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60 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What patterning gene is defective in holoprosencephaly?
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SSH
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Where is SSH produced? What patterning is is involved in?
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Zone of polarizing activity; A-P patterning
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Where is Wnt-7 produced? What pattern does it organize?
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Apical ecotdermal ridge at limb bud; dorsal-ventral
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Where is FGF produced? What patterning does it do?
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Apical ecotdermal ridge at limb bud; stimulates mitosis of underlying mesoderm providing for lengthening of limbs
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What would be the result of a hox mutation?
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Llimb in wrong spot; invovled in segemntal organization in craniocaudal
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How long after fertilization is HCG detectable?
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Day 11+
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What weeks define the embyronic vs fetal period?
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Embryonic is weeks 3-8; fetal is 8+
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What happens if a teratogen acts in week 0-2? 3-8? 8+?
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0-2: all or nothing, abortion; 3-8: organ agnesis; 8+ organ hypoplasia
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When does the heart begin to beat?
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Week 4
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When do the limbs begin to form?
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Week 4
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When do the genitalia have male/female characteristics?
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Week 10
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What is aplasia?
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Absent organ despite present primoridal tissue
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When is the fetus most susceptible to teratogens?
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Week 3-8
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Effect of alkylating agents on fetus?
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Absence of digits
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Effect of x-rays on fetus?
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Microcepahly, mental retardation
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Effects of smoking on fetus?
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Preterm labor, placental problems, IUGR, ADHD
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Effects of warfarin on fetus?
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Bone deformities, fetla hemorrhage, abortion, eye problems
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Effect of phenytoin on fetus?
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Microcephaly, dysmoprhic face, hypoplastic nales and distal phalnages, cardiac defects, IUGR, mental retardation
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What vitamin can induce teratogenicty?
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Vitamin A
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What teratogen increases the risk of limb dislocation and heart/lung fistulas?
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Fetal alcohol syndrome
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Where does the lower 2/3rds of the vagina come from?
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Urogenital sinus
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What kidney anomaly is associated with Turner's syndrome?
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Horseshoe kidney
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Air in the stomach and polyhydroamnios indicates?
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Tracheoeshophageal fistula
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What is the major cause of duodenal, jejunal, ileal, and colonic atresia?
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Duodenal: failure of recanalization w/ T21; jejunal/illeal/colonic: vascular accident (apple peel atresia)
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What does pharyngeal pouch 1 form?
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Eustachian tube / middle early endodermal lining
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What two conditions increase the risk of holoprosencephaly?
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Fetal alcohol syndrome, Patau's/trisomy 13
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What does the umbilical vein and artery become in the adult?
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Vein becomes ligamentum teres hepatis; arteries become medial umbilical ligaments (2)
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In the fetus, where does IVC vs SVC blood predominately flow to?
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SVC goes to right ventricle; IVC goes to left atrium (foramen ovale)
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What organs and in what weeks do fetal ertyropoeiss occur in?
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Yolk sac (wk 3-8), liver (wk 6-30), spleen (wk 9-28), bone marrow (wk 28+)
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What does the bulbus cordis become?
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RV and smooth parts of RV and LV outflow tracts
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What does the left and right horn of the sinus venosus become?
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Left: coronary sinus; right: smooth RA
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What does the right common cardinal vein and right anterior cardinal vein become?
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SVC goes to right ventricle; IVC goes to left atrium (foramen ovale)
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How does a dichorionic diamniotic twin form?
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Day 0-4 cleavage (pre morula)
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How does a monochorionic diamnionic twin form?
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Day 4-8 cleavage (blastocyst)
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How does a monochorionic monoamniotic twin form?
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Day 8-12 cleavage
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How does a conjoined twin fomr?
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Day >13, cleavage
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What is the most common type of twin? Second most common?
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Monochorionic diamniotic (day 4-8, 75%); dichorionic, diamniotic (daay 0-4, 25%)
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What type of twin is formeed by dizygotic fertilization?
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Dichorionic diamniotic
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Where does the rectum above and below the pectinate line drain to in terms of lymphatics?
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Above: internal iliac; below: superficial inguinal
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Where does the lateral side of the foot drain to in terms of lymphatics?
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Popliteal
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What immunoglobulin is deficient in ataxia-telangiectasia?
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IgA
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What immunoglobulins are high and low in Wiskott-Aldrich?
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High IgE and IgA, low IgM
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Anti glutamate decarboxylase is associated with what autoimmune condition?
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DM 1
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What mediates febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction?
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Type II hypersensitivity to donor leukocyte MHC II in blood
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What are the only live vaccines?
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MMR, yellow fever, sabin polio, varicella
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What are two markers for NK cells?
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CD16, CD 56
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What MHC and cell do superantigens activate?
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CD4 with MCH II
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What is the function of IL-3?
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Secreted by T-cells; growth of bone marrow stem cells like GM-CSF
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What is the function of IL-4?
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Promotes TH2, IgE, IgG
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What is the function of IL-5?
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IgA, eospinophil chemotaxis
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What ist he function of IL-10?
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Inhibits TH1, stimulates TH2,; secretd by T-regs
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Which interferon increases MHC I and II expression?
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gamma
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What piece of complement is involved in immune complex clearance?
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C3b
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Does classic or alternative complement use C4?
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Classic (IgM/IGG)
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What is associated with a C3 deficiency?
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Severe, recurrent pyogenic sinus/URT infections, increase type 3 hypersensitivity
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What time of immunoglobulin is RhoGAM?
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IgG
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What type of immunity is induced by thymic independent antigens? Example antigen?
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IgM only; S. pneumonia polysaccharide
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What type of immunity is induced by H. flu vaccine?
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Thymic dependent because the polysaccharide is bound to a conjugated toxoid protein
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What cell would have CD3/CD4/CD25? What is CD 25?
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T-regs; low affinity IL-2 receptor
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What is the funciton of TdT?
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Adds nucleotides during recombination to induce receptor antigenic diversity
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