Rev_Final

Front 1

What kind of protein is dynein?

Back 1

Dynein is an ATPase.

Front 2

What is the protein responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix?

Back 2

DNA Helicases

Front 3

Describe the role of dynein in cilia structure.

Back 3

Dynein links peripheral 9 doublets of microtubules.

Front 4

What are Nissl bodies?

Back 4

rough ER

Front 5

What is the primary source of energy for the Liver?

Back 5

Amino acids, lipids, glucose, fructose, and lactate

Front 6

Define poikilocytosis

Back 6

varying cell shapes

Front 7

Which cells are rich in smooth ER?

Back 7

1. liver hepatocytes, 2. steroid hormone-producing cells of adrenal cortex.

Front 8

How does dynein function in cilia function?

Back 8

Dynein causes the bending of cilium by differential sliding of doublets.

Front 9

Describe the histological structure of sinusoids of the liver.

Back 9

Irregular 'capillaries' with round pores 100-200 nm in diameter and no basement membrane.

Front 10

What are the functions of the lymph node?

Back 10

1. Nonspecific filtration by macrophages. 2. storage/proliferation of B and T cells 3. Ab production.

Front 11

What is the function of Nissl bodies?

Back 11

Synthesize enzymes (e.g. ChAT) and peptide neurotransmitters.

Front 12

Name a protein involved in the structure of hemidesmosomes.

Back 12

Integrin.

Front 13

Define anisocytosis

Back 13

varying cell sizes

Front 14

For the following genetic transfer procedure, explain the process: Transduction

Back 14

Phage-mediated cell to cell DNA transfer

Front 15

For the following genetic transfer procedure, explain the process: Transformation

Back 15

Purified DNA taken up by a cell

Front 16

For the following genetic transfer procedure, explain the process: Transposition

Back 16

DNA transfer to same or another chromosome or plasmid WITHIN a cell

Front 17

For the following genetic transfer procedure, give the types of cells involved: Transformation

Back 17

Prokaryotic or eukaryotic

Front 18

For the following genetic transfer procedure, give the types of cells involved: Transposition

Back 18

Prokaryotic or eukaryotic

Front 19

For the following genetic transfer procedure, give the nature of DNA transferred: Transduction

Back 19

Generalized transduction: Any gene Specialized transduction: Only certain genes

Front 20

For the following genetic transfer procedure, give the nature of DNA transferred: Transposition

Back 20

DNA sequences ""jumping genes""

Front 21

Woman with anxiety about an exam is told to relax and imagine going through the steps. What process is this?

Back 21

Systematic desensitization.

Front 22

Girl can groom herself, can hop on 1 foot, and has an imaginary friend. How old is she?

Back 22

4 years old.

Front 23

Person demands only the best and most famous doctor in town. What is the personality disorder?

Back 23

Narcissism.

Front 24

Observational Study. Sample chosen on presence of absence of disease. Information collected about exposure.

Back 24

Case-control Study.

Front 25

Observational study. sample chosen based on presence of absence of risk factors. Subjects followed over time for disease.

Back 25

Cohort Study.

Front 26

List 4 ways to reduce bias in a study.

Back 26

1. Blind studies. 2. Placebo responses. 3. Case-crossover design. 4. Randomization

Front 27

(a/b)/(c/d)

Back 27

OR - approximates RR if prevalence of disease is not too high.

Front 28

[a/(a+b)]/[c/(c+d)]

Back 28

RR - relative risk

Front 29

Attributable risk formula?

Back 29

[a/(a+b)]-[c/(c+d)]

Front 30

Reduced precision means

Back 30

increase in random error

Front 31

Reduced accuracy means

Back 31

increase in systematic error

Front 32

Number needed to treat

Back 32

NNT = 1/(Ic-Ie); The number of pts that need to be treated to prevent 1 additional bad outcome.

Front 33

Validity is ...

Back 33

whether the test truly measures what it purports to measure. A test is valid if it measures what it is supposed to measure.

Front 34

A positive skew distribution ...

Back 34

is asymmetry with the tail to the right, hump on the left (mean>median>mode)

Front 35

a Negative skew distribution ...

Back 35

is asymmetry with the tail to the left, hump on the right (mean<median<mode)

Front 36

Power

Back 36

the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is in fact false.

Front 37

Power in a study depends on what two things ...

Back 37

1. total number of endpoints experienced by the population; 2. difference in compliance between treatment groups

Front 38

Confidence interval

Back 38

mean +/- 1.96 (SEM) If the CI includes 0, H0 is accepted.

Front 39

Normal (Gaussian) distribution has what percentage of the population in each standard deviation?

Back 39

68% within 1 SD, 95% within 2 SDs, 99.7% within 3 SDs.

Front 40

Correlation coefficient indicates

Back 40

the strength of the correlation between two variables. The sign indicates a positive or negative.

Front 41

What is Primary Disease Prevention?

Back 41

Prevent the disease from occuring.

Front 42

What is Secondary Disease Prevention?

Back 42

Early detection of the disease.

Front 43

What is Tertiary Disease prevention?

Back 43

Reduce mobidity from the disease.

Front 44

What are important preventative measure for patients with DM?

Back 44

Eye exams, foot exams, urine tests.

Front 45

What are important preventive measures for pts with drug abuse problems?

Back 45

HIV test, TB test, Hep immunizations.

Front 46

What are important preventive measures for pts with alcoholism?

Back 46

influenza, pneumococcal immunizations and TB testing

Front 47

What is an important preventive measure to offer obese pts?

Back 47

Blood sugar testing for diabetes.

Front 48

What is an important preventive measure to offer homeless pts or recent immigrants?

Back 48

TB tests

Front 49

What tests are important for pts engaging in high risk sexual behavior?

Back 49

HIV, Hep B, Syphilis, gonorrhea, chlamydia tests.

Front 50

What are the leading causes of death for infants in the US?

Back 50

1. Congenital anomalies 2. Short gestation/LBW 3. SIDS 4. Maternal complications of pregnancy 5. RDS

Front 51

What are the leading causes of death for children age 1-14 in the US?

Back 51

1. Injuries 2. Cancer 3. Congenital anomalies 4. Homicide 5. Heart disease

Front 52

What are the leading causes of death for people 15-24 years of age in the US?

Back 52

1. Injuries 2. Homicide 3. Suicide 4. Cancer 5. Heart disease

Front 53

What are the leading causes of death for adults 25-64 yo in the US?

Back 53

1. Cancer 2. Heart disease 3. Injuries 4. Suicide 5. Stroke

Front 54

What are the leading causes of death for adults over the age of 65 in the US?

Back 54

1. Heart disease 2. Cancer 3. Stroke 4. COPD 5. Pneumonia 6. Influenza

Front 55

Define Transference.

Back 55

When the patient projects feelings stemming from their personal life onto their physician.

Front 56

Define Countertransference.

Back 56

When the doctor projects feelings stemming from their personal life onto the pt.

Front 57

What is the IQ cutoff for diagnosis of mental retardation?

Back 57

IQ < 70 or 2 SD below mean.

Front 58

True or False: IQ tests are objective test.

Back 58

True ... but they are NOT projective tests.

Front 59

Are IQ scores correlated with genetic factors or school achievement?

Back 59

Yes to both ... but more highly correlated to school achievement.

Front 60

In what circumstances can a physician break confidentiality?

Back 60

1. potential harm to others is serious. 2. likelihood of harm to self is great. 3. no alternative means exist to warn and protect those at risk

Front 61

What steps may a physician take to prevent harm caused by a patients infectious disease?

Back 61

Physician may have a duty to warn public health officials (reportable diseases) and identify people at risk.

Front 62

What is the Tarasoff decision?

Back 62

A law requiring physician to directly inform and protect a potential victim from harm; may involve a breach of confidentiality.

Front 63

May a physician break confidentiality if in cases of an automobile accident?

Back 63

Only if they suspect that the driver was impaired

Front 64

How may a physician handle a suicidal or homicidal patient?

Back 64

The physician may hold the patient involuntarily for a period of time ... or until psychiatric evaluation is completed.

Front 65

A civil suit under negligence requires what 3 things?

Back 65

1. Physician breach of duty to patient (Dereliction) 2. patient suffers harm (damage) 3. Breach of duty causes harm (Direct)

Front 66

What is the most common factor leading to litigation between the physician and pt?

Back 66

poor communication.

Front 67

In a criminal suit the burden of proof is "beyond a reasonable doubt" ... in a malpractice suit the burden of proof is ...

Back 67

more likely than not

Front 68

Define Anosognia

Back 68

unaware that one is ill

Front 69

Define Autotopagnosia

Back 69

unable to locate ones own body parts

Front 70

Define depersonalization

Back 70

body seems unreal or dissociated

Front 71

What is involved in orienting the patient

Back 71

person, place, and time

Front 72

What is the order of orientation loss in a disoriented patient?

Back 72

time goes first, then place, and last person

Front 73

What is Korsakoff's anmesia

Back 73

classic anterograde anmesia caused by a thymine deficiency.

Front 74

A alcoholic patient presents with anterograde amnesia, and confabulations. What is the likely diagnosis?

Back 74

Korsakoffs amnesia

Front 75

How many signs of maladaptive substance abuse must be present in a years time to diagnose substance dependance?

Back 75

3 or more.

Front 76

What are Freud's three structures of the mind?

Back 76

Id, Ego, Superego

Front 77

The Topographic theory of the mind deals with what three topography?

Back 77

Conscious, precocious, and unconscious

Front 78

What are some negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

Back 78

flat affect, social withdrawal, thought blocking, lack of motivation

Front 79

How long must a patient experience symptoms of schizophrenia for a diagnosis?

Back 79

Periods of psychosis or disturbed behavior lasting > 6 months.

Front 80

What are the 5 types of schizophrenia?

Back 80

1. Disorganized 2. Catatonic 3. paranoid 4. Undifferentiated 5. Residual

Front 81

What are the 4 A's of schizophrenia described by Bleuler?

Back 81

1. Ambivalence 2. Autism 3. Affect (blunted) 4. Associations (loose)

Front 82

What is schizoaffective disorder?

Back 82

a combination of schizophrenia and a mood disorder.

Front 83

What is the lifetime prevalence of schizophrenia?

Back 83

1.5% (males=females, blacks=whites)

Front 84

Describe a pt with a Cluster A personality disorder.

Back 84

odd or eccentric, cannot develop meaningful social relationships.

Front 85

What are 3 types of Cluster A personality disorders?

Back 85

1. Paranoid 2. Schizoid 3. Schizotypal

Front 86

What is a Paranoid personality disorder?

Back 86

distrust and suspiciousness, projection is main defense mechanism

Front 87

What is a Schizoid personality disorder?

Back 87

voluntary social withdrawal, limited emotional expression

Front 88

What is a Schizotypal personality disorder

Back 88

interpersonal awkwardness, odd thought patterns and appearance

Front 89

Personality disorders that lead pts to be erratic, emotional, or dramatic and have a genetic association with mood disorders

Back 89

Cluster B

Front 90

What are the 4 types of Cluster B personality disorders

Back 90

1. Antisocial 2. Borderline 3. Histrionic 4. Narcissistic

Front 91

Describe an antisocial personality disorder.

Back 91

disregard for and violation of rights of others, crimilatiy, males more often affected than females.

Front 92

Describe a borderline personality disorder

Back 92

unstable mood and behavior, impulsiveness, sense of emptiness. women more often affected than men.

Front 93

Describe a Histrionic personality disorder.

Back 93

excessive emotionality, somatization, attention seeking, sexually provacative.

Front 94

Describe a Narcissistic personality disorder.

Back 94

grandiosity, sense of entitlement, may demand ""top"" physician, or best health care

Front 95

Pts with personality disorders that leave them anxious or fearful and have a genetic association with anxiety disorders

Back 95

Cluster C personality disorders

Front 96

List 3 types of Cluster C personality disorders

Back 96

1. Avoidant 2. Obsessive-Compulsive 3. Dependent

Front 97

Describe an avoidant personality disorder.

Back 97

sensitive to rejection, socially inhibited, timid, feelings of inadequacy

Front 98

Describe OCD

Back 98

preoccupation with order, perfectionism, and control

Front 99

Describe a dependent personality disorder.

Back 99

submissive and clinging, excessive need to be taken care of, low self confidence

Front 100

A child puts everything in their mouth. How old are they?

Back 100

1st year of life.

Front 101

An infant sits with support, how old is she?

Back 101

4 months

Front 102

An infant stands with help, how old is he?

Back 102

8 months

Front 103

A baby is crawling, how old is she?

Back 103

9 months

Front 104

A little girl just learned to walk on her own, how old is she?

Back 104

13 months

Front 105

A child has just learned to climb the stairs alone, how old is he?

Back 105

18 months

Front 106

At what age does an emergence of hand preference first appear?

Back 106

18 months

Front 107

A child has lots of energy, can walk backwards, turn doorknobs, unscrew jars, and scribble with crayons. How old is she?

Back 107

2 years

Front 108

A child can descend the stairs normally and hop on one foot. How old is she?

Back 108

4 years

Front 109

At what age will a child develop complete sphincter control (toilet trained)?

Back 109

5 years

Front 110

At 5 years of age, what percentage of the adult brain mass does the child have?

Back 110

75.00%

Front 111

A child has most of her permanent teeth, how old is he?

Back 111

11 years

Front 112

A child plays patty cake and peek a boo, how old is she?

Back 112

10 months

Front 113

A baby is experiencing stranger anxiety, how old is he?

Back 113

6 months

Front 114

A baby has started showing signs of normal separation anxiety, how old is she?

Back 114

1 year.

Front 115

The parent is the central figure and issues of trust are key, how old is the child?

Back 115

1st year of life.

Front 116

A toddler will engage in parallel play, but ""no"" is still her favorite word, how old is she?

Back 116

1 year

Front 117

A toddler is selfish and self centered, aggressive, and tends to imitate mannerisms and activities, how old is he?

Back 117

2 years

Front 118

A baby can follow objects to midline, how old is she?

Back 118

4 months

Front 119

A baby is putting his feet in his mouth, how old is he?

Back 119

5 months

Front 120

A baby will approach a toy with one hand, and then change hands with the toy, how old is she?

Back 120

1st year of life

Front 121

A baby first laughs out loud, how old is she?

Back 121

4 months

Front 122

A baby has started saying ""ma-ma-ma"" and ""da-da-da"", how old is he?

Back 122

10 months

Front 123

In Piaget's Cognitive Development, at what age does a baby achieve object permanence?

Back 123

1 year

Front 124

A baby kicks and throws a ball, how old is he?

Back 124

1 year

Front 125

A toddler is using two word sentences and has a vocabulary of about 250 words, how old is he?

Back 125

1 year

Front 126

A toddler has started using pronouns and shows great variations in timing of language. How old is she?

Back 126

2 years

Front 127

A toddler is using complete sentences and has a vocabulary of 900 words, although he appears to understand 4x as many.

Back 127

3 years

Front 128

A child tells stories, uses prepositions, plurals, and has discovered compound sentences, how old is she?

Back 128

4 years

Front 129

A child can stand on her tiptoes, how old is she?

Back 129

30 months

Front 130

A child who can use symbols and has concrete use of objects and use of symbols along with a strong egocentrism?

Back 130

2 years

Front 131

At what age is gender identity fixed?

Back 131

3 years

Front 132

A child knows her full name and what sex she is, how old is she?

Back 132

3 years

Front 133

Two children are observed to be taking turns with a toy, how old are they?

Back 133

3 years

Front 134

At what age is a child likely to start grooming themselves and brushing their own teeth?

Back 134

4 years

Front 135

A child can point to and count three objects, repeat four digits, and name colors correctly, how old is she?

Back 135

4 years

Front 136

A child has an imaginary friend and this is entirely normal for this age group, how old is she?

Back 136

4 years

Front 137

Two children are caught "playing doctor", at what age does this curiosity manifest?

Back 137

4 years

Front 138

A child is having terrible nightmares and needs the light left on at night for fear of monsters, how old is he?

Back 138

4 years

Front 139

At what age does a child adopt personal speech patterns?

Back 139

adolescence (12+)

Front 140

At what age does communication become the focus of friendships?

Back 140

adolescence (12+)

Front 141

A child repeatedly asks for the meaning of words, how old is she?

Back 141

5 years

Front 142

A child can count 10 objects correctly, how old is she?

Back 142

5 years

Front 143

At what age will a child first express romantic feelings towards others, perhaps as an Oedipal phase?

Back 143

5 years

Front 144

A child can draw a recognizable man, dress and undress herself, and catch a ball with two hands, how old is she?

Back 144

5 years

Front 145

A child can ride a bicycle, print letters, and her father is excited because she is gaining athletic skill and coordination.

Back 145

6-12 years

Front 146

By age 12, about how many words will a child have in their vocabulary?

Back 146

About 50,000

Front 147

A child shows a shift from egocentric to social speech and incomplete sentences decline, how old is he?

Back 147

6-12 years

Front 148

Identity is the critical issue in what age range?

Back 148

adolescence (12+)

Front 149

Conformity is most important for what age range?

Back 149

11-12 years

Front 150

When do cross gender relationships first take off?

Back 150

adolescence (12+)

Front 151

A teacher has noticed many of her kids are quitting organized sports, how old is her class likely to be?

Back 151

adolescents (12+)

Front 152

A teacher has noticed that for her kids, the ""rules of the game"" are paramount. How old is her class?

Back 152

6-12 years

Front 153

At what age range are organized sports first possible?

Back 153

6-12 years

Front 154

Demonstrating competence is key for what age group?

Back 154

6-12 years

Front 155

At this age there is a separation of the sexes and sexual feelings are not apparent.

Back 155

6-12 years

Front 156

At this age there is an adherence to logic, concrete operations, and no hypotheticals.

Back 156

6-12 years

Front 157

Children of this age group can use seriation, and have a personal sense of right and wrong.

Back 157

6-12 years

Front 158

Children can handle hypotheticals, being systematic problem solving and deal with the past, present, and future. Age?

Back 158

adolescence (12+)

Front 159

APGAR stands for what?

Back 159

Appearance (color); Pulse; Grimace; Activity; Respiration

Front 160

How do you calculate an APGAR score?

Back 160

Score 0-2 at 1 and 5 inutes in each of 5 categories.

Front 161

What the three levels of appearance (color) on the APGAR scale?

Back 161

0 = blue/pale 1=trunk pink 2=all pink

Front 162

What describes the three levels of pulse on the APGAR score?

Back 162

0= 0 1= <100 2= >100

Front 163

What describes the three levels of reflex irritability (grimace) on the APGAR scale?

Back 163

0= none 1= grimace 2 = grimace + cough

Front 164

Describe the 3 levels of muscle tone on the apgar scale.

Back 164

0 = limp 1 = some 2 = active

Front 165

Describe the three levels of respiratory effort on the APGAR scale.

Back 165

0 = none 1= irregular 2 = regular

Front 166

What is the definition of low birth weight in grams?

Back 166

< 2500 g

Front 167

List some complications of low birth weight.

Back 167

infections; respiratory distress syndrome; necrotizing enterocolitis; intraventricular hemorrhage; persistent fetal circulation

Front 168

What are two likely etiologies for low birth weight?

Back 168

prematurity and intrauterine growth retardation

Front 169

Long term infant deprivation of affection results in the 4 W's ...

Back 169

Weak, Wordless, Wanting, Wary

Front 170

How long does deprivation of affection need to continue before changes may be irreversible?

Back 170

> 6 months

Front 171

List some effects of long term deprivation of affection in infants.

Back 171

1. Decreased muscle tone 2. Poor language skills 3. Poor socialization skills 4. Lack of basic trust 5. Anaclitic depression 6. Weight loss 7. Physical illness

Front 172

What is anaclitic depression?

Back 172

Depression in an infant owing to continued separation from caregiver - it can result in failure to thrive.

Front 173

An infant becomes withdrawn and unresponsive when left in a crowded daycare for a few weeks, what is the problem?

Back 173

Anaclitic depression

Front 174

What stimuli may cause children to regress to younger behavior?

Back 174

Stress: physical illness, birth of a new sibling, tiredness.

Front 175

How many children die each year in the United States from physical abuse?

Back 175

about 3000.

Front 176

At what age are most children sexually abused?

Back 176

9-12 years.

Front 177

Describe autistic disorder

Back 177

pts have severe communication problems and difficulty forming relationships. repetative behavior, savants, and below normal intelligence.

Front 178

Describe Asperger syndrome

Back 178

Milder form of autism involving problems with social relationships and repetative behavior. Children are of normal intelligence and lack social deficits.

Front 179

Describe Rett disorder

Back 179

X-linked disorder seen only in girls. Characterized by loss of development and mental retardation appearing at about 4 years.

Front 180

Describe ADHD

Back 180

limited attention span and hyperactivity. children are emotionally labile, impulsive, and prone to accidents. Normal intelligence

Front 181

Why aren't boys seen with Rett syndrome?

Back 181

With this X-linked disorder, boys die in utero.

Front 182

What is the treatment for ADHD?

Back 182

methylphenidate (Ritalin)

Front 183

Describe conduct disorder

Back 183

continued behavior violating social norms.

Front 184

Describe oppositional definant disorder.

Back 184

A form of conduct disorder when the child is noncompliant in the absence of criminality.

Front 185

Describe Tourette's syndrome.

Back 185

motor/vocal tics and involuntary profanity. Onsent < 18 years.

Front 186

What is the treatment for Tourette's?

Back 186

haloperidol

Front 187

Describe separation anxiety disorder.

Back 187

fear of loss of attachment figure leading to factitious physical complaints to avoid going to school. Common in children ages 7-8.

Front 188

What are hallucinations?

Back 188

perceptions in the absence of external stimuli.

Front 189

What are Illusions?

Back 189

misinterpretations of actual external stimuli.

Front 190

What are Delusions?

Back 190

false beliefs not shared with other members of culture/subculture that are firmly maintained despite obvious proof to the contrary.

Front 191

Describe the difference between a delusion and a loose association.

Back 191

A delusion is a disorder in the content of thought (the actual idea), while a loose association is a disorder in the form of the thought

Front 192

Patients with psychomotor epilepsy will commonly experience what kind of hallucination?

Back 192

olfactory hallucination.

Front 193

Patients with DTs or cocaine abusers may experience what kind of hallucinations?

Back 193

tactile hallucinations

Front 194

What is a hypnagogic hallucination?

Back 194

A hallucination that occurs when going to sleep.

Front 195

What is a hypnopompic hallucination?

Back 195

A hallucination that occurs when waking from sleep.

Front 196

How many heroin addicts are there in the United States?

Back 196

About 500,000

Front 197

A diagnosis of hepatitis, abscesses, overdose, hemorrhoids, AIDS, or right sided endocarditis. Consider?

Back 197

heroin addiction.

Front 198

What is Delirium tremens?

Back 198

Life threatening alcohol withdrawal syndrome that peaks 2-5 days after the last drink.

Front 199

tachycardia, tremors, and anxiety followed by hallucinations, delusions, and confusion in an alcoholic may be signs of?

Back 199

delirium tremens.

Front 200

List risk factors for suicide completion

Back 200

SAD PERSONS"": Sex (male), Age, Depression, Previous attempt, Ethanol, RAtional thought, Sickness, Organized plan, No spouse, Social support lacking.

Front 201

What is a personality disorder?

Back 201

When personality traits become inflexible and maladaptive, causing impariment in social or occupational functioning or subjective distress

Front 202

What does the phrase ""Mature women wear a SASH"" indicate

Back 202

Mature ego defenses: Sublimation, Altruism, Supression, and Humor

Front 203

What are ego defenses?

Back 203

automatic and UNCONCIOUS reactions to psychological stress.

Front 204

aggressive impulses used to succeed in sports is an example of what ego defense?

Back 204

sublimation.

Front 205

What is sublimation as an ego defense?

Back 205

process whereby one replaces an unacceptable wish with a course of action that is similar to the wish but does not conflict with one's value system.

Front 206

A patient with libidinous thoughts enters a monastery This is an example of what ego defense?

Back 206

Reaction formation.

Front 207

An 8 year old child under stress begins bed wetting again. This is an example of what ego defense?

Back 207

Regression.

Front 208

What is the basic underlying mechanism for all ego defenses?

Back 208

repression.

Front 209

What is dysthymia?

Back 209

A milder form of depression lasting at least 2 years.

Front 210

Describe a major depressive episode.

Back 210

at least 5 for 2 weeks. sleep changes, loss of interest, guilt, less energy, less concentration, change in appetite, psychomotor retardation, suicidal, depressed. SIG E CAPS

Front 211

A major depressive episode MUST include one of two symptoms, these are ...

Back 211

1. depressed mood, or 2. anhedonia

Front 212

A patients has experienced 2 major depressive episodes with a symptom free interval of 2 months, what is the diagnosis?

Back 212

Recurrent Major Depressive Disorder.

Front 213

What is the lifetime prevalence of major depressive disorder in women? in men?

Back 213

10-25% in women and 5-12% in men.

Front 214

What is the key to diagnosing dementia?

Back 214

Ruling out delirium.

Front 215

In an elderly person who seems to apparently have dementia, what other condition should be considered?

Back 215

Depression.

Front 216

Describe the difference between dementia and delirium.

Back 216

Delirium= changes in sensorium while Dementia = changes in memory. Dementia is commonly irreversible.

Front 217

What is the most common psychiatric illness on medical and surgical floors?

Back 217

Delirium.

Front 218

If a patient on a hospital ward presents with delirium, what drugs should you check for in their med list?

Back 218

Drugs with anticholinergic effects.

Front 219

Pt presents with dec attention span and dec level of arousal, disorganized thinking, hallucinations, illusions

Back 219

Delirium

Front 220

What is the key to diagnosis of delirium?

Back 220

Waxing and waning level of conciousness, develops rapidly.

Front 221

A man who has lost his wife appears to be in shock, and expresses denial, guilt and somatic symptoms for the 4 months.

Back 221

Normal bereavement.

Front 222

How long does normal bereavement last?

Back 222

Typically 6 months to a year.

Front 223

When does grief become pathologic?

Back 223

When it becomes excessively intense or prolonged, delayed, inhibited, or denied.

Front 224

What are the functions of the frontal lobe?

Back 224

concentration; orientation; language; abstraction; judgement; motor regulation; mood

Front 225

What deficit is most notable in frontal lobe lesions?

Back 225

lack of social judgement.

Front 226

how often does REM sleep occur while sleeping?

Back 226

every 90 minutes. Duration of REM sleep increases throughout the night.

Front 227

What is the principal neurotransmitter involved in REM sleep?

Back 227

ACh.

Front 228

What are the neurotransmitter changes associated with anxiety?

Back 228

increase in NE decrease in GABA and 5HT

Front 229

What neurotransmitter changes are associated with Alzheimer's dementia?

Back 229

decreases ACh

Front 230

What neurotransmitter changes are associated with Huntington's Disease?

Back 230

decrease GABA and ACh

Front 231

Name the 4 reflexes that are present at birth.

Back 231

1. Mono 2. Rooting 3. Palmar 4. Babinski

Front 232

What is the Mono reflex?

Back 232

extension of limbs when startled

Front 233

What is the rooting reflex?

Back 233

nipple seeking

Front 234

What are the Kubler-Ross dying stages?

Back 234

1. Denial 2. Anger 3. Bargaining 4. Grieving 5. Acceptance

Front 235

Describe "substance abuse"

Back 235

Maladaptive pattern leading to clinically significant impairment or distress - 1 or more symptom must be present for 1 year

Front 236

What are the symptoms of substance abuse?

Back 236

1. recurrent use = failure to fulfill major obligation 2. recurrent use in physically hazardous situation 3. recurrent use related legal problems

Front 237

What is substance dependence?

Back 237

Maladaptive pattern of substance use defined as 3 or more of the defining symptoms for at least a year.

Front 238

What are the symptoms of substance dependence?

Back 238

Tolerance, Withdrawal, Taken in larger amounts, Desire to cut down, Lots of energy spent obtaining substance, Activities reduced, Use despite problems

Front 239

Describe adjustment disorder.

Back 239

emotional symptoms causing impairment following an identifiable psychosocial stressor lasting < 6 months.

Front 240

Describe generalized anxiety disorder.

Back 240

uncontrollable anxiety unrelated to a specific person, situation, or event. May include GI symptoms, fatigue, and difficulty concentrating.

Front 241

Describe post traumatic stress disorder.

Back 241

intense fear, helplessness, or horror, in which a person who experienced or witnessed an event that involved actual or threatened death or injury

Front 242

What is the difference between acute stress and PTSD?

Back 242

acute stress lasts 2-4 weeks, PTSD lasts > 1 month and causes distress or social/occupational impairment.

Front 243

What is Gamophobia?

Back 243

fear of marriage.

Front 244

What is algophobia?

Back 244

fear of pain.

Front 245

what is acrophobia?

Back 245

fear of heights.

Front 246

What is agoraphobia?

Back 246

fear of open places.

Front 247

What is a specific phobia?

Back 247

fear that is excessive or unreasonable, cued by presence or anticipation of a specific object or entity.

Front 248

In reference to a somatoform disorder, describe a primary gain.

Back 248

Primary gain = what symptom does for patients internal psyche.

Front 249

In reference to a somatoform disorder, describe a secondary gain.

Back 249

Secondary gain = what symptom gets for patient (ie sympathy)

Front 250

In reference to a somatoform disorder, describe a tertiary gain.

Back 250

Tertiary gain = what the caretaker gets (MD on an interesting case)

Front 251

What does "PANIC" indicate.

Back 251

The symptoms of a panic attack: palpiations, abdominal distress, nausea, increased perspiration, chest pain, chills, choking.

Front 252

What is panic disorder?

Back 252

discrete period of intense fear and discomfort, peaking in 10 minutes, including 4 symptoms, and must be diagnosed in the context of the occurence.

Front 253

Describe changes in sleep patterns with advanced age.

Back 253

decrease REM sleep, slow wave sleep; increase sleep latency, wakings during the night.

Front 254

What are the most common medical conditions due to advanced age?

Back 254

arthritis, HTN, CVD.

Front 255

What percent of time is spent in stage 1 sleep?

Back 255

5.00%

Front 256

What percent of time is spent in stage 2 sleep?

Back 256

45.00%

Front 257

What percent of time is spent in stage 3-4 sleep?

Back 257

25.00%

Front 258

What percent of time is spent in REM sleep?

Back 258

25.00%

Front 259

When do you experience an alpha waveform?

Back 259

awake, but drowsy with eyes closed.

Front 260

In light sleep, what waveform predominates?

Back 260

theta

Front 261

in deeper sleep, stage 2, what waveform predominates?

Back 261

Sleep spindles and K complexes.

Front 262

In stage 3-4 sleep, the deepest non REM sleep, what waveforms predominate?

Back 262

delta waves (lowest frequency, highest amplitude)

Front 263

When will a person sleepwalk, have night terrors, or wet the bed?

Back 263

In delta sleep (stage 3-4)

Front 264

when does dreaming occur?

Back 264

in REM sleep

Front 265

What does "At night, BATS drinK Blood" indicate

Back 265

waveforms of sleepstages: Beta, Alpha, Theta, Spindles and K forms, Delta, Beta.

Front 266

What is the key to initiating sleep?

Back 266

5HT predominance of raphe nucleus

Front 267

What neurotransmitter reduces REM sleep?

Back 267

NE

Front 268

What are EOM movements during REM sleep due to?

Back 268

activity of the PPRF (paramedian pontine reticular formation / conjugate gaze center)

Front 269

Why are benzodiazepines good for night terrors and sleep walking?

Back 269

They shorten stage 4 sleep.

Front 270

What drug shortens stage 4 sleep and is used to treat enuresis?

Back 270

Imipramine.

Front 271

What is a conversion disorder?

Back 271

A somatoform disorder where symptoms suggest motor or sensory neurologic or physical disorder - but tests and physical examination are negative.

Front 272

What is somatoform pain disorder?

Back 272

prolonged pain that is not explained completely by illness.

Front 273

What is hypochondriasis?

Back 273

misinterpretation of normal physical findings, leading to preoccupation with fear of having a serious illness in spite of medical reassurance.

Front 274

what is somatization disorder?

Back 274

variety of complaints in multiple organ systems.

Front 275

what is body dysmorphic disorder?

Back 275

patient convinced that part of their own anatomy is malformed.

Front 276

what is pseudocyesis?

Back 276

a false belief of being pregnant associated with objective physical signs of pregnancy.

Front 277

What are the major adverse effects of ECT?

Back 277

disorientation, and amnesia.

Front 278

When is ECT used?

Back 278

For major depressive disorder refractory to all other treatment.

Front 279

What is a hypomanic episode?

Back 279

like a manic episode, except the mood disturbance is not as severe. it does not require hospitalization and there are no psychotic features.

Front 280

What is malingering?

Back 280

patient consciously fakes or claims to have a disorder in order to attain a specific gain.

Front 281

What is factitious disorder?

Back 281

a patient consciously creates symptoms in order to assume the ""sick"" roll to get medical attention.

Front 282

What is Munchausen's syndrome?

Back 282

manifests as a chronic history of multiple hosptital admissions and willingness to receive invasive procedures.

Front 283

What is Munchausen's syndrome by proxy?

Back 283

when the illness in a child is caused by a parent. the motivation is unconcious.

Front 284

Describe bipolar disorder.

Back 284

6 separate criteria sets exist for bipolar disorders with combinations of manic, hypomanic, and depressed episodes.

Front 285

What is cyclothymic disorder

Back 285

a milder form of bipolar disorder lasting at least 2 years.

Front 286

What is a manic episode?

Back 286

distinct period of abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood lasting at least one week.

Front 287

During a manic episode, 3 or more symptoms are present ... list the 7 symptoms.

Back 287

1. distractability 2. insomnia 3. grandiosity 4. flight of ideas 5. increase in activity/agitation 6. pressured speech 7. thoughtlessness (DIG FAST)

Front 288

Disinhibition, emotional lability, slurred speech, ataxia, coma, and blackouts are indicative of what substance?

Back 288

alcohol.

Front 289

what symptoms may a patient withdrawing from alcohol experience?

Back 289

tremor, tachycardia, HTN, malaise, nausea, seizures, DTs, tremulousness, agitation, hallucinations.

Front 290

When a patient stops smoking cigarettes, what symptoms might they expect during withdrawal?

Back 290

irritability, headache, anxiety, weight gain, and cravings.

Front 291

a patient who consumes lots of coffee might experience what symptoms?

Back 291

restlessness, insomnia, increased diruesis, muscle twitching, cardiac arrhythmias

Front 292

When a patient stops caffeine consumption, what symptoms might they expect?

Back 292

headache, lethargy, depression, weight gain.

Front 293

A patient presents to the ER with nausea and vomiting, constipation, and pinpoint pupils. What substance?

Back 293

opiods.

Front 294

When a patient ODs on opiods, what symptom are you most concerned with?

Back 294

seizures ... may be life threatening.

Front 295

a pt presents with amnesia, ataxia, somnolence, and minor respiratory distress. No alcohol. what substance?

Back 295

Benzodiazepines.

Front 296

Are benzos addictive?

Back 296

if consumed with alcohol.

Front 297

When a patient stops taking benzos, what symptoms may they experience?

Back 297

rebound anxiety, seizures, tremor, and insomnia

Front 298

a patient presents to the ER with major respiratory depression, their friends state they "took something"

Back 298

barbiturates

Front 299

In addition to anxiety, seizures, and delirium, You are concerned about in a patient who is withdrawing from barbiturates?

Back 299

life threatening cardiovascular collapse.

Front 300

a patient presents with euphoria, anxiety, paranoid delusions, impaired judgement, and the munchies ?

Back 300

marijuana.

Front 301

Are there withdrawal symptoms from marijuana?

Back 301

social withdrawal.

Front 302

a patient presents with marked anxiety, delusions, visual hallucinations, flashbacks, and pupil dilation.

Back 302

LSD.

Front 303

a pt presents with agitation, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, euphoria, fever, hallucinations and awake for 36 hr

Back 303

amphetamines.

Front 304

what symptoms can a patient withdrawing from amphetamines expect?

Back 304

post crash depression, lethargy, headache, stomach cramps, hunger, hypersomnolence.

Front 305

a pt presents euphoric with psychomotor agitation, tachycardia, pupillary dilation, hallucinations, and angina..

Back 305

cocain.

Front 306

what fatal effect of cocain are you worried about?

Back 306

sudden cardiac death.

Front 307

what can a patient in withdrawal from cocain expect to experience?

Back 307

post crash depression and suicidality, hypersomnolence, fatigue, malaise, and severe psychological craving.

Front 308

a pt presents with fever and psychomotor agitation, belligerent and impulsive, and has horizontal and vertical nystagmus.

Back 308

PCP.

Front 309

When a patient is withdrawing from PCP, what symptoms are you concerned about?

Back 309

sudden onset of severe, random, homicidal thought

Front 310

A patient recovering from a PCP intoxication appears to be having a recurrence of intoxication symptoms... why?

