• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/103

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

103 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
For emergency fracture evaluation, which sedatives are inappropriate?
barbiturates
Phenothiazines
When is definitive fracture repair indicated for initial evaluation?
open grade 3 fractures
What is the goal of treating open fractures?
prevent osteomyelitis
True/False. Antibiotics are generally not administered for an open fracture when the wound occurs from the bone fragment.
True.
What type of definitive treatment is ideal for open grade 3 fracture?
ESF
What skeletal deformities follow patellar luxation?
lateral or medial bowing
torsion of distal femur
rotation of proximal tibia
shallow trochlear groove/femoral condyle dysplasia
varum or valgum
A dog occasionally skips while walking, can luxate the patella but reduces spontaneously. Treatment?
Generally none. Soft tissue procedures if symptomatic.
Dog presents for occasional weight bearing lameness. With motion of the stifle, the patella luxates, but reduces spontaneously. Treatment?
Trochleoplasty
May need tibial tuberosity transposition
Dog presents for episodes of non weight-bearing lameness. Patella luxation can be reduced, but spontaneously re-luxates with movement. Treatment?
Trochleoplasty
Tibial tuberosity transposition
desmotomy
+/- derotational procedure
Animal presents for crab-like walk and marked angular limb deformities. The patellar luxation cannot be reduced. Treatment?
Wedge osteotomy of distal femur and proximal tibia.
Options for insufficient trochlear depth
chrondroplasty (young dogs, generally fail)
trochleoplasty
Trochlear wedge recession*
Insufficient proximal extent of trochlear ridge/patella alta
patellar-fabellar suture
Malalignment of quadriceps mechanism.
tibial tuberosity transposition- NOT beyond edge of tibial ridge
Excess internal rotation
derotational suture
fibular head transposition?
Tibial tuberosity transposition- around the corner
Soft tissue reinforcement
Dog found to have lymphoma in LN on both sides of the diaphragm, but liver and spleen appear normal. Stage?
III
True/False. Older cats with lymphoma are more likely to have retroviral infection.
False. younger cats.
For which species is FNA useful for diagnosis of lymphoma?
Cats
True/False. In dogs, high grade lymphomas are more likely to get complete remission.
True.
high grade mast cell tumors are defined by what?
mitotic figures
multinculeated
bizzare nuclei
karyomegaly
A dog with multple primary tumors, regional lymph node metastasis but no clincial signs.
Staage IIIa
True/False. A buffy coat smear indicating mastocytosis is a specific indicator of mast cell tumors.
False. Inflammation will have higher mastocytosis
In which breeds have better prognosis for mast cell tumors?
Pugs, bulldogs
Where are mast cell tumors a worse prognosis?
mucocutaneous junction
head and neck?
Pretreatment for mast cell tumor removal?
H1 and H2 blockers
dexamethasone
Indications for radiation therapy for MCT?
Grades I and II for controlling microscopic disease
Bulky or Grade III disease
Palliative
Which biological response modifiers may be useful for MCT?
Tyrosine Kinase inhibitors
Toceranib phosphate
Masitinib
True/False. Grade is predictive of biologic behavior for feline MCT.
False.
What sort of staining to diagnose reactive histiocytosis?
CD18
True/False. FNA can be used to diagnose histiocytoma.
True, they exfoliate well
True/False. Cutaneous histiocytosis lesions regress in 6 weeks.
False. Histiocytoma
Hemophagocytic form of histiocytic sarcoma complex has what cardinal sign?
anemia
Chemotherapy use for histiocytic sarcoma complex
lomustine
doxorubcin second line
What fixation methods for low score fractures?
Plate-rod
ESF II or III
Locking plates
Interlocking nail
What characterizes high score fractures?
minimal implant stress
enhanced healing potential
immediate load sharing
When should retrograde IM pin placement never be used?
Radius or tibia
What are the landmarks for IM pin placement in the radius?
DON'T DO IT
Pathology report comes back, and the mast cell tumor you took out did not have clean margins. What are your options?
Re-excision
Radiation
medical therapy
monitoring
Which type of cerclage wire has the greatest tension?
Precut with eyelets
Which type of cerclage wire makes the knot with greatest resitance to failure?
spool wire with twist knot
Early signs of hip dysplasia?
Lameness- after exercise or rest
Bunny hop
clicking
Which orthopedic conditions can result in hock joint hyperextension?
Hip dysplasia
OCD of the hock
True/False. The majority of dogs with hip dysplasia are asymptomatic.
True
Medical management for hip dysplasia?
Weight control
NSAIDs as needed
Exercise moderation
What surgical options are available with young dogs w/ hip dysplasia but no DJD?
Pubic Symphysiodesis
Triple pelvic osteotomy
Case selection for TPO?
Young dog, minimal DJD
hip joint laxity
adequate acetabular depth
How to evaluate adequate acetabular depth?
Luxated hip pops in, or reduced hip pops out with a sharp "pop" on rotation
What does it mean of the angles for subluxation and reduction are the same?
Significant wear of the acetabular rim.
Which hip joint replacement systems use cement?
CFX
Which hip replacement system has a collar?
CFX
In which system must the femoral head ostectomy cut be very accurate?
BFX
Which ESF system utilizes the 2-piece clamp?
