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240 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What does innate resistance or immunity depend on? |
Physical, mechanical, and biochemical barriers. |
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What are collectins? |
Protect against respiratory infections. |
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What is complement? |
A series of proteins in the blood. |
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What is diapedesis? |
The action of neutrophils migrating from the bloodstream to an injured tissue site. |
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What is an interferon? |
Prevent viruses from infecting healthy host cells. |
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What are the sequence of inflammatory events within the body's vasculature? |
Arteriolar vasoconstriction, vasodilation, increased capillary permeability, plasma leakage, and edema. |
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What is the purpose of the inflammatory response? |
To minimize injury and promote healing. |
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How is the alternative complement pathway activated? |
Via gram-negative bacterial and fungal cell wall polysaccharides. |
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What is purpose of the CB3 component of complement? |
It opsonizes microbes to facilitate phagocytosis. |
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How does the activation of Hageman factor affect the plasma protein system? |
By activation of the kinin system by a fragment of the Hageman factor. |
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What is the sequence of phagocytosis? |
Margination, diapedesis, recognition, adherence, ingestion, fusion with lysosomes inside the phagocyte, destruction of the target. |
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Swelling during acute inflammation is caused by what? |
Fluid called exudate. |
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Cells who handle the recognition of abnormal environmental components so cells can respond use what type of receptor? |
Pattern recognition receptors or PRRs |
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What does mast cell degranulation release? |
Histamine, IL-4, and eosinophil chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis. |
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What does Interleukin 6 do? |
It stimulates the growth of blood cells and fibroblasts. |
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What does the tumor necrosis factor do? |
It causes tumor cytotoxicity. |
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What is chronic inflammation characterized by? |
Lymphocytic and macrophagic infiltration. |
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What is scar tissue? |
Nonfunctional collagenous and fibrotic tissue. |
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Which phagocytes arrive first at inflammatory and infectious sites? |
Neutrophils. |
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Which leukocyte functions for a longer time and later in the inflammatory response are involved with activation of the adaptive immune system? |
Macrophages. |
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Which leukocytes serve as primary defenders against parasites and help regulate vascular mediators released from mast cells by preventing more inflammatory activity then is needed? |
Eosinophils. |
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Which leukocytes recognize and eliminate virus-infected cells and cancerous cells. |
Natural killer cells. |
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Which returns injured tissues to an approximation of its original structure and physiological function? |
Resolution. |
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What is filled with new capillaries and is surrounded by fibroblasts and macrophages? |
Granulation tissue. |
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Which form of immunity has memory? |
Adaptive immunity via T and B cells. |
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What does immunogenicity depend on? |
Host foreignness. |
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Which cells are capable of forming clones? |
B-cells and T-cells. |
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Which cells are stimulated by IL-2? |
T-Cells and NK-cells. |
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Which cells bind with MHC class I molecules? |
Cytotoxic T-Cells |
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CD4 markers are found on which cells? |
Suppressor T-Cells |
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Antibodies are produced by which cells? |
Plasma cells. |
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What are the properties of an immunoglobulin? |
Two heavy and two light polypeptide chains. |
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Which antibody class has the highest concentration in the blood? |
IgG |
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What is the role of IgM? |
It is the first to challenge an antigen. |
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How do cytokines and their receptors function? |
As chemical signals between cells. |
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When does clonal selection occur? |
Primarily after birth and throughout life. |
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Why does immunologic tolerance develop? |
Self-reactive lymphocytes are eliminated in the primary lymphoid organs. |
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What do cytotoxic T-Cells do? |
They inhibit virus-infected cells. |
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What are antibodies effective against? |
Extracellular viruses. |
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What does transforming growth factor do? |
It stimulates wound healing. |
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Which cells are necessary in inducing both the humoral and cellular immune response? |
Helper T Cells. |
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Which cells function to avoid attacking self-antigens or to avoid overactivation of immune responses? |
Regulatory T-Cells. |
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Which antigens cause the activation of large populations of T lymphocytes irrespective of antigen specificity? |
Superantiges. |
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Which immune system consist of antibodies in bodily secretions that protect the body against antigens yet to penetrate the skin or mucous membranes? |
