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408 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is ORM?
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ORM is a decision making tool used by people at all levels to increase operational effectiveness by anticipating hazards and reducing the potential loss, thereby increasing the probability of a successful mission |
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What are the 5 steps of ORM?
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IAMIS: Identify hazards, Assess the hazards, Make risk decisions, Implement controls, supervise
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What year did the U.S. Army adopt Risk Management to reduce training and combat loss?
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1991
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What are the 3 types of ORM controls?
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Engineering controls, Administrative controls, and Personal Protective Equipment
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Which ORM control is the least effective control and why?
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PPE is the least effective type of control because it does not reduce the probability of a mishap occuring, it only reduces the severity when a mishap occurs
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How often do Safety councils convene to develop recommendations for policy and analyze progress of the overall saaafety program?
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Quarterly
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Who consists of the Safety council?
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Chairperson (CO/ XO), Unit Safety Officer (recorder), and safety reps from each department |
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Who is ultimately responsible for safety within the command?
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Commanding Officer
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Who is responsible for advising the C.O. on matters pertaining to safety, manages command safety program, invenstigates mishaps, monitors projects, shops, and special evolutions for compliance with safety hazards? |
Safety Officer
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When is single hearing protection required? When is double hearing protection required? |
Single: Greater than 84 dba and peak noises greater than 140dba. Sustained (double): Great than 104 dba |
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What is used to provide data regarding information of a particular saubstance and provides procedures for handling of working with the substance in a safe manner and includes physical data, storage, disposal, protective equipment, and spill handling procedures?
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Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
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What is a class A fire? What are some extinguishers? |
Combustible such as wood, paper, anything that produces ash. Water, dry chemical |
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What is a class B fire? What are some extinguishers? |
Petroleum products, oil, gas. Dry chemical, CO2, foam |
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What is a class C fire? What are some extinguishers? |
Electrical. Dry chemical, CO2, halon |
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What is a class D fire? What are some extinguishers? |
Metals (Magnesium, phosphorous). Clear area, let it burn |
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State the purpose of the EDVR (Enlisted Distribution Verification Report)? How many sections are in the EDVR? |
It is a monthly statement of enlisted personnel. Used as a tool for manning of the command. It has 12 sections |
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What is a naval messageand what are the three categories?
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A formal and secure form of correspondence that has the ability to be tracked once sent. The 3 categories are routine, special and flash
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What is a page 2? |
NAVPERS1070/ 602 Dependency Application/ Record of emergency data |
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What is a page 4? |
NAVPERS1070/ 604 Used to report educational experience, qualifications, awards, rating designator etc.
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What is a page 13? |
Admin remarks |
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What is an OPREP? |
Operation Report. Equipment status and manning issues |
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Under the LOAC what is a Combantant?
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All persons in uniform carrying a weapon in any way in military operations or activities. Only combatants are considered proper targets and may be fired upon. |
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Under the LOAC what is a Non-Combantant?
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Civilians, medical personnel and Chaplains |
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Who initiated America's first sea-base offensive against the British?
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General George Washington
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The idea of Naval construction battalions was conceived by?
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Bureau of Yards and Docks
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Seebees celebrate March 5th, 1942 as?
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The day permission was granted to use the name Seabee
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What happened at the Battle of the Coral Sea? |
In May 1942, a battle was fought entirely with aircraft launched from carriers; The two fleets never saw each other
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Mobile Explosive Investigative Units (MEIU) were instrumental in the clearance of explosive hazards both on land and sea. Wha were they later renamed?
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Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD) Units
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True or False. Riverine Assault Operations employ Marine Corps and Navy forces to clooect intelligence information.
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False
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Who is appointed by the President as the head of the Department of the Navy?
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Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV)
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Navy representative on the Joint Chiefs of Staff is?
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Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
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True or false. N4 department head is responsible for scheduling visitor interviews with the XO and other officers as appropriate.
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False
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True or false. N1 department head is respnsible for administration of a units supplies and equipage funds so that all essential material requirements are met. |
False
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Navy Expeditionary Combat Command (NECC) responsibility is?
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Provide oversight and command and control of anti-terrorism force protection (ATFP) and expeditionary - type forces within the Navy
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Which command is not a core NCW force?
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Mobile Communications Detachments (MCD)
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Deployable, armed small craft units that support security operations in littoral regions worldwide manned with USCG and USCGR SELRES are?
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Porrt Security Unit (PSU)
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Teams, which provide protection to MSC ships such as maritime prepositioning ships, fast combat support ships and bulk fuel carriers, and their civilian crews are known as?
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Embarked Security Teams (EST)
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What 3 Air Mobility Command (AMC) Organic aircraft are commonly used? |
C-130 Hercules, C-5 Galaxy and C-17 Globemaster III
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What is the primary mission of a C-5
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Inter theater strategic airlift outsized cargo
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What is the primary mission of a C17? |
Inter theater strategic airlift outsized items of cargo to small aistere airfields at or near the battle area, by aerial delivery or air-land method |
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What is the organic aircraft replced the C-141?
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C-17 Globemaster III
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What is the typical use of a C-130?
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Moving cargo from main theater staging bases to the front lines
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What does MPF stand for?
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Maritime Prepositioning Forces
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What does hazardous materials need in order to ship?
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Shippers Declaration of Dangerous Goods (HAZDEC)
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What is Maritime Sealift Command tasked with?
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They are tasked with providing strategicm common user sealift transportation services to U.S. Forces to deploy, employ, sustain and redeploy those forces on a global basis
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What does APF stand for?
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Afloat Prepositioning Forces
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Currently, how many ships do APF have?
