Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
256 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
Approximately what percent of infants survived, but developed severe BDP?
|
25%
|
|
|
What is PIE?
|
a well recognized complication of premature infants with RDS, pneumonia adn mechanical vent.
|
|
|
What is the main diagnosis of PIE?
|
mainly radiographic and pathologic
|
|
|
What type of organism is coccidioidomycosis also known as San Joaquine valley fever?
|
Fungus
|
|
|
What percent of people living in areas where coccidioidomycosis is found have antibiotics against it in their blood?
|
50%
|
|
|
San Joaquin valley fever cannot be spread from person to person True/False
|
True
|
|
|
which of the following groups are at greater risk of San Joaquin valley fever?
|
-pregnant women
-immunocomopromised individuals -agricultural workers |
|
|
Anthrax is passed from animals to humans true/false
|
true
|
|
|
inhalation anthrax presents flu like symptoms. true/false
|
true
|
|
|
the most common form of anthrax is?
|
cutaneous
|
|
|
Myasthenia gravis is a/an?
|
chronic autoimmune neuromuscular disorder
|
|
|
which gland is believed to play a major role in myasthenia gravis?
|
thymus gland
|
|
|
over half the people who get myasthenia gravis will develop ________ as their first sign and symptoms.
|
eye problems
|
|
|
Rulutek is the 1st and only FDA approved drug for ALS. True/false
|
true
|
|
|
skin breakdown is not a concern for ALS patients. true/false
|
false
|
|
|
most ALS patients eventually die from respiratory failure. true/false
|
true
|
|
|
CF is mutisystem disease?true/false
|
true
|
|
|
80% of CF cases are diagnosed by age 3? true/false
|
ture
|
|
|
80% of CF patients eventually infected with pseudomonas aeruginosa? true/false
|
true
|
|
|
what year did Legionellosis first appear?
|
1976
|
|
|
Legionnaire's disease can be difficult to distinguish from other types of pneumonia. true/false
|
true
|
|
|
what is the antibiotic of choice for Legionnaire's disease?
|
erythromycin
|
|
|
which of the following is a cause of bronchitis?
A. influenza A B. influenza B C. weak immune system D. all the above |
all the above
|
|
|
which of the following is a none invasive test that can be used to diagnose for bronchitis?
|
PFT
|
|
|
one of the causes of bronchitis is smoking? true/false
|
true
|
|
|
? to ? percent of babies who inherit CF have mecounium ileus at birth.
|
10-15%
|
|
|
children with CF are the appropriate height and weight for their age? true/false
|
false. they are underweight and shorter than expected for their age
|
|
|
what is the site of most life threatening affects of CF?
|
lungs
|
|
|
in the U.S. _____% of all deaths from influenza occur among persons older than 65.
|
90%
|
|
|
widespread regional outbreaks that occur every 2-3yrs and affect 5-10% of the population. Is this a pandemic or epidemic?
|
epidemic
|
|
|
what type of medication is used to treat secondary infections and is harmless against the flu?
|
antibiotics
|
|
|
bronchiectasis is a restrictive disease usually with a history of coughing and excess mucus secretions? true/false
|
false
|
|
|
all of the following are characteristics of bronchiectasis except?
|
restriction of bronchial
|
|
|
bronchectasis was first described in what year?
|
1819
|
|
|
coal workers' pneumoconiosis (CWP) is caused by?
|
Silica
|
|
|
CWP is a curable disease if it is dicovered soon enough. true/false
|
false
|
|
|
the following methods are used to diagnose CWP except?
|
ABG draw
|
|
|
RSV only affects young kids?true/false
|
false
|
|
|
what are the symptoms of RSV?
|
-fever
-cough -wheezing |
|
|
RSV is a very contagious virus? true/false
|
true
|
|
|
How is RSV treated?
|
no specific treatment
|
|
|
RSV is a disease that affects only infants and children age 2 years or younger. true/false
|
false. affects children and adults
|
|
|
all of the following are symptoms in infants with RSV except?
