• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/142

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

142 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
If a dog has isosthenuria due to renal disease, but is not azotemic, what much renal tubular function must remain?
must have 25-33% function
An animal that is not azotemic and can concentrate urine may have what proportion of functional nephrons?
35-100%
What is the hallmark of glomerular injury?
proteinuria in the absence of hematuria or pyuria
What is normal 24 hour protein excretion?
dog: < 10-25 mg/kg
cat < 200 mg
What is a normal protein:creatinine ratio?
<0.5
Why might a urine S.G. be normal in an animal in renal failure?
cats- early chronic renal failure (creatinine/BUN)
protein losing nephropathies
Treatment for AKD cause by leptospirosis
?
penicillin or doxycycline
Fluids for an animal with a negative fluid balance with renal failure.
calculated deficit + maintenance + ongoing loss (over 4-6 hours)
How to establish urine flow with oliguric/anuric renal failure?
water diuresis w/ fluids- may be detrimental
diuretics (after rehydration): mannitol, furosemide
dopamine or fenoldopam
dialysis
What should be given/done if attempting diuresis with dopamine?
give 5% dextrose IV
EKG monitoring
At what point during therapy for renal diseasemight bicarbonate therapy be instituted?
blood pH < 7.1 or HCO3 < 12 mEq
What are complications of giving bicarbonate too rapidly (replace over 48 hours)?
alkalosis
paradoxical CSF acidosis
hypokalemia
sodium loading
When should more aggressive therapy for hyperkalemia be instituted?
K+ > 8 mEq or clinical signs (weakness, depression, cardiac arrhythmias) present
How much K+ can be added to a liter of LRS prophylactically during diuresis phase?
20 mEq
Serum K+ is less than 2 mEq. How much K+ to add to 250 ml LRS?
20
Serum K+ is 2.6-3 mEq. How much K+ to add to 250 ml LRS?
10 mEq
How often should Na+ be monitored during diuresis?
q 1-2 days
For animals with chronic renal disease, where should blood pressure be maintained?
120-160 mmHg systolic
Use ACEi or amlopidine
When might aspirin be added to treatment for protein-losing glomerulopathy?
AT III < 70%
albumin < 2
Fast calculation of drug interval change for patient with renal failure?
normal interval x serum creatinine
Fast calculation of drug dose change for patient with renal failure?
normal dose/serum creatinine
What are some considerations for use large volumes for peritoneal dialysis?
greater surface area for diffusion
longer equilibration times
increase intra-abdominal pressure and peripheral vascular resistance
can cause frank dyspnea
Acute dialysis procedure for oliguric renal failure
40-45 minutes
exchange every 1-2 hours
continue until BUN = 60-100, creatinine 4-6
Procedure for chronic dialysis.
abdomen for 4-6 hours
3-4 exchanges a day
What to monitor doing peritoneal dialysis
Na, K, Cl, blood gas, osmolality, BUN, creatinine q8-12 hours
chronic- continue 3-4 days, then every 2 days
Treatments for protein-losing glomerulopathies?
restrict protein
treat edema
aspirin or clopridogrel for hypercoagulability
ACEi can reduce proteinuria
Drugs that are excreted by the kidney?
tetracyclines
sulfonamides
fluoroquinolones
aminoglycosides
cephalosporins
ampicillin, amoxicillin
penicillin
What is the procedure to correct extramural ectopic ureter?
ureteroneocystotomy
What is the procedure to correct inramural ectopic ureter?
neoureterostomy
50-60% of ectopic ureters corrected surgically require what postop treatment?
Phenylpropanolamine or DES due to continued incontinence.
What is the most common neoplasm of the bladder?
transitional cell carcinoma
True/False. Diagnosis of ruptured bladder usually includes a fluid BUN > serum BUN.
False. BUN equilibrates rapidly, so creatinine is most often used.
True/False. Animals with a ruptured bladder will not be able to urinate normally.
False.
when should testicles be descended?
2 months
Which breed is prone to urethral prolapse, and how can it be treated?
young English bulldog
castration
When is pyometra most likely to occur?
8 weeks post-estrus
A mass of tissue in the shape of a donut is hanging out the rear of a female dog. What most likely is happening?
Vaginal prolapse
True/False. Spay is an option for a bitch who has recurrent vaginal prolapse.
True.
A pedunculated mass appears suddenly in the perineal area of a female dog. What is the prognosis?
Good. It is a tumor, but is easy to remove and doesn't metastasize.
Episioplasty.
reconstructive surgery to correct deep fold dorsal to vagina.
True/False. The larger a mammary tumor is, the more likely it is to be malignant.
True.
Regional mastectomy.
removal of glands based on lymph drainage.
Lab results for pituitary dwarfism
decreased Pi, albumin, PCV
elevated BUN
What is the specific test for pituitary dwarfism?
GH stimulation test with clinidine or xylazine to stimulate GH release. Dwarfs have little or no response.
What are two options for treating a pituitary dwarf?
