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158 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
  • 3rd side (hint)
What are the hazards associated with the colors of the NFPA 704 diagram (the colored diamond)? (4.B. RM3)
Blue: Health Hazard; Red: Fire Hazard; Yellow: Reactivity Hazard; White: Specific Hazard
a. Blue: Fire Hazard; Red: Reactivity Hazard; Yellow: Specific Hazard; White: Health Hazard
b. Blue: Drowning Hazard; Red: Explosive Hazard; Yellow: Heat Hazard; White: Frostbite
c. Blue: Health Hazard; Red: Fire Hazard; Yellow: Reactivity Hazard; White: Specific Hazard
d. Both A and C
Which instrument is recommended to be used in a SMART in-situ burn operation? (3.L. RM4)
DataRAM
What temporary storage device in the NSF inventory has a liquid capacity of 10,000 gallons? (3.E. RM2)
Canflex Sea Slug FCB-100
Which of the following types of radiation is the most penetrating type of radiation and represents the highest external hazard? (4.P. RM1)
Gamma
What are the different types of damming techniques? (3.I. RM1)
Underflow, Overflow, and Diversion
What is the purpose of a chain of custody? (4.L. RM 3)
It documents sample possession and custody transfer and is essential in any sampling event which may lead to litigation
What is the purpose of the Chlorine Institute Emergency Kit“C”? (2.E. RM2)
repairing Rail Tank Cars and Tanker Trucks
What level of PPE requires the use of a positive pressure, full face-piece self-contained breathing apparatus SCBA? (4.E. RM1)
Level A
What is the precedence when measuring an unknown atmosphere with instruments? (4.M. RM3)
O2, LEL, H2S (toxic chemicals)
What was developed by the American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists as guidelines to assist in the control of health hazards? (4.M. RM1)
TLV (Threshold Limit Values)
BEI (Biological Exposure Indices)
A 3,500 gallon oil spill in the Coastal Zone is considered to be what size of spill per the NCP? (1.B. RM7)
Minor
Define the term “lightering” as per 33 CFR 156. (2.A. RM2)
The transfer of a cargo of oil or hazardous materials in bulk from one vessel to another.
OSHA PELs (Permissible Exposure Limts) are legally enforcable?
True
How many gallons are in a US Barrel? (3.A. RM1)
42
What is the level of concern for a flammable atmosphere? (4.M. RM2)
10% LEL
The ability of an instrument to detect a substance based on a particular calibration gas is known as: (4.N. RM1)
Relative response
Three elements of a Permit for confinded space?
Sloping walls
Engulfment
Entrapment
Who does the Safety Officer report to under the Incident Command System? (ICS 300 Prereq)
Incident Commander
An exothermic reaction is defined as? (4.B. RM1)
A reaction giving off heat
Which piece of NSF equipment is designed to enhance communications interoperability?
(1.L. RM1)
ACU-T
A 3,500 gallon oil spill in the Coastal Zone is considered to be what size of spill per the NCP? (1.B. RM7)
Minor
Define the term “lightering” as per 33 CFR 156. (2.A. RM2)
The transfer of a cargo of oil or hazardous materials in bulk from one vessel to another.
OSHA PELs (Permissible Exposure Limts) are legally enforcable?
True
How many gallons are in a US Barrel? (3.A. RM1)
42
What is the level of concern for a flammable atmosphere? (4.M. RM2)
10% LEL
The ability of an instrument to detect a substance based on a particular calibration gas is known as: (4.N. RM1)
Relative response
Threr elements of a Permit for confinded space?
Sloping walls
Engulfment
Entrapment
Who does the Safety Officer report to under the Incident Command System? (ICS 300 Prereq)
Incident Commander
An exothermic reaction is defined as? (4.B. RM1)
A reaction giving off heat
Which piece of NSF equipment is designed to enhance communications interoperability?
(1.L. RM1)
ACU-T
What CG vessels are in the NSF inventory? (1.N. RM1)
TANB, Flood punt, Jon Boat.