Back 310

reabsorption of PCP from the GI tract.

Front 311

What is the BMI numerical cutoff for an obesity?

Back 311

> 30.0

Front 312

A patient complains of sexual dysfunction, what 3 things are on your differential?

Back 312

1. drugs 2. disease 3. psychological

Front 313

What diseases may lead to sexual dysfunction?

Back 313

depression or DM

Front 314

What drugs can lead to sexual dysfunction?

Back 314

anti-HTN, neuroleptics, SSRI, EtOH.

Front 315

Describe the physiological effects of stress.

Back 315

Stress induces production of FFA, 17-OH corticosteroids, and catecholamines. it affects water absorption, muscular tonicity, and gastrocolic reflex

Front 316

A patient with depression will typically show these three changes in their sleep stages:

Back 316

1. decrease slow wave sleep 2. decrease REM latency 3. early morning awakening

Front 317

What is the most important screening question for depression?

Back 317

Are you experiencing early morning awakening?

Front 318

Describe narcolepsy.

Back 318

person falls asleep suddenly. May include hypnagogic or hypnopompic hallucinations.

Front 319

A person with narcolepsy starts off their sleep cycle with what sleep stage?

Back 319

REM

Front 320

What is cataplexy?

Back 320

sudden collapse while awake. may be present in some patients with narcolepsy.

Front 321

What is the treatment for narcolepsy?

Back 321

amphetamines.

Front 322

What is the treatment for sleep apnea?

Back 322

weight loss, CPAP, surgery

Front 323

What symptoms and signs is sleep apnea associated with:

Back 323

obesity, loud snoring, systemic or pulmonary HTN, arrhythmias, and possibly sudden death.

Front 324

What toxin inhibits lipoic acid?

Back 324

Arsenic

Front 325

What are the net reactants and products in the reaction that Pyruvate Dehydrogenase catalyzes?

Back 325

Reactants:1. Pyruvate 2. CoA 3. NAD Products:1. Acetyl CoA 2. CO2 3. NADH

Front 326

Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency: Congenital or Acquired

Back 326

Both. Acquired cases happen in cases of B1 deficiency (such as in alcoholics.)

Front 327

What is the rate-limiting step of the TCA?

Back 327

Isocitrate to alpha-ketoglutarate by isocitrate dehydrogenase

Front 328

Which tissues and organs primarily convert pyruvate into lactate?

Back 328

1. RBCs and WBCs 2. Lens and cornea 3. Renal medulla 4. Testes

Front 329

What stimulates and inhibits isocitrate dehydrogenase?

Back 329

Stimulate: ADP; Inhibit: 1. ATP 2. NADH

Front 330

Which reagent sequentially removes C-terminal residues from a polypeptide?

Back 330

Carboxypeptidase

Front 331

What activated carriers carry: 1-carbon units

Back 331

1. Tetrahydrofolates (originally as formyl then methyl) 2. Biotin (as CO2) 3. S-adenosyl-methionine (as CH3)

Front 332

What is the mechanism of oligomycin?

Back 332

ATPase inhibition

Front 333

Cathode: What does it attract?

Back 333

Cations

Front 334

What kind of inheritance and mutation is the alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency?

Back 334

Autosomal recessive, single purine substitution (GAG to AAG)

Front 335

What is this molecule an activated carrier of?: S-adenosyl-methionine

Back 335

Methyl groups

Front 336

What is the mechanism of electron transport inhibitors?

Back 336

1. Directly inhibit electron transport causing: 2. Decreased protein gradient and decrease in O2 consumption, thereby: 3. Blocking ATP synthesis

Front 337

What stimulates and inhibits alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase?

Back 337

Stimulate: Nothing; Inhibit: 1. ATP 2. NADH 3. Succinyl CoA

Front 338

Pyruvate dehydrogenase: What inhibits it?

Back 338

NADH (You produce NADH, soon there'll be more of me.), Acetyl-CoA (Enough of me, save your pyrvuate.)

Front 339

Where does the Cori Cycle happen?

Back 339

In the liver and muscle/RBCs Liver: Pyruvate converts to glucose Muscle/RBCs: Glucose converts to Pyruvate

Front 340

What is rotenone?

Back 340

An electron transport inhibitor.

Front 341

What enzymes and cofactors are used in conversion of pyruvate to alanine?

Back 341

Enzyme: Alanine Transaminase (ALT) Cofactors: None

Front 342

Where in the electron transport chain is O2 reduced to 2H2O?

Back 342

Complex IV

Front 343

Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency: Treatment

Back 343

Increased intake of ketogenic nutrients (such as high fat content or increased lysine and leucine)

Front 344

What stimulates and inhibits citrate synthase?

Back 344

Stimulate: Nothing; Inhibit: ATP

Front 345

What is the enzyme involved in processing tRNA

Back 345

Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase (uses 1 ATP)

Front 346

What is antimycin A?

Back 346

An electron transport inhibitor.

Front 347

Name three classes of oxidative phosphorylation poisons.

Back 347

1. Electron transport inhibitors 2. ATPase inhibitors 3. Uncoupling agents

Front 348

What enzymes and cofactors are used in conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate?

Back 348

Enzyme: Pyruvate Carboxylase (contains biotin and magnesium) Cofactors: CO2 and ATP

Front 349

# of Aas in one turn of alpha-helix?

Back 349

3.6

Front 350

What disease state is glycolytic enzyme deficiency generally associated with?

Back 350

Hemolytic anemia

Front 351

What stimulates pyruvate dehydrogenase?

Back 351

ADP (need more ATP. Inhibits PD kinase and stimulates PD phosphatase.)

Front 352

Energy malnutrition leads to what disease?

Back 352

Marasmus (as opposed to Kwashiorkor from protein malnutrition)

Front 353

Which major metabolic reactions require Thiamine as a cofactor?

Back 353

TCA: Pyruvate dehydrogenase and alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase, HMP shunt: Transketolase

Front 354

Role of ATP in protein synthesis

Back 354

ATP does tRNA Activation (charging)

Front 355

Where is fructokinase found?

Back 355

Liver (processes most dietary fructose), kidney, small intestine

Front 356

Amino acids that disrupt alpha-helix?

Back 356

proline, many charged aas, bulky side chains

Front 357

Where in glycolysis and TCA does CO2 come off?

Back 357

3 places: Pyruvate to Acetyl CoA, Isocitrate to alpha-ketoglutarate, and alpha-ketoglutarate to Succinyl CoA

Front 358

Enzyme function: DNA helicase

Back 358

Separates the two strands of DNA into single strands allowing for replication to occur.

Front 359

What enzyme converts Galactose-1-Phosphate to Glucose-1-Phosphate?

Back 359

Uridyl transferase

Front 360

What is the clinical presentation of fructose intolerance?

Back 360

hypoglycemia, jaundice, cirrhosis, and vomiting

Front 361

What is the etiology of classic galactosemia?

Back 361

1. Absence of galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase 2. Build up of toxic substances including galactitol

Front 362

I-Cell disease: Pathophysiology

Back 362

Inability of cell to phosphorylate mannose residues on glycoproteins indicating that they are lysosome bound.

Front 363

Sources of Succinyl CoA?

Back 363

TCA intermediate, and from odd chained fatty acids, and from propionyl coA from metabolism of branched-chain amino acids.

Front 364

What is the clinical presentation of essential fructosuria?

Back 364

Fructose appears in the blood and urine

Front 365

What does sorbitol dehydrogenase do?

Back 365

Oxidizes sorbitol to fructose.

Front 366

Which post-translational modification involves hydroxylation?

Back 366

post-translational covalent alteration

Front 367

Hunter's Syndrome vs Hurler's Syndrome: Mental retardation?

Back 367

Both (Hunter's ranges from mild to severe)

Front 368

An acid with a pKa of x serves as a buffer best at x + what?

Back 368

positive or negative 1 (equal amounts of charged and uncharged acid)

Front 369

Which tissues have cotransport of glucose?

Back 369

Epithelial cells of the intestine, renal tubular cells, and choroid plexus

Front 370

Heparin: Where found?/Distinguishing characteristic from other GAGs

Back 370

Intracellular compound (unlike other GAGs). Found in mast cells of artery walls, especially in lungs, liver, and skin

Front 371

Which reagent sequentially removes N-terminal residues from a polypeptide?

Back 371

Phenylisothiocyanate (Edman degradation)

Front 372

Where do GLUT1 receptors predominate over other GLUT receptors?

Back 372

RBCs

Front 373

Name the enzymes used in the oxygen-dependent respiratory burst.

Back 373

1. NADPH oxidase 2. Superoxide dismutase 3. Myeloperoxidase 4. Catalase/Glutathione peroxidase 5. Glutathione reductase 6. G-6-P D

Front 374

Where is pyruvate carboxylase found and not found?

Back 374

Found in mitochondria of liver and kidney cells, not foudn in mitochondria of muscle

Front 375

What does aldose reductase do?

Back 375

Reduces glucose to sorbitol

Front 376

Where is the mutation for G6PD?

Back 376

Point mutation in coding region of the G6PD gene (X-linked)

Front 377

What is the famed respiratory burst?

Back 377

The rapid conversion of O2 to superoxide using NADPH.

Front 378

Where is aldose reductase found?

Back 378

Lens, retina, Schwann cells, kidney, placenta, RBCs, and gonads

Front 379

Chondroitin Sulfate: Use/Mechanism

Back 379

Form proteoglycan aggregates. Cartilage: Bind collagen and hold fibers in a tight, strong network

Front 380

Pepsin cleaves peptides at which side of what residues?

Back 380

C-terminal side of tyrosine, phenylalanine, and tryptophan (all have phenyl groups, these are the same bonds as chymotrypsin.

Front 381

What is a glycoside?

Back 381

Carbohydrate attached to non-carbohydrate structures.

Front 382

Hyaluronic Acid: Use/Mechanism

Back 382

Lubricant and shock absorber

Front 383

What are the key enzymes of the pentose phosphate shunt and are the reactions reversible or irreversible?

Back 383

1. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (irreversible) 2. Transketolase (reversible)

Front 384

How does glucagon stimulate gluconeogenesis?

Back 384

Regulation of F2,6-BP and inactivation of Pyruvate Kinase via elevation of cAMP-dependent protein kinase A.

Front 385

Hunter's Syndrome vs Hurler's Syndrome: Enzyme deficiency

Back 385

Hunter's: Iduronate sulfatase, Hurler's: alpha-L-iduronidase

Front 386

Trypsin cleaves peptides at which side of what residues?

Back 386

C-terminal of lysine or arginine (the most basic amino acids)

Front 387

What is the mechanism of 2,4-dinitrophenol?

Back 387

Uncoupling agent

Front 388

What enzyme phosphorylates glucose with high affinity?

Back 388

Hexokinase

Front 389

What is NADPH used for?

Back 389

1. Reductive biosynthesis 2. Reduction of oxygen directly and hydrogen peroxide indirectly 3. Cytochrome P-450 mono-oxygenase system

Front 390

How does galactokinase deficiency present?

Back 390

1. Galactosemia 2. Galactosuria More severe symptoms such as cataracts, hepatosplenomegaly and mental retardation can follow.

Front 391

Phosphofructokinase-1: What does it do?

Back 391

PFK-1 1-phosphorylates fructose-6-phosphate to produce Fructose-1,6-Bisphosphate.

Front 392

Heparan Sulfate: Where found?/Distinguishing characteristic from other GAGs

Back 392

Extracellular, unlike heparin. Found in basement membrane and as a ubiquitous component of cell surfaces.

Front 393

Glucokinase: Where is it found and why does it do what it does?

Back 393

Found in the liver and pancreatic beta cells. Phosphorylates glucose to sequester it after a big meal.

Front 394

What are the two most common glycolytic enzyme deficiencies?

Back 394

Pyruvate kinase (95% of cases) followed by glucose phosphate isomerase (4% of cases)

Front 395

Dermatan Sulfate: Where found?

Back 395

Found in skin, blood vessels, and heart valves

Front 396

In nucleic acids, what kind of substitution is a transversion?

Back 396

TransVersion = conVersion between types (Purine for pyrimidine or vice versa)

Front 397

What does alpha-amanitin do?

Back 397

Inhibits RNA polymerase II leading to hepatic necrosis

Front 398

Name the irreversible enzymes in glycolysis.

Back 398

1. Hexokinase 2. Phosphofructokinase-1 3. Pyruvate kinase 4. Pyruvate dehydrogenase

Front 399

In aerobic metabolism of glucose, which pathway produces 38 ATP?

Back 399

Malate shuttle

Front 400

What activated carriers carry: CH3 groups

Back 400

1. S-adenosyl-methionine 2. N5-methyl-THF

Front 401

What is the presentation of arsenic toxicity?

Back 401

1. Vomiting 2. Rice water stools 3. Garlic breath

Front 402

This oxidation accounts for about 2/3 of the total oxygen consumption and ATP production in most animals

Back 402

Oxidation of acetyl coA to CO2 and H2O.

Front 403

What activated carriers carry: Formyl groups

Back 403

N10-formyl-THF

Front 404

Where in the electron transport chain is ADP converted to ATP?

Back 404

Complex V aka ATP synthase aka mitochondrial ATPase

Front 405

What histologic change is seen in G6PD deficiency

Back 405

Heinz bodies within red blood cells

Front 406

Which amino acids are necessary for purine synthesis?

Back 406

Glycine, Aspartate, Glutamine

Front 407

Which is active?: Phosphorylated or dephosphorylated pyruvate dehydrogenase

Back 407

Dephosphorylated.

Front 408

Uses of Succinyl CoA?

Back 408

TCA intermediate, and biosynthesis of heme

Front 409

How much ATP is produced by anaerobic glycolysis?

Back 409

2 ATP per glucose

Front 410

Which amino acids are basic?

Back 410

Arginine, Lysine and Histidine Arginine and Lysine are increased in histones which bind negatively charged DNA. Histidine has no charge at body pH.

Front 411

Where in the TCA does FADH2 come from?

Back 411

Succinate to fumarate.

Front 412

Pyruvate kinase: What inhibits it?

Back 412

ATP (don't need more of me), Alanine (I came from pyruvate, so we don't need any more.)

Front 413

Inhibitors of electron transport from Cytochrome a+a3 to Oxygen?

Back 413

Cyanide, CO, and Sodium azide

Front 414

What does 4-epimerase do?

Back 414

converts between UDP-galactose and UDP-glucose

Front 415

Where in the TCA does NADH come from?

Back 415

Pyruvate to Acetyl CoA, Isocitrate to alpha-ketoglutarate, alpha-ketoglutarate to succinyl coA, Malate to Oxaloacetate

Front 416

How much ATP is produced by the citric acid cycle per molecule of glucose?

Back 416

24 ATP

Front 417

What is a reducing sugar?

Back 417

A monosaccharide where the anomeric carbon (Carbon 1) is free.

Front 418

What is the relation of polyols to sugars?

Back 418

Polyols are monosaccharides where the carbonyl group is reduced to an alcohol.

Front 419

What are the properties of the genetic code?

Back 419

Unambiguous, Degenerate/ redundant, Commaless/nonoverlapping, and Universal

Front 420

Which tissues (7) need glucose as fuel?

Back 420

Brain, RBCs, Renal medulla, lens, cornea, testes, exercising muscle

Front 421

What does the mRNA initiation codon code for?

Back 421

Methionine in eukaryotes. formyl-methionine in prokaryotes.

Front 422

What happens during post-translational covalent alterations?

Back 422

Either: 1. Phosphorylation 2. Glycosylation 3. Hydroxylation

Front 423

What is the etiology of fructose intolerance?

Back 423

1. Lack of aldolase B 2. Build up of Fructose-1-Phosphate 3. Decrease in available phosphate 4. Inhibition of glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

Front 424

What activates isocitrate dehydrogenase?

Back 424

ADP

Front 425

Which post-translational modification involves phosphorylation?

Back 425

post-translational covalent alteration

Front 426

Where in the cell does the following occur: Fatty acid synthesis

Back 426

Cytoplasm

Front 427

What is the difference in presentation between von Gierke's disease and fructose intolerance?

Back 427

Both have hypoglycemia, jaundice, cirrhosis and vomiting. von Gierke's disease also has lactic acidosis whereas fructose intolerance does not.

Front 428

Role of P site in protein synthesis

Back 428

P site accomodates growing Peptide.

Front 429

Where is Fructose 1-6 bisphosphatase found?

Back 429

Liver and kidney

Front 430

How many ATP molecules are produced by aerobic metabolism of glucose?

Back 430

38 via the Malate shuttle, and 36 via the G3P shuttle.

Front 431

What is this molecule an activated carrier of?: Thiamine Pyrophosphate

Back 431

Aldehydes

Front 432

Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency: Mechanism

Back 432

Backup of pyruvate and alanine leads to lactic acidosis.

Front 433

Hunter's Syndrome vs Hurler's Syndrome: Physical deformity?

Back 433

Hunter's: Mild to severe, Hurler's: Dwarfing, coarse facial features, (gargoylism)

Front 434

What is the mechanism of ATPase inhibitors?

Back 434

1. Directly inhibit mitochondrial ATPase causing: 2. Increased protein gradient and increased oxygen consumption, but no ATP is production

Front 435

What are the 5 cofactors necessary for pyrvuate dehydrogenase and alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase?

Back 435

Lipoic acid plus the first four B vitamins in their active forms: 1. B1: TPP 2. B2: FAD 3. B3: NAD 4. B5: CoA

Front 436

What activated carriers carry: Aldehydes

Back 436

Thiamine Pyrophosphate

Front 437

In aerobic metabolism of glucose, which pathway produces 36 ATP?

Back 437

G3P shuttle

Front 438

What is the mechanism of CN?

Back 438

Electron transport inhibition

Front 439

Inhibitors of electron transport from FMNH2 to Coenzyme Q?

Back 439

Amytal and Rotenone

Front 440

Ubiquitin or Ubiquinone: Coenzyme Q in oxidative phosphorylation

Back 440

Ubiquinone

Front 441

Eukaryotic genome: Trigger for replication

Back 441

Consensus sequence of AT-rich base pairs

Front 442

What characterizes a promoter of gene expression?

Back 442

AT-rich upstream sequence with TATA and CAAT boxes

Front 443

Amino acid binding to tRNA: Where (on the tRNA) and how?

Back 443

Where: 3' end How: Covalently

Front 444

Special points about RNA polymerase II

Back 444

1. Opens DNA at promoter site 2. Inhibited by alpha-amanitin

Front 445

What activates pyruvate dehydrogenase?

Back 445

1. Increased NAD/NADH ratio; 2. Increased ADP;3. Ca2+;

Front 446

What activated carriers carry: Electrons

Back 446

1. NADH 2. NADPH 3. FADH2

Front 447

What are the consequences of the altered NADH/NAD ratio seen in alcoholics?

Back 447

Short-term: Hypoglycemia, Long-term: Hepatic fatty change

Front 448

What is this molecule an activated carrier of?: Tetrahydrofolate

Back 448

1-carbon units

Front 449

What are the net reactants in glycolysis?

Back 449

Glucose, 2 Phosphates, 2 ADP, 2 NAD

Front 450

What activated carriers carry: Phosphoryl

Back 450

ATP and GTP

Front 451

What is this molecule an activated carrier of?: Biotin

Back 451

CO2

Front 452

What are exceptions to universality of genetic code?

Back 452

Mitochondria, Archaebacteria, Mycoplasma, and Some Yeasts

Front 453

What is on the 3' end of a nucleotide

Back 453

Hydroxyl group

Front 454

Types of DNA repair

Back 454

Single stranded: Nucleotide excision repair, Base excision repair, and Mismatch repair; Double Stranded: Nonhomologous end joining

Front 455

DNA polymerase I: Which direction does it proofread?

Back 455

5' to 3'

Front 456

DNA polymerase III: Which direction does it proofread?

Back 456

3' to 5'

Front 457

Enzyme function: DNA polymerase III

Back 457

Elongates the chain

Front 458

What enzyme is missing in hereditary fructose intolerance?

Back 458

Aldolase B

Front 459

What enzyme converts UDP-glucose to UDP-galactose?

Back 459

Uridyl transferase

Front 460

When is genetic code not commaless/nonoverlapping?

Back 460

In some viruses

Front 461

Which amino acids are acidic?

Back 461

Aspartate and glutamate are negatively charged at body pH

Front 462

Where is sorbitol dehydrogenase found?

Back 462

Liver and gonads (ovaries, seminal vesicles, sperm)

Front 463

How does lactose intolerance present?

Back 463

1. Bloating 2. Cramps 3. Osmotic diarrhea

Front 464

Hunter's Syndrome vs Hurler's Syndrome: Inheritance?

Back 464

Hunter's: X-linked Recessive, Hurler's (and all other mucopolysaccharidoses): Autosomal recessive

Front 465

How many nucleotides does tRNA contain?

Back 465

75 to 90 nucleotides

Front 466

Pyruvate kinase: What stimulates it?

Back 466

Fructose-1,6-BP (I was told we needed more ATP, so here I am, so you better move the line along.)

Front 467

What enzyme converts galactose to galactitol?

Back 467

Aldose reductase

Front 468

When is NADPH used?

Back 468

1. Anabolic process (steroid and fatty acid synthesis) 2. Respiratory burst 3. P-450

Front 469

Zinc deficiency: Presentation

Back 469

Delayed wound healing, hypogonadism, and decreased adult hair (axillary, facial, pubic)

Front 470

What does aldose reductase do?

Back 470

Converts galactose to galactitol

Front 471

Zinc deficiency: Predisposes to what?

Back 471

Alcoholic cirrhosis

Front 472

What inhibits isocitrate dehydrogenase?

Back 472

ATP and NADH

Front 473

What is the mechanism behind chronic fatty change in alcoholics?

Back 473

1. Ethanol metabolism leads to an increased NADH/NAD ratio in the liver. 2. This ratio prefers fatty acid synthesis over glycolysis.

Front 474

I-Cell disease: Presentation

Back 474

Skeletal abnormalities, restricted joint movement, coarse facial features, severe psychomotor impairment, death by 8 years

Front 475

What is this molecule an activated carrier of?: Lipoamide

Back 475

Acyl

Front 476

What reaction does citrate synthase catalyze?

Back 476

Oxaloacetate and acetyl coA combine to yield citrate.

Front 477

mRNA initiation codons

Back 477

1. AUG (inAUGurates protein synthesis) 2. GUG (rarely)

Front 478

What does Uridyl transferase do?

Back 478

1. converts UDP-glucose to UDP-galactose 2. converts Galactose-1-Phosphate to Glucose-1-Phosphate

Front 479

What enzyme converts UDP-galactose to UDP-glucose?

Back 479

4-epimerase

Front 480

Marasmus: Clinical presentation

Back 480

Tissue and muscle wasting, loss of subcutaneous fat, and variable edema

Front 481

Hunter's Syndrome vs Hurler's Syndrome: Which GAGs' degradation is affected?

Back 481

Both: Dermatan sulfate and Heparan sulfate

Front 482

Anode: What does it contain?

Back 482

Cations

Front 483

Phosphofructokinase-1: What stimulates it?

Back 483

AMP, Fructose-2,6-BP

Front 484

Names of the steps in protein synthesis

Back 484

1. Initiation 2. Elongation 3. Termination

Front 485

This enzyme phosphorylates glucose with a low capacity.

Back 485

Hexokinase (as opposed to glucokinase)

Front 486

This enzyme phosphorylates glucose with low affinity.

Back 486

Glucokinase (as opposed to hexokinase)

Front 487

Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency: Presentation

Back 487

Lactic acidosis and neurologic defects

Front 488

What are Heinz bodies?

Back 488

altered Hemoglobin precipitates within RBCs, found in G6PD deficiency

Front 489

Lipoamide or lipoate: Which carries aldehydes?

Back 489

Lipoamide

Front 490

Define operator of gene expression

Back 490

Site where repressors bind

Front 491

How much ATP is produced by the citric acid cycle per molecule of acetyl coA?

Back 491

12 ATP.

Front 492

Anode: What does it attract?

Back 492

Anions

Front 493

Pyruvate kinase: What does it do?

Back 493

Pyruvate kinase converts phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate, thereby producing two ATP.

Front 494

Inhibitors of electron transport from Cytochrome b to Cytochrome C?

Back 494

Antimycin A

Front 495

In nucleic acids, what kind of substitution is a transition?

Back 495

Transition = Identical type (Purine for purine or pyrimidine for pyrimidine)

Front 496

This enzyme phosphorylates glucose and is not feedback inhibited.

Back 496

Glucokinase (as opposed to hexokinase)

Front 497

Cyanogen bromide cleaves peptides at which side of what residues?

Back 497

C-terminal of methionine

Front 498

This enzyme phosphorylates glucose with a high capacity.

Back 498

Glucokinase (as opposed to hexokinase)

Front 499

What is on the 5' end of a nucleotide

Back 499

Triphosphate

Front 500

Chymotrypsin cleaves peptides at which side of what residues?

Back 500

C-terminal side of tyrosine, phenylalanine, and tryptophan residues

Front 501

Cathode: What does it contain?

Back 501

Anions

Front 502

What type of bonds hold the phosphoryls together in ATP, and how much energy are the bonds worth?

Back 502

Phosphoanhydride bonds are worth 7 kilocalories per mole (but only between the alpha and beta and the beta and the gamma)

Front 503

What are the requirements of PEP carboxykinase?

Back 503

GTP

Front 504

Hunter's Syndrome vs Hurler's Syndrome: Corneal clouding?

Back 504

Hunter's: No, Hurler's: Yes

Front 505

Ethanol metabolism: Limiting reagent

Back 505

NAD+

Front 506

In what condition is nucleotide excision repair mutated?

Back 506

Xeroderma pigmentosa (dry skin with melanoma and other cancers)

Front 507

Where in the cell does the following occur: Gluconeogenesis

Back 507

Pathway has steps in the mitochondria and in the cytoplasm

Front 508

Role of A site in protein synthesis

Back 508

A site holds incoming Aminoacyl tRNA.

Front 509

Hunter's Syndrome vs Hurler's Syndrome: Aggressive behavior?

Back 509

Hunter's: Yes, Hurler's: No

Front 510

Where in the electron transport chain do NADH and FADH2 release their electrons?

Back 510

Complex I

Front 511

Refsum Disease: Pathophysiology

Back 511

Inability to degrade phytanic acid, resulting in accumulation in plasma and tissues

Front 512

What is this molecule an activated carrier of?: Coenzyme A

Back 512

Acyl

Front 513

What are the rate limiting steps of glycolysis?

Back 513

1. Hexokinase (Glucose to G-6-P) 2. *Phosphofructokinase-1 (Fructose-6-P to Fructose-1,6-BP) 3. Pyruvate kinase (PEP to Pyruvate)

Front 514

What inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase?

Back 514

1. NADH; 2. ATP; 3. Acetyl CoA

Front 515

Where does the pentose phosphate pathway happen?

Back 515

Cytoplasm of Red Blood Cells, and in lactating mammary glands, liver, and adrenal cortex (all sites of fatty acid or steroid synthesis except RBCs)

Front 516

What is rotenone?

Back 516

An electron transport inhibitor.

Front 517

Phosphofructokinase-1: What inhibits it?

Back 517

ATP, Citrate

Front 518

What activated carriers carry: Acyl

Back 518

1. Coenzyme A 2. Lipoamide

Front 519

What toxin inhibits lipoic acid?

Back 519

Arsenic

Front 520

What are the requirements of PEP carboxykinase?

Back 520

GTP

Front 521

What are the main products of the pentose phosphate shunt and their uses?

Back 521

1. NADPH (for fatty acid and steroid synthesis) 2. Ribose-5-phosphate (for nucleotide synthesis) 3. G3P and F6P (glycolytic intermediates)

Front 522

Chondroitin Sulfate: Where found?/Distinguishing characteristic from other GAGs

Back 522

Cartilage, tendons, ligaments, aorta. Most abundant GAG in body.

Front 523

Keratan Sulfate: Where found?/Distinguishing characteristic from other GAGs

Back 523

Found in cartilage proteoglycan aggregates with chondroitin sulfate, and in cornea. Most heterogeneous GAG.

Front 524

What are Aschoff Bodies?

Back 524

Central fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by reactive histiocytes

Front 525

Where is the murmur best heard for patent ductus arteriosus?

Back 525

Between the shoulder blades

Front 526

What are two common findings in myocarditis?

Back 526

Aschoff bodies Anitschkow Cells the two Russians

Front 527

What organism is involved in Rheumatic Fever?

Back 527

Group A Strept Step. pyogenes

Front 528

What are five signs of Rheumatic fever?

Back 528

Carditis, Migratory polyarthritis, Subcutaneous Nodules, Erythema Marginatum, Sydenham's Chorea

Front 529

What are the three A's in Atrial Septal Defects?

Back 529

Adults, Alcohol Fetal Syndrome, ALL from Down Syndrome

Front 530

What two diseases have Mitral Valve Prolapse?

Back 530

Marfan's Syndrome and Ehlers Danlos

Front 531

What two diseases are involved w/ mucin-producing sterile vegetations?

Back 531

tumors of colon and pancreas Marantic vegetations

Front 532

What other pathogens cause myocarditis?

Back 532

Borrelia (Lyme Dz), T. cruzi (Chagas), Tichinella spiralis (trichinosis)

Front 533

What is the genetic problem in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

Back 533

mutation in heavy chain of beta-myosin and troponins [AD]

Front 534

What is the MC site of metastasis to cardiac tissue?

Back 534

pericardium

Front 535

What disease is associated with cardiac rhabdomyoma?

Back 535

Tuberous Sclerosis

Front 536

What is the pathogenesis of mitral valve prolapse?

Back 536

increase/accumulation of dermatan sulfate

Front 537

Classic Finding for: Soap bubble on x-ray

Back 537

Giant cell tumor of bone

Front 538

Classic Finding for: Cotton-wool spots

Back 538

Chronic hypertension

Front 539

Classic Finding for: Recurrent pulmonary Pseudomonas and S. aureus infections

Back 539

Cystic fibrosis

Front 540

Classic Finding for: Birbeck granules on EM

Back 540

Histiocytosis X (eosinophilic granuloma)

Front 541

Classic Finding for: Pseudorosettes

Back 541

Ewing's sarcoma

Front 542

Classic Finding for: Trousseau's sign

Back 542

Visceral cancer, pancreatic adenocarcinoma (migratory thrombophlebitis), hypocalcemia (carpal spasm)

Front 543

Classic Finding for: Wallenberg's syndrome

Back 543

Posterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery thrombosis

Front 544

Classic Finding for: Cerebriform nuclei

Back 544

Mycosis fungoides (cutaneous T-cell lymphoma)

Front 545

Classic Finding for: Rotor's syndrome

Back 545

Congenital conjugated hyperbilirubinemia

Front 546

Classic Finding for: Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules

Back 546

Diabetic nephropathy

Front 547

Classic Finding for: Call-Exner bodies

Back 547

Granulosa-theca cell tumor of the ovary

Front 548

Classic Finding for: Nephritis + cataracts + hearing loss

Back 548

Alport's syndrome

Front 549

Classic Finding for: Arnold-Chiari malformation

Back 549

Cerebellar tonsillar herniation

Front 550

Classic Finding for: Baker's cyst in popliteal fossa

Back 550

Rheumatoid arthritis

Front 551

Classic Finding for: Hypertension + hypokalemia

Back 551

Conn's syndrome

Front 552

Classic Finding for: Diabetes insipidus + exophthalmos + lesions of the skull

Back 552

Hand–Schüller–Christian disease (multifocal Langerhans cell histiocytosis)

Front 553

Classic Finding for: Reinke crystals

Back 553

Leydig cell tumor

Front 554

Classic Finding for: Reid index (increased)

Back 554

Chronic bronchitis

Front 555

Classic Finding for: von Recklinghausen's disease of bone

Back 555

Osteitis fibrosa cystica (?brown tumor?)

Front 556

Classic Finding for: Russell bodies

Back 556

Multiple myeloma

Front 557

Classic Finding for: Schiller-Duval bodies

Back 557

Yolk sac tumor

Front 558

Classic Finding for: Sulfur granules

Back 558

Actinomyces israelii

Front 559

Classic Finding for: Gilbert's syndrome

Back 559

Benign congenital unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia

Front 560

Classic Finding for: Lewy bodies

Back 560

Parkinson's disease

Front 561

Classic Finding for: Renal cell carcinoma + cavernous hemangiomas + adenomas

Back 561

von Hippel-Lindau disease

Front 562

Classic Finding for: Eburnation

Back 562

Osteoarthritis (polished, ivory-like appearance of bone)

Front 563

Classic Finding for: Arachnodactyly

Back 563

Marfan's syndrome

Front 564

Classic Finding for: Pannus

Back 564

Rheumatoid arthritis

Front 565

Classic Finding for: Mallory bodies

Back 565

Alcoholic liver disease

Front 566

Classic Finding for: MLF syndrome (INO)

Back 566

Multiple sclerosis

Front 567

Classic Finding for: "Smudge cell"

Back 567

CLL

Front 568

Classic Finding for: Pick bodies

Back 568

Pick's disease

Front 569

Classic Finding for: Hyperphagia + hypersexuality + hyperorality + hyperdocility

Back 569

Klüver–Bucy syndrome (amygdala)

Front 570

Classic Finding for: Owl's eye

Back 570

CMV

Front 571

Classic Finding for:Klüver–Bucy syndrome

Back 571

Bilateral amygdala lesions

Front 572

Classic Finding for: Crigler-Najjar syndrome

Back 572

Congenital unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia

Front 573

Classic Finding for: Job's syndrome

Back 573

Neutrophil chemotaxis abnormality

Front 574

Classic Finding for: Spike and dome on EM

Back 574

Membranous glomerulonephritis

Front 575

Classic Finding for: Shwartzman reaction

Back 575

Neisseria meningitidis

Front 576

Classic Finding for: Charcot's triad

Back 576

Multiple sclerosis (nystagmus, intention tremor, scanning speech), cholangitis (jaundice, RUQ pain, fever)

Front 577

Classic Finding for: Bartter's syndrome

Back 577

Hyperreninemia

Front 578

Classic Finding for: Bernard-Soulier disease

Back 578

Defect in platelet adhesion

Front 579

Classic Finding for: Hand–Schüller–Christian disease

Back 579

Chronic progressive histiocytosis

Front 580

Classic Finding for: Gaucher's disease

Back 580

Glucocerebrosidase deficiency

Front 581

Classic Finding for: Homer Wright rosettes

Back 581

Neuroblastoma

Front 582

Classic Finding for: Brushfield's spots

Back 582

Down syndrome

Front 583

Classic Finding for: "Brown tumor" of bone

Back 583

Hemorrhage causes brown color of osteolytic cysts: 1. Hyperparathyroidism 2. Osteitis fibrosa cystica (von Recklinghausen's disease)

Front 584

Classic Finding for: Negri bodies

Back 584

Rabies

Front 585

Classic Finding for: Wermer's syndrome

Back 585

MEN type I

Front 586

Classic Finding for: Sipple's syndrome

Back 586

MEN type IIa

Front 587

Classic Finding for: Bouchard's nodes

Back 587

Osteoarthritis (PIP swelling 2º to osteophytes)

Front 588

Classic Finding for: Subepithelial humps on EM

Back 588

Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis

Front 589

Classic Finding for: Caisson disease

Back 589

Gas emboli

Front 590

Classic Finding for: Charcot-Leyden crystals

Back 590

Bronchial asthma (eosinophil membranes)

Front 591

Classic Finding for: Sézary's syndrome

Back 591

Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma

Front 592

Classic Finding for: Cowdry type A bodies

Back 592

Herpesvirus

Front 593

Classic Finding for: Fanconi's syndrome

Back 593

Proximal tubular reabsorption defect

Front 594

Classic Finding for: Intussusception

Back 594

Adenovirus (causes hyperplasia of Peyer's patches)

Front 595

Classic Finding for: Boutonniere deformity

Back 595

Rheumatoid arthritis

Front 596

Classic Finding for: Lisch nodules

Back 596

Neurofibromatosis (von Recklinghausen's disease)

Front 597

Classic Finding for: von Recklinghausen's disease

Back 597

Neurofibromatosis with Café au lait spots

Front 598

Classic Finding for: Xerostomia + arthritis + keratoconjunctivitis sicca

Back 598

Sjögren's syndrome

Front 599

Classic Finding for: Suboccipital lymphadenopathy

Back 599

Rubella

Front 600

Classic Finding for: Albuminocytologic dissociation

Back 600

Guillain–Barré syndrome (↑ protein in CSF with only modest ↑ in cell count)

Front 601

Classic Finding for: Heberden's nodes

Back 601

Osteoarthritis (DIP swelling 2º to osteophytes)

Front 602

Classic Finding for: HbF

Back 602

Thalassemia major

Front 603

Classic Finding for: Donovan bodies

Back 603

Granuloma inguinale

Front 604

Classic Finding for: Howell-Jolly bodies

Back 604

Splenectomy (or nonfunctional spleen)

Front 605

Classic Finding for: Curschmann's spirals

Back 605

Bronchial asthma (whorled mucous plugs)

Front 606

Classic Finding for: Councilman bodies

Back 606

Toxic or viral hepatitis

Front 607

Classic Finding for: Cold agglutinins

Back 607

Mycoplasma pneumoniae, infectious mononucleosis

Front 608

Classic Finding for: Albright's syndrome

Back 608

Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, precocious puberty, Café au lait spots, short stature, young girls

Front 609

What four things arise from surface ectoderm?