GH replacement
Progestin- induces GH expression in mammary gland
What are the most common cause of PDH?
Microadenomas
What is the most common cause of acromegaly in the
dog?
cat?
dog- progestational agents
cat- tumor
Which three endocrine disorders can cause DM?
Acromegaly
Hyperadrenocorticism
Hyperthyroidism
What are lab results consistent with acromegaly?
elevated ALP
hyperglycemia
True/False. DM resulting from acromegaly may be irreversible.
True.
name some causes of nephrogenic DI.
hypercalcemia
hypercortisolemia
outdated tetracycline
endotoxemia
What SG following vasopressin administration is consistent with central DI?
SG > 1.030 dogs (1.035 cats)
What endpoint is the goal of DDAVP therapy for central DI?
increase in urine specific gravity by 50% or to greater than 1.030
What are some therapies for nephrogenic DI?
Thiazide diuretics
Low salt/low protein diet
Chlorpropamide- stimulates secretion of ADH, sensitizes renal tubules to ADH
What is the limiting effect of chlorpropamide?
hypoglycemia
Which breeds have familial inheritance of hyperadrenocorticism?
poodles
bearded collies
Nova Scotia DTR
Leonbergers
What is the characteristic electrolyte profile for hypoadrenocorticism
hypercalcemia
Na: K < 22:1
What type of urine concentrating ability is seen with Addison's disease?
Full gamut
What resting cortisol concentration rules out Addison's disease?
> 1.7-2 ug/dl
A dog with primary hypoadrenocorticism will/will not respond to ACTH
Will not
Plasma ACTH will be high/low in dogs with primary hypoadrenocorticism
high (> 500 pg/ml)
What is the test of choice for Addison's disease?
ACTH response
True/False. Sodium and potassium are normal with secondary hypoadrenocorticism are normal.
True. ACTH- independent.
True/False. Secondary hypoadrenocorticism will respond to ACTH with an increase in cortisol.
False. The adrenal gland will be atrophied, and so will not respond.
Lab abnormalities in Cushing's.
fasting hyperglycemia
elevated ALP, mildly elevated ALT
hypercholestrolemia, lipemia T3 and T4 often depressed
What results would you expect for an animal with hyperadrenocorticism to exogenous ACTH?
greater than normal increase in cortisol.
Once hyperadrenocorticism has been diagnosed. what is the best way to differentiate adrenal tumor vs PDH?
Endogenous ACTH
What is the goal of the induction phase of mitotane/lysodren treatment for hyperadrenocorticism?
Stop when water consumption is normal or 50% reduced. ACTH response test 1 week later.
What is the goal of the maintenance phase of treatment for hyperadrenocorticism?
Abolish response to ACTH stimulation (<5 ug/dl)
What medical therapies can be used to treat hyperadrenocorticism?
Mitotane/Lysodren- necrsosi of zona fasciculata and reticularis
trilostane- blocks conversion of pregnenalone to progesterone.
radiation for PDH (not curative)
True/False. Bilateral adrenalectomy is a treatment for feline PDH.
True. But treatment of choice is Trilostane.
Medical management of pheochromocytoma.
alpha blockade followed by beta blockade to control hypertension and arrhythmia
True/False. Surgical excision is treatment of choice for pheochromocytoma.
False- high morbidity and mortality.
What can cause acquired secondary hypothyroidism?
compression by a pituitary tumor.
What is found on PE for hypothyroid dogs?
alopecia
hyperpigmentation, hyperkeratosis
bradycardia, weak pulses
constipation
True/False. Total T3 and T4 is more reliable and less prone to artifactual decrease than free T4.
False.
Can serum TSH be used to diagnose hypothyroidism?
No, overlaps with normal dogs. Use in conjunction with fT4 for accuracy.
What thyroid and related hormone profile is consistent with Euthyroid Sick Syndrome?
low total T4
high free T4 initially, then normal
low TSH or TRH
What is the drug of choice for canine hypothyroidism?
L-thyroxine
What is the most common cause of feline hyperthyroidism?
functional thyroid adenoma
What tests can be used to diagnose hyperthyroidism?
consistently elevated fT4, T3
T3 suppression (should decrease T4 in normal animals)
TRH stimulation- no change
scintigraphy
What is the drug of choice for hyperthyroidism?
methimazole
What is one reason to discontinue methimazole?
neutrophenia/thrombocytopenia
will also increase ALT, ALP, bilirubin
What does sodium iodate do?
inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 to T3. Monitor T3.
What can occur to thyroid levels in with (functional?)canine thyroid neoplasia?
serum T3 or T4 can be normal, high, or low (destruction of tissue)
What is the risk of aspiration pneumonia following laryngeal "tie back" surgery?
25%
What upper airway disorder is characterized by a honking cough?
Collapsing trachea
What medical management can be used for collapsing trachea?
cough suppression
abx
bronchodilators
steroids
True/False. Intraluminal stents are the recommended surgical treatment for younger, moderately affected dogs with collapsing trachea.
False. Extraluminal ring prostheses.