|
digital clubbing
|
|
|
patients wth CHF often experience paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND). this is due to?
|
transfer of fluid in the lower extremities to the lungs
|
|
|
when ventilating patients with CHF on of the most important things to monitor is the effects of PPV on hemodynamics. true/false
|
true
|
|
|
PEEP increases Paw and intrathoracic pressure which lead to a reduced preload. true/false
|
true
|
|
|
emphysema is a curable disease. true/false
|
false
|
|
|
alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency affects a small percentage of people. true/false
|
true
|
|
|
how many peopl esuffer from emphysema?
|
2 out of 1000 people
|
|
|
what is the most common cause of emphysema?
|
smoking
|
|
|
test and diagnosis for emphysema include?
|
all of the above
|
|
|
emphysema ranks? among chronic conditions that contribute to lack of activity?
|
9th
|
|
|
pulmonary fibrosis is a reversible disease. true/false
|
false
|
|
|
what restrictions must be met before a pulmonary fibrosis patient is eligible fo ra lung transplant?
|
quit smoking, be healthy enough to undergo surgery adn must stick to post transplant/rehab requirements
|
|
|
corticosteroids used to treat pulmonary fibrosis have serious side effects such as diabetes, glaucoma, and lymphoma. true/false
|
true
|
|
|
what is pneumonia?
|
an infection of the lungs
|
|
|
bacteria are the most common cause of pneumonia in adults. true/false
|
true
|
|
|
washing hands is the number one importance to not acquire pneumonia. true/false
|
true
|
|
|
what is the appropriate Vt setting for patients with ARDS?
|
6ml/kg
|
|
|
ARDS is deadly disease that can quickly destroy the lungs. true/false
|
false
|
|
|
how is ARDS diagnosed?
|
chest xray, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure <18 mm Hg with no history of left arterial hypertension, P/F ratio <200
|
|
|
which best describes the definition of ARDS?
|
a type of lung (pulmonary) failure that may result from any disease that causes large amounts of fluid to collect in the lungs.
|
|
|
without proper treatment what percentage of patients with ARDS can be expected to die?
|
90%
|
|
|
which of these are signs and or symptoms of ARDS?
|
reduced compliance, tachycardia and tachypnea
anxiety and restlessness |
|
|
who discovered mycobaterium tuberculosis?
|
robert koch
|
|
|
this forms when an individual with a good immune systme is able to contain the TB bacteria.
|
granuloma, remember people with good immune system = granuloma
|
|
|
this is the primary mark/formation of active tuberculosis in the lung.
|
tubercules. active Tb ====tubercule
|
|
|
Cor pulmonale
|
an increase in bulk of the right ventricle of the heart, generally caused by chronic diseases or malfunction of the lungs. This condition can lead to heart failure.
|
|
|
Cor pulmonale occurs in 25% of patients with?
|
COPD
|
|
|
Approximately ___% of the patient diagnosed with cor pulmonale have COPD
|
85%
|
|
|
Cor pulmanale may also be caused by lung diseases such as:
|
CF
pulmonary embolism pneumoconiosis |
|
|
Some neuromuscular diseases such as muscular dystrophy may result in:
|
cor pulmonale
|
|
|
What is the common link between lung dysfunction and the heart in cor pulmonale?
|
pulmonary hypertension
|
|
|
Cor pulmonale is commly a chronic and slowly progressive course. True/false
|
true
|
|
|
What are the 2 main conditions that can cause cor pulmonale?
|
1. massive pulmonary embolism (most common cause of acute life threatening cor pulmonale)
2. ARDS |
|
|
In chronic cor pulmonale the right ventricular what?
|
hypertrophy (RVH) generally predominates
|
|
|
In acute cor pulmonale the right ventriclar what?
|
dilation mainly occurs
|
|
|
Cor pulmonale accounts for ______% of decompensated heart failure related admissions.
|
10-30%
|
|
|
Pts with COPD who develope cor pulmonale have a 30% chance of surviving how many years?
|
5 years
|
|
|
In the U.S., it is estimated that _______ deaths per year result from pulmonary emboli and about 1/2 occur within the first hour due to acute right heart failure.
|
50,000
|
|
|
What are the physical signs of cor pulmonale?
|
1. increased chest diameter, labored respiratory efforts, retractions of chest wall, distended neck veins, and cyanosis.