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Over 30 ships
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APF are seperated into what two mission categories?
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Maritime Prepositioning Ships and Afloat Prepositioning Ships
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Are prowords to be substituted for text? |
No
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Name methods of communication that can be used in areas where oral communication is not reliable |
Arm and hand signal, whistle, other special signals. |
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What is the nature and purpose of command and control?
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To enable the Naval Commander to understand the situation im his/ her battle space
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Who drives the command control for success of the mission?
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The Commander
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Who has final responsibility and accountability for the success of the mission?
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The Commander
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What are three forms of intelligence?
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Strategic, Operational and Tactical
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What is the cornerstore of naval intelligence?
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To support the operating forces (At sea and ashore) |
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Name two attributes of Naval intelligence.
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Timelines, objectivity, usability availability, thoroughness, accuracy and relevance
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What does COMSEC stand for? Define COMSEC. |
Navy's system for proper safeguard on telecommunication via encryption. |
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What is meany by TPI? |
Two Person Integrity is the integrity measure taken to prevent single-person access to COMSEC keying material and cryptographic maintenance manuals |
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What are the 3 type of clearance? |
Confidential, secret, top secret |
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Name the frequency ranges for HF, VHF, and UHF.
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HF = 3 MHZ - 30 MHZ, VHF= 30 MHZ - 300 MHZ, UHF= 300 MHZ - 3 GHZ
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What are some factors that might affect radio communication? |
Weather, terrain, antenna, power, location of the radio, man made objects (bridges), being to close to static electric lines |
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Define minimize. |
To drastically reduce normal message and telephone traffic so that vital messages connected with the situation at handwill not be delayed. Similar to "Silence on the net."
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Describe BEADWINDOW. |
Procedure used to alert circuit operators of unauthorized disclosure has occured over non-secure circuit |
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What are the 5 phases to an expeditionary camp layout?
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Phase 1- Planning; Phase 2- Site Survey, Security; Phase 3- Camp establishment; Phase 4- Camp maintenance; Phase 5- Camp teardown
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Planning phase has what 4 types of camps?
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Base, Expeditionary, Unit and Logistics hub
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Site survey preparations are future site by?
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Aerial photograph, satellite imagery or reconnaissance patrol
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List about 3 facilities or structures in Phase 3 camp establishments.
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Billeting, food service, showers/ heads, field armory, BAS, laundry, administrative services, MWR, ministry
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What are the basic duties of First Aid Station?
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Emergency Response Team, minor surgeries, patient monitoring, medical evacuation, pharmacy, and administration
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True or false. Personnel should be trained in Basic First Aid and Adult CPR?
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True
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Phase IV maintenance is normally run by who? |
Seabees and contractors (KBR and Blue Diamond) |
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Who maintains the tactical equipment in the camp?
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Seabee mechanics and L-3 mechanics
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What is an intregal componenet of a septic tank individual sweage disposal syste?
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Leach field
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What form is fille out when a trouble call is submitted to the trouble call desk?
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Emergency/ Service Authorization (ESA)
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What are the four work priority work classifications?
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Safety, function, prevention, and apperance
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State the reason for a priority work work classification I (Safety).
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Work required primarily for safety reasons
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What is potable water for?
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Suitable for drinking, cooking and personal use |
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What are the 3 standard gear issue categories? |
1. Fighting/ load carrying 2. Bivouac 3. Protective
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What does the standard 782 gear issue consist of? |
Pistol belt with two magazine pouches. Pack, usually medium size. Harness or suspenders
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Name 3 fighting positions
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Hasty position. Improved one man. Improved two man
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What is the biggest disadvantage of an improved two-man fighting position as opposed to an improved one-man fighting position?
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Two-man provides less protection from boms, tanks, bombing, strafing and shelling
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Which type of camoflauge is more preferable when concealing a vehicle; natural cover or cammie netting?
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Natural cover
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What is the first thing you do if caught in the open at night with a flare overhead'?
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Hit the deck
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What does KOCOA stand for?
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Key terrain. Obeservation and fields of fire. Concelament and cover. Obstacles to movement. Avenues of approach.
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Explain the proecss of orienting a map.
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1. When a compass rose appears on the map place the compass over the magnetic north line. 2. Turn the map until the north arrow of the compass is aligned. 3. For maps with no compass rose, us the N/Z gird line. |
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What does BAMCIS stand for?
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Begin planning. Arrange recon. Make recon. Complete the plan. Issue the order. Supervise.
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What does SMEAC stand for?
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Situation. Mission. Execution. Administrative and Logistics. Command and Signal.
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What are the 3 sub-paragraphs of the situation paragraph of a 5 paragrapgh order?
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1. Enemy forces. 2. Friendly forces. 3. Attachments and detachments.
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When is a SALUTE report used?
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When observed activities of the enemy do not pose a threat.
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What is the primary mission of a reconnaissance patrol?
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Information gathering
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What are the some considerations when creating a fire plan?
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Sectors or zone of fire. Individual fighting positions. Crew served weaposn. Rifleman positions. Terrain features. Fire team leader. |
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What are the two types of fire limits?
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Lateral and forward
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What are the 4 types of fire team positions?
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1. Column 2. Wedge 3. Skimishiers (right and left) 4. Echelon (Right and left)
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How many articles are contained in the Code of Conduct?
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6 articles |
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What are the 4 THREATCON levels?
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Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
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Is arrest or apprehemsion a circumstance under which deadly force would normally be authorized?
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Yes
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What are the 3 types of wire entanglements?