Back 609

1. Adenohypophysis, 2. Lens of eye, 3. Epithelial linings, 4. Epidermis

Front 610

What ear muscle does the 1st branchial arch form?

Back 610

Tensor tympani

Front 611

What four structures make up the diaphragm?

Back 611

1.Septum transversum; 2.Pleuroperitoneal folds; 3.Body wall; 4.Dorsal mesentery of esophagus

Front 612

Does the serous linings of body cavities arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 612

Mesoderm

Front 613

What is the male homologue to the greater vestibular glands (of Bartholin) in the female?

Back 613

Bulbourethral glands (of Cowper)

Front 614

What are the 4th and 6th branchial arch derivatives innervated by?

Back 614

CN X

Front 615

What is the female homologue to the ventral shaft of the penis in the male?

Back 615

Labia minora

Front 616

The right common cardinal vein and right anterior cardinal vein give rise to what adult heart structure?

Back 616

Superior vena cava

Front 617

What are the 1st branchial arch derivatives innervated by?

Back 617

CN V2 and V3

Front 618

Which muscles (8) are derivatives of the 1st branchial arch?

Back 618

-Temporalis-Masseter-Lateral pterygoid-Medial pterygoid-Mylohyoid-Anterior belly of digastric-Tensor tympani-Tensor veli palatini

Front 619

Which two embryonic tissues are branchial arches derived from?

Back 619

Mesoderm and neural crests

Front 620

Which week of fetal development have the genitalia taken on male/female characteristics?

Back 620

Week 10

Front 621

What is oligohydramnios?

Back 621

Less than 0.5 L of amniotic fluid

Front 622

Which branchial arch does Meckel's cartilage develop from?

Back 622

1st arch

Front 623

What suppresses the development of the paramesonephric ducts in males?

Back 623

Mullerian inhibiting substance (secreted by the testes)

Front 624

How does a cleft lip form?

Back 624

Failure of fusion of the maxillary and medial nasal processes

Front 625

Does the pia arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 625

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Front 626

When do primary oocytes begin meiosis I?

Back 626

During fetal life

Front 627

Which branchial arch forms the incus and malleus of the ear?

Back 627

1st arch

Front 628

Which pharyngeal arch does Reichert's cartilage develop from?

Back 628

2nd arch

Front 629

Is a secondary spermatocyte N or 2N?

Back 629

2N

Front 630

What five things arise from neuroectoderm?

Back 630

-Neurohypophysis-CNS neurons-Oligodendrocytes-Astrocytes-Pineal gland

Front 631

What is polyhydramnios?

Back 631

Greater than 1.5-2 L of amniotic fluid

Front 632

Meiosis II is arrested in which phase until fertilization?

Back 632

Metaphase (an egg MET a sperm)

Front 633

What is a urachal cyst or sinus a remnant of?

Back 633

The allantois

Front 634

What is associated with an epispadias?

Back 634

Exstrophy of the bladder

Front 635

What is the normal remnant of the thyroglossal duct?

Back 635

Foramen cecum

Front 636

What is the flagellum (tail) derived from?

Back 636

One of the centrioles

Front 637

What are the cartilage derivatives (5) of the 4th and 6th branchial arches?

Back 637

-Thyroid-Cricoid-Arytenoids-Corniculate-Cuneiform

Front 638

What four things does Reichert's cartilage (from the 2nd arch) develop into?

Back 638

-Stapes-Styloid process-Lesser horn of hyoid-Stylohyoid ligament

Front 639

What four things does the dorsal pancreatic bud become?

Back 639

Body, Tail, Isthmus, and Accessory Pancreatic Duct

Front 640

From what does the ligamentum teres hepatis arise?

Back 640

Umbilical vein

Front 641

What does the 5th pharyngeal pouch develop into?

Back 641

C cells of the thyroid

Front 642

How long does full development of spermatogenesis take?

Back 642

2 months

Front 643

What induces the ectoderm to form the neuroectoderm (neural plate)?

Back 643

Notochord

Front 644

What fetal landmark has occurred within week 3 of fertilization?

Back 644

Gastrulation

Front 645

Which muscles (4) are derivatives of the 2nd branchial arch?

Back 645

-Muscles of facial expression-Stapedius-Stylohyoid-Posterior belly of digastric

Front 646

What is the female homologue to the corpus spongiosum in the male?

Back 646

Vestibular bulbs

Front 647

Do the urogenital structures arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 647

Mesoderm

Front 648

Is a spermatid haploid or diploid?

Back 648

Haploid, N

Front 649

What four things does the mesonephric (wolffian) duct develop into?

Back 649

-Seminal vesicles-Epididymis-Ejaculatory duct-Ductus deferens

Front 650

Is a speratogonium haploid or diploid?

Back 650

Diploid, 2N

Front 651

What type of twins would have 2 amniotic sacs and 2 placentas?

Back 651

Monozygotic or dizygotic twins

Front 652

What three things does the paramesonephric (mullerian) duct develop into?

Back 652

-Fallopian tube-Uterus-Part of the vagina

Front 653

What does the 4th pharyngeal pouch develop into?

Back 653

Superior parathyroids

Front 654

What connects the thyroid diverticulum to the tongue?

Back 654

The thyroglossal duct

Front 655

What type of twins would have 1 placenta, 2 amniotic sacs, and 1 chorion?

Back 655

Monozygotic twins

Front 656

How does a cleft palate form?

Back 656

Failure of fusion of the lateral palatine processes, the nasal septum, and/or the median palatine process

Front 657

When does fetal erythropoiesis occur in the liver?

Back 657

Weeks 6-30

Front 658

Which two branchial arches form the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?

Back 658

3rd and 4th arches

Front 659

What is the male homologue to the glans clitoris in the female?

Back 659

Glans penis (all from Genital tubercle)

Front 660

Which muscles are derivatives of the 6th branchial arch?

Back 660

All intrinsic muscles of the larynx, except the cricothyroid

Front 661

Is a secondary spermatocyte haploid or diploid?

Back 661

Haploid, 2N

Front 662

What does the 6th aortic arch give rise to?

Back 662

The proximal part of the pulmonary arteries and (on left only) ductus arteriosus

Front 663

What does the ligamentum venosum come from?

Back 663

Ductus venosus

Front 664

What is the female homologue to the scrotum in the male?

Back 664

Labia majora (all from Labioscrotal swelling)

Front 665

What four things does Meckel's cartilage (from the 1st arch) develop into?

Back 665

-Mandible-Malleus-Incus-Sphenomandibular ligament

Front 666

Which branchial arch forms the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

Back 666

1st arch

Front 667

What does aberrant development of the 3rd and 4th pouches cause?

Back 667

DiGeorge's syndrome

Front 668

What is the food supply of sperm?

Back 668

Fructose

Front 669

What embryonic structure are the smooth parts of the left and right ventricle derived from?

Back 669

Bulbus cordis

Front 670

What embryonic structure does the coronary sinus come from?

Back 670

Left horn of the sinus venosus

Front 671

Which ear bone(s) does the 2nd branchial arch form?

Back 671

Stapes

Front 672

What is the female homologue to the prostate gland in the male?

Back 672

Urethral and paraurethral glands (of Skene)

Front 673

What fetal landmark has developed within week 2 of fertilization?

Back 673

Bilaminar disk

Front 674

What does the right 4th aortic arch give rise to?

Back 674

Proximal part of the right subclavian artery

Front 675

What does the 2nd pharyngeal pouch develop into?

Back 675

Epithelial lining of the palantine tonsils

Front 676

Does the thyroid arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 676

Endoderm

Front 677

What three things does the ventral pancreatic bud become?

Back 677

-Pancreatic head-uncinate process-main Pancreatic duct

Front 678

What does the thyroid diverticulum arise from?

Back 678

The floor of the primitive pharynx

Front 679

What is the acrosome of sperm derived from?

Back 679

Golgi apparatus

Front 680

Meiosis I is arrested in which phase until ovulation?

Back 680

Prophase

Front 681

When do primary oocytes complete meiosis I?

Back 681

Just prior to ovulation

Front 682

What can be found in the medulla of the thymus?

Back 682

It is pale with mature T cells, epithelial reticular cells, and Hassall's corpuscles

Front 683

What does the first branchial cleft develop into?

Back 683

The external auditory meatus

Front 684

The stapedius muscle of the ear is formed by which branchial arch?

Back 684

2nd

Front 685

Which muscles (3) are derivatives of the 4th branchial arch?

Back 685

-Most pharyngeal constrictors-Cricothyroid-Levator veli palatini

Front 686

Where does positive and negative selection occur in the thymus?

Back 686

At the corticomedullary junction

Front 687

Does the adrenal cortex arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 687

Mesoderm

Front 688

What does the 5th aortic arch give rise to?

Back 688

Nothing

Front 689

What teratogenic agent causes limb defects ('flipper' limbs)?

Back 689

Thalidomide

Front 690

Which branchial arch are the greater horn of hyoid and the stylopharyngeus muscle derived from?

Back 690

3rd branchial arch

Front 691

What does the 3rd aortic arch give rise to?

Back 691

Common carotid artery and proximal part of the internal carotid artery

Front 692

What does the umbilical arteries give rise to?

Back 692

Medial umbilical ligaments

Front 693

What fetal landmarks (2) have developed within week 3 of fertilization?

Back 693

Primitive streak and neural plate begin to form

Front 694

Does the dura connective tissue arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 694

Mesoderm

Front 695

Does the parathyroid arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 695

Endoderm

Front 696

What type of bone formation is spontaneous without preexisting cartilage?

Back 696

Intramembranous

Front 697

Do the odontoblasts arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 697

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Front 698

Do the parafollicular (C) cells of the thyroid arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Back 698

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Front 699

What developmental contributions does the 5th branchial arch make?

Back 699

None

Front 700

Which aortic arch does the stapedial artery and the hyoid artery come from?

Back 700

2nd aortic arch

Front 701

What is Meckel's diverticulum?

Back 701

Persistence of the vitelline duct or yolk sac

Front 702

What are the 3rd branchial arch derivatives innervated by?

Back 702

CN IX

Front 703

What embryonic structure does the median umbilical ligament come from?

Back 703

Allantois (urachus)

Front 704

What fetal landmark has occurred within week 1 of fertilization?

Back 704

Implantation

Front 705

What can a persistent cervical sinus lead to?

Back 705

A branchial cyst in the neck

Front 706

What effect does 13-cis-retinoic acid have on the fetus?

Back 706

Extremely high risk for birth defects

Front 707

Is a primary spermatocyte haploid or diploid?

Back 707

Diploid, 4N

Front 708

What do the 2nd - 4th branchial clefts form, which are obliterated by proliferation of the 2nd arch mesenchyme?

Back 708

Temporary cervical sinuses

Front 709

What three things does the 1st pharyngeal pouch develop into?

Back 709

-Middle ear cavity-Eustachian tube-Mastoid air cells

Front 710

What is produced by delta cells of the Islets of Langerhans?

Back 710

delta cells produce somatostatin.

Front 711

IN what area of the spleen are B cells found?

Back 711

B cells are found within the white pulp of the spleen.

Front 712

What is the space of Disse?

Back 712

Pores in liver sinusoids allowing plasma macromolecules access to liver cell surfaces.

Front 713

What is the most common organism causes esophagitis?

Back 713

Candida

Front 714

What is the function of liver sinusoids?

Back 714

Allow macromolecules of plasma full access to surface of liver cells through space of Disse.

Front 715

What part of the stomach is affected by pernicious anemia?

Back 715

Body and Fundus

Front 716

Why is myasthemia gravis on the upper esophagus?

Back 716

Upper 1/3 of esophagus is striated muscle

Front 717

What is the most common congenital esophageal disorder?

Back 717

Tracheoesophageal fistula

Front 718

What is the pathogenesis of achalasia?

Back 718

Failure of relaxation of LES sphincter

Front 719

What is weakness in the esophageal wall called?

Back 719

Zenker's Diverticulum

Front 720

What is the name of the RUPTURE of the DISTAL esophagus?

Back 720

Boerhaave's Sx

Front 721

Why is there black melena?

Back 721

Acid acts on HB and converts it into Hematin;Hematin is black pigment that stains fecal matter

Front 722

What is a picture of a stomach that is really hard petrified almost?

Back 722

Linitis plastica; Stomach Cancer diffuse type

Front 723

What is the MC extranodal site of extranodal lymphoma?

Back 723

stomach

Front 724

What is the 2nd MC extranodal site of extranodal lymphoma?

Back 724

peyer's patches

Front 725

What is the MC benign tumor of GI tract?

Back 725

Leiomyoma

Front 726

What is the MC location for Leiomyoma in GI tract?

Back 726

stomach

Front 727

What is the main symptom of leiomyoma?

Back 727

bleeding

Front 728

What is the best test to detect Celiac Dz?

Back 728

anti-gliadin Ab

Front 729

What is the pathology of Celiac Dz?

Back 729

Atrophy of villi in Duodenum and Jejunum

Front 730

What is the pathology of Whipple's Dz?

Back 730

blunting of villi in jejunum and ileum

Front 731

What is the best (cheapest) screening test to determine malabsorption problem?

Back 731

stool for fat

Front 732

What is the best test for invasive diarrhea?

Back 732

fecal leukocytes (+)

Front 733

What is the #1 organism in invasive enterocolitis?

Back 733

Campylobacter

Front 734

What diarrhea's are low volume?

Back 734

Invasive diarrhea

Front 735

What diarrhea is high volume?

Back 735

secretory and osmotic

Front 736

What is secretory diarrhea?

Back 736

high volume w/ osmolality similar to plasma

Front 737

What is osmotic diarrhea?

Back 737

high volume w/ osmolality lower than that of plasma

Front 738

What are some disease that cause secretory diarrhea?

Back 738

Vibrio cholerae (via adenylate cyclase); E. coli (via guanylate cyclase); Rotavirus, Carcinoid Sx

Front 739

Is there mucosal inflammation in secretory diarrhea?

Back 739

No mucosal inflammation

Front 740

What is the MCC of diarrhea, cholecystitis and pancreatitis in AIDS?

Back 740

Cytomelagolvirus (CMV)

Front 741

What is the MCC of diarrhea in AIDS?

Back 741

Cryptosporidium parvum

Front 742

What test is used to detect Cryptosporidium parvum?

Back 742

String Test

Front 743

What organism causes rectal prolapse in children?

Back 743

Trichuris trichura

Front 744

What is the Tx of Trichuris trichura?

Back 744

Albendazol

Front 745

What is the reservoir of diphyllobothrium latum?

Back 745

fish--- lake trout

Front 746

What is the Tx fro D. latum?

Back 746

praziquantel

Front 747

What is seen in the stool of Strongyloides stercoralis?

Back 747

rhabditiform larvae

Front 748

What parasite in the soil penetrates the skin?

Back 748

Strongyloides stercoralis

Front 749

What is the MCC of hematochezia?

Back 749

Diverticulosis

Front 750

What is the 2nd MCC of hematochezia?

Back 750

angiodysplasia

Front 751

What is associated w/ angiodysplasia?

Back 751

von Willebrand's Dz; Aortic Stenosis

Front 752

What is the MCC of iron deficiency in newborn?

Back 752

Mecke's Diverticulum; bleeding GI

Front 753

What disease has the term left sided apendicitis?

Back 753

sigmoid diverticula

Front 754

What is the MCC of fistulas in the GI tract?

Back 754

diverticula

Front 755

What is the MC fistula?

Back 755

Colovesical Fistula

Front 756

What layers does UC comprise?

Back 756

musocal and submucosal

Front 757

What is involved in Cronh's Dz in 80%?

Back 757

Terminal Ileum Affected

Front 758

What is the marker that the patient will recover from HBV?

Back 758

HBV-DNA poymerase leaves before HBsAg

Front 759

Markers for HBV infection is active?

Back 759

HBe and HBV-DNA antigens are excellent markers of infectivity

Front 760

What marker for HBV determines a chronic carrier?

Back 760

HBsAg for more than 6 months

Front 761

What is a healthy carrier?

Back 761

carries HBsAg but is negative for HBeAg/HBV-DNA

Front 762

What organism causes spontaneous peritonitis in adults?

Back 762

E. coli

Front 763

What organism causes spontaneous peritonitis in children?

Back 763

Step. pneumoniae

Front 764

What causes a single abscess in the right lobe of the liver?

Back 764

E. histolytica

Front 765

Tx for Hepatic Amebiasis?

Back 765

Metronidazole

Front 766

Who is the definitive host of Echinococcosis?

Back 766

Sheep Dog

Front 767

Humans are what type of host for Echinococcosis?

Back 767

intermediate host

Front 768

Tx for Echinococcosis?

Back 768

Albendazole

Front 769

What organism causes cholangiocarcinoma?

Back 769

Clonorchis sinensis

Front 770

What is the Tx of Clonorchiasis?

Back 770

Praziquantel

Front 771

What is the main characteristic in the laboratory of Clonorchiasis?

Back 771

Eosinophilia

Front 772

What parasite causes portal hypertension, hepatosplenomegaly, ascites and esophageal varices?

Back 772

Schistosomiasis

Front 773

What is the definitive host of Schistosoma mansoni?

Back 773

Snails

Front 774

Tx for Schistosomiasis?

Back 774

Praziquantel

Front 775

What is a cause of post-hepatic obstruction?

Back 775

1) Budd-Chiari syndrome 2) Polycythemia vera 3) Oral Contraceptives

Front 776

What is the MCC of post-hepatic obstruction?

Back 776

Polycythemia vera!

Front 777

Symmptoms of post-hepatic obstruction?

Back 777

1) painful liver 2) congested liver 3) ascites 4) portal hypertension

Front 778

What are dead hepatocytes called?

Back 778

Councilman Bodies

Front 779

When do we find Councilman Bodies?

Back 779

Hepatitis

Front 780

What alcoholic disease is irreversible?

Back 780

cirrhosis

Front 781

Are fatty change and alcoholic hepatitis reversible or irreversible?

Back 781

reversible

Front 782

What are the factors of Alcholo liver disease?

Back 782

1) amount of EtOH 2) duration of intake 3) more damage in females

Front 783

Where is the most important site of metabolism of EtOH in liver?

Back 783

cytosol

Front 784

Where is alcohol dehydrogenase found?

Back 784

in cytosol and mitochondria

Front 785

Why is there esteatosis in alcoholic patients?

Back 785

alcohol is converted to acetaldehyde and acetate and acetyl coA which makes free fatty acids - increase in NADH2 favors glycerol-3-p

Front 786

What is the sequence to make TG (VLDL) from 1,3 DPG?

Back 786

1,3 DPG to Glyceraldehyde-3-P to DHAP to Glycerol-3-P + FA makes TG

Front 787

Why is ketoacidosis sometimes present in alcoholics?

Back 787

NADH once again favors conversion of: Acetoacetate to B-Hydroxybutyrate (ketoacids)

Front 788

Why are alcoholics prone to gout?

Back 788

Ketoacids and Lactic Acid compete w/ uric acid for excretion in the kidneys; so Uric Acid Accumulates!

Front 789

What is the ratio of ALT and AST in alcoholics?

Back 789

AST > ALT

Front 790

What is seen in alcoholic hepatitis?

Back 790

mallory bodies

Front 791

What are the symptoms in obstructive jaundice?

Back 791

-hypercholesterolemia-light colored stools-urine w/conjugated bilirubin-increase alkaline phosphatase (AP) and gamma-glutamyltransferas (GGT)

Front 792

What are the symptoms of primary biliary cirrhosis?

Back 792

-pruritus-increase AP and GGT-no jaundice until later

Front 793

What disease causes primary slcerosing pericholangitis?

Back 793

ulcerative colitis

Front 794

What cancer is related to Primary sclerosing pericholangitis?

Back 794

MCC of cholangiocarcinoma

Front 795

Name drug that causes acute hepatitis? (4)

Back 795

1) Isoniazid 2) Halothane 3) acetaminophen 4) methyldopa

Front 796

Name two drugs that cause cholestasis?

Back 796

1) oral contraceptives 2) anabolic steroids

Front 797

What drugs cause steatosis? fatty liver? (2)

Back 797

1) Amiodarone 2) Methotrexate

Front 798

What drug causes fibrosis in the liver?

Back 798

methotrexate

Front 799

What drug causes angiosarcoma of the liver?

Back 799

Vinyl Chloride

Front 800

What drug causes Liver Cell Adenoma?

Back 800

Oral Contraceptives

Front 801

What drugs (3) causes hepatocellular carcinoma?

Back 801

1) Vinyl Chloride 2) Aflatoxin (Aspergillus mold) 3) Thorotrast

Front 802

Can O.C. cause hepatocellular CA?

Back 802

Yes

Front 803

What is fulminant hepatic failure (FHF)?

Back 803

acute liver failure w/ encephalopathy within 8 weeks of hepatic dysfunction

Front 804

What is the MCC of fulminant hepatic failure? (drug)

Back 804

acetaminophen

Front 805

What is the MCC of fulminant hepatic failure? (organism)

Back 805

virus

Front 806

Other cause of fulminant hepatic failure (except drug and organism)?

Back 806

Reye's Sx

Front 807

What are the laboratory findings of hemochromatosis?

Back 807

- increase serum iron - decrease TIBC - increase % saturation - increase serum ferritin

Front 808

What is the best screening test of hemochromatosis?

Back 808

increase serum ferritin

Front 809

What are the manifestations of hemochromatosis?

Back 809

- bronze skin - pancreas (malabsorption and DM) - restrictive cardiomyopathy - liver anormalities including hepatocellular CA in 30%

Front 810

What nuclei is attacked in Wilson's Dz?

Back 810

lenticular nuclei degeneration

Front 811

What are the symptoms of degeneration of the lenticular nuclei?

Back 811

-chorea-rigidity-basal ganglia dementia

Front 812

What part of the eye is affected w/ Kayser-Fleischer rings?

Back 812

outer part of decemet; cornea

Front 813

What disorder results from a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF)?

Back 813

Internuclear ophthalmoplegia (INO)

Front 814

If you break your medial epicondyle of the humerus, which nerve would likely injure?

Back 814

ulnar nerve

Front 815

What lobe of the brain is the principal sensory area in?

Back 815

parietal

Front 816

What nerve is known as the great extensor nerve?

Back 816

radial nerve

Front 817

What are the functions of the major structures of the inner ear bony labyrinth?

Back 817

1. Cochlea- hearing 2. vestibule- linear acceleration 3. semicircular canals- angular acceleration.

Front 818

What CNS/ PNS supportive cell has the following functions: phagocytosis?

Back 818

Microglia

Front 819

CN V2 passes through what 'hole'?

Back 819

foramen rotundum

Front 820

Name the thenar muscles

Back 820

--Opponens pollicis--Abductor pollicis brevis--Flexor pollicis brevis

Front 821

What gut regions and structures does the celiac artery supply?

Back 821

1.Foregut 2.--Stomach to duodenum --liver --gallbladder --pancreas

Front 822

The hippocampus has input from what two areas?

Back 822

Entorhinal cortex and Septal area

Front 823

What 3 muscles are lost in a lesion of the musculocutaneous nerve?

Back 823

coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, and brachialis

Front 824

Name 2 locations for lesions in Syringomyelia?

Back 824

ventral white commissure and ventral horns

Front 825

What layer of the peripheral nerve must be rejoined in microsurgery for limb reattachment?

Back 825

The perineurium must be rejoined in microsurgery for limb reattachment.

Front 826

What defect may predispose an infant for a diaphragmatic hernia?

Back 826

Defective development of the pleuroperitoneal membrane

Front 827

What 2 symptoms are seen with a lesion of the ulnar nerve?

Back 827

Weak intrinsic muscles of the hand and Pope's blessing

Front 828

What bone do all the foramina of the middle cranial fossa pass through?

Back 828

sphenoid bone

Front 829

What are the major structures of the inner ear membranous labyrinth?

Back 829

1. Cochlear duct 2. utricle. 3. saccule 4. semicircular canals.

Front 830

CN IX has what 4 functions?

Back 830

posterior 1/3 taste, swallowing, salivation (parotid), monitoring carotid body and sinus

Front 831

What is the consequence when your CNS stimulates the gamma motor neuron and the intrafusal fibers contract?

Back 831

increased sensitivity of the reflex arc

Front 832

What structures make up the bronchopulmonary segment?

Back 832

Tertiary bronchus, Bronchial artery, and Pulmonary artery

Front 833

Name the 4 foramina that are in the posterior cranial fossa?

Back 833

internal auditory meatus, jugular foramen, hypoglossal canal, and foramen magnum.

Front 834

The xiphoid process exists in what dermatome?

Back 834

T7

Front 835

What layers of the gut wall contribute to support (3)?

Back 835

--Serosa--Lamina propria--Submucosa

Front 836

The Nucleus Ambiguus has fibers from what 3 CNs?

Back 836

CN IX, X, XI

Front 837

What 4 structures pass through the jugular foramen?

Back 837

CN IX, X, XI(descending), jugular vein

Front 838

What would happen if you lesioned your ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus?

Back 838

have hyperphagia and become obese

Front 839

The umbilicus exists in what dermatome?

Back 839

T10

Front 840

What are the input and output of the anterior nucleus of the thalamus?

Back 840

input - mammillary body, output - cingulate gyrus

Front 841

What layers of the gut wall contribute to motility (4)?

Back 841

--Muscularis mucosae--Inner circular muscle layer--Myenteric plexus--Outer longitudinal muscle layer

Front 842

Brodmann's area 4 is?

Back 842

principal motor area

Front 843

What reflex is lost in a lesion of the musculocutaneous nerve?

Back 843

biceps reflex

Front 844

What structure passes through the foramen rotundum?

Back 844

CN V2

Front 845

What structures are in the carotid sheath?

Back 845

Internal Jugular Vein (lateral), Common Carotid Artery (medial) and Vagus Nerve (posterior)

Front 846

Common peroneal, Tibial, Femoral, and Obturator nerves arise from what spinal cord segments (4 answers)?

Back 846

--'L4-S2 (common peroneal) --L4-S3 (tibial) --L2-L4 (femoral) and (obturator)

Front 847

A lesion of the Striatum can cause which 2 diseases?

Back 847

Huntington's and Wilson's disease

Front 848

A lesion of the right optic tract produces?

Back 848

left homonymous hemianopsia

Front 849

An aneurysm of what artery may cause CN III palsy?

Back 849

posterior communicating artery

Front 850

Bell's Palsy is seen as a complication in what 5 things?

Back 850

AIDS, Lyme disease, Sarcoidosis, Tumors, Diabetes (ALexander Bell with STD)

Front 851

What two bones do all the foramina of the posterior cranial fossa pass through?

Back 851

temporal and occipital bones

Front 852

CN III has what 4 functions?

Back 852

eye movement, pupil constriction, accommodation, eyelid opening

Front 853

Brodmann's area 17 is?

Back 853

principal visual cortex

Front 854

What 5 types of cells make up the suportive cells of the CNS/PNS?

Back 854

Astrocytes, Microglia, Oligodendroglia, Schwann cells, Ependymal cells.

Front 855

CN VII has what 4 functions?

Back 855

facial movement, anterior 2/3 taste, lacrimation, salivation(SL, SM glands)

Front 856

Brodmann's area 41, 42 is?

Back 856

primary auditory cortex

Front 857

What nerve innervates the muscles that close and open the jaw?

Back 857

Trigeminal Nerve (V3)

Front 858

What muscle sensor senses tension and provides inhibitory feedback to alpha motor neurons?

Back 858

golgi tendon organs

Front 859

What is Endoneurium?

Back 859

Endoneurium invests single nerve fiber of the peripheral nerve.

Front 860

Give 4 characteristics of an UMN lesion.

Back 860

spastic paralysis, increased deep tendon reflexes, + Babinski, minor to no atrophy

Front 861

What CNS/ PNS supportive cell has the following functions: physical support, repair, K+ metabolism?

Back 861

Astrocytes

Front 862

What structures do the broad ligament contain (4)?

Back 862

Round ligaments of the uterus, Ovaries, Uterine tubules and Uterine vessels

Front 863

The Blood-Brain Barrier is formed by what 3 structures?

Back 863

Choriod Plexus Epithelium, Intracerebral Capillary Endothelium, Astrocytes

Front 864

Which thalamic nucleus has the function of body senses(proprioception, pressure, pain, touch, vibration)?

Back 864

Ventral Posterior Lateral Nucleus (VPL)

Front 865

Which way does the jaw deviate in a unilateral lesion (LMN) of CN V? (toward or away)

Back 865

toward the lesion

Front 866

How does the course of the left recurrent laryngeal nerve differ from that of the right?

Back 866

The left wraps around the arch of the aorta and the ligamentum arteriosum while the right wraps around the subclavian artery.

Front 867

Which thalamic nucleus has the function of facial sensation and pain?

Back 867

Ventral Posterior Medial Nucleus (VPM)

Front 868

What 3 muscles are lost in a lesion of the radial nerve?

Back 868

triceps brachii, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis longus

Front 869

Traction or tear of the superior trunk of the brachial plexus causes what syndrome?

Back 869

Erb-Duchenne palsy (waiter's tip)

Front 870

The central retinal artery is a branch off what larger artery?

Back 870

Ophthalmic Artery

Front 871

What nerve innervates most of the 'palat' muscles and which is the exception?

Back 871

All muscles with root 'palat' in their names (except tensor veli palatini, innervated by V2) are innervated by vagus nerve.

Front 872

What syndrome is seen with a lesion of the lower trunk of the brachial plexus?

Back 872

Claw hand

Front 873

Name two proteins involved in the structure of zona adherens?

Back 873

1. E-cadherins 2. actin filaments

Front 874

Golgi tendon organs send their signal via what nerve?

Back 874

group Ib afferents

Front 875

A pudendal nerve block is performed at what landmark?

Back 875

Ischial spine

Front 876

The male sexual response of ejaculation is mediated by what part of the nervous system?

Back 876

Visceral and somatic nerves

Front 877

Subarachnoid space extends to what spinal level?

Back 877

S2

Front 878

What part of the spinal cord is spared with complete occlusion of the ventral artery?

Back 878

dorsal columns

Front 879

What structure passes through the foramen ovale?

Back 879

CN V3

Front 880

What passes through the cavernous sinus? (nerves and artery)

Back 880

CN III, IV, V1, V2, VI, post-ganglionic SNS and the Internal carotid artery

Front 881

What syndrome is seen with a lesion of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus?

Back 881

Wrist drop

Front 882

CN I passes through what 'hole'?

Back 882

cribriform plate

Front 883

Where is the lesion in a patient with hemiballismus?

Back 883

Subthalamic nucleus

Front 884

Obturator nerve damage manifests what deficit?

Back 884

Loss of hip adduction

Front 885

What are the input and output of the mammillary body?

Back 885

input - hippocampal formation, output - anterior nucleus of the thalamus

Front 886

The male sexual response of erection is mediated by what part of the nervous system?

Back 886

Parasympathetic nervous system

Front 887

What is the name for the small muscle fiber type that regulates muscle length?

Back 887

Intrafusal fibers

Front 888

What 2 cutaneus nerves are lost in a lesion of the radial nerve?

Back 888

Posterior brachial cutaneous and posterior antebrachial cutaneous

Front 889

What vagal nuclei controls motor innervation to the pharynx, larynx, and upper esophagus?

Back 889

Nucleus Ambiguus (Motor=aMbiguus)

Front 890

What muscle fiber type makes up the muscle bulk and provides the force for contraction?

Back 890

Extrafusal fibers

Front 891

What symptom is seen with a lesion of the median nerve?

Back 891

decreased thumb function

Front 892

What muscle extorts, elevates, and adducts the eye?

Back 892

inferior oblique

Front 893

A lesion of the right visual fibers just prior to the visual cortex produces?

Back 893

left hemianopsia with macular sparing

Front 894

Which ligament contains the uterine vessels?

Back 894

Transverse cervical (cardinal) ligament

Front 895

From which 3 spinal roots does long thoracic nerve arises?

Back 895

C5, C6, C7

Front 896

Vertigo, ataxia, visual deficits, and coma are caused by stroke of the? (ant. circle or post. circle)

Back 896

Posterior circle

Front 897

What is affected in a central VII lesion (lesion above the facial nucleus - UMN)?

Back 897

paralysis of the contralateral lower quadrant

Front 898

What 4 areas is there decreased output in Parkinson's?

Back 898

substantia nigra pars compacta, globus pallidus, ventral anterior nucleus, cortex

Front 899

Where in the inner ear are the ampullae found? What is the function of this structure?

Back 899

Semicircular canals contain ampullae. Functions in detecting angular acceleration.

Front 900

General sensory/motor dysfunction and aphasia are caused by stroke of the? (ant. circle or post. circle)

Back 900

anterior circle

Front 901

What lesion produces sensory(fluent/receptive) aphasia with poor comprehension?

Back 901

Wernicke's area (associative auditory cortex)

Front 902

What is the membranous labyrinth filled with? Describe its composition.

Back 902

The membranous labyrinth is filled with endolymph. Endolymph is K+ rich, similar to ICF.

Front 903

What is a hiatal hernia?

Back 903

Stomach contents herniate upward through the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm

Front 904

What 2 spinal roots make up the superior trunk of the brachial plexus?

Back 904

C5, C6

Front 905

Give 3 charateristics of internuclear ophthalmoplegia (INO)

Back 905

medial rectus palsy on lateral gaze, nystagmus in abducted eye, normal convergence.

Front 906

What 4 movements are impaired in a lesion of the ulnar nerve?

Back 906

wrist flexion, wrist adduction, thumb adduction, and adduction of the 2 ulnar fingers

Front 907

In a lesion of the radial nerve, what muscle is associated with wrist drop?

Back 907

extensor carpi radialis longus

Front 908

Name two proteins involved in the structure of macula adherens.

Back 908

1. Desmoplakin 2.Keratin

Front 909

Intrafusal fibers are innervated by what motor neuron?

Back 909

gamma motor neuron

Front 910

If you break your surgical neck of the humerus, which nerve would likely injure?

Back 910

axillary nerve

Front 911

How are the fibers of the spinothalmic tract laminated? (sacral/cervical medial or lateral?)

Back 911

cervical-medial, sacral-lateral

Front 912

If you break your supracondyle of the humerus, which nerve would likely injure?

Back 912

median nerve

Front 913

Brodmann's area 22 is?

Back 913

Wernicke's area (associative auditory cortex)

Front 914

If you break your humerus mid-shaft, which nerve would likely injure?

Back 914

radial nerve

Front 915

Brodmann's area 6 is?

Back 915

premotor area

Front 916

What lesion produces coma?

Back 916

reticular activating system

Front 917

What artery do the lateral striate branch off of?

Back 917

internal carotid artery

Front 918

What artery does the anterior spinal artery branch off of?

Back 918

vertebral artery

Front 919

What 4 movements are lost in a lesion of the median nerve?

Back 919

forearm pronation, wrist flexion, finger flexion, and several thumb movements

Front 920

The infraorbital nerve is a branch off what larger nerve?

Back 920

CN V2

Front 921

What lesion produces spatial neglect syndrome?

Back 921

right parietal lobe -- contralateral neglect.

Front 922

What are the input and output of the entorhinal cortex?

Back 922

input - cingulate gyrus, output - hippocampal formation

Front 923

What are the input and output of the cingulate gyrus?

Back 923

input - anterior nucleus of the thalamus, output - entorhinal cortex

Front 924

Horner's Syndrome is present if the lesion in Brown-Sequard is above what level?

Back 924

T1

Front 925

What artery does the superior cerebellar artery branch off of?

Back 925

basilar artery

Front 926

An aneurysm of the anterior communicating artery may cause what type of defects?

Back 926

visual defects

Front 927

What part of pancreas are the Islets of Langerhans concentrated?

Back 927

Islets of Langerhans are most numerous in the tail of pancreas.

Front 928

Extrafusal fibers are innervated by what motor neuron?

Back 928

alpha motor neuron

Front 929

If the radial nerve is lesioned, what 2 reflexes are lost?

Back 929

triceps reflex and brachioradialis reflex

Front 930

Beginning with anterior communicating artery describe the path around the circle of Willis.

Back 930

ant. comm. - ACA - ICA - post. comm. - PCA - PCA - post. comm. - ICA - ACA - ant. comm.

Front 931

Where is the Submucosal plexus located?

Back 931

Between mucosa and inner layer of smooth muscle in GI tract wall.