The secretory immune system. |
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What is the condition where the body produces antibodies against its own tissue? |
Autoimmune disease. |
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Which type of hypersensitivity is caused by poison ivy? |
Type IV |
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The mechanism of hypersensitivity to drugs is what? |
Type I, II, III. |
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Which system is responsible for the formation of antigen/antibody complexes which damage the body in lupus? |
The humoral immune system and complement. |
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What does the classical complement cascade begin with? |
Antigen/antibody complexes binding to a component of the complement system. |
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What is an example of an alloimmune disorder? |
Insulin-dependent diabetes. |
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Immunodeficiencys occur because of impaired function of which cells? |
B and T cells, phagocytic cells, and complement. |
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Which immunoglobulin is associated with the X-linked immune deficiency? |
IgM |
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How can you tell a person has B cell immune response deficiency? |
Unusual or recurrent infections by encapsulated bacteria. |
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What is DiGeorge syndrome caused by? |
A congenital lack of thymic tissue. |
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When can secondary or acquired immunodeficiencies occur? |
After birth, due to viral infection, or following immunosuppressive therapy. |
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What occurs when the body rejects a transplant? |
The body creates an immune response to the donor's HLA antigens and a type IV hypersensitivity occurs. |
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What kind of immunologic mechanism does Graves disease have? |
A cytotoxic or tissue specific reaction. |
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What kind of immunologic mechanism does Lupus have? |
An immune complex reaction. |
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What is a characteristic of Selye's stress syndrome? |
Adrenocortical enlargement. |
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What is the alarm stage characterized by? |
Increased sympathetic activity. |
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What occurs in stressed or depressed individuals? |
Apoptosis of immune and cancer cells is altered. |
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Which organ releases corticotrophin-releasing hormone? |
Hypothalamus |
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Stress is defined as any factor that stimulates what? |
The hypothalamus to release CRH. |
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When are clucocorticoids at the highest level? |
During the resistance stage. |
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What three organs work to produce cortisol in response to stress? |
Hypothalamus, anterior pituitary, and the adrenal cortex. |
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What does cortisol do? |
It affects protein catabolism |
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What is a response of increased stress? |
Increased systolic pressure, increase in epinephrine production, dilation of the pupils, and an increase in adrenocorticoids. |
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What does the adrenal cortex secrete in response to stress? |
Cortisol and aldosterone. |
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What does coping do? |
It manages stressful demands exceeding an individual's resources. |
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What are the biochemicals secreted by the adrenal cortex in response to stress called? |
Corticoids. |
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What are disturbances in cognition, emotion, and behavior called? |
Stressors. |
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During what stage is the immunity of an individual most impaired? |
The exhaustion stage. |
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During what stage is the sympathetic nervous system triggered? |
Alarm stage. |
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What is IL-1? |
The cytokine produced by macrophages which stimulates the release of CRH. |
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What is IL-2? |
An interleukin that increases ACTH levels. |
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What is the substance produced by lymphocytes, macrophages, and fibroblasts that enhances phagocytic activity called? |
IFN |
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What do endorphins do? |
They inhibit pain, CRH secretion, and cause an increase in blood pressure. |
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Are platelets a component of plasma? |
No, only colloids, electrolytes, gases, and glucose are. |
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Which is the most abundant protein in blood plasma? |
Albumins. |
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What do eosinophils do? |
They can phagocytize, ingest antigen-antibody complexes, and can be induced to attack parasites. |
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What is the precursor to the granulocyte called? |
Myeloblast |
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What is the correct sequence in the differentiation of erythrocytes? |
Proerythroblast, normoblast, and reticulocyte. |
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Are reticulocytes considered WBC's? |
No |
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What is the purpose of erythropoietin? |
Control erythrocyte production. |
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What is the main regulator of the platelet circulating mass? |
Thrombopoietin. |
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How many more RBCs than WBCs in the blood? |
1000 times more. |
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If there are 7000 leukocytes in the blood, how many are neutrophils? |
4200 |
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Which granulocyte functions similar to that of tissue mast cells? |
Basophils. |
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What is erythropoietin? |
A hormone secreted by the kidney that is stimulated by tissue hypoxia. |
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What are agranulocytes? |
Lymphocyte and monocyte. |
