aircraft aircrews flotation with in:
a. 10 sec. b. Almost immediately upon impact of water so survivor will not sink c. 8-15 sec. d. 2-5 sec. |
c. 8-15 sec. (Q-050-0604 pg4)
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77. True/False. The Flu-8A/P is the PRIMARY device integrated into the LPU-24/21 to inflate the aircrews vest.
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False
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78. True/False. Direct Deployment procedures shall only be utilized when the crew has determined that it is the safest method of recovery.
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True
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79. The Swimmer enter the water and assist the survivor(s) in all cases except when the HAC determines that circumstances will unnecessarily endanger the rescue swimmer?
a. May b. Should c. Shall d. Will |
c. Shall
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80. What factors should be considered when deploying the rescue swimmer?
a. Sea state b. Debris in the water c. Sea predators d. All of the above |
d. All of the above
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81. __ Survivors will be in some state of shock
a. Most (about 75%) b. Few (about 25%) c. All (100%) d. Some (about 50%) |
c. All (100%)
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82. What shock position would you use on a victim with an open fracture to the femur?
a. Knees flexed position b. Traditional shock position c. Flat on back position d. Semi-sitting position |
c. Flat on back position
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83. How much blood does the average 160-180 Ibs. Adult body contain?
a. 12 liters b. 3 liters c. 5 liters d. 10 liters |
c. 5 liters (AHA, ARC)
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84. What type of blood escapes the body in synchronized spurts and is bright red in color?
a. Arterial b. Venous c. Capillary d. Hemorrhaging |
a. Arterial
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85. What type of blood is dark red and slowly flows from the wound?
a. Arterial b. Venous c. Capillary d. Hemorrhaging |
b. Venous
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86. How wide should a tourniquet be at a minimum?
a. .5 inch b. 1 inch c. 1.5 inch d. 2 inch |
b. 1 inch
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87. When can you remove a tourniquet?
a. After the bleeding has stopped b. 1 hour after the bleeding has stopped c. When directed by a physician d. If the victim asks you to remove it. |
c. When directed by a physician
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88. Which of the following is not a sign of internal bleeding?
a. Hard, swollen parts of the body b. Excessive thirst c. Vomiting or coughing up blood d. Strong, slow pulse |
d. Strong, slow pulse
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89. What type of fracture is identified by the broken bone protruding through the skin and the wound extents to the fracture site?
a. Simple b. Complex c. Open d. Closed |
c. Open
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90. What are the most common signs and symptoms of a fracture?
a. Deformity of the involved part b. Tenderness and pain c. Grating sensation d. All of the above |
d. All of the above
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91. What is the primary purpose of a soft splint?
a. To immobilize body limb b. To apply gently traction to body limb c. To prevent further injury to body limb d. To hide injury of body limbs from victim |
c. To prevent further injury to body limb
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92. True/False. Do not apply direct pressure to any part of the skull if bone fragments or depression of the skull exist or if exposure to the brain is noted.
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True
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93. During emergency care or an injury to the head, should the care provider attempt to stop blood or cerebrospinal fluid flow from the ears or nose of the victim?
a. Only if excessive amounts are escaping b. Yes c. No d. Only to maintain an open airway |
c. No (SAR CD Lessons)
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94. What should any rescue situation that involves ejection or rapid acceleration of deceleration injuries be treated as?
a. As if a spinal injury exists b. As if a skull fracture exists c. As if a brain injury exists d. As if a breathing injury exists |
a. As if a spinal injury exists
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95. What is the condition caused by the body's inability to maintain its proper core (internal) temperature due to exposure to a cold environment?
a. Over exposure b. Hypothermia c. Frostbite d. Deep freezing |
b. Hypothermia
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96. What are the signs and symptoms of hypothermia?
a. A glassy stare b. Apathy (loss of hope) c. Rapid eye movement d. Both A and B above |
d. Both A and B above
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97. True/False. A victim of hypothermia should be warmed up as soon as possible
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True
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98. During air/surface coordination, if it is necessary for the helicopter to yield to an alternate means of rescue, the helicopter shall .
a. Flash aircraft rescue light b. Turn on the rotating anti-collision light c. Turn off the rotating anti-collision light d. Never yield to an alternate means of rescue |
c. Turn off the rotating anti-collision light
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99. The may be turned off to prevent pilot disorientation in fog.
a. Forward rotating anti-collision light b. Rear rotating anti-collision light c. Rescue light d. Search light |
a. Forward rotating anti-collision light
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100. Avoid dropping smoke flares directly __ of the survivor as the
fumes are caustic and may be harmful to the survivor. a. On top b. Upwind c. Downwind d. All of the above |
b. Upwind
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101. The rescue pattern __ be flown in accordance with applicable
NATOPS manual. a. May b. Shall c. Should d. Will |
b. Shall
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