Front 932

What happens if a swinging light test is performed on a Marcus Gann pupil (afferent pupil defect)?

Back 932

results in pupil dialation of the defective eye as the light is swung from the normal eye to the defective eye

Front 933

What syndrome is seen with a lesion of the radial nerve?

Back 933

Saturday night palsy

Front 934

What structures perforate the diaphragm at what vertebral levels?

Back 934

IVC at T8, Esophagus and Vagal trunks at T10, and Aorta, Thoracic duct, and Axygous vein at T12 ?I 8 10 Eggs At 12?

Front 935

What are the input and output of the septal area?

Back 935

input - hippocampal formation, output - hippocampal formation

Front 936

What vagal nuclei controls visceral sensory in formation like taste and gut distention?

Back 936

Nucleus Solitarius (Sensory=Solitarius)

Front 937

Where is the lesion in Parkinson's?

Back 937

Substantia nigra pars compacta

Front 938

What would happen to temperature regulation if you lesioned your posterior hypothalamus?

Back 938

lose the ability to conserve heat

Front 939

What CN arises dorsally?

Back 939

CN IV trochlear

Front 940

The male sexual response of emission is mediated by what part of the nervous system?

Back 940

Sympathetic nervous system

Front 941

Which thalamic nucleus is the primary motor cortex?

Back 941

Ventral Lateral Nucleus (VL)

Front 942

Which CNs pass through the middle cranial fossa?

Back 942

CN II - VI

Front 943

The inguinal ligament exists in what dermatome?

Back 943

L1

Front 944

The hippocampal formation is connected to the mammillary body and septal area via what structure?

Back 944

Fornix

Front 945

A lesion of the globus pallidus causes what disease?

Back 945

Wilson's disease

Front 946

What makes endolymph?

Back 946

Endolymph is made by the stria vascularis.

Front 947

What CNs lie medially at the brain stem?

Back 947

CN III, VI, XII (3 - 6 - 12)

Front 948

What do the medullary cords consist of?

Back 948

Closely packed lymphocytes and plasma cells.

Front 949

What 1 nerve root is assoc. with the biceps reflex?

Back 949

C5

Front 950

What are the major structures of the inner ear bony labyrinth?

Back 950

1. Cochlea 2. vestibule 3. semicircular canals

Front 951

What muscle opens the jaw?

Back 951

Lateral pterygoid

Front 952

Name 3 locations for lesions in Vit.B12 neuropathy(Friedreich's ataxia)?

Back 952

dorsal columns, lateral corticospinal tracts, and spinocerebellar tracts

Front 953

What are the 3 layers of peripheral nerves? (inner to outer)

Back 953

Endoneurium, Perineurium and Epineurium

Front 954

Neurons from the striatum have what action on the globus pallidus?

Back 954

Inhibitory

Front 955

Which thalamic nucleus has pre-motor function?

Back 955

Ventral Anterior Nucleus (VA)

Front 956

Erection and sensation of the penis is in what dermatomes?

Back 956

S2-S4

Front 957

Visual fibers from the lateral geniculate body terminate on the upper and lower banks of what fissure?

Back 957

Calcarine fissure

Front 958

What structure is in the femoral triangle but not in the femoral sheath?

Back 958

The Femoral nerve

Front 959

What 3 structures pass through the optic canal?

Back 959

CN II, ophthalmic artery, central retinal vein

Front 960

Neurons from the globus pallidus have what action on the ventral anterior nucleus?

Back 960

Inhibitory

Front 961

What lesion produces conduction aphasia, poor repetition w/ poor comprehension, and fluent speech?

Back 961

Arcuate fasiculus

Front 962

Name the type of movement with slow writhing movements (esp. the fingers)?

Back 962

Athetosis

Front 963

Which part of the cochlea picks up high frequency sound? Which picks up low frequency?

Back 963

The base of the cochlea picks up high frequency sound the apex picks up low frequency sound

Front 964

Name the hypothenar muscles.

Back 964

--Opponens digiti minimi--Abductor digiti minimi--Flexor digiti minimi

Front 965

What 1 nerve root is assoc. with the triceps reflex?

Back 965

C7

Front 966

What 2 spinal roots make up the inferior trunk of the brachial plexus?

Back 966

C8, T1

Front 967

What vagal nuclei sends parasympathetic fibers to the heart, lungs, and upper GI?

Back 967

dorsal motor nucleus of CN X

Front 968

A lesion of the right dorsal optic radiation (parietal lesion) produces?

Back 968

left lower quadrantic anopsia (a temporal lesion)

Front 969

Where in the inner ear are the maculae found? What is the function of this structure?

Back 969

The utricle and saccule contain maculae Functions in detecting linear acceleration.

Front 970

What is the function of hair cells?

Back 970

Hair cells are the sensory elements in both the cochlear and vestibular apparatus.

Front 971

The hippocampus has output to what two areas?

Back 971

Mammillary body and Septal area

Front 972

What type of lesion is seen in Werdnig-Hoffmann disease and is it genetic or acquired?

Back 972

genetic LMN lesion causing flaccid paralysis (aka. Floppy infant disease)

Front 973

The embryologic defect of having a cervical rib can compress what 2 structures?

Back 973

Subclavian artery and Inferior trunk of the brachial plexus

Front 974

Name the 4 ligaments of the uterus.

Back 974

--Suspensory ligament of ovaries--Transverse cervical (cardinal) ligament--Round ligament of Uterus--Broad ligament

Front 975

The Nucleus Solitarius has fibers from what 3 CNs?

Back 975

CN VII, IX, X

Front 976

What is Epineurium?

Back 976

Epineurium (dense connective tissue) surrounds entire nerve (fascicles and blood vessels)

Front 977

What 2 symptoms are seen with a lesion of the musculocutaneus nerve?

Back 977

Difficulty flexing the arm and Variable sensory loss

Front 978

Describe the outer structure of a Peyer's patch.

Back 978

A Peyer's patch is 'covered' by single layer of cuboidal enterocytes, interspersed with specialized M cells (no goblet cells).

Front 979

What muscle intorts, depresses, and abducts the eye?

Back 979

superior oblique

Front 980

A lumbar puncture is performed at what landmark?

Back 980

Iliac crest

Front 981

The recurrent laryngeal nerve arises from what cranial nerve and supplies what muscles?

Back 981

1.CN X 2.All intrinsic muscles of the larynx except the cricothyroid muscle.

Front 982

What spinal cord levels are vertebral disk herniation most likely to occur?

Back 982

Between L5 and S1

Front 983

What 4 'muscles' does the radial nerve innervate?

Back 983

Brachioradialis, Extensors of the wrist and fingers, Supinator, Triceps. (BEST)

Front 984

What nerve innervates most of the 'glossus' muscles and which is the exception?

Back 984

All muscles with root 'glossus' in their names (except palatoglossus, innervated by vagus nerve) are innervated by hypoglossal nerve.

Front 985

What muscular disorder is a medial longitudinal fasciculus syndrome associated with?

Back 985

Multiple Sclerosis (MLF=MS)

Front 986

Femoral nerve damage manifests what deficit?

Back 986

Loss of knee jerk

Front 987

What structures are pierced when doing an LP?

Back 987

1.Skin/superficial fascia 2.Ligaments 3.Epidural space 4.Dura mater 5.Subdural space 6.Arachnoid 7.Subarachnoid space--CSF

Front 988

How are the fibers of the corticospinal tract laminated? (legs/arms medial or lateral?)

Back 988

arms- medial, legs-lateral

Front 989

What 4 things do the lateral striate arteries supply?

Back 989

internal capsule, caudate, putamen, globus pallidus

Front 990

Why is the forearm pronated in Erb-Duchenne palsy?

Back 990

loss of the biceps brachii

Front 991

What is the most common circle of Willis aneurysm?

Back 991

anterior communicating artery

Front 992

What are 4 substances contained within the lysosomes of neutrophils?

Back 992

Hydrolytic enzymes, Lysozyme, Myeloperoxidase, Lactoferrin

Front 993

Which malaria is associated with nephrotic syndrome?

Back 993

P. malariae

Front 994

What is the most common malaria?

Back 994

Vivax

Front 995

Which malaria is the most lethal?

Back 995

Falciparum

Front 996

What specialized vascular structure is found in the lymph node paracortex? What is the function of this structure?

Back 996

Paracortex contains high endothelial venules (HEV). T and B cells enter from the blood through the HEV.

Front 997

What drug do you use for resistant falciparum?

Back 997

Mefloquine

Front 998

What does CD stand for?

Back 998

cluster of differentiation

Front 999

What are 3 morphological characteristics of monocytes?

Back 999

Large, Kidney-shaped nucleus and Extensive 'frosted glass' cytoplasm

Front 1000

What percentage of leukocytes exist as neutrophils in the blood?

Back 1000

40 - 75%

Front 1001

What leukemia has gum infiltration?

Back 1001

Acute Monocytic Leukemia (M5)

Front 1002

What are the substances contained within the densely basophilic granules of the basophil? (4)

Back 1002

-Heparin (anticoagulant)-histamine (vasodilator)-vasoactive amines-Slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis

Front 1003

How do you treat falciparum malaria infection?

Back 1003

IV quinidine or quinine plus doxycycline

Front 1004

What kind of cells are found nearby the sinusoids of the spleen?

Back 1004

Macrophages

Front 1005

What do medullary sinuses consist of?

Back 1005

Medullary sinuses contain reticular cells and macrophages.

Front 1006

What do medullary sinuses communicate with?

Back 1006

Medullary sinuses communicate with efferent lymphatics.

Front 1007

Describe the histologic structure of sinusoids of the spleen.

Back 1007

Long, vascular channels in red pulp. With fenestrated 'barrel hoop' basement membrane.

Front 1008

What is the importance of the physiologic chloride shift in erythrocytes?

Back 1008

Membranes contain the chloride bicarbonate antiport allowing the RBC to transport carbon dioxide from the the lung periphery for elimination.

Front 1009

What is the frequency of acute leukemias?

Back 1009

Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (M2) 30-40% Acute Promyelocytic (M3) 5-10%, Acute Monocytic (M5) 10%

Front 1010

What is the treatment for all malarias except falciparum?

Back 1010

Chloroquine plus primaquine

Front 1011

What percentage of leukocytes exist as eosinophils in the blood?

Back 1011

1 - 6%

Front 1012

What is the basic morphology of an eosinophil? (2 things)

Back 1012

Bilobate nucleus and Packed with large eosinophilic granules of uniform size

Front 1013

What percentage of leukocytes in blood are monocytes?

Back 1013

2 - 10%

Front 1014

What does the American variant involve? (Burkitt's)

Back 1014

GI, ovaries and retroperitoneum

Front 1015

What is the Starry Sky?

Back 1015

macrophages w/ phagocytosed apoptotic bodies

Front 1016

What are Reed-Sternberg Cells?

Back 1016

transformed germinal center B cells

Front 1017

What CD maker's do you use to detect RS cells?

Back 1017

CD15 and CD30;

Front 1018

What factor involved in extrinsic pathway?

Back 1018

VII

Front 1019

What factor involved in intrinsic pathway?

Back 1019

XII, XI, IX, VIII

Front 1020

What is the best test for vWF diases?

Back 1020

ristocetin cofactor assay

Front 1021

What function does SIS have?

Back 1021

GF synthesis, (Growth Factor)

Front 1022

What fx does ERB-B2 has?

Back 1022

Receptor Synthesis

Front 1023

What fx does ABL has?

Back 1023

Non-receptor TK activity

Front 1024

What fx does RET have?

Back 1024

Receptor Synthesis

Front 1025

What fx does MYC have?

Back 1025

Nuclear Transcription

Front 1026

What fx does N-MYC have?

Back 1026

Nuclear transcription

Front 1027

What fx does RAS has?

Back 1027

GTP signal transduction

Front 1028

What two POC have the same function of Receptor Synthesis?

Back 1028

ERB-B2 and RET

Front 1029

What two POC have the same fx of nuclear transcription?

Back 1029

c-MYC and N-MYC

Front 1030

What does SIS activate by?

Back 1030

Overexpression

Front 1031

What does ERB-B2 activate by?

Back 1031

Amplification

Front 1032

What does RET Activate by?

Back 1032

Point Mutation

Front 1033

What does RAS activate by?

Back 1033

Point Mutation

Front 1034

What does ABL activate by?

Back 1034

translocation t(9;22)

Front 1035

What does MYC activate by?

Back 1035

c-MYC translocation t(8;14)

Front 1036

What does N-MYC activate by?

Back 1036

Amplification

Front 1037

What two POC amplify by?

Back 1037

ERB-B2 and N-MYC

Front 1038

What two POC activate by point mutation?

Back 1038

RET and RAS

Front 1039

What two POC activate by translocation?

Back 1039

ABL and c-MYC

Front 1040

What virus is associated w/ SIS POC and w/ Osteogenic Sarcoma?

Back 1040

EBV

Front 1041

What POC amplifies breasts??? imagine that...

Back 1041

ERB-B2

Front 1042

What are the inactivation of suppressor genes?

Back 1042

TP53, RB, APC and BRCA1/2

Front 1043

What suppressor gene (SG) is associated w/ lung, colon, breast and Li-Fraumeni syndrome?

Back 1043

TP53

Front 1044

What SG is associated w/ breast, ovary and prostate CA?

Back 1044

BRCA 1, BRCA 2

Front 1045

What SG is associated w/ familial polyposis: color cancer?

Back 1045

APC

Front 1046

What is the function of TP53?

Back 1046

G1 to S phase inhibitor

Front 1047

What is the function of BRCA 1/2 gene?

Back 1047

Regulates DNA repair

Front 1048

What is the APC gene function?

Back 1048

Prevents nuclear transcription, - degrades catenin; an activator of nuclear transcription

Front 1049

What is the function of RB gene?

Back 1049

G1 to S phase inhibitor

Front 1050

What are the genes of anti-apoptosis?

Back 1050

BCL-2 genes

Front 1051

What is the function of BCL-2 genes?

Back 1051

prevents the leakage of cytochrome c (signal for apoptosis)

Front 1052

What disease is associated with BCL-2?

Back 1052

b-cell lymphoma, Follicular Lymphoma t14;18

Front 1053

What is another disease that involves TP53?

Back 1053

Ataxia Telangiectasia, susceptibility to malignant lymphoma

Front 1054

What virus is associated w/ TP53?

Back 1054

HBV and HTLV-1(T cell leukemia and lymphoma), HPV 16,18 HPV16 inhibits TP53, RB inhibited by HPV 18

Front 1055

What carcinogen is implicated with pancreatic adenocarcinoma, SCC of oropharynx and upper/mid esophagus?

Back 1055

Alcohol

Front 1056

What carcinogen is implicated with colorectal cancer?

Back 1056

Lithocholic acid and Secondary bile acid

Front 1057

What carcinogen is implicated with Lung CA? (4)

Back 1057

Uranium, Asbestos, Chromium, and Nickel

Front 1058

What carcinogen is implicated with breast cancer and cervical cancer?

Back 1058

Oral Contraceptives

Front 1059

What carcinogen is implicated with SCC of skin, lung CA, liver angiosacroma?

Back 1059

Arsenic

Front 1060

What carcinogen is implicated with TCC of bladder? (2)

Back 1060

cyclophosphamide and b-naphthylamine (dye and rubber indus.)

Front 1061

What carcinogen is implicated with acute leukemia?

Back 1061

benzene

Front 1062

What carcinogen is implicated with SCC of scrotum?

Back 1062

tar, soot, oil (chimney sweeper)

Front 1063

What carcinogen is implicated with malignant lymphoma?

Back 1063

Alkylating agents

Front 1064

What is the most common risk factor for larynx CA?

Back 1064

polycyclic HOC (hydrocarbons)

Front 1065

What is the most common risk factor for pancreas?

Back 1065

polycyclic HOC

Front 1066

What is the most common risk factor for breast CA?

Back 1066

Age >50, excess estrogen: 1) nulliparity 2) early menarche 3) late menopause 4) obesity

Front 1067

What is the most common risk factor for dysgerminoma/gonadoblastoma?

Back 1067

Turner Sx XO dysgerminoma XO/XY gonadoblastoma

Front 1068

What is the most common risk factor for surface derived ovarian CA?

Back 1068

nulliparity because of increase of ovulatory cycles

Front 1069

What is the most common risk factor for Malignant lymphoma thyroid?

Back 1069

Hashimoto's Thyroiditis

Front 1070

What is the most common risk factor for papillary CA of thyroid?

Back 1070

Ionization Radiation

Front 1071

What is the most common risk factor for medullary CA thyroid?

Back 1071

MEN IIa/IIb

Front 1072

What is the most common risk factor for Primary CNS lymphoma?

Back 1072

EBV in AIDS pat.

Front 1073

What activates the alternative complement pathway?

Back 1073

Microbe surface molecules (especially endotoxin)

Front 1074

What drug prevents mast cell degranulation?

Back 1074

Cromolyn sodium

Front 1075

What is the primary function of a basophil?

Back 1075

Mediates allergic reactions

Front 1076

What activates the classic complement pathway?

Back 1076

IgG and IgM GM makes classic cars

Front 1077

What releases Interferon gamma

Back 1077

Th1 cells (emphasized) and NK cells

Front 1078

What are released from the process of degranulation in mast cells?

Back 1078

Release of histamine, heparin, and eosinophil chemotactic factors

Front 1079

Innate immunity vs adaptive immunity: How are receptors that recognize pathogens encoded?

Back 1079

Innate: Germline encoded Adaptive: Undergo VDJ recombination during development

Front 1080

What is the primary phagocytic cell in acute inflammation?

Back 1080

Neutrophil

Front 1081

What percentage of T cells which enter thymus survive?

Back 1081

2%

Front 1082

Name 2 substances produced by an eosinophil.

Back 1082

histamine and arylsulfatase

Front 1083

What cell is the major mediator of the allergic response?

Back 1083

Basophil

Front 1084

What are the two types of helper T cells and where do they differentiate?

Back 1084

In the lymph node, helper T cells differentiate into Th1 cells, and Th2 cells.

Front 1085

What are 4 types of cells into which T cells differentiate?

Back 1085

Cytotoxic T cells (MHC I, CD8) , Helper T cells (MHCII, CD4) , Suppressor T cells , Delayed hypersensitivity T cells

Front 1086

What releases Tumor Necrosis Factor alpha

Back 1086

Macrophages (emphasized) and Th1 cells

Front 1087

What is the response of an eosiniphil to antigen antibody complexes?

Back 1087

high degree of phagocytosis

Front 1088

What substance in eosinophilic granules is mainly responsible for defense against helminths and protozoan?

Back 1088

Major Basic Protein

Front 1089

Where do positive and negative selection of T-cells occur in the thymus?

Back 1089

At the corticomedullary junction

Front 1090

MHC I and II: Where in the cell is antigen loaded onto the MHC?

Back 1090

I: RER (mostly intracellular peptides) II: Acidified endosome

Front 1091

Into what cell type does a monocyte differentiate in tissues?

Back 1091

macrophages

Front 1092

What releases Interleukin 2?

Back 1092

Th Cells

Front 1093

What is the function of IgA proteases?

Back 1093

Function: Allow some organisms to colonize mucosal surfaces

Front 1094

What is the function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Capsule

Back 1094

Function: Protects against phagocytosis Chemical composition: Polysaccharide (except Bacillus anthracis which contains D-glutamate)

Front 1095

What is the function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Cell Wall/Cell Membrane

Back 1095

Gram positives only Function: Major surface antigen Chemical composition: Teichoic acid, which induces TNF and IL-1

Front 1096

What does the capsule of Bacillus anthracis consist of?

Back 1096

D-glutamate

Front 1097

What is the mechanism of superantigens?

Back 1097

1. Bind directly to MHC II and T cell receptor 2. Large numbers of T cells are activated. 3. Stimulates release of IFN-gamma and IL-2

Front 1098

Which molecule, unique to the bacterial cell wall, provides rigid support and resistance against osmotic pressure?

Back 1098

Peptidoglycan

Front 1099

Which cell membrane structure is unique to gram-positive organisms?

Back 1099

Teichoic acid

Front 1100

What is the function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Peptidoglycan

Back 1100

Function: Rigid support and Protects against osmotic pressure Chemical composition: Sugar backbone with cross-linked peptide side chains

Front 1101

List of bugs that release superantigens

Back 1101

1. Staphylococcus aureus 2. Streptococcus pyogenes

Front 1102

What is the function and chemical composition of bacterial structure: Glycocalyx

Back 1102

Function: Mediates adherence to surfaces, especially foreign surfaces (eg indwelling catheters) Chemical composition: Polysaccharide

Front 1103

Which bacteria have IgA proteases?

Back 1103

1. Streptococcus pneumoniae 2. Neisseria meningitidis 3. Neisseria gonorrheae 4. Hemophilus influenzae

Front 1104

Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Treponema

Back 1104

Too thin to be visualized

Front 1105

Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Rickettsia

Back 1105

Intracellular parasite

Front 1106

Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Mycobacteria

Back 1106

high-lipid-content cell wall

Front 1107

Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Mycoplasma

Back 1107

No cell wall

Front 1108

Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Legionella pneumophila

Back 1108

Primarily intracellular

Front 1109

Why does the following bug not gram stain well?: Chlamydia

Back 1109

Intracellular parasite which lacks muramic acid in cell wall

Front 1110

How is the following bug visualized?: Treponema

Back 1110

1. Darkfield microscopy 2. Fluorescent antibody staining 3. silver stain

Front 1111

What to know about exotoxins released by Shigella

Back 1111

Shiga toxin (also produced by E.coli 0157:H7). Cleaves host cell rRNA. Also enhances cytokine release causing hemolytic uremic syndrome.

Front 1112

Endotoxin: What is it and where is it found?

Back 1112

Lipopolysaccharide found in the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria. Heat stable.

Front 1113

Endotoxin: What does it activate and what do they release?

Back 1113

1. Macrophages (IL-1, TNF, Nitric oxide) 2. Alternative complement pathway (C3a, C5a) 3. Hageman factor (Coagulation cascade)

Front 1114

What mediators are released when endotoxin activates macrophages, and what do they do?

Back 1114

1. IL-1: Fever 2. TNF: Fever and Hemorrhagic tissue necrosis 3. Nitric Oxide: Hypotension (shock)

Front 1115

What mediators are released when endotoxin activates the alternative complement cascade, and what do they do?

Back 1115

1. C3a: Hypotension and edema 2. C5a: Neutrophil chemotaxis

Front 1116

What mediators are released when endotoxin activates Hageman factor, and what do they do?

Back 1116

Coagulation cascade: Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy

Front 1117

What are the pigment producing bacteria and what pigments do they produce?

Back 1117

Staphylococcus aureus: Yellow pigment; Pseudomonas aeruginosa: blue-green pigment; Serratia marcescens: red pigment

Front 1118

Special culture requirements for: Hemophilus influenzae

Back 1118

Chocolate agar with factors V (NAD) and X (hematin)

Front 1119

Special culture requirements for: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Back 1119

Thayer-Martin media

Front 1120

Special culture requirements for: Bordetella pertussis

Back 1120

Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar

Front 1121

Special culture requirements for: M. tuberculosis

Back 1121

Lowenstein-Jensen agar

Front 1122

Special culture requirements for: Lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria

Back 1122

Pink colonies on MacConkey's agar

Front 1123

Special culture requirements for: Legionella

Back 1123

Charcoal yeast extract agar buffered with increased iron and cysteine

Front 1124

Special culture requirements for: Fungi

Back 1124

Sabouraud's agar

Front 1125

What microbes can be stained with: Giemsa's

Back 1125

1. Borrelia 2. Plasmodium 3. Trypanosomes 4. Chlamydia

Front 1126

What microbes can be stained with: periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)

Back 1126

Glycogen and mucopolysaccharides. Used to diagnose Whipple's disease

Front 1127

What microbes can be stained with: Ziehl-Neelsen

Back 1127

Acid-fast bacteria.

Front 1128

What microbes can be stained with: Silver stain

Back 1128

1. Fungi 2. PCP (Pneumocystis Pneumonia) 3. Legionella 4. Treponema

Front 1129

Name 4 lysogenic toxins.

Back 1129

BCDE 1. Botulinum 2. Cholera 3. Diphtheria 4. Erythrogenic toxin of Streptococcus Pyogenes

Front 1130

List four obligate aerobes.

Back 1130

Nocardia, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Bacillus

Front 1131

List 3 obligate anaerobes

Back 1131

Clostridium, Bacteroides, and Actinomyces

Front 1132

What enzymes do obligate anaerobes lack?

Back 1132

Catalase (aka glutathione peroxidase) AND/OR Superoxide dismutase (converts O2-radical[ie superoxide] to H2O2)

Front 1133

What do anaerobes produce in tissue?

Back 1133

CO2 and H2 gases

Front 1134

List the obligate intracellular bacteria.

Back 1134

Rickettsia and Chlamydia.

Front 1135

What is the defining characteristic of obligate intracellular bacteria.

Back 1135

Can't make their own ATP.

Front 1136

List the facultative intracellular bacteria.

Back 1136

Salmonella, Neisseria, Brucella, Mycobacterium, Listeria, Francisella, Legionella, Yersinia

Front 1137

List four major examples of encapsulated bacteria

Back 1137

1. Streptococcus pneumoniae 2. Hemophilus influenzae (especially B serotype) 3. Neisseria meningitidis 4. Klebsiella pneumoniae

Front 1138

In which vaccines does the capsule serve as an antigen?

Back 1138

Pneumovax, H influenzae B, Meningococcal vaccines

Front 1139

What does conjugation with protein do to vaccines that have a capsular antigen?

Back 1139

Increases the immunogenicity and T-cell dependent responce.

Front 1140

Which bacteria form spores?

Back 1140

Gram positive soil bugs (eg Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium perfringens, Clostridium tetani)

Front 1141

Which bacteria are beta-hemolytic?

Back 1141

Rods: Listeria monocytogenes Cocci:If catalase positive and coagulase positive: Staphylococcus Aureus, If catalase negative, Streptococcus.

Front 1142

What are the important points about Listeria monocytogenes?

Back 1142

1. Tumbling motility 2. Meningitis in newborns 3. Unpasteurized milk 4. endotoxin

Front 1143

Which antibody enhances host defenses against Streptococcus Pyogenes?

Back 1143

Antibody to M protein

Front 1144

Antibody to M protein enhances host defenses against what?

Back 1144

Streptococcus Pyogenes

Front 1145

How can one detect recent S. Pyogenes infection?

Back 1145

ASO titer

Front 1146

What drug resistances do the enterococci show?

Back 1146

1. Penicillin G 2. Ampicillin 3. Vancomycin

Front 1147

How are clostridia characterized?

Back 1147

1. Gram positive rods 2. Spore forming 3. Obligate anaerobes

Front 1148

Treatment for C. difficile infection

Back 1148

Metronidazole

Front 1149

Lab diagnosis basis for Cornyebacterium diphtheriae

Back 1149

Gram positive rods with metachromatic granules, grown on tellurite agar (aka Loffler's coagulated serum medium)

Front 1150

What organism: Development of flulike symptoms followed by fever, pulmonary hemorrhage and shock.

Back 1150

Inhalation anthrax: Bacillus anthracis

Front 1151

What organism: Oral or facial abscesses with yellow granules in sinus tracts

Back 1151

Actinomyces israelii

Front 1152

How is Nocardia asteroides characterized?

Back 1152

Gram-positive (weakly acid fast) rods forming long branching filaments resembling fungi (Actinomyces also has this description)

Front 1153

What disease state does Nocardia asteroides cause?

Back 1153

Pulmonary infection in immunocompromised patients

Front 1154

What bacteria genus can live in neutrophils?

Back 1154

Neisseria

Front 1155

What disease states does Gonococcus cause?

Back 1155

1. Gonorrhea 2. septic arthritis 3. neonatal conjunctivitis 4. PID

Front 1156

What disease states does Meningococcus cause?

Back 1156

1. Meningococcemia 2. Meningitis 3. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

Front 1157

What disease states does Haemophilus Influenzae cause?

Back 1157

1. Epiglottitis 2. Meningitis 3. Otitis media 4. Pneumonia

Front 1158

How is Haemophilus Influenzae characterized?

Back 1158

Small gram-negative coccoid rod.

Front 1159

Treatment for Haemophilus Influenzae meningitis

Back 1159

Ceftriaxone

Front 1160

What disease states does Klebsiella cause?

Back 1160

1. Pneumonia in alcoholics and diabetics (In the name: Klebsiella pneumoniae) 2. Nosocomial UTIs (large mucoid capsule and viscous colonies)

Front 1161

Orange sputum: What bugs?

Back 1161

1. Pneumococcus 2. Klebsiella (or described as ""red currant jelly sputum"")

Front 1162

Salmonella vs. Shigella: Lactose fermenter?

Back 1162

Neither

Front 1163

Salmonella vs. Shigella: Motile

Back 1163

Both (Though, the evidence that shigella is motile is recent.) Can invade and disseminate hematogenously.

Front 1164

Salmonella vs. Shigella: Animal reservoir

Back 1164

Salmonella: Yes Shigella: No

Front 1165

Shigella transmission

Back 1165

4 Fs:1. Food 2. Fingers 3. Feces 4. Flies

Front 1166

What type of inflammatory response is seen in Salmonellosis?

Back 1166

Monocytes

Front 1167

Transmission of Yersinia enterocolitica

Back 1167

1. Pet feces (eg puppies) 2. Contaminated milk or pork

Front 1168

Yersinia enterocolitica infection: Clinical presentation

Back 1168

1. Outbreaks are common in day-care centers 2. Can mimic Crohn's or appendicitis

Front 1169

What bug causes contamination of this food: Seafood

Back 1169

Vibrio: 1. parahaemolyticus 2. vulnificus

Front 1170

What bug causes contamination of this food: Reheated meat

Back 1170

Clostridium perfringens

Front 1171

Bloody or watery diarrhea: Vibrio parahaemolyticus

Back 1171

Either bloody or watery

Front 1172

Bloody or watery diarrhea: Campylobacter

Back 1172

Bloody

Front 1173

Bloody or watery diarrhea: Salmonella

Back 1173

Bloody

Front 1174

Bloody or watery diarrhea: Yersinia enterocolitica

Back 1174

Bloody

Front 1175

Bloody or watery diarrhea: C. difficile

Back 1175

Bloody

Front 1176

Bloody or watery diarrhea: Entamoeba histolytica

Back 1176

Bloody

Front 1177

Bloody or watery diarrhea: Enterotoxigenic E. coli

Back 1177

Watery

Front 1178

Bloody or watery diarrhea: C. perfringens

Back 1178

Watery

Front 1179

Bloody or watery diarrhea: Protozoa

Back 1179

Watery

Front 1180

Bloody or watery diarrhea: Viruses

Back 1180

Watery

Front 1181

Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with oxidase-positive comma or S-shaped organisms grown at 42 degrees celsius

Back 1181

Campylobacter

Front 1182

Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with motile, lactose negative gram negative bugs

Back 1182

Salmonella or Shigella

Front 1183

Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with schistocytes and azotemia

Back 1183

Enterohemorrhagic E coli (eg O157:H7) Caused by shiga-like toxin

Front 1184

Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with hemolytic uremic syndrome

Back 1184

Enterohemorrhagic E coli (eg O157:H7) Caused by shiga-like toxin

Front 1185

Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with pathologic section revealing bacteria invading colonic mucosa

Back 1185

Enteroinvasive E. coli

Front 1186

Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea with symptoms of appendicitis

Back 1186

Yersinia enterocolitica

Front 1187

Diagnosis: Bloody diarrhea in a day care center

Back 1187

Yersinia enterocolitica

Front 1188

Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea in someone who just visited Mexico

Back 1188

Enterotoxigenic E coli (no preformed toxin)

Front 1189

Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea in an immunocompromised patient

Back 1189

Protozoa (eg Giardia or Cryptosporidium)

Front 1190

Diagnosis: Watery diarrhea

Back 1190

Think viruses first. Rotavirus Adenovirus Norwalk virus

Front 1191

Difference between mechanisms of cholera and pertussis toxins

Back 1191

Cholera: Permanently activates Gs (turns the "on" on) Pertussis: Permanently disables GI (turns the "off"" ff)

Front 1192

What is edema factor?

Back 1192

A toxin in the Bacillus Anthracis exotoxin complex that functions as adenylyl cyclase

Front 1193

Describe Legionnaires' disease

Back 1193

Very high fever with severe pneumonia

Front 1194

Diagnosis: Pneumonia in a smoker >50 years of age. Gram stain of pus shows many neutrophils with few microbes.

Back 1194

Legionella

Front 1195

Which fungal infections are transmitted by inhalation of asexual spores?

Back 1195

1. Coccidioidomycosis 2. Histoplasmosis

Front 1196

What are conidia?

Back 1196

Asexual fungal spores

Front 1197

Histologic appearance of Candida Albicans

Back 1197

Budding yeast with pseudohyphae in culture at 20 degrees celsius Germ tube formation at 37 degrees celsius

Front 1198

What fungus is this area known for: Southern Ohio

Back 1198

Histoplasmosis

Front 1199

What fungus is this area known for: Southern Illinois

Back 1199

Histoplasmosis

Front 1200

What fungus is this area known for: Missouri

Back 1200

Histoplasmosis

Front 1201

What fungus is this area known for: Kentucky

Back 1201

Histoplasmosis

Front 1202

What fungus is this area known for: Tennessee

Back 1202

Histoplasmosis

Front 1203

What fungus is this area known for: Arkansas

Back 1203

Histoplasmosis

Front 1204

What fungus is this area known for: Mississippi river valley

Back 1204

Histoplasmosis (also Blastomycosis)

Front 1205

What fungus is this area known for: Ohio river valley

Back 1205

Histoplasmosis (also Blastomycosis)

Front 1206

What fungus is this area known for: Wisconsin

Back 1206

Blastomycosis

Front 1207

What fungus is this area known for: Minnesota

Back 1207

Blastomycosis

Front 1208

What do bird and bat droppings carry?

Back 1208

Histoplasmosis

Front 1209

What is cultured on Sabouraud's agar?

Back 1209

Fungi (specifically dimorphic fungi)

Front 1210

What disease state does Malassezia furfur cause?

Back 1210

Tinea versicolor: Hypopigmented skin lesions which occur in hot humid weather.

Front 1211

Treatment for Tinea versicolor

Back 1211

Topical miconazole or selenium sulfide (Selsun)

Front 1212

What disease state does Cladosporium werneckii cause?

Back 1212

Tinea nigra: Infection of keratinized layer of skin. Appears as brownish spot.

Front 1213

What causes Tinea versicolor?

Back 1213

Malassezia furfur

Front 1214

What causes Tinea nigra?

Back 1214

Cladosporium werneckii

Front 1215

Treatment for Tinea nigra

Back 1215

topical salicylic acid

Front 1216

What are the common dermatophytes and what do they cause?

Back 1216

Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton cause all the tineas except for versicolor and nigra

Front 1217

What causes Tinea unguium (onychomycosis)?

Back 1217

AKA Tinea onychomycosis. Dermatophytes (such as Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton)

Front 1218

Treatment for dermatophyte infection

Back 1218

1. Topical imidazoles 2. Oral griseofulvin (Tinea capitus and tinea unguium)

Front 1219

What causes a fungus ball?

Back 1219

Aspergillus

Front 1220

What disease states does Aspergillus cause?

Back 1220

1. Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis 2. Lung cavity aspergilloma 3. Invasive aspergillosis

Front 1221

What disease states does cryptococcus neoformans cause?

Back 1221

1. Cryptococcal meningitis 2. Cryptococcosis

Front 1222

How is cryptococcus neoformans stained?

Back 1222

1. India ink 2. Latex agglutination test for polysaccharide capsular antigen

Front 1223

Where is cryptococcus neoformans found?

Back 1223

Soil and pigeon droppings.

Front 1224

What is the histologic appearance of Mucor (Rhizopus) ?

Back 1224

Just like Rhizopus Mold with irregular, broad, empty looking, nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles (over 90 degrees)

Front 1225

Which patients are likely to have Mucor/Rhizopus?

Back 1225

1. Ketoacidotic diabetics 2. Leukemics

Front 1226

Where in the body does Mucor/Rhizopus proliferate?

Back 1226

1. Walls of blood vessels, causing infarction of distal tissue 2. Rhinocerebral frontal lobe abscesses

Front 1227

How is pneumocystis diagnosed?

Back 1227

Lung biopsy or lavage. Methenamine silver stain of lung tissue.

Front 1228

Treatment for pneumocystis

Back 1228

Combination of TMP-SMX, Pentamidine, and Dapsone.

Front 1229

Treatment for sporotrichosis

Back 1229

Itraconazole or potassium iodide

Front 1230

What disease states does Entamoeba histolytica cause?

Back 1230

1. Amebiasis 2. Bloody diarrhea (dysentery) 3. liver abscess 4. RUQ pain

Front 1231

What disease states does Giardia lamblia cause?

Back 1231

1. Giardiasis 2. Bloating 3. Flatulence 4. Foul-smelling diarrhea

Front 1232

What diseases are found in campers and hikers?