True/False. primary hyperparathyroidism typically affects one gland.
True.
Diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism on ultrasound.
gland > 5mm
What pre-op treatment should be undertaken before surgical removal of parathyroid gland?
treat hypercalcemia
< 14 : fluids
>14: diuresis, calcitonin
What to monitor post parathyroid removal?
Calcium every 12 hours
How many thyroid tumors are carcinomas?
2/3, have will have metastasized
What is the blood supply to the pancreas?
right- cranial pancreaticoduodenal artery
left- splenic and hepatic arteries
What are 3 criteria that hypoglycemia is the result of an insulinoma?
symptoms of hypoglycemia
low blood glucose (<40)
symptoms alleviated with glucse
What post op care is needed after debulking an insulinoma?
blood glucose monitoring every 3 hours
What is the prognosis for an insulinoma?
90% are malignant, 11 month remission
Which vein crosses the surface of the (left?) adrenal gland?
Phrenicoabdominal
What vessel must be avoided when dissecting out the right adrenal gland?
caudal vena cava
What is different about ferret hyperadrenocorticism?
elevation in androgens, not cortisol
What are the signs of ferret hyperadrenocorticism?
alopecia
enlarged vulva
stranguria (males)
+/- pruritis
A female dog presents with a perianal adenoma. What are you thinking is the cause?
Adrenal
What are some potential complications of adrenalectomy for dogs with hyperadrenocorticism?
coagulation abnormalities
electrolyte abnormalities
pulmonary thromboembolism
Where do pheochromocytomas metastasize?
vena cava
What is given preoperatively for pheochromocytoma?
phenoxybenzamine
What is a potential complication of surgery for pheochromocytoma?
hypotension
What is a characteristic finding of chronic bronchitis on transtracheal aspirate?
Chrschmann's spirals
What is the gold standard for diagnosing chronic bronchitis?
bronchoscopy
What lung pattern can be seen in feline asthma?
bronchial
broncho-interstitial
normal
On what view are small volume effusions best seen?
DV
Where is thoracocentesis performed?
7-9th ICS
Which volumes removed by thoracocentesis result in marked clincial improvement?
150-300 ml in cats
10-40 ml/lb in dogs
True/False. Primary, spontaneous pneumothorax in dogs should be managed medically.
False.
Signs of tension pneumothorax
jugular vein distension
barrel chest
cannot breathe
Treatment for malignant pleural effusion
intracavitary infusion of carboplatin/cisplatin, bleomycin
Who is most susceptible to lung lobe torsion?
young male pugs
What does a torsed lung look like on radiographs?
bubbly
True/False. Cats with pyothorax should be managed medically, while dogs are managed surgically.
True.
What is the medical treatment for nasal fungal plaques?
topical clotrimazole
Which abx have high urinary concentration?
Ampicillin/amoxicillin,clavamox, cephalosporins
TMS, sulfas
aminoglycosides
tetracycline
fluoroquinolones
Which breeds predisposed to struvite?
Mutt
min schnauzer
shih tzu
bichon
True/False. Struvite crystals can result from UTI in dogs and cats.
False. not cats
Which stones are more soluble in acid?
struvite
calcium phosphage
Which stones are alkaline soluble?
urate
cystine
Type of Stones seen in both dalmatians and english bulldogs.
urate
Which stones are commonly found in bulldogs, dachshunds, corgis
cystine
What preventative measures can be taken with cystine stones?
low protein diet
2-MPG
D-penicillamine
Citrates inhibit the formation of which uroliths?
Calcium oxalate
calcium phosphate
How long of medical management failure to go to surgery for uroliths?
6-8 weeks
Which nutrients should be restricted for dissolution of struvite stones?
protein
phosphorus
Mg++
What can occur if prescription diet for uroliths is continued > 6 months?
hypoalbuminemia
hypercholesterolemia
What size stones might be cleared by voiding hydropropulsion?
3-15 mm (dogs)
1-5 mm (cats)
What are the most common primary renal neoplasm in the dog? cat?
dog-renal cell carcinoma
cat- lymphoma
What renal neoplasm has dominant inheritance in GSD?
renal cystadenocarcinomas
True/False. Bladder tumors are uncommon in cats.
True.
What are risk factors for bladder tumors?
obesity
cyclophosphamide therapy
some topical flea control products
lack of vegetables
What medical treatments are available for transitional cell carcinomas of the bladder?
piroxicam or cisplatin (20% remission rate)
mitoxantrone (35% remission)
both
Because they are high in fat and sodium, urolith dissolving diets are contraindicated with what conditions?
hyperlipidemia
pancreatitis
hypertension
heart disease
pregnant
growing animals
Vegetarian diet may be appropriate for the prevention of what type of urinary stones?
urate
Prostatomegaly?
diameter of prostate:
>70% of pelvic inlet
>1.5X lumbar vertebrae
Which antibiotics get high concentrations in prostatic fluid?
TMS
Chloramphenicol
Cephalosporins
Fluoroquinolones