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Tactical, Protective, Supplementary
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Describe challange and reply. |
Two words used to determine friend or foe, or a duress situation |
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What are 3 types of weatherborne security zones? |
1. Assessment 2. Warning 3. Threat
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List things addressed by an effective ATFP plan. |
Concept of operations; Preplaned responses; Tactics; Crisis management procedures; Consequence management procedures; Baseline security posture. Measures to increase security posture. Reporting procedures. Command and Control procedures
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What are the 5 types of waterborned threats?
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1. Small boats 2. Deep craft boat 3. Subsurface 4. Swimmer 5. Floating mines
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What actions are taken when Seaward Continium of Force (SCOF) level three is attained?
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Warning shots from crew serve weapons are fired across bow of Contact of Interest (COI)
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True or false. When engagina hostile waterborne craft fire should be directed at the coxswain?
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False
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What is the ideal width of security zones surrounding a waterborned High Value Asset (HVA)?
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800 meters
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Name things that affect waterborne security zone size/ location.
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UN restrictions, Geography, Capabilities of U.S. security forces, proximity of targets
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What is the principal task of security forces with respect to waterborne vessels?
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To determine hostile intent as far from the HVA as possible.
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What are the minimal and iedal number of boats used for a moving security zone?
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2 minimum, 4 ideal
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Historically, Maritime Interception Operations have been defined as what?
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Peacetime measures designed to enforce embargoes sanctioned by the UNSC, national authority, or other regional organization
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What is the purpose of the Marine Safety Office?
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To ensure the safety, secutiry, and environmental protection of CONUS ports and surrounding areas
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Chemical warfare is broken into what 2 categories?
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Chemical agents and chemical compounds
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Biological warfare is the use of what biological agents?
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Pathogens or toxins |
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Do we have any detection equipment for Biological warfare? |
No |
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What are the signs or indicators for biological warfare?
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Dead bodies, animals, and vegetation |
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True or false. Radiological warfare is when radiation (nuclear bomb) is used as a weapon
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True |
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What is MCU-2/P? |
Chemical gas mask |
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What does JLIST stand for? |
Joint Service Lightweight Integrated Suit Technology |
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What is the color and marking on a NATO CBR marker signs for biological? |
Blue with red marking BIO |
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When the suit is removed from the package in an uncontaminated area, how many days and/ or how many washes ever come first?
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45 days or 6 washes
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What are the 3 types of decontamination?
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Immediate, Operational, am Thorough |
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What color does the M-9 paper turn when it comes into contact with a liquid chemical agent?
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Colors of red |
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What does NAAK stand for and what are the contents of the kit?
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Nerve Agent Antidote Kit and Atropine/ 2-PAM CL injectors |
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Explain all the MOPP levels.
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MOPP 0: Everything within the sight or the ready. MOPP 1; Overgarment. MOPP 2; Over Boots/ MOPP 3; Mask and hood open. MOPP 4; Close hood and gloves |
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What equipment reads the DT-60 personnel dosimeter?
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Portable equipment CP-85
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What are the radiations measured in?
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Roetgens
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What does COSAL stand for?
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Consolidated Shipboard Allowance List |
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What does COSBAL stand for? |
Consolidated Shorebased Allowance List |
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What does the acronym MOV stand for? |
Material Obligation Validation |
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What are the 2 components of operating target (OPTAR)? |
1. Repairable 2. Consumable
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What does COSAL and COSBAL provide?
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A list of every piece of every equipment and place parts of on ship or shore |
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What does the acronym DRMO stand for?
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Defense Re-utilization Marketing Office |
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What is DD form 1348-6?
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Standard Milstrip requisitioning form used when automated supply requisitioning is not avilable
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What is the alternate form for DD for 1348-6? |
DD Form 1250-2 |
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What form is used as Requisitioning and invoice shipping/ document? |
DD For 1149 |
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What form is used to report lost, stolen, damaged or unserviceable items? |
DD Form 200 |
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What does NSN stand for? What is its purpose for NATO?
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National Stock Number. It is used to identify a standardized supply items by NATO. |
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True or false. Property with a unit cost of $100,000 or more is considered plant property
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True |
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What is the unit cost forminor property?
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Between $2500 to $100,000
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Is a printer, or a copier or television considered plant or minor property items?? |
Minority property items |
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Discuss the Depot Level Repairable (DLR) program?
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High priced parts that can be turned in for repair or refurbishment for another's use |
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What does NRFI stand for?
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Not Ready For Issue |
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What does it mean for the item to Remain In Place (RIP)? |
The current part stays in place until the new part arrives. Removing a RIP item could down a part or system completely
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A rip chit has a duration of how long?
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72 hours |
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What are some of the symptoms of electrical shock? |
Pale, weak pulse, burns are usually present, stiffness in the body |
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What are two types of ventilation used to control potential hazardous airborne substances? |
Local Exhaust Ventilation (LEV) and General Dilution Ventilation |
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What safety requirement is conducted on the weather decks and flight deck prior to flight operations?
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Foreign Object Damage (FOD) walk through |
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When conductine helo operation how many feet should you be when th rotor blades ar turning, unless necessary?
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50 feet |
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Name some ways to prevent an electrical fire?
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Keep electric motors clean, ensure proper maintenance is performed, keep ai filters clean and do not overload circuits. |
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What flag is flown during ordnance cargo handling operations? |
Bravo flag |
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Define first aid. |
First aid is the emergency care and treatment of a sick or injured person before medical services are obtained |
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What are the 3 primary purposes of First Aid?
