Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
55 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
What function do the nasal turbinates serve? A) Separating the left and right nostrils B) Warming and humidifying inhaled air C) Decreasing the surface area of the nasopharynx D) Secreting mucus that traps viruses and bacteria |
B) Warming and humidifying inhaled air |
|
|
A patient who is experiencing an allergic reaction states that his tongue “feels thick” and speaks at a low volume. You should immediately evaluate for: A) angioedema. B) hypotension. C) a gag reflex. D) adventitious breath sounds. |
A) angioedema. |
|
|
The oropharynx and nasopharynx meet in the back of the throat at the: A) larynx. B) hyoid bone. C) hypopharynx. D) glottic opening. |
C) hypopharynx |
|
|
Common effects of gag reflex stimulation include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) vomiting. B) tachycardia. C) bradycardia. D) increased intracranial pressure. |
B) tachycardia. |
|
|
The most obvious external landmark of the larynx is the: A) cricoid cartilage. B) hyoid bone. C) arytenoid cartilage. D) thyroid cartilage. |
D) thyroid cartilage |
|
|
On either side of the glottis, tissue forms a pocket called the: A) vallecula. B) piriform fossae. C) cuneiform cartilage. D) hypopharyngeal space. |
B) piriform fossae. |
|
|
The _________ cartilage forms a complete ring and maintains the trachea in an open position. A) cricoid B) thyroid C) arytenoid D) laryngeal |
A) cricoid |
|
|
The cricothyroid membrane: A) is a cartilaginous structure located between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages. B) serves as the primary entry point to the airway when a patient is not breathing. C) is relatively avascular and is covered by skin and minimal subcutaneous tissue. D) is a thin membrane that can be palpated easily just above the thyroid cartilage. |
C) is relatively avascular and is covered by skin and minimal subcutaneous tissue. |
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding anatomic dead space is correct? A) Anatomic dead space is about 1 mL per pound of body weight. B) Air in the dead space participates in pulmonary gas exchange. C) The amount of dead space increases as tidal volume increases. D) If tidal volume is 500 mL, 200 mL remains in the dead space. |
A) Anatomic dead space is about 1 mL per pound of body weight |
|
|
The mainstem bronchus ends at the level of the: A) lobar bronchi. B) bronchioles. C) segmental bronchi. D) subsegmental bronchi. |
B) bronchioles. |
|
|
________ cells are found in the lining of the airways and produce a blanket of mucus that covers the entire lining of the conducting airways. A) Kupfer B) Alveolar C) Ciliary D) Goblet |
D) Goblet |
|
|
What type of medication dries secretions in the airway and prevents the cilia from removing them effectively? A) Diuretic B) Antibiotic C) Antipyretic D) Antihistamine |
D) Antihistamine |
|
|
Wheezing is resolved with medications that: A) dry up secretions in the lower airway. B) reduce soft tissue swelling in the larynx. C) relax the smooth muscle of the bronchioles. D) cause bronchoconstriction and improved airflow. |
C) relax the smooth muscle of the bronchioles |
|
|
If the amount of pulmonary surfactant is decreased: A) alveolar surface tension increases. B) diffuse alveolar hyperinflation occurs. C) alveoli are able to expand more easily. D) pulmonary gas exchange is enhanced. |
A) alveolar surface tension increases. |
|
|
In a person who is not bedridden, most pulmonary infections occur in the: A) middle lobes of the lungs. B) bases of the lungs. C) apices of the lungs. D) upper portion of the lungs. |
B) bases of the lungs. |
|
|
Polycythemia is a condition in which: A) excess red blood cells are produced in response to chronic hypoxia. B) an abundance of red blood cells causes severe thinning of the blood. C) fewer red blood cells are produced, resulting in decreased oxygenation. D) increased platelet production causes the blood to become abnormally thick |
A) excess red blood cells are produced in response to chronic hypoxia |
|
|
Cor pulmonale is defined as: A) increased preload caused by severe hypertension. B) left heart failure secondary to mitral valve damage. C) rupture of the alveoli due to increased surface tension. D) right heart failure secondary to chronic lung disease |
D) right heart failure secondary to chronic lung disease. |
|
|
A patent airway: A) is evidenced by visible chest rise. B) should be prophylactically suctioned. C) does not equate to adequate ventilation. D) is characterized by adequate tidal volume |
C) does not equate to adequate ventilation |
|
|