Back 1232

Yersinia pestis and Giardia lamblia

Front 1233

What disease states does Cryptosporidium cause?

Back 1233

Diarrhea 1. AIDS: Severe 2. Non-HIV: Mild watery

Front 1234

What disease states does Toxoplasma cause?

Back 1234

1. HIV: Brain abscess 2. Birth defects (ring-enhancing brain lesions)

Front 1235

What disease states does Leishmania donovani cause?

Back 1235

Visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar or black fever): fever, weight loss, anaemia and substantial swelling of the liver and spleen

Front 1236

What disease states does Naegleria cause?

Back 1236

Rapidly fatal meningoencephalitis

Front 1237

What disease states does Babesia cause?

Back 1237

Babesiosis: Fever and anemia

Front 1238

Which protozoa are transmitted by cysts?

Back 1238

1. Entamoeba histolytica 2. Giardia lamblia 3. Cryptosporidium 4. Toxoplasma All water cysts except Toxo (cysts in meat or cat feces)

Front 1239

Which protozoa are transmitted by swimming in freshwater lakes?

Back 1239

Naeglaria (via cribriform plate)

Front 1240

Which protozoa are transmitted by reduviid bug?

Back 1240

Trypanosoma cruzi (the enses are transmitted by the tsetses, cruzii by reduviid))

Front 1241

Which protozoa are transmitted by tsetse fly?

Back 1241

Trypanosoma gambiense and rhodesiense (the enses are transmitted by the tsetses, cruzii by reduviid))

Front 1242

Which protozoa are transmitted by sandfly?

Back 1242

Leishmania

Front 1243

Which protozoa are transmitted by ixodes tick?

Back 1243

Babesia

Front 1244

How do you diagnose: Entamoeba histolytica

Back 1244

1. Trophozoites or cysts in stool AND/OR 2. Serology

Front 1245

How do you diagnose: Cryptosporidium

Back 1245

Cysts on acid-fast stain

Front 1246

How do you diagnose: Toxoplasma

Back 1246

Serology, biopsy

Front 1247

How do you diagnose: Babesia

Back 1247

Blood smear, no RBC pigment, appears as ""maltese cross""

Front 1248

How do you diagnose: Leishmania

Back 1248

Macrophages containing amastigotes

Front 1249

How do you diagnose: Naegleria

Back 1249

Amebas in spinal fluid

Front 1250

Treatment for: Entameba histolytica

Back 1250

Metronidazole and iodoquinol

Front 1251

Treatment for: Giardia lamblia

Back 1251

Metronidazole

Front 1252

Treatment for: Cryptosporidium

Back 1252

None

Front 1253

Treatment for: Plasmodium

Back 1253

1. Choloroquine 2. additonal Primaquine ( to prevent relapse or liver damage) 3. sulfadoxine plus pyrimethamine 4. Mefloquine 5. Quinine

Front 1254

Treatment for: Trypanosoma cruzi

Back 1254

Nifurtimox

Front 1255

Treatment for: Trypanosoma gambiense and rhodesiense

Back 1255

If blood-borne, suramin. If CNS penetration, melarsoprol.

Front 1256

Treatment for: Leishmania

Back 1256

Sodium stibogluconate

Front 1257

Treatment for: Babesia

Back 1257

Qunine, clindamycin

Front 1258

Treatment for: Toxoplasma

Back 1258

Sulfadiazine plus pyrimethamine

Front 1259

Which worm: Undercooked pork

Back 1259

1. Taenia solium (tapeworm) 2. Trichinella spiralis (roundworm)

Front 1260

Which worm: Brain cysts

Back 1260

Taenia solium (tapeworm)

Front 1261

Which worm: Liver cysts

Back 1261

Echniococcus granulosus (tapeworm)

Front 1262

Important points about echinococcus granulosus

Back 1262

Tapeworm (Cestode) 1. Ingested eggs from dog feces 2. Liver cysts 3. Cysts release antigens and cause anaphylaxis

Front 1263

Taenia solium: Treatment

Back 1263

Praziquantel/niclosamide. Albendazole for cysticercosis

Front 1264

Echinococcus granulosus: Treatment

Back 1264

Albendazole

Front 1265

Characterization of Schistosoma

Back 1265

Fluke (Trematode) 1. Hosted by snails 2. Penetrate skin of humans

Front 1266

Schistosoma: Treatment

Back 1266

Praziquantel

Front 1267

Which worm: Portal hypertension

Back 1267

Schistosoma mansoni

Front 1268

Which worm: Hematuria

Back 1268

Schistosoma haematobium

Front 1269

Which worm: Bladder cancer

Back 1269

Schistosoma haematobium

Front 1270

Important points about Clonorchis sinensis

Back 1270

Fluke (trematode) 1. undercooked fish 2. Inflammation of biliary tract

Front 1271

Which worm: Undercooked fish

Back 1271

Clonorchis sinensis

Front 1272

Clonorchis sinensis: Treatment

Back 1272

Praziquantel

Front 1273

Which worm: B12 deficiency

Back 1273

Diphyllobothrium latum (tapeworm)

Front 1274

Which worm: Undercooked crab meat

Back 1274

Paragonimus westermani (fluke)

Front 1275

Important points about Pargonimus westermani

Back 1275

Trematode (fluke) 1. Undercooked crabmeat 2. Inflammation and secondary bacterial infection of the lung 3. Hemoptysis

Front 1276

Which worm: Hemoptysis

Back 1276

Paragonimus westermani (fluke)

Front 1277

Paragonimus westermani: Treatment

Back 1277

Praziquantel

Front 1278

Which worm: Microcytic anemia

Back 1278

Ancylostoma (aka hookworm) and Necator (both roundworms)

Front 1279

Important points about Ancylostoma duodenale

Back 1279

Nematode (roundworm) 1. Aka hookworm 2. Larvae penetrate skin of feet 3. Intestinal infection can cause anemia

Front 1280

Ancylostoma duodenale: Treatment

Back 1280

Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate

Front 1281

Ascaris lumbricoides: Treatment

Back 1281

Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate

Front 1282

Enterobius vermicularis: Treatment

Back 1282

Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate

Front 1283

Important points about Strongyloides stercoralis

Back 1283

Nematode (roundworm) 1. Larvae in soil penetrate the skin 2. Intestinal infection

Front 1284

Strongyloides stercoralis: treatment

Back 1284

Ivermectin/thiabendazole

Front 1285

Important points about Trichinella spiralis

Back 1285

Roundworm (nematode) 1. Undercooked meat, usually pork 2. Inflammation of muscle 3. Periorbital edema

Front 1286

Trichinella spiralis: Treatment

Back 1286

Thiabendazole

Front 1287

Important points about Dracunculus medinensis

Back 1287

Nematode (roundworm) 1. In drinking water 2. Skin inflammation and ulceration

Front 1288

Dracunculus medinensis: Treatment

Back 1288

Niridazole

Front 1289

Important points about Loa loa

Back 1289

Nematode (roundworm) 1. Transmitted by deer fly 2. Causes swelling in skin 3. Can see worm crawling in conjunctiva

Front 1290

Loa loa: Treatment

Back 1290

Diethylcarbamazine

Front 1291

Important points about Onchocerca volvulus

Back 1291

Nematode (roundworm) 1. Transmitted by female blackflies 2. Causes river blindness

Front 1292

Onchocerca volvulus: Treatment

Back 1292

Ivermectin

Front 1293

Important points about Toxocara canis

Back 1293

Nematode (roundworm) 1. Food contaminated with eggs 2. Causes granulomas (if in retina, blindness) 3. Visceral larva migrans

Front 1294

Toxocara canis: Treatment

Back 1294

Diethylcarbamazine

Front 1295

Important points about Wuchereria bancrofti

Back 1295

Nematode (roundworm) 1. Female mosquito 2. Causes blockage of lymphatic vessels (elephantiasis)

Front 1296

Wuchereria bancrofti: Treatment

Back 1296

Diethylcarbamazine

Front 1297

Which DNA viruses have linear genomes?

Back 1297

All except papova virus and hepadna which are circular

Front 1298

Which DNA viruses have circular genomes?

Back 1298

papova virus and hepadna which are circular

Front 1299

Which DNA viruses have infectious naked nucleic acids?

Back 1299

Most dsDNA (except poxvirus and HBV)

Front 1300

Which DNA viruses have non-infectious naked nucleic acids?

Back 1300

poxvirus and HBV

Front 1301

Which enveloped viruses acquire their envelopes from the plasma membrane?

Back 1301

All except herpesviruses (nuclear membrane)

Front 1302

Which enveloped viruses acquire their envelopes from the nuclear membrane?

Back 1302

Only herpesviruses

Front 1303

Where do RNA viruses replicate?

Back 1303

Cytoplasm (except influenza and retroviruses)

Front 1304

Which DNA viruses are icosahedral?

Back 1304

All except pox (complex)

Front 1305

Which DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus?

Back 1305

All except pox (carries own DNA-dependent RNA polymerases)

Front 1306

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: MMR vaccine

Back 1306

Live attenuated, egg-based

Front 1307

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Sabin polio vaccine

Back 1307

Live attenuated

Front 1308

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: VZV vaccine

Back 1308

Live attenuated

Front 1309

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Yellow fever vaccine

Back 1309

Live attenuated, egg-based

Front 1310

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Smallpox vaccine

Back 1310

Live attenuated

Front 1311

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Adenovirus vaccine

Back 1311

Live attenuated

Front 1312

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Rabies vaccine

Back 1312

Killed

Front 1313

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Influenza vaccine

Back 1313

Killed, egg-based

Front 1314

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Salk polio vaccine

Back 1314

Killed

Front 1315

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: HAV vaccine

Back 1315

Killed

Front 1316

What is this viral process: Exchange of genes between 2 chromosomes by crossing over within regions of significant base sequence homology

Back 1316

Viral recombination

Front 1317

Definition: Viral Reassortment

Back 1317

Viruses with segmented genomes exchange segments. Same as high frequency recombination. Cause of worldwide pandemics.

Front 1318

What is this viral process: Viruses with segmented genomes exchange segments.

Back 1318

Viral Reassortment Same as high frequency recombination. Cause of worldwide pandemics.

Front 1319

What is this viral process: When 1 of 2 viruses that infect the cell has a mutation that results in nonfunctional protein and the non-mutated virus makes a functional protein that serves both viruses.

Back 1319

Viral Complementation

Front 1320

What is this viral process: Genome of virus A can be coated with the surface proteins of virus B. Type B protein coat determines the infectivity of the phenotypically mixed virus.

Back 1320

Viral Phenotypic Mixing Progeny of type A however have type A coat from type A genes.

Front 1321

What does HBcAb measure?

Back 1321

Antibody to core antigen. Positive during window period (no HBsAg or HBsAb detected). IgM HBcAb is an indicator of recent disease.

Front 1322

What does HBeAg measure?

Back 1322

A second different antigenic determinant in the HBV core. Important indicator of transmissibility. (BEware!)

Front 1323

What does HBeAb measure?

Back 1323

Antibody to e antigen; indicates low transmissibility.

Front 1324

What is gag?

Back 1324

Gene that encodes for p24 capsid, the nucleocapsid in HIV

Front 1325

What is env?

Back 1325

Gene that encodes for gp41 and gp120 proteins, the envelope proteins in HIV.

Front 1326

What is p17?

Back 1326

Interior envelope protein in HIV

Front 1327

What is p24?

Back 1327

Nucleocapsid protein in HIV, coded for by gag gene.

Front 1328

What is gp41?

Back 1328

Envelope protein which traverses bilayer. If it is a mushroom stalk, then gp120 is the head. Both coded for by env.

Front 1329

What is gp120?

Back 1329

Envelope protein that serves as mushroom cap to gp41 stalk. Both coded for by env.

Front 1330

What is pol?

Back 1330

Gene which codes for HIV reverse transcriptase

Front 1331

Common causes of osteomyelitis in sexually active people.

Back 1331

Neisseria gonorrhoeae (rare), septic arthritis more common

Front 1332

Common causes of osteomyelitis in diabetics.

Back 1332

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 1333

Common causes of osteomyelitis in drug addicts.

Back 1333

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Front 1334

Common causes of osteomyelitis in people with prosthetic replacement

Back 1334

Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis

Front 1335

Common causes of urinary tract infections in ambulatory people

Back 1335

Mostly ascending infections 1. E. coli (50-80%) 2. Staphylococcus saprophyticus (10-30%) in young amubulatory women 3. Klebsiella (8-10%)

Front 1336

Common causes of urinary tract infections in the hospital

Back 1336

Mostly ascending infections 1. E. coli 2. Proteus 3. Klebsiella 4. Serratia 5. Pseudomonas

Front 1337

Risk factor for nosocomial CMV infection.

Back 1337

Newborn nursery

Front 1338

Risk factor for nosocomial RSV infection.

Back 1338

Newborn nursery

Front 1339

Risk factor for nosocomial E. coli infection.

Back 1339

Urinary catheterization

Front 1340

Risk factor for nosocomial Proteus mirablis infection.

Back 1340

Urinary catheterization

Front 1341

Risk factor for nosocomial Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection.

Back 1341

Respiratory therapy equipment

Front 1342

Risk factor for nosocomial Candida albicans infection.

Back 1342

Hyperalimentation

Front 1343

What bug: Empyema

Back 1343

Staphylococcus aureus (means pus in a natural body cavity, not an abscess)

Front 1344

What bug: Pediatric infection

Back 1344

Haemophilus influenzae

Front 1345

What bug: Sepsis in a newborn

Back 1345

Group B Strep

Front 1346

What bug: Meningitis in a newborn

Back 1346

Group B Strep

Front 1347

What organism is associated w/ HLA-B27 spondyloarthropathy and uremic Sx?

Back 1347

Shigella

Front 1348

What is the MC contaminant of blood transfusions?

Back 1348

Yersenia enterocolitica

Front 1349

What are trophozoites phagocytosed RBCs?

Back 1349

Entameba histolytica (Ameba)

Front 1350

What organism causes chorioamnionitis?

Back 1350

Step. agalactiae

Front 1351

Most common: Ovarian tumor (malignant)

Back 1351

Serous cystadenocarcinoma

Front 1352

Most common: Mets to bone

Back 1352

Breast, lung, thyroid, testes, prostate, kidney

Front 1353

Most common: Mets to brain

Back 1353

Lung, breast, skin (melanoma), kidney (RCC), GI

Front 1354

Most common: Breast tumor (benign)

Back 1354

Fibroadenoma

Front 1355

Most common: Brain tumor (kids)

Back 1355

Medulloblastoma (cerebellum)

Front 1356

Most common: Preventable cancer

Back 1356

Lung cancer

Front 1357

Most common: Breast mass

Back 1357

Fibrocystic change (in postmenopausal wormen, carcinoma in the most common)

Front 1358

Most common: Tumor of the adrenal medulla (kids)

Back 1358

Neuroblastoma (malignant)

Front 1359

Most common: Bacteria found in GI tract

Back 1359

Bacteroides (2nd most common is E. coli)

Front 1360

Most common: Bacteremia/pneumonia (IVDA)

Back 1360

S. aureus

Front 1361

Most common: Primary hyperparathyroidism

Back 1361

Adenomas (followed by hyperplasia, then carcinoma)

Front 1362

Most common: Breast cancer

Back 1362

Infiltrating ductal carcinoma (in the US, 1 in 9 women will develop breast cancer)

Front 1363

Most common: Site of metastasis (2nd most common)

Back 1363

Liver

Front 1364

Most common: Gynecologic malignancy

Back 1364

Endometrial carcinoma

Front 1365

Most common: Brain tumor-supratentorial (kids)

Back 1365

Craniopharyngioma

Front 1366

Most common: Skin cancer

Back 1366

Basal cell carcinoma

Front 1367

Most common: Ovarian tumor (benign)

Back 1367

Serous cystadenoma

Front 1368

Most common: Tumor in women

Back 1368

Leiomyoma (estrogen dependent)

Front 1369

Most common: Vasculitis

Back 1369

Temporal arteritis (risk of ipsilateral blindness due to thrombosis of ophthalmic artery)

Front 1370

Most common: Viral encephalitis

Back 1370

HSV

Front 1371

Most common: Bug in debilitated, hospitalized pneumonia patient

Back 1371

Klebsiella

Front 1372

Most common: Site of metastasis

Back 1372

Regional lymph nodes

Front 1373

Most common: Nephrotic syndrome

Back 1373

Membranous glomerulonephritis

Front 1374

Most common: Type of Hodgkin's

Back 1374

Follicular, small cleaved

Front 1375

Most common: Organ sending mets

Back 1375

Lung>breast, stomach

Front 1376

Most common: Organ receiving mets

Back 1376

Adrenal glands (due to rich blood supply)

Front 1377

Most common: Neoplasm (kids)

Back 1377

ALL (2nd most common is cerebellar medulloblastoma)

Front 1378

Most common: Tumor of infancy

Back 1378

Hemangioma

Front 1379

Most Frequent Cause of: Addison's

Back 1379

Autoimmune (infection is the 2nd most common cause)

Front 1380

Most Frequent Cause of: Bacterial meningitis (adults)

Back 1380

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Front 1381

Most Frequent Cause of: UTI (young women)

Back 1381

E. coli and Staphylococcus saprophyticus

Front 1382

Most Frequent Cause of: Bacterial meningitis (kids)

Back 1382

S. pneumoniae or Neisseria meningitidis

Front 1383

Most Frequent Cause of: Hypopituitarism

Back 1383

Adenoma

Front 1384

Most Frequent Cause of: Right-sided heart failure

Back 1384

Left-sided heart failure

Front 1385

Most Frequent Cause of: PID

Back 1385

Neisseria gonorrhoeae (monoarticular arthritis)

Front 1386

Most Frequent Cause of: Bacterial meningitis (elderly)

Back 1386

S. pneumoniae

Front 1387

Most Frequent Cause of: SIADH

Back 1387

Small cell carcinoma of the lung

Front 1388

Are D1 neurons in the basal ganglia inhibitory or excitatory?

Back 1388

Excitatory

Front 1389

What part of the hypothalamus (ant./post.) controls autonomic regulation?

Back 1389

anterior hypothalamus

Front 1390

How can a Nissl stain be used to differentiate microglia from oligodendroglia?

Back 1390

Microglia are not discernible in a Nissl stain while oligodendroglia appear as small dark nuclei with dark chromatin

Front 1391

What part of the hypothalamus (ant./post.) controls cooling when hot?

Back 1391

anterior hypothalamus

Front 1392

What nucleus of the hypothalamus controls sexual emotions?

Back 1392

septate nucleus

Front 1393

What midbrain structure is important in mitigating voluntary movements and making postural adjustments?

Back 1393

Basal Ganglia

Front 1394

Are D2 neurons in the basal ganglia inhibitory or excitatory?

Back 1394

Inhibitory

Front 1395

What is the 'gap' between the myelination segment of 2 Schwann cells called?

Back 1395

Node of Ranvier

Front 1396

What nucleus of the hypothalamus controls thirst and water balance?

Back 1396

supraoptic nucleus

Front 1397

What nucleus of the hypothalamus controls hunger?

Back 1397

lateral nucleus

Front 1398

What is the response of microglia to tissue damage?

Back 1398

transformation into large ameboid phagocytic cells

Front 1399

What nucleus of the hypothalamus controls circadian rhythms?

Back 1399

suprachiasmatic nucleus

Front 1400

What nucleus of the hypothalamus controls satiety?

Back 1400

ventromedial nucleus

Front 1401

What part of the hypothalamus (ant./post.) controls heat conservation when cold?

Back 1401

posterior hypothalamus

Front 1402

What is the equation to calculate loading dose?

Back 1402

(Cp)(Vd)/F (note: Cp = target plasma concentration, and F = bioavailability)

Front 1403

These specific drugs disrupt fungal cell membranes

Back 1403

amphotericin B, nystatin, fluconazole/azoles (FAN the fungal cell membranes)

Front 1404

Which drug blocks mRNA synthesis?

Back 1404

Rifampin

Front 1405

When would you use aminoglycosides?

Back 1405

Against severe gram-negative rod infections.

Front 1406

What is the equation to calculate the maintenance dose?

Back 1406

(Cp)(CL)/F (note: Cp = target plasma concentration, and F = bioavailability)

Front 1407

These drugs block nucleotide synthesis by interfering with the folate pathway

Back 1407

Sulfonamides (e.g. Bactrim), trimethoprim

Front 1408

These drugs disrupt the bacterial/fungal cell membranes

Back 1408

Polymyxins

Front 1409

What should you watch out for when giving penicillin?

Back 1409

Hypersensitivity reaction (urticaria,severe pruritus) and hemolytic anemia

Front 1410

Bacitracin, vancomycin and cycloserine block the synthesis of this molecule, preventing cell wall synthesis.

Back 1410

Peptidoglycans

Front 1411

What can 3rd generation cephalosporin drugs do that 1st and 2nd generation can't?

Back 1411

Cross the blood brain barrier.

Front 1412

What is the mechanism of action of Pentamidine?

Back 1412

Unknown

Front 1413

Which drugs are the bacteriacidal antibiotics?

Back 1413

Penicillin, cephalosporin, vancomycin, aminoglycosides, fluoroquinolones, metronidazole

Front 1414

What is the antidote for (TCA) Tricyclic Antidepressants toxicity/overdose

Back 1414

NaHCO3

Front 1415

This antimetabolite derivative of 6-mercaptopurine interferes with the metabolism and synthesis of nucleic acid.

Back 1415

azathioprine

Front 1416

Azaothioprine is used to in what setting?

Back 1416

Kidney transplants, autoimmune disorders (glomerulonephritis, hemolytic anemia)

Front 1417

Recombinant Cytokine- Aldesleukin (interleukin-2) is used for?

Back 1417

Renal cell carcinoma, metastatic melanoma

Front 1418

Recombinant Cytokine- alpha interferon is used for?

Back 1418

Hep B/C, Kaposi's sarcoma, leukemia, malgnant melanoma

Front 1419

Recombinant Cytokine- oprelvekin (interleukin-11) is used for?

Back 1419

Thrombocytopenia

Front 1420

Recombinant Cytokine- sargamostim is used for?

Back 1420

Recovery of Bone Marrow (it is a granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor)

Front 1421

Weak acids, such as phenobarbitol, methotreaxate, aspirin, alkanize urine with ____ to increase clearance

Back 1421

bicarbonate

Front 1422

Weak bases, such as amphetamines, acidify urine with NH4Cl to ____ clearance

Back 1422

increase

Front 1423

-ane

Back 1423

inhalational general anesthetic. Halothane

Front 1424

-azepam

Back 1424

benzodiazepine. Diazepam

Front 1425

-azole

Back 1425

antifungal. Ketoconazole

Front 1426

-oxin

Back 1426

cardiac glycoside (inotropic agent). Digoxin

Front 1427

-terol

Back 1427

beta-2 agonist. Albuterol

Front 1428

-triptyline

Back 1428

tricyclic antidepressant. Amitriptyline

Front 1429

-tropin

Back 1429

pituitary hormone. Somatotropin

Front 1430

What is the complication of Sleep Apnea?

Back 1430

Pulmonary Hypertension- vasoconstrictive effects of chronic hypoxemia and respiratory acidosis called COR-PULOMONALE

Front 1431

What three compounds increase surfactant?

Back 1431

Thyroxin, Prolactin, and Glucocorticoid

Front 1432

What is the importance of the lecithin:sphingomyelin ratio?

Back 1432

A ratio greater than 2.0 in fetal lung is indicative of fetal lung maturity

Front 1433

What is found in the physical exploration of Atelectasis?

Back 1433

Dullness to percussion and Absent tactile fremitus

Front 1434

What is the last segment of lung tissue in which ciliated cells are found?

Back 1434

Respiratory Bronchioles

Front 1435

Where is surfactant stored?

Back 1435

Lamellar bodies

Front 1436

What process occurs when type I pneumocytes are damaged?

Back 1436

Type II pneumocytes develop into Type I

Front 1437

What is the last segment of lung tissue in which goblet cells are found?

Back 1437

Terminal Broncioles (remember ciliated cells sweep away mucous produced by goblet cells and therefore run deeper)

Front 1438

What is the diagnosis of a child w/ Nasal Polyps? Test for?

Back 1438

Sweat Test, Cystic Fibrosis (CF) until proven otherwise

Front 1439

Where do infarctions of the lung usually occur?

Back 1439

Lower lobes

Front 1440

What is another name for pulmonary surfactant?

Back 1440

DPPC (dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine)

Front 1441

Why does Mucor species prevail in sinusitis of Diabetic patients?

Back 1441

Ketoacidosis causes proliferation

Front 1442

Newborn that turns cyanotic when breast feeding; cries and turns back to pink. Diagnosis?

Back 1442

Choanal Atresia

Front 1443

What is the pathogenesis of Respiratory Distress Syndrome in Newborns?

Back 1443

Atelectasis due to loss of surfactant

Front 1444

When does synthesis of surfactant begin?

Back 1444

28th week and reaches production peak at 35 weeks

Front 1445

How do you calculate the A-a gradient?

Back 1445

Alveolar PO2= 21%O2(Atm. P-47)-pCO2/0.8; A= (.21)(713)- 40/0.8); Usually A=100; A-a; a=95; normal A-a=5-30

Front 1446

When is A-a gradient indicative of pulmonary pathology?

Back 1446

when A-a grad = >30

Front 1447

Patient w/ fibromyalgia and develops asthma, what is the cause of this?

Back 1447

Aspirin induced asthma; block PG but still produce Leukotriene build up; LT C-D-E4 buildup (potent bronchoconstrictors)

Front 1448

Causes of Hypoxemia w/ normal A-a gradient?

Back 1448

-barbiturates OD-epiglottitis (Upper Airway Obstr.)-Amyotrophics Lat. Sclerosis (ALS)

Front 1449

What is the Diagnosis if pregnant woman presents w/ pre-eclampsia in first trimester?

Back 1449

hydatidiform mole

Front 1450

What two substances are increased in pre-eclampsia?

Back 1450

Angiotensin II; TXA2

Front 1451

What substances are decrease in pre-eclampsia?

Back 1451

PGE1 and NO

Front 1452

What is the macula densa?

Back 1452

Sodium sensor in part of the distal convoluted tubule in the juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidney

Front 1453

What are JG cells?

Back 1453

Modified smooth muscle of afferent arteriole in the juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidney

Front 1454

How is the glomerular basement membrane formed?

Back 1454

From the fusion of endothelial and podocyte basement membranes.

Front 1455

What is the function of the JG cells?

Back 1455

Secrete renin and erythropoietin

Front 1456

When do the JG cells secrete renin?

Back 1456

In response to decreased renal BP, decreased sodium delivery to distal tubule, and increased sympathetic tone

Front 1457

What is the glomerular basement membrane coated with? (provides negative charge to filter).

Back 1457

Negatively charged heparan sulfate.

Front 1458

Where is type II collagen found? (3)

Back 1458

1. cartilage (including hyaline) 2. vitreous body 3. nucleus pulposus.

Front 1459

What is the most abundant protein in the human body?

Back 1459

Collagen.

Front 1460

Where is type I collagen found?(7)

Back 1460

1. bone 2. tendon 3. skin 4. dentin 5. fascia 6. cornea 7. late wound repair

Front 1461

Define Pacinian corpuscles.

Back 1461

Large, encapsulated sensory receptors found in deeper layers of skin at ligaments, joint capsules, serous membranes, mesenteries.

Front 1462

Describe the appearance and status of primary vs. secondary follicles.

Back 1462

Primary follicles are dense and dormant. Secondary follicles have pale central germinal centers and are active.

Front 1463

Where is type III collagen found? (5)

Back 1463

1. skin 2.blood vessels 3.uterus 4.fetal tissue 5.granulation tissue

Front 1464

What is the function of Meissner's corpuscles?

Back 1464

Meissner's corpuscles are involved in light discriminatory touch of glabrous skin.

Front 1465

What is another name for type III collagen?

Back 1465

reticulin

Front 1466

What is the function of Pacinian corpuscles?

Back 1466

Pacinian corpuscles are involved in pressure, coarse touch, vibration, and tension.

Front 1467

Where is type X collagen found? (1)

Back 1467

epiphyseal plate

Front 1468

Define Meissner's corpuscles.

Back 1468

Small, encapsulated sensory receptors found in dermis of palm, soles and digits of skin.

Front 1469

Name the layers of epidermis from surface to base.

Back 1469

stratum Corneum, stratum Lucidum, stratum Granulosum, stratum Spinosum, stratum Basalis.

Front 1470

What is the most common type of collagen?

Back 1470

Collagen Type I - 90%

Front 1471

Where is type IV collagen found? (1)

Back 1471

basement membrane or basal lamina

Front 1472

What is more fatal, exotoxin or endotoxin?

Back 1472

exotoxin

Front 1473

What induces high-titer antibodies and is used in vaccines, exotoxin or endotoxin?

Back 1473

exotoxin

Front 1474

Binds directly to MHC-II and T-cell receptor activating T cells to release IFN-gamma and IL-2

Back 1474

Superantigens; TSST-1

Front 1475

Responsible for toxic shock syndrome?

Back 1475

TSST-1 released by Staph. aureus; Strep. pyogenes can also cause toxic shock-like symptoms

Front 1476

Most common cause of meningitis, otitis media (children), pneumonia, and sinusitis

Back 1476

Streptococcus pneumonia; "MOPS"

Front 1477

ADP ribosylating toxin stimulates adenylate cyclase to cause whooping cough?

Back 1477

Bordetella pertussis

Front 1478

This toxin cleaves host cell rRNA?

Back 1478

Shiga toxin produced by shigella (also produced by some strains of E. coli)

Front 1479

The toxin of this organism is a hemolysin?

Back 1479

streptolysin O of S. pyogenes(Beta hemolytic)

Front 1480

Endotoxin activates release of what factors from macrophages?

Back 1480

IL-1 (fever), TNF (fever, hemorrhagic tissue necrosis), NO (hypotension)

Front 1481

Endotoxin activates what factor to cause DIC?

Back 1481

Hageman factor

Front 1482

What are 3 common gram positive rods?

Back 1482

Clostridium, listeria, bacillus, corynebacterium

Front 1483

This coccoid rod requires chocolate agar with factor V and X for isolation.

Back 1483

Haemophilus influenzae

Front 1484

Gram negative "coccoid" rod which requires NAD and hematin for culture?

Back 1484

H. influenzae; NAD is factor V and hematin is factor X

Front 1485

Coccoid rod with an ADP ribosylating toxin?

Back 1485

Bordetella pertussis

Front 1486

Lactose non-fermenting rod, oxidase positive?

Back 1486

pseudomonas

Front 1487

This organism can cause bloody diarrhea, and mimic Crohn's or a "pseudoappendicitis".

Back 1487

Yersinia enterocolitica

Front 1488

Causes food poisoning in meats. (4 organisms)

Back 1488

S. aureus, C perfringens (reheated meat), E.coli, Salmonella

Front 1489

These 3 viruses cause watery diarrhea?

Back 1489

rotavirus, adenovirus, norwalk virus

Front 1490

The toxin of this organism is composed of a bacterial adenylate cyclase (edema factor) which increases cAMP.

Back 1490

Bacillus anthracis

Front 1491

What are common presentations of pseudomonas aeruginosa?

Back 1491

Burn and wound infections and Pneumonia (esp in CF), Sepsis (black lesions on skin), External otitis (swimmers ear), UTI, Diabetic osteomyelitis

Front 1492

This organism causes an undulant fever and is often acquired from dairy products.

Back 1492

Brucella

Front 1493

What is the treatment for G. vaginalis?

Back 1493

Metronidazole

Front 1494

What is the treatment for H. influenzae?

Back 1494

ceftriaxone (meningitis), rifampin (prophylaxis in close contacts)

Front 1495

Patient presents with fever, headache, and rash. Diagnosis?

Back 1495

Rickettsiae; classic triad of fever, headache and rash. Others my apply but if this is all you get, think Ricketts!

Front 1496

What is the Weil-Felix reaction?

Back 1496

antirickettsial antibodies, usually positive for rocky mountain spotted fever and typhus

Front 1497

What are the two forms of chlamydia?

Back 1497

Elementary body which is extracellular form that enters cell by endocytosis; Reticulate body which replicates in cell by fission

Front 1498

What are the 3 spirochetes?

Back 1498

Borrelia, leptospira, and treponema

Front 1499

BAX gene

Back 1499

activates apoptosis - activated by P53 gene if DNA damage is not repairable

Front 1500

BCL2 gene

Back 1500

inhibit apoptosis - prevent mitochondrial leakage of cytochrome c into the cytosol

Front 1501

ABL

Back 1501

nonreceptor tyrosine kinase activity - translocation associated with chronic myelogenous leukemia t(9:22) Philadelphia chromosome

Front 1502

HER2/ERBB2

Back 1502

synthesizes receptors; amplified in breast carcinoma; is a measure of aggressiveness of breast carcinoma

Front 1503

MYC

Back 1503

Involved in nuclear transcription; associated with the t(8;14) translocation in Burkitt's lymphoma

Front 1504

N-MYC

Back 1504

Involved in nuclear transcription; amplified in neuroblastoma

Front 1505

RAS

Back 1505

Point mutation. Involved in GTP signal transduction; a point mutation leads to leukemia and carcinomas

Front 1506

RET

Back 1506

synthesizes receptors; a point mutation leads to multiple endocrine neoplasia 2a/3b syndromes

Front 1507

SIS

Back 1507

synthesizes growth factors; overexpression of this gene leads to osteogenic sarcoma and astrocytoma

Front 1508

Translocation t(12;21)

Back 1508

favorable prognosis in pre-B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia

Front 1509

APC

Back 1509

Adenomatous polyposis coli; associated with familial polyposis (colorectal carcinoma); degrades catenin --> prevents nuclear transcription. 5q12

Front 1510

BRCA1/BRCA2

Back 1510

regulates DNA repair

Front 1511

TGF-B

Back 1511

Inhibits progression from G1 to S phase in the cell cycle. Associated with pancreatic and colorectal carcinomas.

Front 1512

VHL

Back 1512

regulates nuclear transcription; associated with Von Hippel Lindau Syndrome

Front 1513

WT1

Back 1513

regulates nuclear transcription; associated with Wilms' tumor (11p13), autosomal dominant

Front 1514

What is the mutation leading to retinoblastoma?

Back 1514

point mutation inactivates the RB gene --> no more suppression

Front 1515

Most variable phase in cell cycle

Back 1515

G1

Front 1516

G1 Phase of cell cycle

Back 1516

Synthesis of RNA, protein, organelles, and cyclin D; DNA repair; most variable phase

Front 1517

S Phase of cell cycle

Back 1517

Synthesis of DNA, RNA, protein; double the amount of genomic material

Front 1518

G2 Phase of cell cycle

Back 1518

Synthesis of tubulin, necessary for formation of the mitotic spindle

Front 1519

What happens in embryonic sexual differentiation when there is no Y chromosome?

Back 1519

Wolffian ducts --> apoptosis. The default pathway is to have keep the female structures.

Front 1520

What happens in embryonic sexual differentiation when there is a Y chromosome?

Back 1520

Sertoli cells make MIF (Mullerian inhibitory factor) --> Mullerian ducts --> apoptosis --> keep male structures.

Front 1521

Resistance transfer factor

Back 1521

plasmid that encodes one or more drug resistance genes & has capability of mediating its own transfer to another bacterium during conjugation.

Front 1522

How do transposons insert themselves into a new location?

Back 1522

site-specific recombination. Flanking DNA sequences of a transposon are indirect repeats that are complimentary and antiparallel to one another.

Front 1523

tra operon

Back 1523

Transfer operon. Genes necessary for non-sexual transfer of genetic material in bacteria.

Front 1524

Name two genetic mechanisms that can lead to either Angelman syndrome or Prader Willi.

Back 1524

Genomic imprinting or uniparental disomy.

Front 1525

Folic acid analog that inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

Back 1525

Methotrexate

Front 1526

Pyrimidine analog that inhibits thymidylate synthase

Back 1526

5-fluorouracil

Front 1527

Inhibitor of de novo purine synthesis

Back 1527

6-mercaptopurine

Front 1528

Inhibits DNA polymerase

Back 1528

cytarabine

Front 1529

Alkylating agents used to treat Non-Hodgkin lymphoma, breast and ovarian carcinoma.