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Which are the most effective phagocytes? |
Neutrophils and monocytes. |
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Which vitamins are needed for erythropoiesis? |
C, E, B2, and B12 |
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Where are Kupffer's cells located? |
Liver |
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Which test reflects bone marrow activity? |
Reticulocyte count. |
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What occurs as an individual ages? |
Lymphocytic function decreases. |
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What occurs during hemostasis? |
Vasoconstriction, platelet plug formation, intrinsic pathway activities, and clot formation. |
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What occurs when a blood vessel is damaged? |
Subendothelial collagen is exposed, platelets are attracted to collagen, and platelets degranulate. |
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What does the action of adhering platelets cause? |
Vasoconstriction of the injured vessel. |
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Anemia refers to a deficiency in what? |
Blood plasma and hemoglobin. |
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Morphologic classification of anemia is based on what? |
Size, color, and shape. |
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What does hypoxemia cause? |
Arterioles, capillaries, and venules to dilate, and it causes the heart to contract more forcefully. |
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What are symptoms of aplastic anemia? |
Hemorrhage into the tissues. |
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What is a cause of macrocytic-normochromic anemia? |
Antibodies against parietal cells. |
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How would you treat an individual with chronic gastritis and tingling in the fingers? |
Vitamin B12 via intramuscular injection. |
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Secondary polycythemia may be caused by what? |
Dehydration, COPD, and even living at high altitudes. |
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What causes the symptoms of polycythemia? |
Increased blood viscosity. |
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Where is Leukocytosis not found? |
Bone marrow depression. |
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What is the most notable characteristic of infectious mononucleosis? |
The presence of the heterophil antibody. |
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What does not play a role in leukemia? |
Diet. |
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What is a characterization of CML? |
The presence of the Philadelphia chromosome. |
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What are clinical manifestations of multiple myeloma? |
Bone pain, M-protein, renal damage, and pathologic fractures. |
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What will thrombocytopenia with a platelet count of less than 50,000/mm3 cause? |
Hemorrhage from minor trauma. |
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What can cause thromboembolic disease? |
Injured vessel walls, tissue damage that releases excessive TF, obstructed blood flow, and polycythemia. |
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Vitamin B12 deficiency and Folic acid deficiency can cause which form of etiologic anemia? |
Macrocytic-normochromic |
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Iron deficiency and Excessive bleeding can cause which form of etiologic anemia? |
Microcytic-hypochromic. |
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What is eosinophilia related to? |
Allergic disorders |
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What is leukopenia related to? |
Radiation |
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What kind of lymphoma does the Epstein-Barr virus cause? |
Hodgkin lymphoma |
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What kind of lymphoma does the Reed-Sternberg cell cause? |
Hodgkin lymphoma |
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Non-Hodgkin lymphoma is caused mainly by what? |
Frequent extranodal involvement. |
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What is hypersensitivity? |
A state in which the body undergoes an exaggerated immune response to an antigen. |
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What is edema? |
An excessive accumulation of fluid within the interstitial spaces? |
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What is vasodilation? |
The relaxation of smooth muscle in the arterial walls that increases blood flow. |
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What is opsonization? |
Increases adherence between phagocytes and target cells by acting as a glue? |
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What are the five steps to phagocytosis? |
1) Recognition and adherence to target 2) Phagocyte ingests target 3) Formation of phagosome within the phagocyte 4) Fusion phagosome with lysosomal granules 5) Destruction of the target
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What is the role of the eosinophil in the inflammatory process? |
They help by regulating vascular mediators released from mast cells. It limits and controls inflammation. |
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What are parts of innate immunity? |
Skin, Cilia, Temperature, and pH. It also includes mucus, sweat, tears, saliva, and earwax. Normal flora. |
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What is normal flora? |
Non-pathogenic microorganisms that deter growth of harmful microorganisms. |
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What is IgG? |
The most abundant of antibodies and it is the one that can cross the placenta. |
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What is IgA? |
The dominant secretory immunoglobulin with a primary role in preventing invasion of pathogens through mucosal membranes (GI, pulmonary, urinary tracts). |
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What is IgM? |
The largest immunoglobulin and usually exists as a pentamer. The first antigen produced during the initial or primary response to antigens. |
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What is IgD? |
Found in low concentrations in the blood, its primary function is to work as a antigen receptor on the surface of early B cells. |
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What is IgE? |
Low concentration it works as a mediator of many common allergic responses and in the defense against parasitic invasions. |
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What is an endogenous antigen? |