2. wheezes, crackles, systolic ejection murmur, or diastolic pulmonary regurgitation murmur. 3. hyperresonance of the lungs, ascites 4. pitting edema |
|
|
Ways to diagnosis cor pulmonale?
|
1. EKG (frequent PVCs)
2. Chest xray (enlargement of right descending pulmonary artery) 3. PFT (confirm underlying lung disease) 4. V/Q scan of chest CT to determine thromboembolisms 5. Lab tests: (ABG, hematocrit, BNP) 6. right heart catherization (most accurate test) |
|
|
What do we use to treat cor pulmonale?
|
1. O2 therapy
2. diuretics 3. vasodilator drugs (reduce pulmonary pressures) 4. beta selective agonist (theophylline or ameophylline 5. cardiac glycosides (digitalis) 6. theophylline (reduce pulmonary vascular resistance) 7. Warfarin (anticoagulation) |
|
|
MI
|
is the rapid development of myocardial necrosis caused by a critical imbalance between oxygen supply and demand of the myocardium.
|
|
|
Causes of MI
|
1. plaque rupture with thrombus formation in coronary vessel (primary cause)
2. nonatherosclerotic causes of MI include: -coronary vasospasm, cocaine or amphetamine use, vasculitis, acute anemia from GI bleeding, and chest trauma from MVAs. |
|
|
Cardiovascular disease accounts for ____ million deaths annually worldwide.
|
12
|
|
|
____ patients who experience STEMI die within 24 hours of the onset of ischemia.
|
1/3
|
|
|
What are the cardiac markers that help to categorize MI?
|
1. ST elevation MI
2. Non ST elevation MI 3. unstable angina 4. NSTEMI/unstable angina based on the presence or absence of cardiac enzyme |
|
|
Subpopulatios at risk of MI that are younger than 45 years include:
|
1. cocaine users
2. type 1 diabetes mellitus 3. hypercholesterolemia 4. positive family history |
|
|
What are the symptoms of MI?
|
1.chest pain
2. radiating pain to the jaw, neck , arms, back, and epigastrium 3. dyspnea 4. nausea, abdominal pain, or both 5. anxiety 6. lightheadedness with/without syncope 7. diaphoreses 8. wheezing |
|
|
What is a common finding in patients with poor ventricular compliance?
|
a fourth heart sound
|
|
|
what are the risk factors for MI?
|
age
male gender smoking hypercholesterolemia & hypertriglyceridemia diabetes mellitus poorly controled hypertension type A personality family history sedentary lifestyle |
|
|
What is the preferred biomarker for diagnosis?
|
troponin (1 is detected in blood serum 3-6 hours after an AMI)
|
|
|
Laboratory studies of MI
|
-troponin
-creatine kinase-MB levle -myoglobin -CBC -K+ and magnesium -c-reactive protein |
|
|
Intermediate probability of MI with:
|
St segment depression
t wave inversion ST-T wave abnormalities |
|
|
a group of catheter based technologies used to establish coronary reperfusion?
|
percutaneous coronary interventions
|
|
|
provides essential knowledge of the extent of coronary disease
|
angiography
|
|
|
the primary therapeutic modality used at centers where it can provide reperfusion as quickly as fibrinolytic therapy
|
percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty
|
|
|
may be indicated based on angiographic findings
|
coronary artery bypass graft
|
|
|
Antithrombotic agents
|
aspirin, heparin, lovenox
|
|
|
thromboytic agents
|
altepase (activase, tenecteplase (TNKase), anistreplase, streptokinase
|
|
|
platelet aggregation inhibitors
|
plavix
|
|
|
approximately ____ million americans have sleep disorders. (almost half of these have sleep apnea.