What ALARA practices are to be followed during a radiological incident? (4.P. RM3)
Time, Distance, Shielding
What are the NSF levels of concern for O2? (4.M. RM2)
Below 19.5% and above 22% (shipboard), above 23.5% (shore)
Which of the following is the correct hierarchy of controls, from initial to final? (1.H. RM10)
Engineering, Administrative, PPE
What are the Four Phases of an Oil Spill as per the NCP? (1.B. RM6)
Discovery and Notification, Preliminary assessment and Initiation of Action, Containment and clean up, and Documentation and Cost Recovery.
What is used to detect biological agents? (4.O. RM3)
BTA Smart Tickets
What is not part of an oil containment boom? (3.F. RM2)
A Flounder plate
What are three booming techniques? (3.F. RM3)
Diversion, Exclusion, and Containment
Define the term “permeation” as it relates to PPE. (4.E. RM5)
The diffusion of a chemical on a molecular basis through the protective material.
What are the basic DECON types? (4.K. RM4)
Dry, wet, and neutralization
Name three plugging/patching kit in the NSF inventory? (2.E. RM1)
Vetter’s kit
Chlorine Kit
Drum Kit
What does the NIMS acronym “ICP” stand for? (1.D. RM1)
Incident Command Post
Name one nonsubmersible pump? (2.C. RM1)
Peristaltic
Is an irritant a DOT hazard class? (4.B. RM2)
No
What is the function of the hydraulic prime mover? (2.C. RM4)
To pump hydraulic fluid AND to be used as an external energy source for a hydraulic pump
What are the three zone boundaries? (1.H. RM6)
Support, Contamination Reduction, Exclusion
What is the support equipment for the Wildens pump? (2.D. RM2)
Ingersoll-Rand
What is funded through the Stafford Act? (1.G. RM1)
DPN
What is not a Command Staff Position? (ICS 300 Prereq)
Operations Section Chief
What does the blue colored diamond represent in the NFPA 704 Hazard Rating System Diagram? (4.B. RM3)
Health
What is the factor that does not affect the performance of chemical protective clothing? (4.E. RM5)
Deflagration
(a term describing subsonic combustion that usually propagates through thermal conductivity)
Per the definition of IDLH, how long does someone in no PPE have to escape a hazardous environment with no long term, adverse effects? (4.B. RM1)
30 Min
Which listed below is not a NSF Prime Mover? (2.C. RM6)
Yanmar
Duetz
HVPU (Highstar)
dMulti-quip
Multi-quip
What is the definition of bonding? (2.A. RM2)
Connecting two or more conductive objects in order to equalize the potential charge between them and Connecting various parts of equipment and containers that are electrically separated.
Which TSD is in the NSF inventory? (3.E. RM1)
Silver Bullet 765B
Baker Tank
Dracone
FCB SeaSlug
FCB SeaSlug
What system was designed to improve the capability to leighter grounded vessels laden with viscous product? (2.C. RM3)
VOPS
Which is not a hydraulic prime mover in the NSF inventory? (2.C. RM6)
HPU
HVPU
Ingersoll-Rand
Yanmar
Ingersoll-Rand
Which of the following is not found in the NSF plugging and patching kits? (2.E. RM1)
Oakum
Wedges
Synthoglass
Super glue
Super glue
Which of the following cannot detect radiation? (4.P. RM5)
Ludlums
GammaRAE II
Draeger CMS
Identifinder-U
Draeger CMS
Which of the following does not detect CWA? (4.O. RM3)
ChemPro 100i
M256A1
Draeger Civil Defense Kits
Identifinder-U
Identifinder-U
Which of the following is the NSF level of concern for a radiological incident? (4.M. RM2)
500µRem
1 mRem
5 Rem
1 Rem
1 mRem
What level of ppe can the NSF rebreathers be worn in? (4.J. RM2)
Level B
What piece of equipment is used for isotope identification? (4.P. RM4)
Identifinder
What zone is the area immediately around the incident where contamination exists? (1.H. RM6)
Exclusion Zone
Which is not part of the definition for a confined space? (1.I. RM1)
a.Large enough and so configured that an employee can bodily enter and perform assigned work
b.Has limited or restricted means for entry or exit
c.Is not designed for continuous employee occupancy
d.Contains or has a potential to contain a hazardous atmosphere
Contains or has a potential to contain a hazardous atmosphere
What type of skimmer allows oil to flow over a lip where the oil is collected in a sump? (1.F. RM6)
Weir
What does CERCLA stand for? (1.B. RM1)
Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act
What is the purpose of the case drain? (2.C. RM8)
Is connected to the submersible pump to relieve pressure in the pump housing.