Antigens that originate within the cell. |
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What is an example of an endogenous antigen? |
Antigens from viruses that infect cells and use normal cellular proteins to produce viral proteins and antigens that are uniquely produced by cancerous cells. |
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What cytokine is needed for the maturation of a functional helper T cell? |
Interleukin 1 & 2 |
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What is an example of isoimmunity (alloimmunity)? |
This type of immune response occurs most commonly during organ transplant or blood transfusion rejections by the body. It is the body's reaction against the tissues of another individual. |
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What types of antibodies does blood type A have? |
Antigen A and antibody B |
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What types of antibodies does blood type B have? |
Antigen B and antibody A |
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What types of antibodies does blood type O have? |
No antigens and antibody B and A. |
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What types of antibodies does blood type AB have? |
Antigen AB and no antibodies. |
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What is DiGeorge's syndrome? |
A congenital thymic aplasia or hypoplasia and diminished parathyroid gland development caused by the lack or partial lack of the thymus resulting in a decreased number of T cells. It occurs during embryonic development and will result in the inability to regulate calcium concentrations. |
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What is an example of type 1 hypersensitivity? |
Seasonal allergies, asthma. |
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What is an example of type 2 hypersensitivity? |
Graves disease, or drug allergies |
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What is and example of type 3 hypersensitivity? |
Lupus or Glutton (wheat) allergies |
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What is an example of type 4 hypersensitivity? |
Contact sensitivity to metals (jewelry) or poison ivy. |
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What is infection? |
The invasion of the body by pathogenic microorganisms that reproduce and multiply, causing disease by local cellular injury, secretion of a toxin, or antigen antibody reaction in the host. |
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What microorganisms do neutrophils attack? |
Bacteria. |
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What microorganisms do NK cells attack? |
Tumors and viruses. Anything that expresses MCH class I antigen. |
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What are exotoxins? |
Released during bacterial growth. They have a specific effect on host cells. They damage cell membranes, activate second messengers, and inhibit protein synthesis. |
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What does transcriptase do? |
A viral enzyme used by a retrovirus but commonly by the HIV virus to convert RNA into double sided DNA. |
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What does a decrease in CD4 and T-helper cells indicate? |
AIDS |
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What is toxigenicity? |
The ability to produce soluble toxins or endotoxins that greatly influence the pathogen's degree of virulence. |
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What is infectivity? |
The ability of the pathogen to invade and multiple in the host. |
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What is pathogenicity? |
The ability of an agent to produce disease which is dependent on the pathogen's communicability, infectivity, extent of tissue damage, and virulence. |
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What is virulence? |
The capacity of a pathogen to cause severe disease. Measles=low Rabies=high |
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What is stress? |
Any emotional, physical, social, economic, or other factor that requires a response or change. |
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What does the GAS alarm phase stimulate? |
CNS |
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What occurs with epinephrine and norepinephrine during stress? |
Epinephrine increases bronchodilation, increases lipolysis, and increases activity in the liver. Norepinephrine increases BP, increases pupil dilation, causes goose bumps and activates neuropeptide Y which increases vasoconstriction. |
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What is exhaustion? |
Occurs when stress continues to impact the body and adaptation is not successful. It will ultimately cause impairment of the immune system, heart failure, and kidney failure leading to death. |
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What does Cortisol do to the body? |
It initiates a series of metabolic changes which are thought to enhance immunity during acute stress and suppress immunity during chronic stress because of prolonged exposure and increased concentration. |
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What is the effect of androgens on lymphocytes? |
They suppress them. |
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What is hematology? |
The study of blood and blood forming tissues. |
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What is innate immunity? |
Natural or native immunity that includes natural barriers (physical, mechanical, biochemical) and inflammation. They are the first line of defense and are in place since birth. |
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What is the second line of defense called? |
The inflammatory response. |
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What is the inflammatory response? |
Rapid activation of biochemical and cellular mechanisms that are NONSPECIFIC in order to prevent infection of injured tissue and promote healing. |
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What is the third line of defense? |
Adaptive immunity. |
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What is adaptive immunity? |
Also called acquired or specific immunity, a slower response that involves targeting specific invading microorganisms. This type of immunity involves memory which increases response times during future exposures. |
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What are physical barriers? |
Skin, linings of GI, Urinary, and Respiratory tracts. This includes skin temp and pH. |
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What are some biochemical defense mechanisms? |