|
40
|
|
|
What are the two phases of sleep?
|
-non rapid eye movement (NREM)
-rapid eye movement (REM) |
|
|
NREM
|
-restorative sleep
-occupies about 75% of sleep cycle -Stage 3: increased PaO2 (2-4mm Hg), decreased Ve (13-15%), decreased BP (8-14%) |
|
|
What are the two most common signs of SDB and apnea?
|
excessive daytime sleepiness and excesssive snoring
|
|
|
Epworth sleepiness scale assesses EDS
|
essential for initial screeing of sleep disorders.
composed of 8 questions - each rated 0-3 on chance of dozing -score of >9, pt should see sleep specialist |
|
|
Berlin questionnaire identifies?
|
sleep apnea risk factors
-10 items in three categories -high risk of sleep apnea if qualify in two categories |
|
|
Polysomnography
|
establish and differentiate between types of SDB
*diagnostic sleep study: provides tracings of various physiological parameters -Rt/Lt eye movement -chin movement or tension -Rt/Lt leg movement -snoring and airflow -thoracic and abdominal movement -SpO2 and HR -body position |
|
|
What defines the number of hypopneas and apneas for hour of sleep time?
|
apnea hypopnea index
|
|
|
Obstructive sleep apnea
|
occurs when obstruction prevents airflow into the lungs while the efforts ot breathe continue
-SaO2 fall causing EEG arousal, which causes a pt to gasp and sit up |
|
|
Central sleep apnea
|
sleep apnea with lack of effort for >10 seconds due to a lack of central drive to breathe
-<10% of all adults w/SDB |
|
|
Etiology of CSA is complex but may include:
|
-stroke or brainstem lesion
-encephalitis or neurodegeneration -radiation txs to the cervical spine -CHF |
|
|
Signs/symptoms of CSA include:
|
-lack or restorative sleep, frequent awakenings
-assoc. w/neurologic issues; difficulty swallowing, change in voice, body weakness/numbness -common sign is Cheyne stokes breathing |
|
|
Mixed sleep apnea
|
combines aspects of OSA and CSA
-PSG study to detect |
|
|
What are the three types of SDB?
|
-OSA
-CSA -MSA |
|
|
what is the most common cause of sleep apnea?
|
obesity
|
|
|
which of the following is true regarding the term hypoxemia?
|
it occurs when the pt's PaO2 is lower than predicted
|
|
|
what is the most common physiologic cause of hypoxemia in patients with lung disease?
|
V/Q mismatch
|
|
|
which of the following shifts the oxyhemoglobin dissociating curve to the left?
A. increased PaCO2 B. decreased pH C. increased body temperature D. fetal hemoglobin |
D. fetal hemoglobin
|
|
|
what is the normal value for PvO2?
|
38-42 mm Hg
|
|
|
which of the following is the best indicator of metabolic acid base status?
|
base excess
|
|
|
what is a decrease in tissue oxygenation called?
|
hypoxia
|
|
|
which of the following could cause metabolic acidosis?
A. cardiovascular disease B. renal disease C. hypokalemia D. vomiting |
B. renal disease
|
|
|
what range of gestational weeks is considered term?
|
37-42
|
|
|
Which of the following conditions is associated with an infant born early in gestation?