Back 1529

Cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide

Front 1530

Alkylating agent capable of crossing blood brain barrier

Back 1530

Nitrosureas (carmustine, lomustine)

Front 1531

Similar to alkylating agent, notable toxicities include nephrotoxicity and acoustic nerve damage

Back 1531

Cisplatin, carboplatin

Front 1532

Alkylating agent used to treat CML

Back 1532

Busulfan

Front 1533

Free radical generator and also intercalates DNA to form strand breaks ("A" in ABVD treatment for Hodgkins)

Back 1533

Doxorubicin (Adriamycin), daunorubicin

Front 1534

Used to treat childhood tumors (Wilm's tumor, rhabdomyosarcoma, and Ewing's sarcoma)

Back 1534

Dactinomycin (Actinomycin D; Children ACT out)

Front 1535

Free radical generator which can cause life threatening pulmonary fibrosis

Back 1535

Bleomycin

Front 1536

Topoisomerase II inhibitor

Back 1536

Etoposide

Front 1537

Steroid that triggers apoptosis

Back 1537

Prednisone

Front 1538

Estrogen receptor antagonist

Back 1538

Tamoxifen

Front 1539

Monoclonal antibody against HER-2

Back 1539

Trastuzumab

Front 1540

Philadelphia chromosome bcr-abl tyrosine kinase inhibitor

Back 1540

Imatinib (Gleevec)

Front 1541

Binds tubulin blocking polymerization of microtubules and mitotic spindle formation

Back 1541

Vincristine, vinblastine

Front 1542

Binds tubulin hyperstabalizing microtubules and blocking mitotic spindle formation

Back 1542

Paclitaxel

Front 1543

Used for "metastatic" breast cancer

Back 1543

Trastuzumab

Front 1544

Increased risk of endometrial carcinoma

Back 1544

Tamoxifen

Front 1545

Do not use with allopurinol

Back 1545

6-mercaptopurine (activated by xanthine oxidase; allopurinol is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to treat gout)

Front 1546

CNS toxicity

Back 1546

Nitrosureas (carmustine, lomustine)

Front 1547

Neurotoxic (areflexia, peripheral neuritis) paralytic ileus

Back 1547

Vincristine (Vinblastine is notable for bone marrow suppression)

Front 1548

Antineoplastic used for therapeutic abortion

Back 1548

Methotrexate

Front 1549

Androgen receptor antagonist

Back 1549

Flutamide

Front 1550

Recombinantly produced cytokine used to treat hairy cell leukemia

Back 1550

Interferon alpha

Front 1551

GnRH agonist used for the treatment of metastatic prostate carcinoma

Back 1551

Leuprolide, Goserelin, Nafarelin

Front 1552

Monoclonal antibody against the protein CD20 used for treatment of low grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma

Back 1552

Rituximab

Front 1553

Aromatase inhibitor used to treat breast cancer

Back 1553

Anastrozole

Front 1554

In patients with impaired renal or hepatic function, how does loading does and maintenance dose change?

Back 1554

Loading dose remains unchanged Maintenance dose decreases

Front 1555

Phase I metabolism ;products, what happens and how eliminated

Back 1555

(reduction, oxidation, hydrolysis) yields slightly polar, water-soluble metabolites (often still active) not yet eliminated

Front 1556

Phase II metabolism ;products, what happens and how eliminated

Back 1556

acetylation, glucoronidation, sulfation) yields Very polar, inactive metanolites (renally excreted)

Front 1557

Geriatric patients lose which phase of metabolism first?

Back 1557

Phase I

Front 1558

pre and postsynaptic nervous system neurotransmitters;;Somatic

Back 1558

only one ;ACh (nicotinic)

Front 1559

pre and postsynaptic nervous system neurotransmitters;;Sympathetic

Back 1559

pre=ACh(nicotinic);Ach(muscarinic)-sweat glands; NEα,β-Cardiac and smooth muscle, gland cells, nerve terminals;D1-Renal vascular smooth muscle

Front 1560

nicotinic receptor mech

Back 1560

ACh ligand gated Na+/K+ channels

Front 1561

Release of NE from a sympathetic nerve ending is modulated by;;with mech

Back 1561

by NE itself, acting on presynaptic alpha-2 autoreceptors, and by ACh, ;;angiotensin II, and other substances.

Front 1562

Which Cholinergic Activates Bowel and Bladder smooth muscle;

Back 1562

Bethanechol

Front 1563

Which Cholinergic Contracts ciliary muscle of eye (open angle), pupillary sphincter (narrow angle)

Back 1563

Carbachol

Front 1564

Which Cholinergic Stimulates muscarinic receptors in airway when inhaled.

Back 1564

Methacholine

Front 1565

Which Cholinergic resistant to AChE

Back 1565

Bethanechol and Pilocarpine

Front 1566

Which Cholinergic ↑ endogenous ACh No CNS penetration

Back 1566

Neostigmine

Front 1567

Which Cholinergic ↑ endogenous ACh; ↑ strength

Back 1567

Pyridostigmine

Front 1568

Which Cholinergic is used for Postoperative and neurogenic ileus and urinary ;retention

Back 1568

Bethanechol ;and;Neostigmine

Front 1569

Which Cholinergic is used for Glaucoma, pupillary contraction, and release of intraocular pressure

Back 1569

Carbachol, Echothiophate and Physostigmine

Front 1570

Which Cholinergic is used for Potent stimulator of sweat, tears, saliva

Back 1570

Pilocarpine

Front 1571

Which Cholinergic is used for Challenge test for diagnosis of asthma

Back 1571

Methacholine

Front 1572

Which Cholinergic is used for reversal of ;neuromuscular junction blockade (postoperative)

Back 1572

Neostigmine

Front 1573

Which Cholinergic is used for Myasthenia gravis

Back 1573

Neostigmine ;;Pyridostigmine does penetrate CNS

Front 1574

Which Cholinergic is used for Diagnosis of myasthenia gravis

Back 1574

Edrophonium

Front 1575

Clinical applications of;;Bethanechol

Back 1575

Postoperative and neurogenic ileus and urinary ;retention

Front 1576

Clinical applications of;;Carbachol

Back 1576

Glaucoma, pupillary contraction, and release of ;intraocular pressure

Front 1577

Clinical applications of;;Pilocarpine

Back 1577

Potent stimulator of sweat, tears, saliva

Front 1578

Clinical applications of;;Methacholine

Back 1578

Challenge test for diagnosis of asthma

Front 1579

Clinical applications of;;Neostigmine

Back 1579

Postoperative and neurogenic ileus and urinary ;retention, myasthenia gravis, reversal of ;neuromuscular junction blockade (postoperative)

Front 1580

Clinical applications of;;Pyridostigmine

Back 1580

Myasthenia gravis; does penetrate CNS

Front 1581

Clinical applications of;;Edrophonium

Back 1581

Diagnosis of myasthenia gravis (extremely short ;acting)

Front 1582

Clinical applications of;;Physostigmine

Back 1582

Glaucoma (crosses blood-brain barrier ? CNS) ;and atropine overdose

Front 1583

Clinical applications of;;Echothiophate

Back 1583

Glaucoma

Front 1584

Cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning;;symptoms

Back 1584

Diarrhea, Urination, Miosis, Bronchospasm, Bradycardia, Excitation of skeletal muscle and CNS, Lacrimation, Abdominal cramping, Sweating

Front 1585

pralidoxime;;uses and mech

Back 1585

Cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning;;chemical antagonist used to regenerate active cholinesterase

Front 1586

Parathion

Back 1586

organophosphate

Front 1587

Ipratropium ;;mech

Back 1587

Muscarinic antagonist

Front 1588

Methscopolamine, ;oxybutin, ;glycopyrrolate ;;mech

Back 1588

Muscarinic antagonist

Front 1589

Atropine;;clinical use

Back 1589

Produce mydriasis and cycloplegia

Front 1590

Benztropine ;;clinical use

Back 1590

Parkinson's disease

Front 1591

Ipratropium ;;clinical use

Back 1591

Asthma, COPD

Front 1592

Methscopolamine, ;oxybutin, ;glycopyrrolate ;;clinical use

Back 1592

Reduce urgency in mild cystitis and reduce bladder spasms

Front 1593

Glaucoma drugs mech and side effects;;Epinephrine

Back 1593

↑ outflow of aqueous humor ;;Mydriasis, stinging; do not use;in closed-angle glaucoma

Front 1594

Glaucoma drugs mech and side effects;;Brimonidine

Back 1594

↓ aqueous humor synthesis ;;No pupillary or vision changes

Front 1595

Glaucoma drugs mech and side effects;;beta-blockers

Back 1595

↓ aqueous humor secretion ;;No pupillary or vision changes

Front 1596

Glaucoma drugs mech and side effects;;Acetazolamide

Back 1596

↓ aqueous humor secretion due to ;↓ HCO3- (via inhibition of carbonic anhydrase);;No pupillary or vision changes

Front 1597

Glaucoma drugs mech and side effects;;Cholinomimetics

Back 1597

↑ outflow of aqueous humor; contract ciliary muscle and open trabecular meshwork;;;Miosis, cyclospasm

Front 1598

Glaucoma drugs mech and side effects;;Latanoprost (PGF2α)

Back 1598

↑ outflow of aqueous humor;;Darkens color of iris (browning)

Front 1599

Atropine effects

Back 1599

dilates pupils and Blocks SLUD: ;↓Salivation;↓Lacrimation;↓Urination;↓Defecation

Front 1600

Can cause acute angle-closure glaucoma in elderly, urinary retention in men with prostatic hypertrophy.

Back 1600

Atropine

Front 1601

Hexamethonium;;Clinical use

Back 1601

Ganglionic blocker. Used in experimental models to prevent vagal reflex responses to ;changes in blood pressure

Front 1602

Mechanism for Sympathomimetics;;Ephedrine

Back 1602

Indirect general agonist, releases stored ;catecholamines

Front 1603

Mechanism for Sympathomimetics;;Cocaine

Back 1603

Indirect general agonist, uptake inhibitor

Front 1604

Mechanism for Sympathomimetics;;Clonidine, α-methyldopa

Back 1604

Centrally acting α-agonist, ↓ central ;adrenergic outflow

Front 1605

What drugs cause Cardiovascular Atropine-like side effects

Back 1605

Tricyclics

Front 1606

What drugs cause Cardiac toxicity

Back 1606

Doxorubicin (Adriamycin), daunorubicin

Front 1607

What drugs cause Coronary vasospasm

Back 1607

Cocaine

Front 1608

What drugs cause Cutaneous rushing

Back 1608

Niacin, Ca2+ channel blockers, adenosine, vancomycin

Front 1609

What drugs cause Torsades des pointes

Back 1609

Class III (sotalol), class IA (quinidine), cisapride

Front 1610

What drugs cause Agranulocytosis

Back 1610

Clozapine, carbamazepine, colchicine

Front 1611

What drugs cause Aplastic anemia

Back 1611

Chloramphenicol, benzene, NSAIDs

Front 1612

What drugs cause Acute cholestatic ;hepatitis

Back 1612

Macrolides

Front 1613

What drugs cause Focal to massive ;hepatic necrosis

Back 1613

Halothane, valproic acid, acetaminophen, Amanita phalloides

Front 1614

What drugs cause Hepatitis

Back 1614

INH

Front 1615

What drugs cause Hot rashes

Back 1615

Tamoxifen

Front 1616

What drugs cause Gingival hyperplasia

Back 1616

Phenytoin

Front 1617

What drugs cause Osteoporosis

Back 1617

Corticosteroids, heparin

Front 1618

What drugs cause Photosensitivity

Back 1618

(SAT for a photo) Sulfonamides, Amiodarone, Tetracycline

Front 1619

What drugs cause Fanconi's syndrome

Back 1619

Expired tetracycline

Front 1620

What drugs cause Interstitial nephritis

Back 1620

Methicillin

Front 1621

What drugs cause Hemorrhagic cystitis

Back 1621

Cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide

Front 1622

What drugs cause Cinchonism

Back 1622

Quinidine, quinine

Front 1623

What drugs cause Diabetes insipidus

Back 1623

Lithium, demeclocycline

Front 1624

What drugs cause Disulfram-like reaction

Back 1624

Metronidazole, certain cephalosporins, procarbazine, sulfonylureas

Front 1625

What drugs cause Nephrotoxicity & neurotoxicity

Back 1625

Polymyxins

Front 1626

What drugs cause Nephrotoxicity & ototoxicity

Back 1626

Aminoglycosides, loop diuretics, cisplatin

Front 1627

P-450 Inducer

Back 1627

Quinidine (can inhibit too), Barbiturates, Phenytoin, Rifampin, Griseofulvin, Carbamazepine, St. John?s wort

Front 1628

P-450 Inhibitors

Back 1628

Isoniazid; Sulfonamides; Cimetidine; Ketoconazole; Erythromycin; Grapefruit juice

Front 1629

Iron Poisioning Symps

Back 1629

acute gastric bleeding chronic metabolic acidosis, scarring (leading to GI obstruction)

Front 1630

Ethylene glycol toxicity

Back 1630

Acidosis, nephrotoxicity

Front 1631

Methanol toxicity

Back 1631

Severe acidosis, retinal damage

Front 1632

Too much Ethylene glycol can cause what compound to build up?

Back 1632

Build up of Oxalic acid

Front 1633

Too much Methanol can cause what compound to build up?

Back 1633

Build up of Formaldehyde;and formic acid

Front 1634

Drugs that cause problems in patients with sulfa allergies

Back 1634

Celecoxib, furosemide, thiazides, TMPSMX, sulfonyureas, sufasalazine

Front 1635

Herbal agents Clinical uses and Toxicities Echinacea

Back 1635

Common cold; no major toxicities

Front 1636

Herbal agents Clinical uses and Toxicities Ephedra

Back 1636

Same as ephedrine; CNS and cardiovascular stimulation; arrhythmias, stroke, and seizures at high doses

Front 1637

Herbal agents Clinical uses and Toxicities Feverfew

Back 1637

Used for migraine. Adv: mouth ulcers, antiplatelet actions

Front 1638

Herbal agents Clinical uses and Toxicities Ginkgo

Back 1638

Used for Intermittent claudication. Adv: anxiety, insomnia, antiplatelet actions

Front 1639

Herbal agents Clinical uses and Toxicities Kava

Back 1639

Used for Chronic anxiety. Adv: sedation, ataxia, hepatotoxicity, phototoxicity, dermatotoxicity

Front 1640

Herbal agents Clinical uses and Toxicities Milk thistle

Back 1640

Used for Viral hepatitis. Adv: Loose stools

Front 1641

Herbal agents Clinical uses and Toxicities Saw palmetto

Back 1641

Used for Benign prostatic hyperplasia. Adv: ↓ libido, hypertension

Front 1642

Herbal agents Clinical uses and Toxicities St. John's wort

Back 1642

Used for Mild to moderate depression. Adv: phototoxicity; serotonin syndrome;with SSRIs; induces P450 system

Front 1643

Herbal agents Clinical uses and Toxicities Dehydroepiandrosterone

Back 1643

Used for Symptomatic improvement in females with SLE or AIDS Androgenization (premenopausal), estrogenic effects (postmenopausal), feminization

Front 1644

Herbal agents Clinical uses and Toxicities Melatonin

Back 1644

Used for Jet lag and insomnia. Adv: Sedation, suppresses midcycle LH, hypoprolactinemia

Front 1645

Drug name Ending / Category -afil

Back 1645

Erectile dysfunction

Front 1646

Drug name Ending / Category -phylline

Back 1646

Methylxanthine

Front 1647

selectivity for Sympathomimetics - Albuterol

Back 1647

β2 >β1

Front 1648

Mechanism/selectivity for Sympathomimetics - terbutaline

Back 1648

β2 >β1

Front 1649

Applications of Sympathomimetics - Amphetamine

Back 1649

Narcolepsy, obesity, ADHD

Front 1650

Applications of Sympathomimetics - Ephedrine

Back 1650

Nasal decongestion, urinary incontinence, hypotension

Front 1651

Applications of Sympathomimetics - Phenylephrine

Back 1651

Pupil dilator, vasoconstriction, nasal decongestion

Front 1652

Applications of Sympathomimetics - Albuterol, terbutaline

Back 1652

Asthma

Front 1653

Applications of Sympathomimetics - Clonidine, α-methyldopa

Back 1653

Hypertension, especially with;renal disease (no ↓ in blood ;flow to kidney)

Front 1654

name the α2 selective α-blockers

Back 1654

Mirtazapine

Front 1655

Nonselective α-blockers - Application and Toxicity

Back 1655

Pheochromocytoma - Orthostatic hypotension, reflex tachycardia

Front 1656

α1 selective α-blockers - Application and Toxicity

Back 1656

Hypertension, urinary retention in BPH - -1st-dose orthostatic hypotension, dizziness, headache

Front 1657

α2 selective α-blockers - Application and Toxicity

Back 1657

Depression - Sedation, ↑ serum cholesterol, ↑ appetite

Front 1658

Nonselective α-blockers - names and differences

Back 1658

Phenoxybenzamine (irreversible) - phentolamine (reversible)

Front 1659

β-blockers - non selective ones

Back 1659

propranolol, timolol, nadolol, pindolol (partial agonist), and - labetalol (partial agonist, and exception to rules)

Front 1660

β-blockers - selective ones

Back 1660

Betaxolol, Esmolol (short acting), Atenolol, Metoprolol - Acebutolol (partial agonist hes and Ass),

Front 1661

which β-blockers - Tx for Glaucoma

Back 1661

timolol

Front 1662

which β-blockers - Tx for SVT

Back 1662

propranolol, esmolol

Front 1663

β-blockers - Toxicity (non cardiac)

Back 1663

1. Impotence, 2. exacerbation of asthma, 3. CNS adverse effects (sedation, sleep alterations), 4. diabetics can't feel low sugar

Front 1664

block Na+ channel; inhibit glutamate release

Back 1664

phenytoin

Front 1665

increase DURATION of Cl- channel opening --> increase GABA(A) action

Back 1665

barbiturates

Front 1666

increase FREQUENCY of Cl- channel opening --> increase GABA(A) action

Back 1666

BZD

Front 1667

for detox, especially EtOH withdrawal (DT), night terrors, sleepwalking

Back 1667

BZD

Front 1668

additive CNS depression effects with EtOH

Back 1668

barbiturates, BZD

Front 1669

SE: nystagmus, diplopia, SLE-syndrome, increases P450

Back 1669

phenytoin

Front 1670

anti-seizure drugs also used for bipolar treatment

Back 1670

carbamazepine, lamotrigine, valproic acid

Front 1671

1st line for tonic-clonic seizures

Back 1671

phenytoin, carbamazpine, valproic acid

Front 1672

1st line for status epilepticus prophylaxis

Back 1672

phenytoin

Front 1673

anti-seizure drugs also used for peripheral neuropathy

Back 1673

gabapentin

Front 1674

1st line for epilepsy in pregnancy and children

Back 1674

phenobarbital

Front 1675

also used for myoclonic seizures

Back 1675

valproic acid

Front 1676

also used for eclampsia seizures

Back 1676

BZD

Front 1677

1st line to prevent eclampsia seizures

Back 1677

MgSO4

Front 1678

increase Na+ channel inactivation

Back 1678

phenytoin, carbamazepine, valproic acid

Front 1679

blocks voltage gated Na+ channels

Back 1679

lamotrigine

Front 1680

increase GABA release

Back 1680

gabapentin

Front 1681

increase GABA(A) action

Back 1681

phenobarbital, BZD

Front 1682

increase [GABA]

Back 1682

valproic acid

Front 1683

drugs a/w Steven Johnson syndrome

Back 1683

ethosuxamide, lamotrigine, phenytoin, phenobarbital

Front 1684

most common drugs for endoscopy

Back 1684

midazolam (BZD)

Front 1685

stimulates heart, increases cerebral blood flow, for kids < 13 y/o

Back 1685

ketamine

Front 1686

non-depolarzing neuromuscular blocking drug --> competes with ACh

Back 1686

tubocurarine, atracurium, mivacurium, pancuronum, vecuronium, rocuronium

Front 1687

inhibit MAO-B ---> prevents DA breakdown in brain

Back 1687

selegiline

Front 1688

5HT(1D) agonist --> causes vasoconstriction

Back 1688

sumatriptan

Front 1689

used for acute migraines, cluster headaches

Back 1689

sumatriptan

Front 1690

atypical anti psychotics

Back 1690

clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, apripazole, quetiapine

Front 1691

SSRIs

Back 1691

fluoxetine, sertraline, paroxetine, citalopram

Front 1692

TCAs

Back 1692

impramine, amytriptyline

Front 1693

MAOIs

Back 1693

phenelzine, selegiline, tranylcyprome

Front 1694

EtOH withdrawal treatment

Back 1694

BZD

Front 1695

anorexia/bulimia treatment

Back 1695

SSRI

Front 1696

atypical depression

Back 1696

MAOI

Front 1697

bipolar treatment

Back 1697

mood stabilizers: lithium, valproic acid, carbamazepine

Front 1698

depression treatment

Back 1698

SSRI, TCA

Front 1699

depression with insomnia treatment

Back 1699

trazadone (increases REM), mirtazapine (causes sedation)

Front 1700

OCD treatment

Back 1700

SSRI, clomipramine (TCA)

Front 1701

panic disorder treatment

Back 1701

TCA, busprione

Front 1702

Tourette's treatment

Back 1702

haloperidol, olanzapine (atypical antipyschotic)

Front 1703

blocks D2 receptors

Back 1703

antipsychotics (neuroleptics); D2 normally regulates NT release

Front 1704

block DA and 5HT(2) receptors

Back 1704

atypical antipsyhotics

Front 1705

inhibit phosphoninositol cascade

Back 1705

lithium

Front 1706

stimulates 5HT(1A) receptor

Back 1706

busprione

Front 1707

blocks NE and 5HT reuptake

Back 1707

TCA

Front 1708

block DA, NE, 5HT reuptake

Back 1708

venlafaxine

Front 1709

alpha-2 antag --> increase NE and 5HT release; 5HT(2) and 5HT(3) receptor antag

Back 1709

mirtazapine

Front 1710

blocks NE uptake

Back 1710

maprotiline

Front 1711

inhibit 5HT reuptake

Back 1711

trazadone

Front 1712

EPS side effects

Back 1712

4 hours dystonia, 4 days akinesia (parkinsonism), 4 weeks akathesia (restlessness), 4 months tardive dyskinesia

Front 1713

neuroleptic malignant syndrome

Back 1713

rigidity, myoglobinuria, autonomic instability, hyperpyrexia

Front 1714

OCD, anxiety, depression, mania, Tourette's treatment

Back 1714

olanzapine

Front 1715

SE: tremor, nephrogenic DI, hypoTN, pregnancy problems

Back 1715

lithium

Front 1716

anxiolysis for generalized anxiety disorder; no sedation or addiction, no interaction with EtOH

Back 1716

busprione

Front 1717

serotonin syndrome

Back 1717

hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, CV collapse

Front 1718

SE: convulsions, coma, cardiotoxicity

Back 1718

TCAs

Front 1719

used in smoking cessation

Back 1719

bupropion

Front 1720

antidepressant that does NOT cause sexual SE

Back 1720

bupropion

Front 1721

SE: increase REM, priapism

Back 1721

trazadone

Front 1722

treatment for depressed elderly patient who is losing weight

Back 1722

mirtazapine (SE: increased appetite)

Front 1723

contraindicated in treatement of depressed bulimic patient

Back 1723

bupropion --> decreases seizure threshold

Front 1724

contraindicated with tyramine ingestion and B-agonists --> hyperthermia

Back 1724

MAOI

Front 1725

contraindicated with SSRI and meperidine --> serotonin syndrome

Back 1725

MAOI

Front 1726

What type of graft is from an identical twin sibling?

Back 1726

Syngeneic graft

Front 1727

What type of graft is from the same species?

Back 1727

Allogenic or homograft

Front 1728

What type of graft is taken from a different species?

Back 1728

heterograft (also called xenogenic graft)

Front 1729

Mitochondrial poisons

Back 1729

damages membrane and drains off protons; alcohol, salicylates

Front 1730

Complication of mitochondrial poisons/uncoupling agents

Back 1730

hyperthermia

Front 1731

Decreased ATP

Back 1731

impaired Na+/K+ ATPase pump (cellular swelling); reversible

Front 1732

Irreversible injury hypoxia

Back 1732

membrane/mitochondrial damage

Front 1733

Mitochondrial damage

Back 1733

release cytochrome c activates apoptosis

Front 1734

Irreversible injury hypoxia

Back 1734

increase cytosolic Ca2+ activates phospholipase, proteases, endonuclease

Front 1735

SER hyperplasia

Back 1735

alcohol, barbiturates, phenytoin

Front 1736

Complications SER hyperplasia

Back 1736

increases drug metabolism (e.g., oral contraceptives); low vitamin D

Front 1737

Chediak-Higashi

Back 1737

membrane protein defect in transferring lysosomal enzymes to phagocytic vacuoles; AR; giant lysosomes

Front 1738

Rigor mortis

Back 1738

stiff muscles after death due to ATP depletion

Front 1739

Hemosiderin

Back 1739

insoluble ferritin degradation product visible with Prussian blue stain

Front 1740

Labile cells

Back 1740

stem cells (skin, marrow, GI tract)

Front 1741

Stable cells

Back 1741

in G0 phase (smooth muscle, hepatocytes); can enter cell cycle (growth factors, hormones)

Front 1742

Prostate hyperplasia

Back 1742

increased dihydrotestosterone (DHEA)

Front 1743

Squamous metaplasia bladder

Back 1743

Schistosoma hematobium infection

Front 1744

Dysplasia

Back 1744

atypical hyperplasia and metaplasia are precursors for cancer

Front 1745

Granulomas

Back 1745

activated macrophages (epithelioid cells); multinucleated giant cells; CD4 TH1 cells, type IV hypersensitivity

Front 1746

Epithelioid cells

Back 1746

γ-interferon released by CD4 T cells activates macrophages

Front 1747

Multinucleated giant cells

Back 1747

fusion of epithelioid cells

Front 1748

Enzymatic fat necrosis

Back 1748

associated with pancreatitis; soap formation (Ca2+ + fatty acids)

Front 1749

Fibrinoid necrosis

Back 1749

necrosis of immune reactions (immune vasculitis/endocarditis)

Front 1750

Postmortem necrosis

Back 1750

autolysis; no inflammatory reaction

Front 1751

Dystrophic calcification

Back 1751

calcification of damaged tissue; normal serum calcium; pancreatitis; atherosclerotic plaque

Front 1752

Nephrocalcinosis

Back 1752

metastatic calcification of collecting tubule basement membranes; polyuria due to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus; renal failure

Front 1753

Caspases

Back 1753

responsible for enzymatic cell death in apoptosis; proteases and endonucleases

Front 1754

Markers of apoptosis

Back 1754

eosinophilic cytoplasm, pyknotic (ink dot) nucleus

Front 1755

Histamine

Back 1755

key chemical in acute inflammation; mast cell; arteriole vasodilation; increase venular permeability

Front 1756

Rubor acute inflammation

Back 1756

redness; arteriole vasodilation (histamine)

Front 1757

Calor acute inflammation

Back 1757

heat; arteriole vasodilation (histamine)

Front 1758

Tumor acute inflammation

Back 1758

swelling; increase vessel permeability (histamine)

Front 1759

Dolor acute inflammation

Back 1759

pain; bradykinin, PGE

Front 1760

Acute inflammation

Back 1760

neutrophil dominant; increase IgM

Front 1761

Chronic inflammation

Back 1761

monocyte/macrophage; increase IgG; repair by fibrosis

Front 1762

Positive PPD

Back 1762

Langerhan's cells process PPD and interact with TH1 class cells

Front 1763

Suppurative inflammation

Back 1763

abscess; Staphylococcus aureus (coagulase)

Front 1764

Cellulitis

Back 1764

subcutaneous inflammation; Streptococcus pyogenes (hyaluronidase)

Front 1765

Pseudomembranous inflammation

Back 1765

toxins from Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Clostridium difficile

Front 1766

BAX gene

Back 1766

stimulates apoptosis; activated by TP53 suppressor gene if too much DNA damage

Front 1767

Extracellular matrix

Back 1767

basement membrane, interstitial matrix

Front 1768

Complete restoration

Back 1768

cell must be capable of duplication, no damage to basement membrane

Front 1769

Liver injury

Back 1769

regenerative nodules; abnormal cytoarchitecture

Front 1770

CNS injury

Back 1770

astrocyte and microglial cell repair cells; gliosis

Front 1771

WBC alterations in acute inflammation

Back 1771

neutrophilic leukocytosis, left shift, toxic granulation

Front 1772

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

Back 1772

increased fibrinogen enhances rouleaux

Front 1773

C-reactive protein

Back 1773

indicator of acute inflammation and inflammatory atheromatous plaque

Front 1774

Total body water

Back 1774

ECF (plasma, interstitial fluid) + ICF (cytosol)

Front 1775

Lymphedema

Back 1775

radical mastectomy; filariasis; inflammatory carcinoma (lymphatics plugged by tumor)

Front 1776

Lipofuscin

Back 1776

indigestible lipid of lipid peroxidation; brown pigment increased in atrophy and FR damage

Front 1777

O2-dependent MPO system

Back 1777

most potent microbicidal system; neutrophils, monocytes

Front 1778

Production of superoxide from O2

Back 1778

NADPH oxidase with NADPH cofactor; produces respiratory burst

Front 1779

Nitro blue tetrazolium (NBT)

Back 1779

test for respiratory burst

Front 1780

Superoxide dismutase

Back 1780

converts superoxide to peroxide

Front 1781

Myeloperoxidase

Back 1781

lysosomal enzyme that combines peroxide + Cl to form bleach (HOCl)

Front 1782

Microbicidal defects

Back 1782

chronic granulomatous disease childhood (XR), myeloperoxidase deficiency (AR)

Front 1783

Inspiration

Back 1783

increases right sided abnormal heart sounds and murmurs

Front 1784

Expiration

Back 1784

increases left sided abnormal heart sounds and murmurs

Front 1785

Familial hypercholesterolemia (type II)

Back 1785

AD; deficiency of LDL receptors; increase LDL

Front 1786

Type III hyperlipoproteinemia

Back 1786

deficiency apo E; increase remnants (chylomicron, intermediate density)

Front 1787

Type IV hyperlipoproteinemia

Back 1787

increase VLDL; alcoholics

Front 1788

Apo B deficiency

Back 1788

deficiency apo B48 (chylomicrons) and B100 (VLDL); decrease CH and TG

Front 1789

Clinical findings in apo B deficiency

Back 1789

malabsorption; hemolytic anemia

Front 1790

Cardiovascular Risk factors

Back 1790

smoking, increase LDL, increase homocysteine, Chlamydia pneumoniae infection

Front 1791

Cells involved in atherosclerosis

Back 1791

platelets, macrophages, smooth muscle cells, T cells with cytokine release

Front 1792

Increased plasma homocysteine

Back 1792

increase vessel thrombosis; folate (MC)/vitamin B12 deficiency

Front 1793

Hyaline arteriolosclerosis

Back 1793

small vessel disease of DM and hypertension; excess protein in vessel wall

Front 1794

Mechanisms hyaline arteriolosclerosis in DM

Back 1794

non-enzymatic glycosylation

Front 1795

Non-enzymatic glycosylation

Back 1795

glucose attaches to amino acids in BM; causes increase permeability to protein

Front 1796

Mechanisms hyaline arteriolosclerosis in hypertension

Back 1796

pressure pushes proteins into vessel wall

Front 1797

Cystic medial degeneration

Back 1797

elastic tissue degeneration creates spaces filled with mucopolysaccharides

Front 1798

Intimal tear in aorta

Back 1798

due to wall stress from hypertension and structural weakness

Front 1799

Types of dissection

Back 1799

proximal (MC); distal or combination of both

Front 1800

S/S proximal aortic dissection

Back 1800

chest pain radiating to back, lack of pulse; cardiac tamponade MC COD

Front 1801

Phlebothrombosis

Back 1801

stasis of blood flow; deep veins below knee MC site

Front 1802

Superficial migratory thrombophlebitis

Back 1802

sign of carcinoma of head of pancreas

Front 1803

Thoracic outlet syndrome

Back 1803

absent radial pulse with positional change

Front 1804

Bacillary angiomatosis

Back 1804

Bartonella henselae; vascular infection in AIDS

Front 1805

Muscular artery vasculitis

Back 1805

vessel thrombosis with infarction; e.g., classical polyarteritis nodosa

Front 1806

Elastic artery vasculitis

Back 1806

absent pulse, stroke

Front 1807

Giant cell arteritis

Back 1807

temporal artery granulomatous vasculitis; ipsilateral blindness (ophthalmic artery)

Front 1808

Classical polyarteritis nodosa

Back 1808

muscular artery vasculitis with vessel thrombosis infarction

Front 1809

Path findings for Classical polyarteritis nodosa

Back 1809

vessel inflammation at different stages; aneurysms from vessel weakness

Front 1810

S/S Classical polyarteritis nodosa

Back 1810

infarctions in kidneys, skin, GI tract, heart; HBsAg in 30%

Front 1811

Kawasaki‘s disease

Back 1811

coronary artery vasculitis/thrombosis/aneurysms in children

Front 1812

S/S Kawasaki's disease

Back 1812

chest pain; desquamating rash; swelling hands/feet; cervical lymphadenopathy

Front 1813

Rx for Kawasaki's disease

Back 1813

IV y-globulin

Front 1814

Cryoglobulinemia

Back 1814

protein gels in cold temperature; Raynaud's syndrome; HCV association

Front 1815

S/S Cryoglobulinemia

Back 1815

acral cyanosis relieved by coming indoors

Front 1816

Microscopic polyangiitis

Back 1816

palpable purpura; crescentic GN; association with p-ANCA

Front 1817

Henoch-Schönlein purpura

Back 1817

IgA-anti-IgA ICs; palpable purpura buttocks/legs; arthritis; IgA GN

Front 1818

Serum sickness vasculitis

Back 1818

e.g., horse antivenin in Rx of rattlesnake envenomation

Front 1819

Meningococcemia

Back 1819

sepsis causes petechia/ecchymoses; potential for Waterhouse Friderichsen syndrome

Front 1820

Renovascular HTN

Back 1820

atherosclerosis renal artery in men; fibromuscular hyperplasia renal artery women

Front 1821

Endocrine HTN

Back 1821

1° HPTH, Graves/hypothyroidism, Cushing's, 1° aldosteronism, phaeochromocytoma

Front 1822

AMI ruptures

Back 1822

3rd-7th day

Front 1823

Posteromedial papillary muscle rupture

Back 1823

RCA thrombosis; mitral regurgitation with LHF

Front 1824

S/S Pericarditis

Back 1824

friction rub; leaning forward relieves pain

Front 1825

Right ventricular infarction

Back 1825

RCA thrombosis; hypotension, RHF, preserved left ventricular function

Front 1826

Reinfarction

Back 1826

reappearance CK-MB after 3 days

Front 1827

Complications cyanotic heart disease

Back 1827

2° polycythemia; infective endocarditis; metastatic abscesses

Front 1828

S/S Post-ductal coarctation

Back 1828

upper extremity HTN; claudication; rib-notching; activation RAA also causes HTN

Front 1829

Acute rheumatic fever

Back 1829

type II hypersensitivity; group A streptococcus pharyngeal infection; sterile vegetations mitral valve (regurgitation); myocarditis with Aschoff nodule

Front 1830

S/S MVP

Back 1830

mid-systolic click followed by a murmur; palpitations, chest pain, rupture of chordae

Front 1831

MVP click/murmur close to S1

Back 1831

decrease preload (stand, Valsalva, anxiety)

Front 1832

MVP click/murmur close to S2

Back 1832

increase preload (supine, squat, clench fist)

Front 1833

Causes of Mitral regurgitation

Back 1833

LHF, infective endocarditis, acute rheumatic fever

Front 1834

Austin Flint murmur

Back 1834

diastolic murmur; regurgitant flow on anterior leaflet mitral valve

Front 1835

Significance Austin Flint murmur

Back 1835

sign for Aortic V replacement

Front 1836

Causes of Tricuspid regurgitation

Back 1836

endocarditis IV drug abuse; RHF; carcinoid heart disease

Front 1837

Carcinoid heart disease

Back 1837

tricuspid regurgitation, pulmonic stenosis

Front 1838

Infective endocarditis (IE)

Back 1838

Streptococcus viridans MCC; Staphylococcus aureus MCC IVDA

Front 1839

Infective endocarditis in ulcerative bowel disease

Back 1839

Streptococcus bovis

Front 1840

Parasitic cause myocarditis

Back 1840

leishmania in Chagas disease

Front 1841

S/S Pericardial effusion

Back 1841

muffled heart sounds, pulsus paradoxus, inspiratory neck vein distention

Front 1842

Causes Congestive cardiomyopathy

Back 1842

postpartum, cardiotoxic drugs, hypothyroidism, alcohol

Front 1843

Causes of Restrictive cardiomyopathy

Back 1843

iron, amyloid, glycogen; sarcoidosis; tropical endocardial fibrosis

Front 1844

Cardiac rhabdomyoma

Back 1844

childhood tumor; association with tuberous sclerosis

Front 1845

U wave

Back 1845

hypokalemia; MCC diuretic therapy (e.g., thiazides; loop diuretics)

Front 1846

Peaked T wave

Back 1846

hyperkalemia; MCC renal failure

Front 1847

Causes fatty change in liver

Back 1847

increase synthesis TG/FAs, beta-oxidation of FAs, synthesis apoproteins/release VLDL