Saliva, earwax, sweat, tears, anti microbial peptides (cathelicidins and defesins), collectins, MBL. |
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What does commensal mean? |
Benefit to one organism without affecting the other. |
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What does mutualistic mean? |
Benefit to both organisms. |
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What are opportunistic organisms? |
Members of the normal flora bacteria that can and may cause disease when the individual's defenses are compromised. |
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What are classic symptoms of the inflammatory response? |
Redness (erythema), heat, swelling, pain, and loss of function. |
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What is inflammation? |
The first response to injury. |
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What are four key elements of the inflammatory response? |
1) occurs in tissues with blood supply (vascularized tissue) 2) activates within seconds of tissue damage 3) is dependent on the activity of both cellular and chemical components. 4) is non-specific (takes place in same manner every time). |
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What three things occur near the site of tissue injury? |
1) Vasodilation occurs 2) Increased vascular permeability (edema) to allow plasma out and blood cells in 3) WBC adherence to inner walls |
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What are the three plasma protein systems involved in an effective inflammatory response? |
Complement, clotting, and kinin system. |
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What does the complement system do? |
It produces factors that can destroy pathogens directly or can activate or increase the activity of many other components of the inflammatory response. |
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What are opsonins? |
They coat the surface of bacteria and increase their susceptibility to being phagocytized and killed. |
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What are chemotactic factors? |
These molecules diffuse from a site of inflammation and attract phagocytic cells to its location. |
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What are anaphylactic toxins? |
They induce rapid degranulation of mast cells. |
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What are the three pathways that control complement? |
Classical, alternative, and lectin. |
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How is the classical complement pathway activated? |
Via antibodies. |
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How is the alternative complement pathway activated? |
Via pathogenic surface markers. |
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How is the lectin complement pathway activated? |
Via MBL. |
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What is a blood clot? |
A meshwork of protein strands that stabilizes the platelet plug and traps other cells in order to stop bleeding, trap microorganisms, and provide a framework for future repair. |
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What does bradykinin do? |
Cause dilation of blood vessels and acts with prostaglandins to induce pain, cause smooth muscle contractions, and increases vascular permeability. |
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What do cytokines do? |
Also called interleukins, alter cell adhesion, attract leukocytes to their location, induce maturation of leukocytes in bone marrow, and enhance or suppress inflammation. |
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What is a mast cell? |
The most important cellular activator of the inflammatory response. Cells that are filled with granules and are located in the loose connective tissue close to blood vessels. |
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What is histamine? |
Cause rapid constriction of smooth muscle and dilation of postcapillary venules to increase blood flow. Increases inflammation. |
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What are endothelial cells? |
They regulate circulating components of the inflammatory system and maintain normal blood flow by preventing spontaneous activation of platelets and members of the clotting system. |
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What are platelets? |
Cytoplasmic fragments formed from megakaryocytes. Assist in clotting. |
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What are basophils? |
Represent less than 1% of WBCs. Produce histamine and work with mast cells. Seen in early inflammatory response. |
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What are neutrophils? |
Predominant phagocytes in early inflammation and arrive within 6-12 hours. Becomes a component of pus. Primary role is removal of debris and dead cells and destruction of bacteria. |
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What are monocytes? |
Largest of WBCs with a horseshoe shaped nucleus. They become macrophages and Kupffer cells. |
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What are eosinophils? |
Serve as the body's primary defense against parasites and regulate mast cell actions and control inflammation. |
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What are our two most important phagocytic cells? |
Macrophages and neutrophils. |
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What is chemotaxis? |
Leukocyte directed migration in which WBCs are attracted to the inflammatory cite by chemical factors. |
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What are interferons? |
Cytokines that protect against viral infections. |
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What are pyrogens? |
Cytokines that act directly on the hypothalamus to increase the body's temperature. |
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What is leukocytosis? |
An increase in the number of WBCs seen in infection. |
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What is chronic inflammation? |
Lasts 2 weeks or longer |
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What do myofibroblasts do? |
Wound contraction after it has healed. |
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What is humoral immunity? |
An arm of the adaptive immune response in which the production of antibodies by B cells occurs. |
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What do cytotoxic T cells attack? |
Viruses and cancer cells. |
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What is active acquired immunity? |
Immunity gained via exposure or immunization (weak virus). |
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What is passive immunity? |
Gained via donor (mother to fetus) or immunization of antibodies. |