Hypoventilating patients: A) eliminate too much carbon dioxide. B) become hypercapneic and acidotic. C) experience an increase in blood pH. D) typically do not have an open airway. |
B) become hypercapneic and acidotic |
|
|
Hyperpnea and tachypnea: A) cause an increase in minute ventilation. B) are caused by decreased diaphragmatic function. C) are characterized by shallow chest wall movement. D) result from decreased negative-pressure ventilation |
A) cause an increase in minute ventilation. |
|
|
In contrast to negative-pressure ventilation, positive-pressure ventilation: A) is the forcing of air into the lungs. B) occurs when the diaphragm descends. C) is provided with a nonrebreathing mask. D) can only be provided to intubated patients. |
A) is the forcing of air into the lungs |
|
|
Difficulty with exhalation is MOST characteristic of: A) supraglottic swelling. B) upper airway obstruction. C) a mild asthma attack. D) obstructive lung disease |
D) obstructive lung disease. |
|
|
Apneustic breathing is characterized by: A) a sustained pattern of tachypnea and increased tidal volume. B) short, brisk inhalations with a long pause before exhalation. C) regular respirations with a normal rate and adequate tidal volume. D) a crescendo-decrescendo pattern of breathing with apneic periods. |
B) short, brisk inhalations with a long pause before exhalation. |
|
|
___________ respirations are characterized by a grossly irregular pattern of breathing that may be accompanied by lengthy periods of apnea. A) Biot B) Agonal C) Eupneic D) Cheyne-Stokes |
A) Biot |
|
|
An unresponsive patient who overdosed on a central nervous system depressant drug would be expected to have __________ respirations. A) eupneic B) hyperpneic C) bradypneic D) Kussmaul |
C) bradypneic |
|
|
Stretch receptors in the lungs are responsible for the ____________ reflex, which causes you to cough if you take too deep a breath. A) Cushing B) Hering-Breuer C) pneumotaxic D) yawning |
B) Hering-Breuer |
|
|
The by-product of cellular respiration is: A) oxygen. B) lactic acid. C) pyruvic acid. D) carbon dioxide. |
D) carbon dioxide. |
|
|
Respiratory alkalosis is the result of: A) carbon dioxide retention. B) slow and shallow respirations. C) increased hydrogen ion production. D) excess carbon dioxide elimination. |
D) excess carbon dioxide elimination. |
|
|
If a patient's hemoglobin level is only 10 g/dL, ___ % would have to be desaturated before he or she would appear cyanotic. A) 10 B) 25 C) 30 D) 50 |
D) 50 |
|
|
A patient with orthopnea: A) seeks a sitting position when short of breath. B) is awakened from sleep with severe dyspnea. C) prefers to lie flat in order to facilitate breathing. D) generally has a slow, shallow respiratory pattern. |
A) seeks a sitting position when short of breath. |
|
|
The barrel-chest appearance classically seen in emphysemic patients is secondary to: A) widespread atelectasis. B) chest wall hypertrophy. C) air trapping in the lungs. D) carbon dioxide retention. |
C) air trapping in the lungs |
|
|
If a patient's initial presentation makes you suspicious about a particular respiratory condition, you must: A) begin immediate treatment based on your suspicion. B) make your field impression based on the presentation. C) confirm your suspicions with a thorough assessment. D) immediately perform a focused physical examination. |
C) confirm your suspicions with a thorough assessment. |
|
|
A patient with respiratory distress who is willing to lie flat: A) should be intubated at once. B) may be acutely deteriorating. C) has minimal fluid in the lungs. D) likely has basilar pneumonia. |
B) may be acutely deteriorating. |
|
|
Retractions of the sternum or ribs during inhalation: A) are common in patients with emphysema. B) are signs of acute respiratory failure in adults. C) occur when soft tissue is pulled in around the bones. D) are especially common in infants and small children. |
D) are especially common in infants and small children. |
|
|
Paradoxical respiratory movement is characterized by: A) the epigastrium and thorax moving in opposite directions. B) bulging of the intercostal muscles during deep inhalation. C) pulling upward of the suprasternal notch during inhalation. D) a marked decrease in movement in one of the hemithoraces. |
D) a marked decrease in movement in one of the hemithoraces. |
|
|
A patient with quiet tachypnea is MOST likely experiencing: A) shock. B) asthma. C) alkalosis. D) airway swelling. |
A) shock |
|
|
In contrast to decreased PO2 levels, increased PCO2 levels typically manifest as: A) anxiety. B) combativeness. C) sedation or sleepiness. D) restlessness or confusion. |