Which Chlorine Institute Emergency Kit is used to stop leaks in 150lb cylinders? (2.E. RM2)
Chlorine Kit A
What is the transfer of product from a space on a vessel with the use of pumps and hoses through a butterworth or other tank opening to a receiving vessel, tank, or facility? (2.A. RM2)
Over the Top Transfer
Which is not one of the four basic booming techniques? (3.F. RM4)
Cascade
Containment
Exclusion
Overflow
Overflow
How much foam filled boom is contained in each DRAT pre-positioned boom box? (3.H. RM1)
500'
Which definition is the resistance of flow due to internal friction in a fluid? (3.A. RM1)
API Gravity
Viscosity
Pour point
Permeation
Viscosity
Which is not a form of weathering processes for oil in the environment? (3.A. RM2)
Evaporation
Dispersion
Emulsification
Regeneration
Regeneration
What type dam would be used if you had oil with a specific gravity of 2? (3.I. RM1)
Overflow dam
The assigned protection factor for an SCBA is? (4.F. RM2)
10,000
Which type of radiation can be blocked by a sheet of aluminum foil? (4.P. RM1)
Alpha and Beta
Which is not a Level of Concern as per the NSF SOP? (4.M. RM2)
Any sea level atmosphere with less than 19.5% oxygen
Atmospheres in excess of 10% of the LEL
Any toxic value above the most conservative exposure limit found
Zero exposure
Zero exposure
The two processes of the ORM that the NSF uses are the GAR and the _____ Model. (1.H. RM19)
SPE (Risk = Severity x Probability x Exposure)
The hierarchy of Hazard control includes all but one of the following. (1.H. RM10)
PPE
Administration
Engineering
Common Sense
Common Sense
What non-submersible pump uses the Ingersoll-rand as a prime mover? (2.D. RM1)
Wilden M-15
What is the strain inflicted on a vessel that causes the bow and stern to be lower than the amidships section. (2.A. RM1)
Hogging
Both the Terminator and the Desmi are examples of this type of skimmer. (3.B. RM1)
Weir
For an oil with a specific gravity of 0.98 you would construct which of the following. (3.I. RM1)
an Overflow dam
an Underflow dam
a Valen wall
a Cushmans drag
an Underflow dam
Which is NOT a way to protect against gamma and neutron radiation? (4.P. RM3)
increase PPE
Decrease time in zone
Increase distance from source
Add shielding
increase PPE
When a chemical migrates through a filter it is called? (4.F. RM1)
Breakthrough
What level of protection uses an APR? (4.E. RM1)
Level C
The red section of the NFPA 704 symbol identifies? (4.B. RM3)
Flammability
What are the two type of cargo nets used on an A/C Pallet? (1.J. RM5)
Top and Side
Which one is a submersible pump in our inventory? (2.C. RM1)
Peristaltic
Highstar
DOP
Multiquip
DOP
The Large Pump Load has how many CCN-150-5c? (2.C. RM2)
3
The prime mover for the Wilden M-8 is ____________? (2.D. RM2)
Ingersoll Rand
How many different types of hydraulic prime movers do we have in inventory? (2.C. RM6)
3
What is connected to the submersible pump to relieve pressure in the pump housing? (2.C. RM8)
Case Drain
The Vetters kit is a _________? (2.E. RM1)
Plugging and patching
Syntho-glass is found in. (2.E. RM1)
Plugging and Patching kit
The largest boat in the NSF inventory is how many feet long? (1.N. RM 1)
26' (TANB)
We take samples for all of the below listed reason except one, which one? (4.L. RM2)
Determining Waste Stream
Evidence
Identification
Fun
Fun
HAZARD Class 3 is what? (4.B. RM2)
Flammable Liquids
Cradle to Grave is a term commonly associated with? (4.C. RM1
RCRA
The FCB-100 Sea Slug is a TSD in the NSF inventory and is capable of holding? (3.E. RM2)
10,000
A Flourometer is used for what? (3.L. RM4)
Determining if dispersants are working
The M-256 Kit is used for? (4.O. RM3)
WMD
Turnbuckles, Shackles, Thimbles, and Bridles are all used in ___________? (2.F. RM2)