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What is an immunogen? |
A molecule that can induce an immune response. |
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What is an antigen? |
Molecule that binds with an antibody. |
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What are allergens? |
Antigens that can induce an allergic response. |
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Which cytokine is needed for T-Cell Maturation? |
Interleuken 7 or IL-7 |
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What is the function of the T-helper cell? |
It is presented with the antigen. CD4 is present in T-helper cells. |
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What is an example of isoimmunity? |
Rejection of transplanted tissues. |
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What are mycoses? |
Diseases caused by fungi. |
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What is an example of an endogenous antigen? |
They are antigens that originate within a cell and they include antigens from cancerous cells and antigens produced from within viral infected cells. |
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On who would you find Kaposi sarcoma lesions? |
A person with AIDS. |
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What is hypersensitivity? |
An altered immunologic response that results in disease or damage to the individual. |
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What is GAS? |
General adaptation syndrome. |
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What are the three phases of GAS? |
1) Alarm stage (CNS arousal) 2) Resistance stage (Fight or Flight) 3) Exhaustion stage (Death or Disease) |
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What does epinephrine do to the body? |
Exerts its chief effects on the cardiovascular system by increasing cardiac output and increasing blood flow to the heart, brain, and skeletal muscles via vessel dilation. It also dilates airways increasing delivery of oxygen to the blood stream. |
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What does norepinephrine do to the body? |
Blood vessel constriction and works with epinephrine. |
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What is the role of albumin? |
Regulates the passage of water and solutes through capillaries. Represents 60% of plasma protein. |
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What is a macrocytic-normochromic anemia? |
Large abnormally shaped RBCs with normal hemoglobin concentrations. Includes Pernicious anemia (B12 or folate deficiency). Caused by defective DNA. |
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What is pernicious anemia? |
Caused by B12 deficiency, commonly affects northern European decent over 30, females more prone then males. Caused by absence of intrinsic factor which allows B12 absorption. |
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What is folate deficiency anemia? |
Caused by a lack of folic acid. |
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What are microcytic-hypochromic anemias? |
Characterized by abnormally small erythrocytes and reduced amounts of hemoglobin. Occurs due to disorders in iron metabolism, poryphyrin and heme synthesis, or globin synthesis. |
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What is iron deficiency anemia? |
Anemia due to a lack of iron. |
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What is sideroblastic anemia? |
Anemia caused by a lack of iron uptake with signs of sideroblasts in bone marrow. |
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What are normocytic-normochromic anemias? |
Normal sized RBCs and insufficient hemoglobin. Usually occur due to blood loss as a result of trauma. Also includes sickle cell anemia, aplastic, posthemmorhagic, and hemolytic. |
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What is leukemia? |
a clonal malignant disorder of the blood and blood forming organs. |
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What is acute leukemia and its signs and symptoms? |
Also known as ALL it is characterized by undifferentiated or immature cells. Its onset is abrupt and rapid. Most common in children. Signs and symptoms include anemia, bleeding, infection, weight loss, bone pain, liver, spleen, and lymph node enlargement. |
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What is myelogenous leukemia and its signs and symptoms? |
Most common in adults, also known as AML, has a 23% survival rate. Rapid growth of WBCs that interfere with RBC production. Signs and symptoms include anemia, bleeding, infection, weight loss, bone pain, liver, spleen, and lymph node enlargement. |
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What is chronic mylogenous leukemia and its signs and symptoms? |
Also known as CML, patients have a longer life expectancy. Majority of cases are adults. Symptoms include splenomegaly, extreme fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, and low grade fever. Chronic phase 2-5 years. Philadelphia chromosome. |
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What is chronic lymphocytic leukemia and its signs and symptoms? |
Also known as CLL, it involves the malignant transformation of B cells. Failure of normal apoptosis allowing B cells to live longer. Those cells fail to develop antibody producing cells and do not respond to helper T-cells. Symptoms include risk for infection due to a lack in antibody production. Anemia, thrombocytopenia, and neutropenia common. |
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What is Hodgkin lymphoma? |
Tumors of the lymph nodes. Most common in younger adults. Presence is detected by Reed Sternberg cells. CM: Malignant cells release growth factors resulting in enlarged nodes (painless) affecting neck lymph nodes. |
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What is NHL? |
Non Hodgkin lymphoma. Similar to HL, differences are it affects multiple peripheral nodes (arms, legs, groin). |
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What is Burkitt Lymphoma? |
Rare in US. B cell tumor. Results in abdominal swelling. |
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What is multiple myeloma? |
B cell cancer characterized by the proliferation of malignant plasma cells that infiltrate bone marrow and aggregate into tumor masses thought the skeletal system. Elevated blood calcium, renal failure, anemia, and bone lesions. |
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What is lymphoblastic lymphoma? |
A very rare variant of NHL. Due to cloning immature T cells. First signs is painless lymphadenopathy in the neck. Chest nodes follow. Thymus tumor causing dyspnea and chest pain. |