Front 1848

Fatty change in kwashiorkor

Back 1848

decrease synthesis of apoproteins

Front 1849

Hairy leukoplakia

Back 1849

EBV glossitis; pre-AIDS defining lesion; not precursor to cancer

Front 1850

Mumps

Back 1850

bilateral parotitis; unilateral orchitis; increase amylase

Front 1851

Exudative tonsillitis

Back 1851

majority are viral; 20% group A streptococcus

Front 1852

Oral thrush

Back 1852

common in newborn; pre-AIDS defining lesion; yeasts and pseudohyphae

Front 1853

Peutz-Jegher's syndrome

Back 1853

mucosal pigmentation; hamartomatous polyps

Front 1854

Leukoplakia/erythroleukoplakia

Back 1854

biopsy to rule out squamous dysplasia or cancer

Front 1855

Squamous cell carcinoma

Back 1855

smoking and alcohol association; lower lip MC site

Front 1856

Smokeless tobacco

Back 1856

verrucoid squamous cell carcinoma

Front 1857

Gum hyperplasia

Back 1857

phenytoin, pregnancy, scurvy

Front 1858

Pleomorphic adenoma

Back 1858

MC benign tumor of salivary glands; parotid MC site

Front 1859

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

Back 1859

MC malignant tumor major and minor salivary glands

Front 1860

AIDS esophagitis

Back 1860

Candida MC, CMV, HSV

Front 1861

Hamman's mediastinal crunch

Back 1861

pneumomediastinum (air in subcutaneous tissue)

Front 1862

LES ganglion cells

Back 1862

contain VIP - relaxes LES

Front 1863

Achalasia

Back 1863

failure of LES relaxation (no VIP); absent ganglion cells in the myenteric plexus

Front 1864

Acquired achalasia

Back 1864

Chagas' disease; leishmania destroy ganglion cells

Front 1865

Congenital pyloric stenosis

Back 1865

hypertrophy pyloric muscle; vomiting non-bile stained fluid in 2-4 weeks

Front 1866

Acute hemorrhagic (erosive) gastritis

Back 1866

NSAIDs MCC

Front 1867

Type A chronic gastritis

Back 1867

due to PA; achlorhydria with increase serum gastrin

Front 1868

Type B chronic gastritis

Back 1868

due to H. pylori; involves pylorus and antrum

Front 1869

Gastric ulcer

Back 1869

lesser curvature pylorus and antrum; poor defense against acid; food aggravates pain

Front 1870

Perforated peptic ulcer

Back 1870

air under diaphragm causes pain in left shoulder

Front 1871

Menetrier's disease

Back 1871

giant rugal hyperplasia; protein loss from increased mucus

Front 1872

Hypergastrinemia

Back 1872

ZE, achlorhydria, gastric distention, H2 or proton blockers; renal failure

Front 1873

Malabsorption

Back 1873

steatorrhea; chronic pancreatitis, bile salt deficiency, small bowel disease

Front 1874

Causes bile salt deficiency

Back 1874

liver disease, bile salt resins, cholestasis, bacterial overgrowth, Crohn's

Front 1875

D-xylose screen

Back 1875

failure to reabsorb xylose indicates small bowel disease

Front 1876

Calcification of pancreas

Back 1876

chronic pancreatitis cause of malabsorption

Front 1877

Invasive diarrhea

Back 1877

Campylobacter jejuni MCC; positive fecal smear for leukocytes

Front 1878

Rotavirus

Back 1878

MCC diarrhea in children

Front 1879

Norwalk virus

Back 1879

MCC diarrhea in adults

Front 1880

Cytomegalovirus

Back 1880

common cause diarrhea in AIDS; MCC cholecystitis and pancreatitis in AIDS

Front 1881

Shigella sonnei

Back 1881

produces dysentery (bloody diarrhea); associated with HUS

Front 1882

Salmonella enteritidis

Back 1882

gastroenteritis; animal reservoirs - poultry, turtles

Front 1883

Salmonella paratyphi

Back 1883

sepsis; osteomyelitis in HbSS

Front 1884

Salmonella typhi

Back 1884

typhoid fever; human transmission; bradycardia, neutropenia, splenomegaly

Front 1885

Carrier state site of salmonella

Back 1885

gallbladder

Front 1886

M. tuberculosis

Back 1886

MCC intestinal TB in United States (swallow TB); Peyer's patch site of infection

Front 1887

Enterotoxigenic E. coli

Back 1887

secretory diarrhea (traveler's diarrhea); toxin stimulates guanylate cyclase

Front 1888

Yersinia enterocolitica

Back 1888

mesenteric lymphadenitis; sepsis in iron overload states

Front 1889

Entamoeba histolytica

Back 1889

dysentery; trophozoites phagocytose RBCs; liver abscess; Rx metronidazole

Front 1890

Cryptosporidium parvum

Back 1890

MCC diarrhea in AIDS; acid-fast oocysts

Front 1891

Trichuris trichiura

Back 1891

rectal prolapse in children

Front 1892

Enterobius vermicularis

Back 1892

anal pruritus; urethritis in girls; no eosinophilia

Front 1893

Necator americanus

Back 1893

hookworm; iron deficiency anemia

Front 1894

Strongyloides stercoralis

Back 1894

rhabditiform larvae in stool not eggs

Front 1895

Diphyllobothrium latum

Back 1895

fish tapeworm; vitamin B12 deficiency

Front 1896

Signs of small bowel obstruction

Back 1896

colicky pain; constipation and obstipation

Front 1897

Radiograph in small bowel obstruction

Back 1897

air-fluid levels on x-ray

Front 1898

MCC small bowel obstruction

Back 1898

adhesions from previous surgery

Front 1899

Duodenal atresia

Back 1899

vomiting bile-stained fluid at birth; double bubble sign; Down syndrome

Front 1900

Hirschsprung association

Back 1900

Down syndrome; Chagas disease

Front 1901

Meconium ileus

Back 1901

complication of cystic fibrosis

Front 1902

Indirect inguinal hernia

Back 1902

second MCC of small bowel obstruction; common in weight lifting

Front 1903

Gallstone ileus

Back 1903

obstruction of small bowel with gallstone + air in biliary tree

Front 1904

Volvulus

Back 1904

MC due to sigmoid colon twisting around mesentery

Front 1905

Direct inguinal hernia

Back 1905

protrudes through center of triangle of Hesselbach; no obstruction

Front 1906

Umbilical hernia

Back 1906

common in black children; may entrap bowel in adults

Front 1907

Small bowel infarction

Back 1907

diffuse abdominal pain with bloody diarrhea

Front 1908

Causes small bowel infarction

Back 1908

embolism (atrial fibrillation), thrombosis SMA or SMV

Front 1909

Ischemic colitis

Back 1909

splenic flexure pain with bloody diarrhea

Front 1910

Mesenteric angina

Back 1910

pain in splenic flexure 30 minutes after eating

Front 1911

Angiodysplasia

Back 1911

submucosal dilation of venules in cecum; cause of hematochezia

Front 1912

Hematochezia

Back 1912

massive loss of blood per rectum; diverticulosis MCC

Front 1913

Meckel's diverticulum

Back 1913

persistence omphalomesenteric duct; mimics acute appendicitis; cannot differentiate without radionuclide scan

Front 1914

S/S Meckel's diverticulum

Back 1914

bleeding MC (iron deficiency in children), diverticulitis

Front 1915

Sigmoid diverticulum

Back 1915

diverticulitis MC complication; MCC hematochezia and fistula formation

Front 1916

Diverticulitis

Back 1916

left-sided acute appendicitis

Front 1917

Ulcerative colitis associations

Back 1917

primary sclerosing cholangitis, seronegative HLA B27 + spondyloarthropathy

Front 1918

Carcinoid tumor

Back 1918

appendix MC site; terminal ileum MC site for carcinoid syndrome

Front 1919

Carcinoid syndrome

Back 1919

liver metastasis; flushing/diarrhea due to serotonin; increased urine 5-HIAA

Front 1920

Tubular adenomas

Back 1920

precursor lesion colon cancer; size and number determine risk of malignancy

Front 1921

Villous adenoma

Back 1921

greatest risk for colon cancer (30%); secrete mucus rich in protein and potassium

Front 1922

Turcot's syndrome

Back 1922

AD, polyposis plus brain tumors

Front 1923

Acute appendicitis

Back 1923

due to lymphoid hyperplasia in children and obstruction by fecalith in adults

Front 1924

External hemorrhoids

Back 1924

thrombose

Front 1925

Internal hemorrhoids

Back 1925

bleed; prolapse out of rectum

Front 1926

Alcoholic liver disease

Back 1926

serum AST>ALT; increase serum GGT

Front 1927

Cholestasis markers

Back 1927

serum AP and GGT

Front 1928

% Conjugated bilirubin <20%

Back 1928

Gilberts, spherocytosis, physiologic jaundice newborn, ABO/Rh HDN

Front 1929

Gilbert's disease

Back 1929

AD; decrease uptake and conjugation; bilirubin increases with fasting

Front 1930

% Conjugated bilirubin 20-50%

Back 1930

viral/alcoholic hepatitis

Front 1931

% Conjugated bilirubin >50%

Back 1931

bile duct obstruction (intra or extrahepatic); carcinoma head of pancreas

Front 1932

Negative urine bilirubin + trace urobilinogen

Back 1932

normal urine

Front 1933

Positive urine bilirubin, absent urobilinogen

Back 1933

obstructive jaundice

Front 1934

Positive urine bilirubin + increased urobilinogen

Back 1934

hepatitis

Front 1935

Negative urine bilirubin + increased urobilinogen

Back 1935

extravascular hemolytic anemia

Front 1936

Markers of severity of liver disease

Back 1936

albumin, PT

Front 1937

Anti-HBs + anti-HBc-IgG

Back 1937

recovered from HBV

Front 1938

HBsAg + HBeAg + HBVDNA + anti-HBc-IgM

Back 1938

acute HBV/chronic HBV infective carrier if >6 months

Front 1939

Anti HBc-IgM alone

Back 1939

serologic gap; not infective

Front 1940

HBsAg + anti-HBc-IgM

Back 1940

chronic HBV healthy carrier

Front 1941

Fulminant hepatic failure

Back 1941

viral hepatitis and acetaminophen MCCs

Front 1942

Spontaneous peritonitis

Back 1942

E. coli in adults; S. pneumoniae in children; complication of ascites

Front 1943

Granulomatous hepatitis

Back 1943

TB MC bacteria

Front 1944

Schistosomiasis

Back 1944

Schistosoma mansoni; adult worms in portal vein; "pipe stem cirrhosis"

Front 1945

Hypertriglyceridemia in alcoholics

Back 1945

increase synthesis of glycerol 3P (substrate for TG synthesis)

Front 1946

Ketoacidosis in alcoholics

Back 1946

increase lactate, increase β-HOB (acetyl CoA converted to AcAc and then β-HOB)

Front 1947

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

Back 1947

association with ulcerative colitis; MCC of cholangiocarcinoma

Front 1948

Extrahepatic biliary atresia

Back 1948

neonatal cholestasis

Front 1949

Drugs causing hepatitis

Back 1949

acetaminophen, isoniazid, halothane

Front 1950

Anabolic steroids

Back 1950

intrahepatic cholestasis

Front 1951

Estrogen/oral contraceptives

Back 1951

intrahepatic cholestasis; hepatic adenoma (intraperitoneal hemorrhage)

Front 1952

Methotrexate

Back 1952

liver fibrosis, fatty change

Front 1953

Liver angiosarcoma

Back 1953

vinyl chloride

Front 1954

S/S Hemochromatosis

Back 1954

cirrhosis; "bronze diabetes" - skin pigmentation + destruction of islet cells; malabsorption

Front 1955

Lab Hemochromatosis

Back 1955

increase serum ferritin, iron, % saturation; decrease TIBC

Front 1956

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency in child

Back 1956

AR, cannot secrete AAT from liver cell; cirrhosis; hepatocellular carcinoma

Front 1957

Causes cirrhosis

Back 1957

alcohol (MC), HBV/HCV, hemochromatosis, Wilson's, AAT deficiency, 1° biliary

Front 1958

Cause of ascites

Back 1958

portal hypertension; hypoalbuminemia; secondary aldosteronism

Front 1959

Rx ascites

Back 1959

use aldosterone blocker (acidosis increases loss ammonium in stool)

Front 1960

Lab findings cirrhosis

Back 1960

decrease BUN, glucose, sodium, potassium, calcium (decrease vitamin D); increase PT

Front 1961

Liver cell adenoma

Back 1961

estrogen related (steroids, oral contraceptives); intraperitoneal hemorrhage

Front 1962

Liver cancer

Back 1962

metastasis MC cancer; lung cancer MC primary site

Front 1963

Cholangiocarcinoma

Back 1963

primary sclerosing cholangitis MCC, C.C sinensis

Front 1964

Pathogenesis of cholesterol stones

Back 1964

bile with too much cholesterol and too little bile salts

Front 1965

Gallbladder cancer risk factors

Back 1965

cholelithiasis and porcelain gallbladder

Front 1966

Sentinel loop

Back 1966

localized ileus of duodenum due to acute pancreatitis

Front 1967

Pancreatic pseudocyst

Back 1967

abdominal mass; persistence of increase serum amylase >1 week

Front 1968

First sign tubule cell dysfunction

Back 1968

inability to concentrate urine

Front 1969

Positive urine nitrite + positive urine leukocyte esterase

Back 1969

urinary tract infection

Front 1970

Bladder smooth muscle hypertrophy

Back 1970

prostate hyperplasia constricts urethra

Front 1971

Priapism

Back 1971

persistent/painful erection; HbSS

Front 1972

Squamous cell carcinoma penis

Back 1972

HPV and lack of circumcision most important risk factors

Front 1973

Epididymitis

Back 1973

<35 - N. gonorrhoeae, C. trachomatis; >35 - E. coli, P. aeruginosa

Front 1974

S/S Epididymitis

Back 1974

scrotal pain relieved by elevation of scrotum (Prehn's sign)

Front 1975

Torsion of testicle

Back 1975

testicle high in canal; absent cremasteric reflex

Front 1976

Risk factors Testicular cancer

Back 1976

cryptorchid testis, Klinefelter's, testicular feminization

Front 1977

Seminoma

Back 1977

MC cancer; radiosensitive; large cells with lymphoid infiltrate; small percentage have increased hCG

Front 1978

Spermatocytic variant

Back 1978

>65 yrs of age

Front 1979

Embryonal carcinoma in testis

Back 1979

hemorrhage/necrosis; hematogenous spread before lymphatic; increased AFP, hCG

Front 1980

Yolk sac tumor

Back 1980

MC testicular cancer in boys; increased AFP

Front 1981

Choriocarcinoma in testis

Back 1981

most aggressive testicle cancer; increased hCG

Front 1982

Teratoma in testis

Back 1982

more often benign in children than adult

Front 1983

Teratocarcinoma in testis

Back 1983

teratoma + embryonal carcinoma

Front 1984

Malignant lymphoma in testis

Back 1984

MC type in elderly; metastasis not primary cancer

Front 1985

Prostatitis

Back 1985

perineal pain, fever; WBCs at end of voiding

Front 1986

PSA

Back 1986

sensitive but not specific for prostate cancer; increase in hyperplasia

Front 1987

Kallmann's syndrome

Back 1987

absent GnRH, anosmia, absence of taste

Front 1988

Erection

Back 1988

parasympathetic response

Front 1989

Ejaculation

Back 1989

sympathetic response

Front 1990

Seminiferous tubule failure

Back 1990

increase FSH (decrease inhibin); decrease sperm count; normal LH and testosterone

Front 1991

Venous thrombus

Back 1991

fibrin clot with entrapped RBCs, WBCs, platelets; deep veins below knee (stasis)

Front 1992

Arterial thrombus

Back 1992

endothelial injury; platelets held together by fibrin

Front 1993

Fat embolus

Back 1993

long bone fractures; delayed symptoms (48 hrs); thrombocytopenia, hypoxemia

Front 1994

Amniotic fluid embolism

Back 1994

DIC; lanugo hair in maternal pulmonary arteries

Front 1995

Diving

Back 1995

1 atmosphere pressure increase with 33 foot descent into water; N2 gas dissolved in tissue

Front 1996

Kidneys

Back 1996

most susceptible organ in shock; straight portion proximal tubule most susceptible

Front 1997

Shock complications

Back 1997

ischemic ATN, multiorgan failure, increase AG metabolic acidosis

Front 1998

Transitional cell carcinoma

Back 1998

renal pelvis, ureter, bladder

Front 1999

Liposarcoma

Back 1999

MC sarcoma in adults

Front 2000

Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma

Back 2000

MC sarcoma in children

Front 2001

Teratoma

Back 2001

ectoderm, endoderm, mesoderm derivatives; bone/teeth visible on x-ray

Front 2002

Hamartoma

Back 2002

normal tissue, normal site; bronchial hamartoma, Peutz Jeghers polyp

Front 2003

Choristoma

Back 2003

normal tissue aberrant tissue location; pancreatic tissue stomach wall

Front 2004

Mixed tumor

Back 2004

different morphologic patterns, same germ cell layer; pleomorphic adenoma parotid

Front 2005

Upregulate telomerase

Back 2005

increases telomere length; found in all neoplastic cells

Front 2006

E-Cadherin

Back 2006

intercellular adhesion; lose adhesion in malignant cells

Front 2007

Malignant cells

Back 2007

receptors for laminin (basement membrane), fibronectin (ECM)

Front 2008

Invasion enzyme

Back 2008

type IV collagenase (basement membrane)

Front 2009

Angiogenesis

Back 2009

basic fibroblast growth factor, vascular endothelium growth factor

Front 2010

Vessel invading carcinomas

Back 2010

renal cell carcinoma (renal vein, vena cava), hepatocellular carcinoma

Front 2011

Seeding

Back 2011

ovarian cancer, periphery lung, CNS via spinal fluid

Front 2012

Sites where metastasis more common primary cancer

Back 2012

lung, bone, brain, liver, adrenal

Front 2013

Sites where primary cancer more common than metastasis

Back 2013

GI tract, kidney, urogenital

Front 2014

Bone sites metastasis

Back 2014

vertebra MC (Batson venous plexus)

Front 2015

Osteoblastic metastasis

Back 2015

prostate cancer; increased serum AP, hypercalcemia

Front 2016

EM neurosecretory granules

Back 2016

carcinoid tumors, small cell carcinoma, neuroblastoma

Front 2017

EM thin and thick myofilaments

Back 2017

rhabdomyosarcoma

Front 2018

Cancers in children

Back 2018

leukemia (MC), CNS tumors, Burkitt's, Ewing's, neuroblastoma

Front 2019

Gynecologic cancers

Back 2019

endometrium > ovary > cervix

Front 2020

Malignant melanoma

Back 2020

fastest increasing in world

Front 2021

Southeast Asia (cancer)

Back 2021

hepatocellular carcinoma (HBV + aflatoxin)

Front 2022

Africa (cancer)

Back 2022

Burkitt's lymphoma, Kaposi sarcoma (HHV-8)

Front 2023

Parasitic causes of cancer

Back 2023

S. hematobium (SCC bladder), C. sinensis (cholangiocarcinoma)

Front 2024

Regulatory genes

Back 2024

proto-oncogenes, suppressor genes, anti-apoptosis genes

Front 2025

Overexpression

Back 2025

enhances activity of BCL-2

Front 2026

ERB-B2 POC

Back 2026

function growth factor receptor; activation bad prognostic sign for breast carcinoma

Front 2027

RAS POC

Back 2027

function-GTP signal transduction; point mutation; 30% of all human cancer

Front 2028

APC suppressor gene function

Back 2028

prevents nuclear transcription by catenin

Front 2029

Chromosome instability syndromes

Back 2029

AR; susceptibility to DNA damage; leukemias, lymphomas

Front 2030

Examples chromosome instability

Back 2030

Bloom syndrome, ataxia telangiectasia, Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

Front 2031

Carcinogens

Back 2031

chemicals (MC), viruses, radiation, H. pylori, physical (squamous cancer in bum scar)

Front 2032

Polycyclic hydrocarbons

Back 2032

key chemical carcinogen (cigarette smoke)

Front 2033

Thorium dioxide

Back 2033

hepatocellular carcinoma, cholangiocarcinoma

Front 2034

Benzene

Back 2034

leukemia

Front 2035

EBV

Back 2035

Burkitt's; CNS lymphoma (AIDS); Hodgkin's mixed cellularity; nasopharyngeal carcinoma

Front 2036

UVB cancers

Back 2036

basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma

Front 2037

Cachexia

Back 2037

due to tumor necrosis factor-α

Front 2038

Clubbing

Back 2038

possible marker for lung cancer

Front 2039

Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis mitral valve (cancer?)

Back 2039

possible marker for pancreatic cancer

Front 2040

AFP

Back 2040

hepatocellular carcinoma, yolk sac tumors

Front 2041

CEA

Back 2041

recurrence colorectal cancer

Front 2042

Renal cell carcinoma

Back 2042

EPO (polycythemia), PTH-related peptide (hypercalcemia)

Front 2043

Hepatocellular carcinoma

Back 2043

EPO (polycythemia), insulin-like factor (hypoglycemia)

Front 2044

Medullary carcinoma of thyroid

Back 2044

calcitonin (hypocalcemia), ACTH (ectopic Cushing's)

Front 2045

MCHC

Back 2045

average Hb concentration in RBCs; decrease in microcytic anemias; increase in spherocytosis

Front 2046

Thalassemias (MCV, RBC?)

Back 2046

decrease MCV, increase RBC count

Front 2047

RDW

Back 2047

RBC size variation; increase iron deficiency; normal in other microcytic anemias

Front 2048

Total iron binding capacity

Back 2048

increase iron deficiency; decrease anemia chronic disease, sideroblastic anemia

Front 2049

Fe % Saturation

Back 2049

decrease iron deficiency, anemia chronic disease; increase sideroblastic anemia

Front 2050

Serum ferritin

Back 2050

decrease iron deficiency; increase anemia chronic disease, sideroblastic anemia; normal thalassemia

Front 2051

Microcytic anemias

Back 2051

iron deficiency MC, anemic chronic disease, thalassemia, sideroblastic anemia

Front 2052

Iron deficiency child

Back 2052

MCC Meckel's diverticulum

Front 2053

Stages iron deficiency

Back 2053

decrease ferritin; decrease Fe and % saturation, increase TIBC; normocytic then microcytic anemia

Front 2054

Anemia chronic disease

Back 2054

MC anemia in malignancy and alcoholics

Front 2055

α-Thalassemia trait

Back 2055

AR; two α-globin gene deletions; normal Hb electrophoresis

Front 2056

HbH disease

Back 2056

three α-globin gene deletions; hemolytic anemia; four β-globin chains

Front 2057

Hb Bart's disease

Back 2057

four α-globin gene deletions; four γ-globin chains

Front 2058

β-Thalassemia minor

Back 2058

AR; DNA splicing defect; increase HbA2 and F; decrease HbA

Front 2059

β-Thalassemia major

Back 2059

nonsense mutation with stop codon; hemolytic anemia; increase HbF, increase HbA2

Front 2060

Sideroblastic anemia

Back 2060

defect in mitochondrial heme synthesis producing ringed sideroblasts

Front 2061

Causes sideroblastic anemia

Back 2061

alcohol, pyridoxine deficiency (isoniazid Rx of TB), Pb poisoning

Front 2062

Pb poisoning

Back 2062

inhibition ferrochelatase, d-aminolevulinic acid dehydrase, ribonuclease

Front 2063

S/S Pb poisoning adult

Back 2063

peripheral neuropathy; proximal renal tubule damage (Fanconi's syndrome)

Front 2064

Lab Pb poisoning

Back 2064

coarse basophilic stippling RBCs; decrease MCV; increase blood Pb; increase d-aminolevulinic acid

Front 2065

R factor

Back 2065

binds with B12 in mouth, removed by pancreatic enzymes in small intestine

Front 2066

Causes B12 deficiency

Back 2066

vegan, pernicious anemia MC, fish tapeworm, pancreatitis, bacterial overgrowth, Crohn's disease

Front 2067

Causes folate deficiency

Back 2067

alcohol MCC, poor diet, drugs, malabsorption, pregnancy, goat milk

Front 2068

Drugs and folate deficiency

Back 2068

alcohol, OC, phenytoin, methotrexate, trimethoprim, 5-fluorouracil

Front 2069

Intestinal conjugase in folate metabolism

Back 2069

inhibited by phenytoin

Front 2070

Jejunal uptake of monoglutamate form of folate

Back 2070

inhibited by alcohol and OC

Front 2071

Dihydrofolate reductase inhibited by

Back 2071

inhibited by methotrexate, trimethoprim

Front 2072

Thymidylate synthetase inhibited by

Back 2072

inhibited by 5-fluorouracil

Front 2073

Folate deficiency

Back 2073

MCC of increased serum homocysteine

Front 2074

Lab findings unique to B12 deficiency

Back 2074

increase gastrin (pernicious anemia), increase methylmalonic acid

Front 2075

Aplastic anemia

Back 2075

drugs (e.g., phenylbutazone); infection (e.g., parvovirus); benzene

Front 2076

Intravascular hemolysis

Back 2076

decrease serum haptoglobin; hemoglobinuria; hemosiderinuria

Front 2077

Congenital spherocytosis

Back 2077

AD; defect in spectrin; extravascular hemolysis; splenomegaly

Front 2078

Blood findings in spherocytosis

Back 2078

normocytic anemia; dense RBCs, increase MCHC, increase osmotic fragility

Front 2079

PNH

Back 2079

missing decay accelerating factor; complement destruction RBCs, neutrophils, platelets

Front 2080

S/S PNH

Back 2080

pancytopenia; hemoglobinuria; positive sugar water test and acidified serum test

Front 2081

Causes of sickling

Back 2081

increase deoxyhemoglobin (hypoxemia, acidosis); HbS > 60%

Front 2082

HbF

Back 2082

inhibits sickling; hydroxyurea increase HbF

Front 2083

HbSS children

Back 2083

dactylitis (6-9 months); Streptococcus pneumoniae sepsis (dysfunctional spleen)

Front 2084

HbSS complications

Back 2084

aplastic crisis (parvovirus B-19), acute chest syndrome, autosplenectomy, calcium bilirubinate gallstones, priapism, aseptic necrosis

Front 2085

HbAS

Back 2085

microhematuria from sickling in renal medulla; renal papillary necrosis

Front 2086

Hb electrophoresis

Back 2086

HbAS-HbA 55-60%, HbS 40-45%; HbSS-HbS 90-95%, HbF 5-10%

Front 2087

Blood findings in HbSS

Back 2087

sickle cells; target cells; Howell-Jolly bodies (nuclear remnants)

Front 2088

Warm type AIHA

Back 2088

IgG; extravascular hemolysis; e.g., SLE, drugs

Front 2089

Cold type AIHA

Back 2089

IgM intravascular hemolysis; e.g., CLL, Mycoplasma

Front 2090

Penicillin induced hemolysis

Back 2090

IgG antibody against penicillin attached to RBC (type II hypersensitivity)

Front 2091

Methyldopa induced hemolysis

Back 2091

drug alters Rh antigens; IgG antibody against Rh antigens (type II hypersensitivity)

Front 2092

Quinidine induced hemolysis

Back 2092

drug-IgM IC; intravascular hemolysis; type III hypersensitivity

Front 2093

Lab findings AIHA

Back 2093

positive direct Coombs'; spherocytes

Front 2094

Peripheral blood findings micro/macro hemolysis

Back 2094

schistocytes; iron deficiency from hemoglobinuria

Front 2095

Malaria

Back 2095

intravascular hemolysis correlates with fever; falciparum-ring forms and gametocytes

Front 2096

Leukoerythroblastic reaction

Back 2096

marrow infiltrative disease peripheralizes myeloblasts/nucleated RBCs

Front 2097

Causes of leukoerythroblastic reaction

Back 2097

bone metastasis MCC, myelofibrosis

Front 2098

Helminthes not producing eosinophilia

Back 2098

pinworms, adult worms in ascariasis

Front 2099

Atypical lymphocytes

Back 2099

mononucleosis; CMV; toxoplasmosis; viral hepatitis; phenytoin

Front 2100

Lab findings mono

Back 2100

atypical lymphocytosis; IgM heterophile antibodies against horse RBCs

Front 2101

Lymphopenia

Back 2101

T cell deficiencies (HIV); combined B/T deficiency (adenine deaminase deficiency)

Front 2102

Lymphocytosis

Back 2102

viral infections, whooping cough

Front 2103

Corticosteroids

Back 2103

lymphopenia, eosinopenia, neutrophilia

Front 2104

Chronic MPD

Back 2104

neoplastic stem cell disorder; splenomegaly; marrow fibrosis; risk for leukemia

Front 2105

Examples of MPD

Back 2105

polycythemia vera, myelofibrosis and myeloid metaplasia

Front 2106

Absolute polycythemia

Back 2106

increase RBC count and RBC mass

Front 2107

Appropriate polycythemia

Back 2107

hypoxic stimulus for EPO to generate RBCs

Front 2108

Appropriate absolute polycythemia

Back 2108

normal plasma volume; increase RBC mass; decrease SaO2; increase EPO

Front 2109

Polycythemia vera

Back 2109

increase plasma volume and RBC mass; normal SaO2; decrease EPO

Front 2110

Ectopic EPO (renal cell carcinoma)

Back 2110

normal plasma volume; increase RBC mass; normal SaO2; increase EPO

Front 2111

Myelofibrosis myeloid metaplasia

Back 2111

marrow fibrosis; extramedullary hematopoiesis; splenomegaly

Front 2112

Lab findings in myelofibrosis

Back 2112

tear drop RBCs; dry bone marrow aspirate (marrow fibrosis)

Front 2113

Essential thrombocythemia

Back 2113

MPO with increase in abnormal appearing platelets

Front 2114

Myelodysplastic syndrome

Back 2114

severe anemia in elderly; 30% develop leukemia; ringed sideroblasts

Front 2115

Acute vs. chronic leukemia

Back 2115

acute, blasts >30% in bone marrow; chronic, blasts <10% in bone marrow

Front 2116

Acute monocytic leukemia

Back 2116

gum infiltration

Front 2117

CML

Back 2117

t(9;22) of ABL POC; Philadelphia chromosome 22; decrease alkaline phosphatase score

Front 2118

ALL

Back 2118

early pre-B (80%); CALLA (CD10) and TdT positive; CNS and testicle involvement ; t(12;21) offers good prognosis

Front 2119

CLL

Back 2119

B cell neoplasm; decrease γ-globulins; MCC generalized lymphadenopathy patients> 60-yrs-old

Front 2120

Adult T cell leukemia

Back 2120

HTLV-1; CD4 T cells; skin infiltration; lytic bone lesions with hypercalcemia

Front 2121

Hairy cell leukemia

Back 2121

positive TRAP stain; splenomegaly; Rx with purine nucleosides

Front 2122

Nodal sites

Back 2122

germinal follicles, B cells; paracortex, T cells; sinuses, histiocytes

Front 2123

Phenytoin

Back 2123

atypical lymphocytosis

Front 2124

Cat scratch disease

Back 2124

Bartonella henselae; granulomatous microabscesses

Front 2125

Extra nodal lymphomas

Back 2125

risk factors H. pylori (stomach); Sjogren's syndrome

Front 2126

Mycosis fungoides

Back 2126

CD4 T cell neoplasm; skin lesions with Pautrier's microabscesses

Front 2127

Sezary syndrome

Back 2127

leukemic phase of mycosis fungoides

Front 2128

MGUS

Back 2128

MC monoclonal gammopathy; may progress to myeloma

Front 2129

Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia

Back 2129

lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma; IgM M spike; hyperviscosity

Front 2130

Lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin's

Back 2130

infrequent classic RS cells

Front 2131

Nodular sclerosing Hodgkin's

Back 2131

female dominant; supraclavicular nodes + anterior mediastinal nodes

Front 2132

Mixed cellularity Hodgkin's

Back 2132

male dominant; numerous RS cells; EBV association

Front 2133

Alkylating agents in Rx of Hodgkins

Back 2133

increase risk for second malignancies (leukemia; NHL)

Front 2134

Langerhan's histiocytes

Back 2134

CD1 positive; Birbeck granules

Front 2135

Letterer-Siwe disease

Back 2135

malignant histiocytosis <2 yrs old; diffuse eczematous rash; organ involvement

Front 2136

Hand-Christian-Christian disease

Back 2136

malignant; lytic skull lesions, diabetes insipidus, exophthalmos

Front 2137

Eosinophilic granuloma

Back 2137

benign histiocytosis; lytic bone lesions with pathologic fractures

Front 2138

Urticaria pigmentosum

Back 2138

localized mastocytosis; skin lesions swell and itch with scratching

Front 2139

Amyloid

Back 2139

twisted β-sheet; apple green birefringence with Congo red

Front 2140

Primary amyloidosis

Back 2140

AL amyloid derived from light chains; plasma cell disorders

Front 2141

Secondary amyloidosis

Back 2141

AA amyloid derived from serum-associated amyloid; chronic infections

Front 2142

Alzheimer's disease

Back 2142

amyloid precursor protein gene product chromosome 21; amyloid-β

Front 2143

Heparin

Back 2143

enhances ATIII activity (neutralizes all factors except V, VIII, fibrinogen)

Front 2144

Procoagulants

Back 2144

coagulation factors, thromboxane A2 (platelet aggregation, vasoconstrictor)

Front 2145

Protein C and S

Back 2145

inactivate factors V and VIII; enhance fibrinolysis

Front 2146

Extrinsic system factor

Back 2146

VII

Front 2147

Intrinsic system factors

Back 2147

XII, XI, IX, VIII

Front 2148

Final common pathway factors

Back 2148

X, V, prothrombin (II), fibrinogen (I)

Front 2149

Factor XIII

Back 2149

cross-links insoluble fibrin; strengthens fibrin clots

Front 2150

Factors consumed in a clot

Back 2150

fibrinogen, prothrombin, V, VIII; fluid is called serum

Front 2151

Plasmin

Back 2151

cleaves fibrinogen and insoluble fibrin into degradation products

Front 2152

Tests for vWF

Back 2152

ristocetin cofactor assay; vWF antigen assay; agar electrophoresis

Front 2153

PT

Back 2153

evaluates extrinsic pathway to fibrin clot

Front 2154

PTT

Back 2154

evaluates intrinsic pathway to stable fibrin clot

Front 2155

Fibrinolysis tests

Back 2155

fibrin(ogen) degradation products; D-dimers (cross-linked insoluble fibrin)

Front 2156

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

Back 2156

children; antibodies against GpIIb:IIIa; no splenomegaly

Front 2157

Chronic autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura

Back 2157

SLE; antibodies against GpIIb:IIIa receptors

Front 2158

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia

Back 2158

thrombocytopenia due to IgG antibody against heparin attached to PF4 on platelets

Front 2159

PF4

Back 2159

heparin neutralizing factor

Front 2160

HIV

Back 2160

thrombocytopenia MC hematologic abnormality; similar to ITP

Front 2161

S/S TTP

Back 2161

fever, thrombocytopenia, renal failure, hemolytic anemia with schistocytes, CNS deficits

Front 2162

Lab findings TTP

Back 2162

thrombocytopenia, prolonged bleeding time, normal PT and PTT

Front 2163

HUS

Back 2163

similar to TTP; endothelial injury from Shiga-like toxin of 0157:H7 E. coli in undercooked beef

Front 2164

Desmopressin acetate

Back 2164

Rx of choice for mild von Willebrand's disease and hemophilia A

Front 2165

Antiphospholipid antibodies

Back 2165

lupus anticoagulant and anticardiolipin antibodies; vessel thrombosis

Front 2166

Factor V Leiden

Back 2166

MC hereditary thrombosis; resistant to degradation by protein C/S

Front 2167

Blood group O

Back 2167

some patients have anti-AB-IgG antibodies; increased incidence duodenal ulcers

Front 2168

Rh antigens

Back 2168

inherited in autosomal codominant fashion; Rh antigens include D, C, c, E, e

Front 2169

Atypical antibodies

Back 2169

antibodies against Rh or non-Rh blood group antigens (e.g., anti-D)

Front 2170

Duffy antigen

Back 2170

receptor for Plasmodium vivax; blacks often lack Duffy antigen

Front 2171

Antibody screen

Back 2171

indirect Coomb's test; detects atypical antibodies in serum

Front 2172

Cytomegalovirus

Back 2172

MC infection transmitted by blood transfusion; MC antibody

Front 2173

Hepatitis C

Back 2173

MCC of post-transfusion hepatitis

Front 2174

Major crossmatch

Back 2174

patient serum reacted against donor RBCs; does not guarantee RBC survival

Front 2175

Packed RBC transfusion

Back 2175

raises Hb by 1 gm/dL and Hct by 3%

Front 2176

Cryoprecipitate

Back 2176

fibrinogen and factor VIII

Front 2177

Allergic transfusion reaction

Back 2177

type I IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction

Front 2178

Febrile transfusion reaction

Back 2178

recipient anti-HLA antibodies react against donor leukocytes

Front 2179

Extravascular HTR

Back 2179

antibody attaches to donor RBCs; macrophage phagocytosis and hemolysis

Front 2180

Positive direct Coomb's test

Back 2180

present in both types of hemolytic transfusion reactions

Front 2181

ABO HDN

Back 2181

mother O and baby A or B; transplacental passage of maternal anti-AB-IgG; positive direct Coomb's test; spherocytes; MCC unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia first 24 hrs

Front 2182

Rh immune globulin

Back 2182

anti-D; coats D antigen site on fetal RBCs in maternal circulation

Front 2183

Rh HDN lab

Back 2183

positive direct Coomb's; severe anemia and hyperbilirubinemia

Front 2184

ABO HDN

Back 2184

protects mother from Rh sensitization (development of anti-D antibodies)

Front 2185

O Rh negative mother with A Rh positive baby

Back 2185

A+ cells destroyed by mothers anti A-lgM

Front 2186

Which is likely to present with systemic symptoms+large joint involvement,JRA or adult onset rheumatoid arthritis?