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Save life, prevent further injury, minimize or prevent infection |
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With regards to First Aid watdoes ABC stand for? |
Airay, Breathing, Circulation |
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What is the correct position of a patient being treated for shock? |
Patient should be layed in his or her back, with legs elevated 12 inches |
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What are the two types of fractures?
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Open and closed |
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True or false. Splints should not be s long that they reach the joint above and below a fracture?
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False |
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What are symptoms of a second degree burn? |
Affects th first layer of the skin; skin is blistered and weeping; pain is moderate to severe |
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A fracture or separation of the ribs from the breastbone may produce a free-floating segment called what?
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Flail area |
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True r false. Most injuries to the abdomen require surgery to repair the internal damage.
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True |
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What are the 3 types of heat injuries?
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Heat cramps, heat exhaustion, heat stress |
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What are the 2 types of cold injuries?
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Frostbite and hyperthermia |
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What does line five of a nine line mededvac indicate?
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Number of patients
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Who is Phil Bucklew?
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Father of Naval Special Warfare
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What controbutions did he have towards NSW?
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He was part of the first group commissioned in October 1942 that saw action during Operation Torch
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Explain Operation Torch |
The first allied landing in Europe, on the North African coast
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When did the amphibious scout and ranger training begin? |
15 August 1942 |
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What is the importance of LCDR Draper Kaufman? |
Father of Naval Combat demolition. Set up a school to train how to eliminate obstacles on an enemy held beach prior to an invasion. Naval Combat Demolition Unit Training at Fort Pierce opened June 6, 1943 |
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Who was the President that established the first SEAL teams and when? |
John F. Kennedy January 1962 |
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What is the mission of USSOCOM?
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Train, organize, equips and deploys combat ready special operation forces to combatant commands
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What are the 4 organizations that make up USSOCOM and what is their mission under USSOCOM?
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MARSOC, AFSCOC, NAVSPECWARCOM, and USASOC. Lead plan, and as directed, executes global operations against terrorist networks
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What is the mission of NSW Logistics Support Unit?
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Provide direct administrative, maintenance, logistical, and medical support to Group 1 and 2 and their subordinate SEAL teams
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What is CSSD? What do they do?
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Mobile Communications Team, augments NSWTG/TU to ensure communications interoperability whit joint and fleet commanders
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What is the mission of Naval Special Warfare Unit?
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Plan, coordinate, deconflict, and provide NSW forces for operations and exercises in support of a theater commander while advising theater SOCand fleet staffs and to provide support to NSW forces as required
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Name the locations of the different NSWU's and who they support.
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NSWU-1 Guam supports PACOM; NSWU 2 Stuttgart, Germany supports EUCOM, NSWU 3 Bahrain supports CENTCOM
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What is the mission of NSWG 1 and 2?
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Prepare, maintain, deploy, and support assigned NSW forces to conduct MSO in support of designated theater commanders and conventional naval forces and when directed, command and control NSW operational forces in exercises and operations |
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Who are the subordinated commands under NSWG 1?
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SEAL TEAM 1, 3, 5, 7, LOGSUPP 1, NSWU 1, and NSWU 3 |
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Who are the subordinated commands under NSWG 2?
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SEAL TEAM 2, 4, 6, 8, 10 LOGSUPP 2, NSWU 2 |
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What is the mission of a SEAL delivery team?
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Prepare and deploy SDV dets and ASDS dets to augment NSWTG/ TU in support of theater commanders and conventional naval forces
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What is the primary mission of a Special Boat Team?
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Prepare and deploy assigned craft and crews as SPECBOAT dets are components of NSWTG/ TU to conduct MSO in support of theater commanders and conventional naval forces
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What does TOA stand for? |
Table of Allowance
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Table of Allowance provides how many days capability to perform operations?
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Based on the mission and personnel attahced (90 days for operations)
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What does 3M stand for?
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Maintenance Material Management
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What does PM stand for?
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Preventive Maintenance
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What is the purpose of the 3M/PM system?
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To provide a means of managing preventive and corrective maintenance
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What program is used to streamline small purchase methods, minimize paperwork and streamline payment processes?
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Purchase card program
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Whats is the micro-purchase threshold used to purchase supplies and services for official government business?
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The micro-purchase threshold is at or below $3000 (up to $9,999,900 with other contracting methods)
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What does OPTAR stand for?
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Operating Target
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Who distributes the OPTAR?
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The OPTAR is distributed from the Commanding officer to the Department level
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Who maintains budget records?
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The Supply Officer maintains budget recrds with the OPTAR funds records
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What does the acronym PW/RMS stand for?
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Pre-positioned Was Reserve Management System
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When is the Nay war reserve material essential? |
(Times of war) These items are not needed during peacetime, but are essential to successfully pursuit during pursuit of victory in war
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What form is used as a request for contractual procurement? |
NAVCOMPT 2276 |
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What form is used for original purchase orders? |
DD form 1155 |
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What is the SF-30 used for?
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To modify original purchase orders and delivery/ task orders
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What type of radio os the AN/PRC150C?
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HF LOS manpack radio which provides tactical communications through secure voice and data
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What type of batteries does the AN/PRC 150C utilize?
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BA-5590
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True or false. An AN/PSC-6D is a UHF/ VHF SATCOM/ LOS manpack radio.
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True
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What is the maximum output of an AN/PSC-6D?
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20 watts
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What is the frequency range of the AN/PSC-6D?
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30-215 Mhz
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What is the frequency range of the AN/PRC-148 MBITR?
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30-612 Mhz
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Is the AN/PRC-148 MBITR certified for SATCOM use?
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It is SATCOM capable nut not SATCOM certified
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What radio is considered the handheld survival radio?