Rigging
With a leaking one ton cylinder of Chlorine you would use __________? (2.E. RM2)
Yellow
A term used meaning “Oil Liking” quite often used with Skimmers. (3.A. RM1)
Oleophilic
Boom failure includes all the following except? (3.F. RM6)
Entrainment
Splash-over
Submergance
Adsorption
Adsorption
How many phases of an oil spill are there as defined in the NCP? (1.B. RM6)
4
The Canflex Sea Slug FCB-100 holds? (3.E. RM2)
10,000
What does the yellow colored diamond represent in the NFPA 704 Hazard Rating System Diagram? (4.B. RM3)
Reactivity
What is defined by section 101(22) of CERCLA, and means any spilling, leaking, pumping, pouring, emitting, emptying, discharging, injecting, escaping, leaching, dumping, or disposing into the environment? (1.B. RM2)
Release
What is defined for the purpose of the NCP, means all United States waters subject to the tide, United States waters of the Great Lakes, specified ports and harbors on inland rivers, waters of the contiguous zone, other waters of the high seas subject to the NCP, and the land surface or land substrata, ground waters, and ambient air proximal to those waters. (1.B. RM2)
Coastal Zone
Which is not one of the four general priorities of the NCP? (1.B. RM3)
Safety of human life
Stabilizing the situation to preclude the event from worsening
Minimizes adverse impact to the environment
Personal gain
Personal gain
What portion of a response is performed after an immediate threat of a release has been stabilized or eliminated and clean-up of the site has begun. (1.C. RM1)
Post-Emergency Response
What is not one of the minimum elements of a Site Safety Plan? (1.H. RM2)
Safety and health risk or hazard analysis
PPE
Decontamination
Local Agency Contact List
Local Agency Contact List
What is not a major component on the HMRT? (1.K. RM4)
Air Compressor
Water Tank
Generator
VHF Antenna
VHF Antenna
What is the vertical distance in feet between the pump centerline and the point of free discharge or surface of the liquid in the discharge tank? (2.A. RM1)
Discharge Head
What is the vertical distance in feet from the centerline of the pump to the free level of the liquid to be pumped? (2.A. RM1)
Suction Lift
What is the sum of discharge head, suction lift, and friction losses? (2.A. RM1)
Total Head
What is an external energy source for a hydraulic pump? (2.C. RM4)
Prime Mover
Which is not a non-submersible pump in the NSF inventory? (2.D. RM1)
Wildens M-8
Multiquip
Peristaltic Hose Pump
DOP160
DOP160
What is the strain inflicted on the ship that causes the amidships portion to be lower than the bow or stern? (2.A. RM1)
Sagging
What is the angle of a vessel from side to side that usually is caused by improper ballast, loading and/or flooding? (2.B. RM1)
List
What is the fore and aft inclination of a vessel? (2.B. RM1)
Trim
Who can certify a space to be gas free, safe for entry, and safe for hot work other than certified CG personnel? (2.B. RM3)
Marine Chemist
What is a measure of how easily an oil flows; a fluid’s resistance to flow due to its internal friction? (3.A. RM1)
Viscosity
What is the temperature below which a substance will not flow? (3.A. RM1)
Pour Point
What is it called when a pollutant is attracted to and adheres to the surface of a material? (3.A. RM1)
Adsorption
What is it called when a pollutant actually penetrates the surface of a material? (3.A. RM1)
Absoption
When hydrocarbons in oil react with oxygen to form water-soluble compounds of persistent tars with enhanced emulsification is? (3.A. RM2)
Oxidation
What is the decomposing of oil by naturally present microorganisms? (3.A. RM2)
Biodegradation
What is the break-down of oil into tiny droplets due to wave action? (3.A. RM2)
Dispersion