Back 2186

Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis

Front 2187

What is the surface antigen found on pluripotent stem cells?

Back 2187

CD34

Front 2188

What is the surface antigen found on APC's and what receptor does it bind on T lymphocytes?

Back 2188

B7 binds CD28 on helper T lymphocytes

Front 2189

What are the three vasculitides associated with antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA)?

Back 2189

Microscopic polyangiitis, Wegener's granulomatosis and Churg-Strauss syndrome

Front 2190

Initial vessel events

Back 2190

transient vasoconstriction → arteriolar vasodilation → increase venular permeability

Front 2191

Neutrophil rolling acute inflammation

Back 2191

due to selectins

Front 2192

Integrins

Back 2192

neutrophil adhesion molecules; C5a and leukotriene B, activate; neutrophil margination

Front 2193

CD11/CD18

Back 2193

markers for integrins

Front 2194

Endothelial cell adhesion molecules

Back 2194

activated by IL-1 and TNF

Front 2195

Activation neutrophil adhesion molecules

Back 2195

neutrophilic leukocytosis; corticosteroids; neutropenia; endotoxins

Front 2196

Opsonizing agents

Back 2196

IgG, C3b; enhance phagocytosis

Front 2197

Neutrophils, monocytes, macrophages

Back 2197

receptors for IgG, C3b

Front 2198

Opsonization defect

Back 2198

Bruton's agammaglobulinemia (XR, decreased IgG)

Front 2199

Phagocytosis defect

Back 2199

Chediak-Higashi (see cell injury); also has defect in microtubule polymerization

Front 2200

PGE2

Back 2200

vasodilation, fever

Front 2201

Nitric oxide

Back 2201

vasodilator; FR gas from conversion arginine to citrulline

Front 2202

IL-1 and TNF

Back 2202

fever, synthesis acute phase reactants in liver, leukocytosis

Front 2203

IL-6

Back 2203

stimulated by IL-1; stimulates synthesis of acute phase reactants

Front 2204

Acute phase reactants

Back 2204

fibrinogen, ferritin, C-reactive protein

Front 2205

Bradykinin

Back 2205

kinin produced in conversion of factor XII to factor XI; pain, vasodilator, vessel permeability; cough/angioedema, ACE inhibitors

Front 2206

Anaphylatoxins

Back 2206

C3a and C5a; directly stimulate mast cell release of histamine

Front 2207

Zileuton

Back 2207

inhibits lipoxygenase

Front 2208

Zafirlukast, montelukast

Back 2208

block lipoxygenase receptor

Front 2209

TXA2

Back 2209

synthesized by platelets; platelet aggregation, vasoconstriction, bronchoconstriction

Front 2210

Dipyridamole

Back 2210

inhibits thromboxane synthase

Front 2211

Corticosteroids

Back 2211

inhibits phospholipase A2, activation neutrophil adhesion molecules; neutrophilic leukocytosis, lymphopenia, eosinopenia

Front 2212

This gram positive cocci is a common cause of nosocomial urinary tract infections and subacute endocarditis.

Back 2212

Enterococcus, treated with ampicillin

Front 2213

What is the treatment for chlamydia urethritis?

Back 2213

Azithromycin or doxycycline

Front 2214

Patient presents with recurrent pyogenic infections, pruritic papulovesicular dermititis, and thrombocytopenia.

Back 2214

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

Front 2215

What is the treatment for toxoplasmosis?

Back 2215

Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine

Front 2216

8 yro boy presents with fever, sore throat, tonsillar exudates, tender anterior cervical lymph nodes. Etiologic agent?

Back 2216

Classic strep throat; Streptococcus pyogenes

Front 2217

Clinical methemoglobinemia

Back 2217

cyanosis not corrected by O2; chocolate colored blood

Front 2218

Increased A-a gradient

Back 2218

primary lung disease; left to right shunts in heart

Front 2219

Choanal atresia

Back 2219

cyanotic when breast feeding; turns pink when crying

Front 2220

Nasal polyps

Back 2220

allergic (MC; adults only), aspirin, cystic fibrosis

Front 2221

Nasal polyp in a child

Back 2221

requires sweat test to exclude cystic fibrosis

Front 2222

Triad asthma

Back 2222

patient on aspirin (pain syndrome) with nasal polyps, asthma

Front 2223

Sinusitis

Back 2223

maxillary sinusitis MC in adults; ethmoiditis MC in children; S. pneumoniae MC

Front 2224

Resorption atelectasis

Back 2224

MCC of fever 24-36 hours after surgery

Front 2225

Causes RDS

Back 2225

prematurity, maternal diabetes, C-section

Front 2226

Complications RDS

Back 2226

O2 FR injury (blindness, bronchopulmonary dysplasia); necrotizing enterocolitis

Front 2227

Rhinovirus

Back 2227

MCC common cold; hand to mouth transmission

Front 2228

Respiratory syncytial virus

Back 2228

MCC pneumonia and bronchiolitis in child

Front 2229

Parainfluenza virus

Back 2229

MCC croup in child; trachea area of obstruction

Front 2230

Cytomegalovirus

Back 2230

basophilic intranuclear inclusion surrounded by halo

Front 2231

Influenza

Back 2231

superimposed pneumonia with S. aureus increases mortality

Front 2232

Rubeola

Back 2232

Warthin-Finkeldey multinucleated giant cells

Front 2233

Chlamydia pneumoniae

Back 2233

atypical pneumonia; association with coronary artery disease

Front 2234

Chlamydia trachomatis

Back 2234

pneumonia in newborns; staccato cough; wheezing

Front 2235

Coxiella burnetii

Back 2235

only rickettsia without a vector

Front 2236

Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia

Back 2236

tension pneumatocysts in children with cystic fibrosis

Front 2237

Inspiratory stridor child

Back 2237

croup, epiglottitis

Front 2238

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Back 2238

MCC of pneumonia and death in cystic fibrosis; green sputum

Front 2239

S/S Coccidioides immitis

Back 2239

erythema nodosum (painful nodules lower legs)

Front 2240

H. capsulatum

Back 2240

simulates TB; yeasts phagocytosed by macrophages

Front 2241

Mycobacterium avium intracellulare (MAI)

Back 2241

atypical TB; MC TB in AIDS

Front 2242

Aspiration sitting

Back 2242

posterobasal segment right lower lobe

Front 2243

Aspiration supine

Back 2243

superior segment right lower lobe

Front 2244

Aspiration right side

Back 2244

right middle lobe, posterior segment right upper lobe

Front 2245

ARDS

Back 2245

RLD; non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema due to alveolar injury; neutrophil destruction of type I and II pneumocytes; hyaline membranes

Front 2246

Causes of ARDS

Back 2246

septic shock (MC), aspiration gastric contents, severe trauma

Front 2247

Pneumoconiosis

Back 2247

inhalation mineral dust causing interstitial fibrosis; particles <0.5 μm to reach alveoli

Front 2248

Caplan syndrome

Back 2248

pneumoconiosis + rheumatoid nodules in lungs

Front 2249

Coal worker's

Back 2249

"black lung" disease; progressive massive fibrosis; no increased incidence cancer or TB

Front 2250

Silicosis

Back 2250

quartz; nodular opacities; foundry workers; increase incidence cancer and TB

Front 2251

Ferruginous bodies

Back 2251

asbestos fiber coated by iron

Front 2252

Kveim test

Back 2252

intradermal injection sarcoid antigens causes skin reaction

Front 2253

Farmer's lung

Back 2253

RLD; lung reaction against thermophilic bacteria in moldy hay

Front 2254

Silo filler's disease

Back 2254

RLD; reaction against nitrogen dioxide in fermenting corn

Front 2255

Byssinosis

Back 2255

RLD; reaction against cotton, linen, hemp products in textile industry

Front 2256

Collagen vascular RLD

Back 2256

SLE, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis

Front 2257

Drugs RLD

Back 2257

amiodarone, bleomycin, busulfan, cyclophosphamide, methotrexate, nitrofurantoin

Front 2258

Obstructive lung disease

Back 2258

increase compliance, decrease elasticity; increase RV, TLC; decrease TV, VC; decrease FEV1sec and FVC; decrease FEV1sec/FVC ratio

Front 2259

Examples of Obstructive lung disease

Back 2259

asthma, emphysema, chronic bronchitis, bronchiectasis

Front 2260

Charcot-Leyden crystals

Back 2260

derive from crystalline material in eosinophil granules

Front 2261

Respiratory unit

Back 2261

respiratory bronchiole, alveolar duct, alveoli

Front 2262

Paraseptal emphysema

Back 2262

upper lobe destruction/distention alveolar ducts, alveoli; pneumothorax

Front 2263

Lab findings Emphysema

Back 2263

normal to decreased PCO2 (respiratory alkalosis)

Front 2264

Site of obstruction Chronic bronchitis

Back 2264

terminal bronchioles (proximal to respiratory unit)

Front 2265

Lab findings Chronic bronchitis

Back 2265

respiratory acidosis/hypoxemia

Front 2266

Causes Bronchiectasis

Back 2266

CF MCC, TB, immotile cilia syndrome

Front 2267

Squamous lung cancer

Back 2267

cavitate; secrete PTH-related protein

Front 2268

Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma

Back 2268

no smoking relationship; lung consolidation resembling pneumonia

Front 2269

Scar carcinoma of lung

Back 2269

usually adenocarcinoma developing in old TB scar

Front 2270

Bronchial carcinoid

Back 2270

low grade malignant; hemoptysis; rare cause carcinoid syndrome

Front 2271

Metastatic lung cancer

Back 2271

more common than primary cancer; breast cancer MCC

Front 2272

Solitary coin lesion

Back 2272

granuloma MCC

Front 2273

Anterior mediastinal masses

Back 2273

thymoma; nodular sclerosing Hodgkin's; teratomas

Front 2274

Posterior mediastinal masses

Back 2274

usually neurogenic tumors of ganglia

Front 2275

Myasthenia gravis

Back 2275

B cell hyperplasia of thymus MC abnormality; association with thymoma

Front 2276

Thymoma

Back 2276

association with hypogammaglobulinemia, autoimmune disease, pure RBC aplasia

Front 2277

Sterile pyuria

Back 2277

positive urine leukocyte esterase but negative standard culture; TB, C. trachomatis

Front 2278

Serum BUN:creatinine ratio

Back 2278

<15:1 (renal failure); >15:1 (prerenal or postrenal azotemia)

Front 2279

WBC casts

Back 2279

acute pyelonephritis, acute tubulointerstitial nephritis

Front 2280

Fatty casts with Maltese crosses

Back 2280

nephrotic syndrome

Front 2281

Cystinuria

Back 2281

hexagonal crystals

Front 2282

Renal dysplasia

Back 2282

MC childhood cystic disease; abnormal development; flank mass

Front 2283

Visceral epithelial cells

Back 2283

synthesize basement membrane

Front 2284

Glomerular BM

Back 2284

negative charge due to heparan sulfate

Front 2285

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

Back 2285

nephrotic syndrome; AIDS and IV heroin abuse

Front 2286

Causes membranous GN

Back 2286

HBV, ACE inhibitors, cancer

Front 2287

Type I MPGN

Back 2287

nephrotic; subepithelial deposits; HCV association; tram tracks

Front 2288

Type II MPGN

Back 2288

nephrotic; C3 nephritic factor; intramembranous ICs (dense deposit disease)

Front 2289

DM nodular glomerulosclerosis

Back 2289

microalbuminuria first sign

Front 2290

DM glomerulosclerosis

Back 2290

nodules with collagen in mesangium; hyaline arteriolosclerosis of arterioles

Front 2291

Ischemic ATN

Back 2291

prerenal azotemia MCC; renal tubular cell casts; BUN:creatinine ratio <15:1; disruption of BM in proximal tubule and thick ascending limb

Front 2292

Nephrotoxic ATN

Back 2292

aminoglycosides, IVP dye, Pb/mercury poisoning; proximal tubule dysfunction; intact BM

Front 2293

Chronic pyelonephritis

Back 2293

U-shaped scars overlying blunt calyces

Front 2294

S/S Drug-induced tubulointerstitial nephritis

Back 2294

type I/IV reaction; e.g., penicillin; ARF, fever, rash, eosinophilia, eosinophiluria, WBC casts

Front 2295

Analgesic nephropathy

Back 2295

aspirin plus acetaminophen; renal papillary necrosis; IVP with ring defect

Front 2296

Myeloma kidney

Back 2296

BJ protein produces foreign body reaction in tubules

Front 2297

S/S CRF

Back 2297

pericarditis, prolonged bleeding time, normocytic anemia, pathologic fractures

Front 2298

Benign nephrosclerosis

Back 2298

kidney of hypertension; shrunken kidneys due to hyaline arteriolosclerosis

Front 2299

Renal infarction

Back 2299

pale infarcts; hematuria; common in polyarteritis nodosa

Front 2300

Staghorn calculus

Back 2300

due to urease producing organisms (Proteus); alkaline urine pH; ammonia smell

Front 2301

Angiomyolipoma

Back 2301

hamartoma; associated with tuberous sclerosis

Front 2302

Renal cell carcinoma

Back 2302

smoking MCC; invasion renal vein/vena cava; lung, bone mets; yellow colored

Front 2303

S/S Renal cell carcinoma

Back 2303

flank mass, hematuria; ectopic hormones (EPO, PTH related peptide), left-sided varicocele

Front 2304

Wilm's tumor

Back 2304

hypertension, unilateral abdominal mass in child; aniridia/hemihypertrophy in AD types

Front 2305

Urine draining from umbilicus

Back 2305

persistent urachus

Front 2306

Retroperitoneal fibrosis

Back 2306

produces hydronephrosis

Front 2307

Bladder extrophy

Back 2307

abdominal wall defect + epispadias

Front 2308

Bladder diverticula

Back 2308

most commonly due to prostatic hyperplasia with urethral obstruction

Front 2309

Acute cystitis

Back 2309

E. coli; females > males; no fever, flank pain, or WBC casts

Front 2310

S/S Bladder transitional cell carcinoma

Back 2310

hematuria; hydronephrosis

Front 2311

Bladder adenocarcinoma

Back 2311

risk factors persistent urachus, extrophy

Front 2312

Type II collagen

Back 2312

early wound repair

Front 2313

Laminin

Back 2313

key basement membrane glycoprotein

Front 2314

Fibronectin

Back 2314

key interstitial matrix glycoprotein

Front 2315

Angiogenesis in repair

Back 2315

basic fibroblast growth factor, vascular endothelial growth factor

Front 2316

Key event in wound repair

Back 2316

granulation tissue formation; fibronectin responsible

Front 2317

Collagenases

Back 2317

zinc cofactor (metalloprotease); type III collagen replaced by type I collagen

Front 2318

Tensile strength of healed wound

Back 2318

80% original strength

Front 2319

Inhibition wound healing

Back 2319

infection (MCC S. aureus), zinc deficiency, DM

Front 2320

Keloid

Back 2320

excessive type III collagen; common in blacks

Front 2321

Pyogenic granuloma

Back 2321

exuberant granulation tissue; bleeds when touched

Front 2322

Antimuscarinic used in the treatment of diabetic urinary incontinence

Back 2322

Oxybutynin

Front 2323

Patient presents with swollen and painful toes, history of conjunctivitis, urethritis, and diarrhea. Diagnosis?

Back 2323

Reiter syndrome; diarrhea caused by c. jejuni

Front 2324

An infant develops septic shock with abdominal distention and tenderness. What is most likely seen at surgery?

Back 2324

Gangrene of the terminal ileum and ascending colon; Necrotizing enterocolitis

Front 2325

Microdeletion of 15q11.2 can result in this syndrome.

Back 2325

Prader-Willi syndrome or Angelmann syndrome

Front 2326

Esophagitis with punched-out ulcers on endoscopy are likely due to what condition?

Back 2326

Herpes simplex virus

Front 2327

What is the method of increased virulence of strep pyogenes to scarlet fever?

Back 2327

Lysogenic conversion, where a temperate phage DNA is inserted into bacterial chromosome to become a prophage.

Front 2328

bilateral degeneration of what nerve results in wasting of the anterior compartment of the lower limb, gait disturbances?

Back 2328

Deep peroneal nerve; Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease

Front 2329

What dictates the maximum velocity of muscle shortening?

Back 2329

ATPase activity of the muscle

Front 2330

Pregant infection with Toxoplasma gondii results in this abnormality

Back 2330

First trimester: necrotizing encephalitis; Second and third trimester: retinochoroiditis

Front 2331

Hydrops fetalis is associated with what fetal infection?

Back 2331

B19 Parvovirus

Front 2332

UTI that is leukocyte esterase positive with no reactivity for nitrite. What organism is to blame.

Back 2332

Enterococcus faecalis or staph saprophyticus;

Front 2333

Aneurysm of the superior cerebellar artery would have effect what cranial nerve?

Back 2333

CN III, arises from interpeduncular fossa of the midbrain and then passes between SCA and PCA lateral to basilar artery

Front 2334

What percentage of hydatidiform moles progress to choriocarcinoma?

Back 2334

2%; luckily there choriocarcinomas of placental orgin are highly responsive to chemotherapy

Front 2335

This antibacterial is used in the treatment of acne vulgaris and gonococcal infections.

Back 2335

Tetracycline

Front 2336

This cytokine produced by TH1 cells acts on macrophages to enhance microbicidal activities.

Back 2336

IFN-gamma

Front 2337

This cytokine is produced by leukocytes to inhibit viral replication.

Back 2337

IFN-alpha

Front 2338

This cytokine is produced by fibroblasts to inhibit viral replication.

Back 2338

IFN-beta

Front 2339

This cytokine is produced by macrophages and NK cells, cytotoxic to tumor cells, induces cytokine production.

Back 2339

TNF-alpha

Front 2340

What stain is used to visualize cryptococcus neoformans and histoplasma?

Back 2340

Silver stain for histo, india ink for crypto

Front 2341

Patient presents with hyperpyrexia, muscle rigidity, altered mental status. What is the syndrome and what drugs?

Back 2341

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS); commonly associated with antipsychotic medications, as well as the antidepressant fluphenazine

Front 2342

Patient presents with history of staph aureus, aspergillus, and salmonella infection. Diagnosis?

Back 2342

Chronic granulomatous disease; NADPH oxidase defeciency (Patients are also susceptible to Nocordia and Candida infections)

Front 2343

Patients are more susceptible to severe staphylococci and streptococci infections, and rarely make it to adulthood.

Back 2343

Chediak-Higashi syndrome; mutated LYST gene resulting in impaired degranulation of lysosomes; associated with albinism

Front 2344

What is Marcus Gunn pupil and what is it associated with?

Back 2344

paradoxical dilation on swinging light test (from normal to Marcus Gunn pupil) caused by absence of adequate light entering pupil

Front 2345

What pupillary abnormalities would be expected with increased intracranial pressure?

Back 2345

Fixed and dilated, accompanied by ptosis, caused by compression of CN III parasympathetic fibers

Front 2346

Fat, carbohydrate, and protein in the duodenum all stimulate the release of this hormone?

Back 2346

GIP; CCK is released in response to fat and protein, but not carbohydrates

Front 2347

G5P0 woman suffers from recurrent miscarriages in the first trimester, what is the most likely cause?

Back 2347

t(14,21) Robertsonian translocation; bicornuate uterus can also result in recurrent miscarriages but first trimester is indicative of Robertsonian translocation

Front 2348

What innervates the opponens policis? What innervates the adductor policis?

Back 2348

Opponens policis: Median nerve; Adductor policis: Ulnar nerve

Front 2349

This portion of the brain is concerned primarily with planning and fine-tuning of movements and balance.

Back 2349

The cerebellum; cerebellar vermis; Damage will result in truncal ataxia with a wide-based "drunken-sailor" gait.

Front 2350

Absence of deep tendon reflexes, extensor plantar response are commonly found with damage to this area of the brain.

Back 2350

Medulla

Front 2351

In what type of patients would you expect to see an elevated gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase?

Back 2351

Alcoholics

Front 2352

What type of hepatitis is associated with polyarteritis nodosa?

Back 2352

Hepatitis B (and C but not as much as B)

Front 2353

This drug decreases TG's, increases HDL, decreases C-reactive protein, and decreases blood glucose.

Back 2353

Thiazolidinediones; Used to treat metabolic syndrome.

Front 2354

Trousseau's syndrome is associated with this underlying condition?

Back 2354

Pancreatic carcinoma; Trousseau's syndrome is migratory thrombophlebitis

Front 2355

In a deficiency caused by deficient purine salvage enzyme HPRT, what is the substance that accumulates?

Back 2355

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome; monosodium urate

Front 2356

This type of seizure is characterized by loss of postural muscle tone that only lasts a few seconds.

Back 2356

Atonic seizure

Front 2357

What are the tumor suppressor genes associated with the following chromosomes: 3p, 5q, 17p, 17q, 18q?

Back 2357

3p: VHL; 5q: APC (colon); 17p: p53 (Li-Fraumeni syndrome); 17q: BRCA-1; 18q: pancreatic cancer

Front 2358

This test, is preferred over India ink when testing for cryptococcus neoformans infection.

Back 2358

Latex particle agglutination

Front 2359

This deficiency is the most common urea cycle disorder and results in elevated glutamine and urine orotic acid.

Back 2359

Ornithine transcarbamoylase (OTC) deficiency

Front 2360

This cytokine instructs macrophages to become epitheliod and form multinucleated giant cells

Back 2360

Interferon gamma; which makes them more apt to engulf and eliminate foreign antigens.

Front 2361

What would be the treatment for a patient with acute pyelonephritis with bacteremia?

Back 2361

Ampicillin and gentamicin; drugs like erythromycin and tetracycline are bacteriostatic antibiotics and are not recommended in a patient w/ severe infection

Front 2362

This neurotransmitter is of primary importance for induction of REM sleep.

Back 2362

Acetylcholine

Front 2363

Atrophy of the anterior horn produces muscle weakness, hypotonia, loss of deep tendon reflexes, absent babinski

Back 2363

Werdnig-Hoffman disease

Front 2364

What metabolite is frequently found in the urine of patients with carcinoid syndrome?

Back 2364

5-HIAA; Carcinoid tumors may secrete variety of GI peptides (gastrin, insulin, VIP, glucagon) as well as ACTH and calcitonin

Front 2365

This MOA-I blocks serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake to reduce appetite and increase energy expenditure.

Back 2365

Sibutramine

Front 2366

In hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer and hereditary endometrial cancer, what is the result of the mutation?

Back 2366

Deficient mismatch repair; typically resulting in microsatellite instability

Front 2367

What are the 3 locations of elastic fibers?

Back 2367

Large arteries, vocal cords, and ligamenta flava (which connects the vertebrae)

Front 2368

Locked-in syndrome is due to inhibition of descending corticospinal and corticobulbar fibers. Damage to what?

Back 2368

Pons, blocks Basilar artery

Front 2369

In down syndrome, what is the defective embryologic event that produces the endocardial cushion defect?

Back 2369

Inadequate migration of neural crest cells

Front 2370

Babesia is transmitted via ixodes tick as is this organism?

Back 2370

Borrelia Burgderfori; Dermacentor tick transmits rickettsia

Front 2371

This drug at toxic levels can cause supraventricular tachycardia.

Back 2371

Digoxin; Adenosine is the treatment

Front 2372

Serum sickness is a condition commonly caused by hypersensitivity to drugs. What is the treatment?

Back 2372

Oral prednisone (for arthralgias and skin rash) and diphenhydramine (to alleviate urticaria)

Front 2373

Black necrotic lymph nodes transmitted by arthropod.

Back 2373

Buboes; seen in Yersinia pestis (plague) spread by fleabite

Front 2374

What count # must the platelet count be reduced to before generalized bleeding disorder becomes apparent?

Back 2374

15,000-20,000; normal is 150K to 450K

Front 2375

O antigen of salmonella, erythrogenic exotoxins of S pyogenes, diptheria toxin and botulinum toxin are all what location?

Back 2375

Lysogenic phage genome

Front 2376

The only location of striated muscle not under voluntary control.

Back 2376

Esophagus

Front 2377

This drug is a non-selective competitive alpha-blocker that has largely supplanted more selective alpha-1 blockers.

Back 2377

Phentolamine

Front 2378

This term is used to define multiple, often seemingly unrelated, physical effects caused by a single genotype.

Back 2378

Pleiotropy; example is multiple bone fractures and blue sclerae seen in osteogenesis imperfecta

Front 2379

Monoclonal antibody directed against the IL-2 receptor.

Back 2379

Daclizumab

Front 2380

This virulence factor converts hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen, allowing it to survive in phagolysosomes.

Back 2380

Catalase

Front 2381

What part of the colon is retroperitoneal?

Back 2381

Ascending and descending colon; also most of the pancrease and the distal 2/3rds of the duodenum

Front 2382

A diet high in these is what is believed to be responsible for the increased incidence in gastric adenocarcinoma

Back 2382

Food preservatives

Front 2383

What effect do restrictive lung disease have on pulmonary compliance?

Back 2383

They will increase elastance and thus decrease compliance

Front 2384

This apolipoprotein activates lipoprotein lipase.

Back 2384

CII

Front 2385

A patient deficient in the complement factors C6, C7, and C8 are at risk for recurrent meningitis from this organism.

Back 2385

Neisseria

Front 2386

What virus is associated with cutaneous and mucous-membrane plaque-like violaceous lesions?

Back 2386

Kaposi sarcoma, associated with HHV 8

Front 2387

This drug prevents the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to ribosomes.

Back 2387

Tetracycline

Front 2388

This type of amyloid is seen in primary amyloidosis and most frequently deposits in the heart.

Back 2388

Transthyretin

Front 2389

This type of amyloid is associated with secondary amyloidosis and deposition occurs in kidney, spleen and liver.

Back 2389

Serum Amyloid-associated protein (SAA)

Front 2390

This type of amyloid is seen in primary amyloidosis with systemic deposition.

Back 2390

Amyloid light chain (AL)

Front 2391

This type of amyloid is seen with long-term hemodialysis with musculoskeletal deposition.

Back 2391

Beta-2 microglobulin

Front 2392

What type of hypersensitivity is an Arthus reaction?

Back 2392

Immune complex (type III) involving antibody, antigen, and complement activation

Front 2393

60 yro man presents with bacterial meningitis, what are the most likely agents?

Back 2393

S pneumoniae, Listeria, N meningitidis

Front 2394

What test is used to distinguish between heritable and sporadic retinoblastoma?

Back 2394

PCR; in heritable cases, any cell in the body will show altered chromosome (deletion or translocation), in sporadic caases only the tumor will show mutation

Front 2395

Patient has CN dysfunction with the exception of the ability to look up. Diagnosis?

Back 2395

Pinealoma; compresses vertical gaze center in the tectum of the midbrain

Front 2396

Where are the estrogen, progesterone, and HER2 EGF receptors located?

Back 2396

Estrogen and progesterone are located in the nucleus, HER-2, a growth factor, likely has it's receptor on the cell membrane

Front 2397

Bilateral bruits of the renal arteries with a beaded pattern on angiography. If surresected, what would be apparent?

Back 2397

Fibromuscular dysplasia

Front 2398

The median nerve is subject to entrapment neuropathy when it passes between the two heads of what muscle?

Back 2398

Pronator teres

Front 2399

What is angiostatin?

Back 2399

anti-angiogenic factor expressed by tumors that tends to inhibit angiogenesis

Front 2400

These cells in the semineferous tubule have very pale nucleus and darkly staining nucleoli.

Back 2400

Sertoli cells, establish blood-testis barrier via tight junctions (note they do not protect the spermatogonia which lie directly on BM)

Front 2401

A patient with truncus arteriosus will also have what cardiac abnormality?

Back 2401

VSD

Front 2402

Chronic poisoning with this substance causes CNS atrophy, gingivitis, gastritis, and renal tubular changes.

Back 2402

Chronic mercury poisoning

Front 2403

Patients with Lamber-Eaton syndrome have autoantibodies directed against what cellular components?

Back 2403

voltage-gated calcium channels

Front 2404

Proliferative synovitis with many lymphocytes, macrophages, and plasma cells. Diagnosis?

Back 2404

Rheumatoid arthritis

Front 2405

What nerves are responsible for adduction and extension of the thumb?

Back 2405

Ulnar nerve (adductor pollicis); Radial nerve (extensor pollicis longus and brevis)

Front 2406

Malignant mesenchymal tumor that develops in the pelvis, shoulders, or ribs which appears slightly basophilic on H&E.

Back 2406

Chondrosarcoma

Front 2407

Benign bone-forming tumor composed of well-differentiated bone trabeculae arranged haphazardly.

Back 2407

Osteoid osteoma or osteoblastoma (larger and found in vertebrae)

Front 2408

How does one distinguish postmortem clots from premortem clots?

Back 2408

Premortem clots usually have lines of Zahn, red, cell-rich layers in a thrombus that appear dark, grossly, alternating with these lines are light layers

Front 2409

What is the rate limiting step in catecholamine synthesis?

Back 2409

tyrosine to L-dopa by tyrosine hydroxylase

Front 2410

This enzyme converts norepinephrine to epinephrine.

Back 2410

Phenylethanolamine N-methyltransferase (PNMT)

Front 2411

Dwarfism is caused by impaired: cell signaling, fibrillin synthesis, or type I collagen

Back 2411

Impaired cell signaling (Fibroblast growth factor receptor); impaired fibrillin is Marfan syndrome, and type I collagen mutation causes osteogenesis imperfecta

Front 2412

62 yro woman with solid, yellow ovarian mass and endometrial carcinoma. What type of tumor is in the ovary?

Back 2412

Granulosa cell tumor; estrogen producing (risk factor for endometrial carcinoma)

Front 2413

What is the test for the most common cause of neonatal meningitis?

Back 2413

CAMP test (Group B strep or Strep agalactiae); test produces and additional zone of beta hemolysis that appears in an arrowhead formation on blood agar

Front 2414

Volume distribution of a drug is 40L and the clearance is 2 L/hour, what is the halflife?

Back 2414

t1/2=(0.7*Vd)/Cl; 14 hours

Front 2415

Pertussis, in addition to inhibition of G protein complex, has this effect producing hypoglycemia

Back 2415

Activates pancreatic islets of langerhans

Front 2416

4 yro retarded child presents with a marfenoid-like appearance, what substance would be elevated?

Back 2416

Homocysteineuria; Homocysteine or methionine (remethylated homocysteine via salvage pathway); like marfan but add mental retardation

Front 2417

A patient with HIV presents with prolonged diarrhea, what is the likely causative agent?

Back 2417

Mycobacterium avium or cryptosporidium parvum; crypto is more common but word association "prlonged diarrhea" matches for myco

Front 2418

Syndrome is acute postviral injury damaging multiple systems but most notable for fatty liver with encephalopathy.

Back 2418

Reye syndrome; most commonly caused by VZV and influenza A and B

Front 2419

Thrombocytopenia, eczema, and recurrent sinopulmonary infections?

Back 2419

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome; Serum IgM low, but IgG, IgA, and IgE are all increased

Front 2420

What is prosopagnosia?

Back 2420

Damage of the visual association cortex resulting in the inability to recognize faces.

Front 2421

What is Alexia?

Back 2421

Inability to read caused by deficits in central language processing

Front 2422

What is Anosognosia?

Back 2422

Deficit in cognition about one's illness, or lack of awareness that one is suffering from a certain condition

Front 2423

Which is associated with production of prostaglandins important in renal blood flow, clotting, and GI protection?

Back 2423

COX-1; COX-2 is involved with prostaglandins for pain and inflammation, Celecoxib is a COX-2 inhibitor, Naproxen is a nonspecific COX inhibitor

Front 2424

Translocation for mantle cell, multiple myeloma, and small cell?

Back 2424

t(11,14)

Front 2425

Lateral expansion of a pituitary tumor will effect what cranial nerve?

Back 2425

Abducens nerve; leads to lateral rectus palsy, if it expands upward than optic nerve will be effected

Front 2426

Trisomy fetus is spontaneously aborted, what is the most likely karyotype: 8, 13, 16, 18, or 21?

Back 2426

16 is completely incompatible with life; 8 is also a common cause, but rare mosaics do survive, 13 is Pautau, 18 is Edwards, and 21 is Down syndrome

Front 2427

What drug other than misoprostol can be used to keep the ductus arteriosus open.

Back 2427

Alprostadil a prostaglandin E1

Front 2428

Mentally retarded child with seizures demonstrates leptomeningeal angiomatosis, nevus flammeus, and glaucoma.

Back 2428

Sturge-Weber syndrome (arteriovenous malformation); Nevus flammeus is port wine stain often of the face

Front 2429

What cardiac abnormality is associated with fragile X syndrome?

Back 2429

Mitral valve prolapse and aortic root dilatation

Front 2430

These drugs cause tachycardia and dry mouth (xerostomia).

Back 2430

Anticholinergic medications, such as amitriptyline (tricyclic antidepressant) used to treat clinical depression

Front 2431

What is Naproxen?

Back 2431

and NSAID for mild to moderate pain

Front 2432

Basophilic rhomboid crystals in a painful, swollen, and red joint. Diagnosis?

Back 2432

Pseudogout; calcium pyrophosphate crystals (If you can't remember gout or pseudogout, remember pseudogout hits the larger joints!)

Front 2433

What drugs are associated with hypersensitivity myocarditis?

Back 2433

Antihypertensive agents, antibiotics, and diuretics

Front 2434

What percent of ingested salt is secreted by the kidneys?

Back 2434

95% the other 5% by the sweat glands

Front 2435

Gram negative diplococcus that is oxidase positive.

Back 2435

N gonorrhoeae

Front 2436

Patients with rheumatoid arthritis and sulfa allergies should avoid what drug?

Back 2436

Celecoxib, a NSAID that is a selective COX-2 inhibitor with a sulfa component

Front 2437

What test would be appropriate when candida albicans infection is suspected?

Back 2437

Germ tube test with pseudohypha formation in animal serum

Front 2438

What is the Weil-Felix reaction?

Back 2438

anti-rickettsial antibody positive for typhus, rocky mountain spotted fever and crossreactive with proteus antigen

Front 2439

Patient with malaria with recalcitrant psoriasis. What is the treatment?

Back 2439

Atovaquone/proguanil; chloroquine, the drug of choice can worsen psoriasis (plaques on the skin and arthritic joints)

Front 2440

What layer is more superficial, camper fascia or scarpa fascia?

Back 2440

Camper fascia which is fatty is more superficial than the fibrous scarpa fascia

Front 2441

CD16 is the surface marker for what lymphocyte?

Back 2441

NK cells

Front 2442

What is absent in bare lymphocyte syndrome?

Back 2442

MHC class II necessary for APC presentation of peptides to T-helper cells; failure of CD4 helper cells education

Front 2443

These WBC's predominate in allergic responses.

Back 2443

Basophils and Eosinophils

Front 2444

These structures cover most microvilli and apparently help protect these fragile structures from trauma.

Back 2444

Glycocalyx

Front 2445

Microtubule-dependent ATPase that helps drive transport along microtubules.

Back 2445

Kinesin

Front 2446

What diseases use ticks as a vector?

Back 2446

Borrellia Burgderfori, Babesia, Ricktsiae (Rocky mountain spotted fever), and Francisella tularensis

Front 2447

What nerve exits the greater sciatic foramen above the piriformis and what muscles does it innervate?

Back 2447

Superior gluteal nerve; innervates gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae

Front 2448

The obturator nerve exits through the obturator canal and supplies these muscles.

Back 2448

Medial compartment; adductor longus, adductor brevis, part of adductor magnus and the gracilis

Front 2449

What nerve exits the greater sciatic foramen then passes through the elesser sciatic foramen?

Back 2449

Pudendal nerve