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AN/PRQ-7 CSEL (Combat Survivor/ Evader Locator)
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Name two 24 hour characteristics provided by the AN/PRQ-7.
|
Line-of-Sight voice, Beacon, GPS, 2 way data communicatios. Low probablity Intercet/ Detection, Global coverage and Over the Horizon messaging
|
|
|
How man HF and UHF circuits does the JBS V2D radio base station have?
|
2 HF circuits and 12 UHF/ SATCOM circuits
|
|
|
What SHF terminal is 1MB capable used in support of deployed NSW TU's to provide SIPR, NIPR, JWIC's and red/ black phones?
|
SDN-TCV (SOF deployable node-transit case variant) |
|
|
What receive-mode only system provides unclassified nd classifie weather information, map imagery, intel data, UAV video and CNN/ Fox news?
|
GBS (Global Broadcast Service) provide high speed one way information to the warfighter
|
|
|
How many waypoints can the AN/PSN-13S DAGR (Defense Advanced GPS Receiver) store?
|
Up to 999
|
|
|
Name 2 alternate methods of communication? |
Messenger, whistle signals (Attention to orders, cease fire, hostile aircraft/ mechanized vehicle, special signals and hand signals |
|
|
What does CESE stand for?
|
Civil Engineer Support Equipment |
|
|
What is the process of embarking CESE to the marshalling area?
|
Stage, inventory, dispatch, collateral equipment, fuel/ de-fuel, wash, maintenance checks, rewash, and final inspection
|
|
|
What is the process of embarking cargo to the marshalling area?
|
Stage, inventory, clean, build, secure, and final inspection
|
|
|
What is the process of embarking equipment/ cargo for air and sea shipment?
|
All equipment/ cargo should be inventoried, weighed, marked, JI'd, (Joint inspection by AMC) |
|
|
What is the total weight of a 463L air force pallet?
|
290 bs |
|
|
What is the primary and secondary means for loading cargo by air and sea shipment?
|
463L pallet and ISU |
|
|
What is the total weight for 2 side nets and 2 top net? |
65 lbs |
|
|
What is the max weight for a 463L?
|
10000 lbs |
|
|
What is the color of the side nets?
|
Green |
|
|
What is the size of a 463L pallet?
|
88 in x 108 in |
|
|
What is the mx height for a 463L pallet?
|
96 inches |
|
|
What is TPFDD?
|
Time Phased Force Deployment Data |
|
|
How is TPFDD used?
|
It is the information used to plan and execute the movement of personnel and equipment to support OPLANS |
|
|
What does JOPE stand for?
|
Joints Operation Planning and Execution System |
|
|
What does TUCHA DATA stand for and how is it used?
|
Type Unit Characteristics Data and its used for data filling for different military units configurations (EOD, SBT an SEAL TEAM) |
|
|
What are 3 camp layout considerations?
|
Key terrain feature, Security/ defensive posture, health and sanitation |
|
|
What does KOCOA stand for? |
Key terrain features, Observation and fields of fire, Cover and concealment, Obstacles (man made or natural), Avenues of approach |
|
|
How many meters apart should you disperse camp facilities and utilities? |
35 meters |
|
|
How many meters apart should utilities for a natural water sources? |
100 meters
|
|
|
How far apart should the TOC and ant farm be?
|
100 meters |
|
|
What does ECP stand for? |
Entry Control Point |
|
|
What are the 3 types of ECP's for defensive posture? |
Serpentine, Bunker and Observation |
|
|
For health reasons, what is the distance from food/ water should the heads be? |
100 yards |
|
|
What are considerations for waste water (black and gray) for health and sanitation?
|
Wind direction
|
|
|
How many yards should garbage disposal / burn pit area be from a natural water source?
|
100 yards |
|
|
What are the 3 considerations for setting up generators?
|
Sheltered, grounded, and contained |
|
|
What is the diameter size of a grounding rod and at least how deep should it be buried in the ground?
|
Diameter is 5/8' and at least 8 feet deep |
|
|
What does ROWPU mean? |
Reverse Osmosis Water Purification Unit |
|
|
How many gallons can ROWPU purity in one hour of soiled water? |
600 gallons |
|
|
What publication assist management at all levels in property discharging their responsibilities in the efficient management of the transportation program? |
P-300 |
|
|
What does the P-11200 do for the Naval Construction Force (NCF)? |
To establish policy, assign action and provide guidance for equipment management program
|
|
|
What publication ensures optimum service life of equipment is conducted safely and efficiently?
|
P-307 |
|
|
What does MHE stand for?
|
Materal Handling Equipment |
|
|
How do you check out a government vehicle? |
Fill out a vehicle request form and turn it to the dispatcher or lead mechanic with a 48 hours wait time. Dispatcher will issue a trip ticket and keys to the vehicle for operation after yu turn in pre-start crd
|
|
|
What is a pre-start card for?
|
The first operator to check out the vehicle need to check over the vehicle fo damage, cleanliness, leaks and operational function checks |
|
|
How to turn in a vehicle?
|
Turn in the keys after cleaning, re-fueling and inspected by dispatcher or lead mechanic |
|
|
All vehicle accidents should be notified to whom?
|
Dispatcher or lead mechanic |
|
|
What is the form to fill out when you have an accident? |
SF-91
|
|
|
is the maintenance schedule for all government vehicles not in live storage program?
|
40 days cycle |
|
|
What type of license authorizes you to operate a government motor vehice?
|
OF/346 |
|
|
Publication 11260/2 authorizes you to operate what equipment?