What shoreline cleanup technique is used to enhance the rate of degradation by breaking up oily sediments and surface oil deposits, increasing the surface area, and mixing deep subsurface oil layers to the surface? (3.J. RM4)
Sediment Reworking
What shoreline cleanup technique is to remove contaminated debris from the shoreline or water surface? (3.J. RM4)
Debris Removal
Who is authorized to sign a hazardous waste manifest? (4.C. RM3)
Federal On-Scene Coordinator/Rep
What level of PPE requires the use of a air purifying respirator? (4.E. RM1)
Level C
What is the lowest concentration that can be detected by the sense of smell? (4.F. RM1)
Odor Threshold
What is the workplace level of respiratory protection that a respirator or class of respirators is expected to provide to employees? (4.F. RM1)
Assigned Protection Factors
What is the period of time that a respirator, filter, or sorbent or other respiratory equipment provides adequate protection to the wearer? (4.F. RM1)
Service Life
What is the assigned protection factor for a full facepiece Air-purifying respirator? (4.F. RM2)
50
What are tiny droplets of liquid suspended in the air? (4.F. RM1)
Mist
What are solid particles that are formed when a metal or other solid vaporizes and the molecules condense in cool air? (4.F. RM1)
Fume
What are the gaseous form of substances that are normally in the solid or liquid state at room temperature or pressure? (4.F. RM1)
Vapor
What is referred to concentrations of chemical substances in air and represent conditions under which it is believed that nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed, day after day without adverse health effects (normal 8-hour workday, 40-hour work week)? (4.M. RM1)
Threshold Limit Value (TLV)
Which is not an NSF level of concern? (4.M. RM1)
Oxygen enriched atmospheres – Any sea level atmosphere containing greater than 22% oxygen (shipboard) and greater than 23.5% oxygen (shoreside)
Oxygen deficient atmospheres – Any sea level atmosphere with less than 19.5% oxygen
Zero Exposure
Combustible Atmospheres – Atmospheres in excess of 10% of the lower explosive limit (LEL)
Zero Exposure
A pH of a 12 indicates ____________? (4.N. RM1)
Base
Which is not a direct reading instrument in the NSF inventory? (4.N. RM3)
MultiRAE
AreaRAE
Drager Tubes
Identifinder-U
Drager Tubes
What type of radiation has large particles that only travel a couple of inches in air? (4.P. RM1)
Alpha
What type of radiation has relatively small particles, can travel several feet to several yards in air, and can be shielded by thick clothing? (4.P. RM1)
Beta
What type of radiation has high-energy electromagnetic waves generated in the nucleus of an atom, has strong penetrating power but can be shielded by lead or concrete? (4.P. RM1)
Gamma
What Federal agency has jurisdiction to provide OSCs for discharges or releases into or threatening the inland zone? (1.B. RM4)
EPA
What ICS form would you use to log your daily operations? (1.D. RM2)
ICS-214
What type of equipment in the NSF inventory is a particulate monitor? (4.N. RM2)
DaraRAM
What instrument is used to determine wind speed and direction, temperature, barometric pressure, and humidity? (4.N. RM2)
Weather Pak
What instrument measures the concentration of hydrocarbons in the water column? (4.N. RM2)
Fluorometer
Which one is funded through the Oil Spill Liability Trust Fund? (1.G. RM1)
FPN
CPN
DPN
RPN
FPN
Which one is funded through the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act? (1.G. RM1)
FPN
CPN
DPN
RPN
CPN
Which one provides the organizational structure and procedures for preparing for and responding to discharges of oil and releases of hazardous substances, pollutants, and contaminants? (1.B. RM1)
CERCLA
FWPCA
NCP
OPA 90
NCP