C) sedation or sleepiness. |
|
|
An otherwise healthy adult whose normal hemoglobin level is 12 to 14 g/dL typically will begin to exhibit cyanosis when: A) hemoglobin levels fall below 12 g/dL. B) about 5 g/dL of hemoglobin is desaturated. C) his or her oxygen saturation falls below 50%. D) 10% of his or her hemoglobin is desaturated. |
B) about 5 g/dL of hemoglobin is desaturated. |
|
|
The MOST clinically significant finding when questioning a patient with a chronic respiratory disease is: A) medication use prior to your arrival. B) a recent medication regimen change. C) a recent emergency department visit. D) prior intubation for the same problem. |
D) prior intubation for the same problem |
|
|
Which of the following conditions would LEAST likely present with an acute onset of respiratory distress? A) Pneumonia B) Anaphylaxis C) Pneumothorax D) Pulmonary embolism |
A) Pneumonia |
|
|
Hepatojugular reflux occurs when: A) left-sided heart failure causes blood to accumulate in the patient's liver. B) the jugular veins collapse in response to palpation of the right upper quadrant. C) mild pressure placed on the patient's liver further engorges the jugular veins. D) a patient's jugular veins are markedly engorged when lying in a supine position. |
C) mild pressure placed on the patient's liver further engorges the jugular veins. |
|
|
Hepatomegaly and jugular venous distention are MOST suggestive of: A) left heart failure. B) right heart failure. C) pulmonary edema. D) severe pneumonia. |
B) right heart failure. |
|
|
Digital clubbing is MOST indicative of: A) acute hypoxemia. B) chronic hypoxia. C) right heart failure. D) peripheral vascular disease. |
B) chronic hypoxia |
|
|
The diaphragm of the stethoscope is designed to auscultate: A) heart tones. B) low-pitched sounds. C) bowel sounds. D) high-pitched sounds. |
D) high-pitched sounds. |
|
|
Abnormal breath sounds associated with pneumonia and congestive heart failure are MOST often heard in the: A) right middle lobe. B) bases of the lungs. C) apices of the lungs. D) midaxillary line |
B) bases of the lungs. |
|
|
__________ breath sounds are the MOST commonly heard breath sounds and have a much more obvious inspiratory component. A) Vesicular B) Bronchial C) Tracheal D) Bronchovesicular |
A) Vesicular |
|
|
Inspiratory and expiratory__________ sounds are both loud, but the inspiratory sounds are shorter than the expiratory sounds. A) tracheal B) bronchial C) vesicular D) bronchovesicular |
B) bronchial |
|
|
The presence of diffuse rhonchi (low-pitched crackles) in the lungs indicates: A) right-sided congestive heart failure. B) isolated consolidation of secretions. C) thick secretions in the large airways. D) air being forced through narrowed airways. |
C) thick secretions in the large airways. |
|
|
A patient who is coughing up purulent sputum is MOST likely experiencing: A) emphysema. B) dehydration. C) an infection. D) pulmonary edema |
C) an infection |
|
|
Frothy sputum that has a pink tinge to it is MOST suggestive of: A) tuberculosis. B) antihistamine use. C) chronic bronchitis. D) congestive heart failure. |
D) congestive heart failure. |
|
|
If a patient's hemoglobin level is 8 g/dL due to hemorrhage and all of the hemoglobin molecules are attached to oxygen, the patient's oxygen saturation would MOST likely read: A) above 95%. B) between 90% and 95% C) between 85% and 90%. D) significantly lower than 85%. |
A) above 95% |
|
|
A pulse oximetry reading would be LEAST accurate in a patient: A) with chronic hypoxia. B) whose extremities are cool. C) with persistent tachycardia. D) with poor peripheral perfusion. |
D) with poor peripheral perfusion |
|
|
When present at low levels, oxygen binds easily to hemoglobin molecules, resulting in: A) small changes in oxygen saturation when large changes in PaO2 occur. B) large changes in oxygen saturation when small changes in PaO2 occur. C) small changes in oxygen saturation when small changes in PaO2 occur. D) large changes in oxygen saturation when large changes in PaO2 occur. |
B) large changes in oxygen saturation when small changes in PaO2 occur. |
|
|
With regard to pulse oximetry, the more hypoxic a patient becomes: A) the slower his or her PaO2 will fall. B) the faster he or she will desaturate. C) the slower he or she will desaturate. D) the less reliable the pulse oximeter is |
B) the faster he or she will desaturate. |
|
|
If a colorimetric ETCO2 detector turns purple during the exhalation phase through an ET tube, approximately how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled? A) Less than 0.5% B) Between 1% and 2% C) Between 2% and 5% D) More than 5% |
A) Less than 0.5% |