|
Construction and weight handling equipment |
|
|
Vehicles not able to operate in a safe operating conditions or mechanical failure are considered what?
|
Deadline
|
|
|
What are NORS and ANORS stand for?
|
Not Operationally Ready Supply and Anticipated Not Operatioally Ready Due to Supply |
|
|
What program is used to support CESE required only for contingency and emergency operation that are stored on an 80 days preventive maintenance cycle?
|
Live storage
|
|
|
What is NSWTG stands for?
|
Naval Special Warfare Task Group
|
|
|
A NSWTG is a provisional NSW task organization that does what?
|
Plans, conducts, and support special operation in support of joint force SOC and/or fleet commanders.
|
|
|
Who normally commands a NSWTG?
|
Commander (O-5)
|
|
|
NSWTG is comprised of what?
|
C2 elements and one or more SEAL PLTs, and other units (mobility and communication).
|
|
|
What does JSOTF stand for?
|
Joint Special Operations Task Force.
|
|
|
Who is the Commanding Officer of Naval Special Warfare Squadron (NSWRON)?
|
The SEAL Team Commanding Officer that is attached to that squadron. |
|
|
The SEAL platoon is made up of 2-3 officers and how many enlisted?
|
12-14 enlisted
|
|
|
True or False. All SEAL PLTs personnel are dive, parachute, and demolition qualified and proficient in small-unit tactics and maritime operations.
|
True
|
|
|
What component is made up of small C2 element and one or more SEAL Platoons?
|
SEAL Task Unit
|
|
|
What does RHIB stand for?
|
Rigid Hull Inflatable Boat Detachment
|
|
|
The NSW RHIB carries up to 8 SEALs with 1 CRRC and how many crew members?
|
3 crew members
|
|
|
the 82-foot MK V SOC is designed for what?
|
Insertion/Extraction of SOF in a low to medium threat environment |
|
|
Terrorist operations are meticulously planned; what three elements are accomplished to minimize the risk of failure?
|
Detailed reconnaissance missions, Training, and Rehearsals |
|
|
Name three types of tactics that are employed by terrorists?
|
Hostage taking, Kidnapping, Bombing, Hijacking, Seizures, Raids or Attacks on facilities, Sabotage, Hoaxes, Arson, Assassination, WMD, Information Warfare (computer hacker). |
|
|
Terrorist attack methodology is comprised of six phases; target options; selection surveillance; training and preparation; and attack. Which of these six phases presents the greatest weakness and why?
|
Target Surveillance, because an effective counter- surveillance program may be able to detect surveillance and alert the target of an impending attack. |
|
|
What are the five Force Protection Conditions?
|
Normal, Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta.
|
|
|
What are the two types of vulnerability assessments?
|
Area specific (Port, airfield), Assessment of own unit.
|
|
|
What is the main purpose for unit to perform a vulnerability assessment?
|
Examine for any weaknesses a unit has that might be susceptible to a terrorist attack. |
|
|
How does weapons effect mitigation apply to a vulnerability assessment?
|
Assesses the effects of any attacks through standoff distances, blast barriers, and structural hardening. |
|
|
Why must an Anti-Terrorism/ Force Protection Plan be understandable?
|
It must be kept understandable for all involved so that the information may be promulgated easily.
|
|
|
Who must complete Level I AT/FP training?
|
All military service members and DOD employees.
|
|
|
Dependent family members ages 14 and over must complete what level of training prior to a PCS OCONUS move?
|
Level I
|
|
|
Commands that have more than 300 attached personnel must have what appointed in writing?
|
Anti-Terrorism Officer.
|
|
|
Level I AT/FP training must be completed how often?
|
Annually.
|
|
|
What importance does AOR Specific Training provide a unit or an individual?
|
Provide detailed threat information covering transit routes and sites that will be visited.
|
|
|
Who must attend level III Pre-Command AT training before assuming command?
|
O5 and O6 commanders or civilian equivalent.
|
|
|
What are four Terrorist Threat Levels?
|
Low, Moderate, Significant, High.
|
|
|
How many general orders are there for a sentry watch?
|
11
|
|
|
What are the 3 zones of an Entry Control Point?
|
Assessment, Warning, and Threat Zones.
|
|
|
When doing a personnel search, what is the proper way to do a search?
|
Have the person spread their feet shoulder width apart, stand on one side utilizing the crush squeeze method, search the body in 1/4 sections using the knife edge of your hand |
|
|
What is the proper way to search a vehicle?
|
Search the vehicle in 3 priorities. Pri-1 Trunk and engine department Pri-2 Interior Pri-3 Underneath vehicle |
|
|
What is the purpose of an anti swimmer patrols?
|
The purpose id to deter on or near the surface
|
|
|
Name the 3 control force actions for civil disturbances.
|
Isolate the area, protect likely targets, and exert control |
|
|
A boat coxswain, you must be familiar and utilize which guiding principles?
|
International / Inland rules of the road
|
|
|
Which of the following is not considered a Vessel Restricted in Ability to Maneuver?
|
A ship at anchorage
|
|
|
While underway you encounter another boat in a head on situation. What should you do?
|
Alter course to starboard
|
|
|
Boat sidelights are what colors?
|
Red to port. Green to starboard
|
|
|
Name 3 environmental conditions which effect small boat operation.
|
Wind, sea, current
|
|
|
Cavitation of a propeller occurs due to ____ mixing with water, can reduce thrust.
|
Air
|
|
|
Define Mean High / Low Water.
|
Average high/ low water level over 19 yr period
|
|
|
Spring and Neap tides occur when?
|
During new, first quarter, last quarter and full moon
|
|
|
The velocity of current is commonly called what?