SK
Indications of ESF pin loosening?
serosanguinous discharge
swelling
lameness
halo on radiographs and periosteal proliferation
What is the preferred plate for bridging/buttress?
LC-DCP
When should plate screws be placed near the fracture?
reconstructable fractures
When using an interfragmentary screw, how far from the edge of bone should it be placed?
Distance should at least be the diameter of the screw
True/False. If placing a screw in thin bone, counterskinking helps distribute the pressure and prevent cracking.
False. Best to use a washer in this case
Which locking plate still utilizes compression to the bone?
ALPS
Which locking plate can accommodate a standard cortical screw?
SOP
Which plate utilizes the combi hole?
LCP
Which plate system utilizes a threaded insert for use with both locking and cortical screws?
Fixin
Which locking plate system does not permit dynamic compression at fracture site?
Fixin
Rottweiler presents with swollen elbow that crepitates on motion, and painful on palpation. What is your next diagnostic?
Radiographs rarely find fragment, arthroscopy is diagnostic
When should the anconeal process be united?
20 weeks
Where does OCD of the hock occur?
Medial trochlear ridge of the talus
Treatment for ununited anconeal process in a younger dog?
ulnar osteotomy
reattachment
Young Terrier presents with bilateral pain in jaw, which is swollen and warm. Number one r/o?
Craniomandibular osteopathy
Early closure of the distal ulnar physis results in what?
shortened limb
cranial or medial bowing
valgus and external rotation
elbow subluxation
Treatment for growth deformity of the ulna?
corrective osteotomy w/ ESF if no longer growing
ulnar ostecteomy if radius still growing
Indications for surgical treatment of otitis externa?
failed medical management
hyperplastic, thickened ear canals
Treatment for ear canal neoplasia?
TECA +/- radiation
Approaches to middle ear cavity?
myringogomy (through tympanum)
ventral bulla osteotomy
Use of antibiotics with otitis media?
based on culture of bulla
4 weeks
Treatment for aural hematoma?
cannulate or periodic drainage + steroids
Surgical removal and tacking down
Laser
True/False. SCC of the pinna in cats has a guarded prognosis.
False. Excellent
Which sites are most common for osteosarcoma?
distal radius/proximal humerus
distal femur
proximal and distal tibia
Animal presents with lameness originating at the elbow. Radiographs show lysis of the cortical bone, with spicules. What are your treatment options?
Amputation
Resection and graft
+/- radiation or chemotherapy
Which oral tumors carry the highest metastatic rates?
Malignant melanoma
Osteosarcoma
An large breed, middle aged dog presents for reluctance to eat and bleeding from the mouth. On inspection, you see a mass around the upper carnassial tooth. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Fibrosarcoma
What sort of workup should be considered pre-surgically for animals with oral masses?
Biopsy- always consider
Thoracic radiographs
Radiographs or CT to evaluate bone involvement
True/False. Mandibulectomy can be accomplished using an osteotome.
False. Gigli wire or oscillating saw.
True/False. Palliative radiation therapy involves more dose per fraction.
True.
This type of therapy involves a radioactive implant in the patient.
Brachytherapy
This type of radiation is where the source is applied directly to the lesion.
Plesiotherapy
Orthovoltage is relatively low/high energy radiation.
Low
Which types of teletherapy use Compton process of ionization?
Co-60
Linear acceleration
Which type(s) of teletherapy use photoelectric process of ionization?
Orthovoltage
An electron beam of 20 MeV is directed from a linear accelerator. What is the approximate range of electrons in the tissue?
10 cm
You have a linear accelerator to treat a lesion beneath the skin. What type of beam do you use?
Photon radiation (x-rays)
You have a cutaneous tumor. Which types of radiation would be appropriate?
Linear accelerator with electron beam
Orthovoltage
You have a soft tissue mass just over a bony protuberance of the knee. What type of radiation to avoid in this area?
Orthovoltage (x-rays)
True/False. HIgher energy beams exhibit higher surface dose.
True.
Which process of ionization works independent of atomic number?
Compton
Where are soft tissue sarcomas most common?
limbs or head
A cat is diagnosed with a low grade soft tissue sarcoma. What is the metastatic potential?
< 15%
A cat is diagnosed with a high grade soft tissue sarcoma. What is the metastatic potential?
40-50%
True/False. When evaluating a possible soft tissue sarcoma, a FNA or excisional biopsy is preferred.
False. Do not exfoliate well, want to plan so tract is also excised
What is the rate of recurrence for canine soft tissue sarcoma is treatment is surgery alone?
10-50%
High/low dose radiation is utilized in conjunction with surgery to treat canine soft tissue sarcomas.
High dose
What are indications for chemo for soft tissue sarcoma?
high grade
metastatic
intra-abdominal
A younger cat presents with multiple soft tissue sarcomas. What additional test to add to diagnostic work-up?
FeLV testing
When should a vaccination site reaction in a cat be investigated further?
increase in size >1 month later
> 2 cm diameter
Still evident > 3 months later
What is the rage of recurrence of soft tissue sarcoma in the cat?
30-70% surgery alone
30-50% multimodal therapy
Which chemotherapeutics can be used for soft tissue sarcomas?
doxorubicin +/- cyclophosphamide