|
Drift |
|
|
The front and rear end of a boat are known as?
|
Bow and stern
|
|
|
The beam of a vessel is located where?
|
Amidships
|
|
|
The compass error, which results from the offset of true geographic north to magnetic north is?
|
Variation
|
|
|
Deviation error is caused by?
|
Ship acting as a magnetic
|
|
|
On a compass rose the inner circle indicates what?
|
Magnetic north
|
|
|
A ships position is known as?
|
Fix
|
|
|
Name three items required to be onboard a F-470 prior to getting underway.
|
Anchor and line, first aid kit, foot pump and hose, compass, paddies, VHF radio
|
|
|
A reaction board operates in which defensive zone?
|
Threat
|
|
|
Which boat formation is warranted when there is a suspicion the area is mined? |
column
|
|
|
Who issues fire command onboard a boat?
|
Coxswain
|
|
|
Check fire command means?
|
All gunners cease fire temporarily to check effect
|
|
|
Weapons free command indicates?
|
firing is at gunners discretion
|
|
|
What are the three elements of a strip map?
|
Check points, starting points, critical points
|
|
|
Who is responsible for the planning and preparation of a convoy? |
Convoy commander
|
|
|
Who is responsible for sectors fire?
|
crew served weapons operator
|
|
|
Who is responsible for patients and casualties?
|
combat life savers/ medics
|
|
|
During convoy operations, who is responsible for standard equipment requirements such as food, ammunition, fuel and water? |
vehicle commander
|
|
|
Who can fill any position in the convoy when in duress?
|
security personnel
|
|
|
True or false. The file formation offers simplicity and minimizes IED blasts |
FALSE
|
|
|
which vehicle formation allows for greater headlight coverage?
|
staggered
|
|
|
what two techniques limit 3rd party vehicle infiltration?
|
Inverted T/ diamond
|
|
|
During convoy operations, what technique is used to physically block the road from oncoming traffic
|
Blocking
|
|
|
What technique has the second vehicle take the off ramp to observe the top of an overpass? |
deliberate high clear
|
|
|
Who takes control of the steering when in the downed driver battle drill? |
vehicle commander
|
|
|
while performing the in-stride vehicle recovery who hooks up the tow and release straps?
|
driver/vehicle commander
|
|
|
Who makes a call for a dismount/Re-mount
|
Vehicle commander
|
|
|
In the blow thru drill, what action should you take?
|
Speed up, signal direction of enemy, move to rally point, establish 360 degree security, report, continue mission. |
|
|
What is the first step of mission planning?
|
Mission analysis
|
|
|
What does COA stand for?
|
Coarse of Action
|
|
|
Name the five steps of the mission planning.
|
Mission analysis, COA development, COA war-game, COA comparison and development, and order development (and transition) |
|
|
What does SMEAC stand for?
|
Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration and logistics, Command and Signal
|
|
|
what segment of SMEAC gives the who, what, when, where and why?
|
The mission statement is a clear and concise statement of the mission
|
|
|
In what section can you find the commander's intent?
|
Execution
|
|
|
What section contains information or instructions pertaining to rations, ammo, resupply and admin matters?
|
Administration and logistics
|
|
|
The in port security plans (ISP) supplements what standing plan?
|
AT/FP plan
|
|
|
What format is used to brief ongoing crews?
|
SMEAC
|
|
|
What does the acronym WARNO stand for?
|
Warning Order
|
|
|
What does COC stand for?
|
Combat Operations Center
|
|
|
What is the purpose of the COC?
|
To provide the battalion commander centralized command and control facilities for all combat tactical and operational operations conducted under his/her command |
|
|
Name the three officers of the COC watch
|
Operations, Intelligence, and COC
|
|
|
What are the 4 DoD threat level assessment factors?
|
Operational capability, intentions, activity, and Operating environment |
|
|
True or false. Terrorist threat levels are set based on the analysis of a combination of threat assessment factors? |
True |
|
|
What are the four threat levels?
|
Low , moderate, significant and high
|
|
|
What does CMS stand for?
|
Communications Security Material System
|
|
|
Who is responsible for proper security, control, accountability and destruction of CMS in their workspace?
|
Everyone, whether you are CMS user or a witness
|
|
|
How should COMSEC and non-COMSEC material be stored? |
Separately, COMSEC material of different security classifications may be stored in the same drawer but segragated by classification for destruction in a timely manner |
|
|
During a routine destruction, when would superseded COMSEC material be destroyed?
|
As soon as possible after supersession
|
|
|
Name two voice circuit techniques
|
Listen before transmitting, speak clearly and slowly, Use standard pronunciation, speak in moderately strong voice |
|
|
Name the 2 types of tactical circuits
|
Short range and long range
|
|
|
When are administrative circuits normally used?
|
Inport
|
|
|
What are the 2 types of nets?
|
Directed net and free net
|
|
|
What are the 2 types of execution methods?
|
Delayed and immediate
|
|
|
What OPNAV instruction is used for safety policy and procedure for conducting High Risk training? |
OPNAVINST 1500.75A
|
|
|
What OPNAV instruction is used for the standard organization and regulations of the US Navy? |
OPNAVINST 3120.32C
|
|
|
What plan is used in case of mishap and is required during high risk training evolutions?
|
Emergency Action Plan
|
|
|
What are the three basic features of effective unit training?
|
Compatibility, Evaluation and instruction, analysis and improvement |
|
|
What board does the CO use for developing the unit training program?
|
Planning Board for Training
|
|
|
Who is the designated chairperson for planning board for training?
|
XO
|
|
|
Name the three types of training plans.
|
Long range training plan, QuaterlyTraining Plan, Month/weekly training plan |
|
|
Which training plan is used to list all inspections, certifications, assist visits, and TYCOM required exercises?
|
Long Range Training Plans
|
|
|
who is responsible for approving quarterly schedules for the quarterly training plan??
|
Department head
|
|
|
What does JARB stand for?
|
Joint Acquisition Review Board
|
|
|
What is not a JARB process?
|
funding process
|
|
|
The JARB support cell is made up of how many officers and how many enlisted persons?
|
2 officers and 1 enlisted person
|
|
|
What class of support handles ammunition?
|
Five
|
|
|
What class of supply is medical equipment?
|
Eight
|
|
|
What is JFUB?
|
Joint Facilities Utilization Board
|
|
|
Who is the supply Officer of the CJSOTF?
|
J8 |
|
|
Who is responsible for all logistic requirements of the TF, including all supply, maintenance and transportation needs?
|
J8 |
|
|
Who is the TF comptroller and is responsible and accountable for all monetary funds associated with the operation of the TF?
|
J4 |
|
|
What is ARSOF?
|
Army Special operation Forces.
|
|
|
What class of supply is lubricants?
|
Three.
|
|
|
What is MIPR?
|
Military Interdepartmental Purchase Request
|
|
|
Which officer is responsible to inventory and accept custody of those items by from the Army Property Book?
|
PBO
|
|
|
Are combat forces initially deployed into theater with their ammunition basic loads?
|
Yes |
|
|
What does ASA stand for?
|
Ammunition Support Activities
|
|
|
How far from you should you throw a smoke grenade?
|
30 ft.
|
|
|
How long is the delay for the smoke grenades?
|
7-2 seconds
|
|
|
How long is the smoke produced from the smoke grenade?
|
50-90 seconds
|
|
|
What is the minimum altitude pencil flare will travel?
|
250 ft.
|
|
|
How long does the pencil flare last when released?
|
4.5 seconds
|
|
|
The max burst height for the 40mm Flare is what?
|
550
|
|
|
True or false. The bandolier is part of the pencil flare.
|
TRUE
|
|
|
How many holes are in the green smoke grenade?
|
4 |
|
|
How long does the 40MM flare last?
|
40 seconds
|
|
|
What type/caliber of ammo does it use? P-226
|
9mm
|
|
|
How does it operate? P-226
|
Recoil-operated Semi-Auto in either single or double action. |
|
|
Does it have any safety? P-226
|
No |
|
|
What type of safety features does it have? P-226
|
Decocking lever on the left side.
|
|
|
What is the Ammo capacity? P226
|
15+1
|
|
|
When field stripping, what is the first step? P-226
|
Clear and safe
|
|
|
What is the max effective range? M4A1
|
500M
|
|
|
What is the Ammo capacity? M4A1
|
30+1
|
|
|
What two main assemblies does it break down to? M4A1
|
The upper and Lower receivers
|
|
|
What is the barrels length? M4A1
|
14.5 Inches
|
|
|
How does it operate? M4A1
|
Gas operated, magazine fed, full or semi-Auto
|
|
|
What does it weight when empty? M2HB
|
84 Lbs
|
|
|
What is the rate of fire? M2HB
|
450-550RPM
|
|
|
What is the barrels length? M2HB
|
45 Inches
|
|
|
What type of operation does it do? M2HB
|
Recoil operated fully- Auto or Single shot belt fed.
|
|
|
What is the max effective range? M2HB
|
2000 Yards
|
|
|
What type of Ammo does it use? M240
|
7.62MM linked
|
|
|
What is the rate of fire? M240
|
750-950 RPM
|
|
|
What type of operation? M240
|
Gas -operated belt fed, fully-Auto
|
|
|
What does this weapon allow you to do that the others do not, when it comes to the rate of fire? M240 |
The rate of fire is adjustable with the gas regulator.
|
|
|
What type of battery does the PSC-5, PRC-150 and PRC-148 use? |
BA-5590 |
|
|
Describe the Global Broadcast Server. |
Receive only Used to download imagery and map data as well as live news feeds |
|
|
What type of battery does the PSC-5, PRC-150 and PRC-148 use? |
BA-5590 |
|
|
What does SINCGARS stand for? |
Single Channel Ground Airborne Radio System |
|
|
Describe the AN/PSC-5D. |
Primary Satcom radio 30-512 MHZ 20 watts max output Uses Havequick and SINCGARS (Single Channel Ground Airborne Radio System) frequency hoping modes |
|
|
What does SINCGARS stand for? |
Single Channel Ground Airborne Radio System |
|
|
Describe the AN/PRC-150. |
Primary HF radio 1.6 - 59.99999mhz Low. Med, High power settings are 1, 5, and 10 watts Ranges; low poerr 1(w) 200-400m Med power; (5w); 400m - 5km High power; (10w); 5km - 10km |
|
|
Describe the AN/PRC-148. |
MBITR- MultiBand Inter-squad Tactical radio Primary Inter - squad radio 30- 512 mhz 5 watts max output, some vehicles have 20 watt amplifies (25 watts total) Uses havequick and SINCGARS frequency hopping modes |
|
|
What does MBITR stand for? |
MultiBand Inter- squad Tactical Radio |
|
|
Describe the AN/PRQ-7. |
CSEL Combat Survivor Evader Locator |
|
|
What is another name for the AN/PSN-13? |
DAGR Defense Advance GPS Receiver |
|
|
What is GBS? |
Global Broadcast Server |