A. meconium aspiration B. respiratory distress syndrome C. persistent pulmonary hypertension D. perinatal asphyxia |
B. RDS
|
|
|
Infants who need extensive medical resusitation at birth will have Apgar scores in the range of:
|
0-3
|
|
|
What does the Ballard examination of a newborn infant assess?
|
gestational age
|
|
|
what is the upper limit of normal range for HR in the newborn?
|
120-160
|
|
|
What is the significance of "grunting" in an infant?
|
a low FRC
|
|
|
what is indicated by a capillary refill greater than 3 seconds in the infant?
|
circulatory failure
|
|
|
what effect does abdominal distention have on respirations?
|
impedes diaphragm movement
|
|
|
An infant's entire right hemithorax "lights up" during transillumination. what does this signify?
|
significant pneumothorax
|
|
|
why is it so importaant to quickly identify a low blood glucose level in a newborn?
|
it detrimental to brain development
|
|
|
Barking cough indicates
|
croup
|
|
|
excessive drooling, a jaw that thrust forward and inspiratory stridor
|
epiglottitis
|
|
|
which heart chamber typically thickens with aging?
|
left ventricle
|
|
|
How much does the incidence of CHF increase with each decade of life between 45 and 50 years?
|
doubles
|
|
|
Which of the following statements are true about the effects of aging on the pulmonary system?
I. alveolar septa gradually deteriorate II. the number of alveoli gradually decreases III. loss of alveolar walls reduces the surface area for gas exchange IV. smooth muscle fibers int he lugns are progressively replaced with fibrous connective tissue. |
I, III, and IV
|
|
|
what is the physiologic affect of aging on pulmonary function?
|
increased FRC
|
|
|
What percentage of adults older than 65 years have elevated systolic or diastolic pressure?
|
60%
|
|
|
Normal resting respiratory rate in elderly patients is in what range?
|
16-25 breaths/min
|
|
|
An elderly patient who gains more than how many pound(s) in a week may be suffering from CHF?
|
5 lbs
|
|
|
Which of the following pulmonary function measurements increases with age?
|
closing capacity
|
|
|
which of the following laboratory values increaes with age?
|
serum glucose
|
|
|
In healthy elderly men, what is the expected supine resting heart rate?
|
60-100 beats/min
|
|
|
which of the following is not part of the brain?
A. cerebrum B. cranial nerves C. brainstem D. cerebellum |
B. cranial nerves
|
|
|
where in the nervous system is breathing regulated?
|
brainstem
|
|
|
What instrument is used most widely to quantify neurological impairment?
|
glasgow coma scale
|
|
|
which of the following cranial nerves are evaluated with the gag reflex?
|
IX and X
|
|
|
Which of the following does not describe the acronym PERRLA?
A. positioned B. accommodation C. round D. reactive |
A. positioned
|
|
|
respiratory pattern consist of phases of hyperpnea that regularly alternate with episodes of apnea?
|
cheyne stokes
|
|
|
which of the following is the most critical parameter to keep in mind when managing a patient with intracranial hypertension?
|
cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)
|
|
|
what is the most common cause of nerve root pathology due to compression?
|
herniated vertebral disc
|
|
|
what disease may be suggested by the involvement of multiple nerve roots?
|
guillain barre
|
|
|
what sequence of events best describes the cough mechanism?
|
inspiration, closure of glottis, forceful opening of glottic
|
|
|
chronic productive cough is caused most commonly by what clinical condition?
|
postnasal drip
|
|
|
excessive sputum is associated with all the following conditions except?
A. allergies B. cirgarette smoking C. airway infection D. pleural infection |
D. pleural infection
|
|
|
Massive hemoptysis
|
400 ml in 3 hrs
|
|
|
in the presence of nausea and vomiting, a history of cirrhosis of the liver suggests which of the following organs as the source of hematemesis?
A. kidneys B. duodenum C. esophagus D. liver |
esophagus
|
|
|
what grading system is useful in qualifying the degree of dyspnea?
|
modified borg scale
|
|
|
the inability to breath while lying down
|
orthopnea
|
|
|
what is the difference between pleuritic and nonpleuritic chest pain?
|
pleuritic pain is sharp and stabbing; nonpleuritic pain is dull and crushing
|
|
|
all the following pulmonary conditions are associated with syncope except:
A. pulmonary embolism B. prolonged bouts of coughing C. hyperoxia D. valsalva maneuver |
C. hyperoxia
|
|
|
the presence of early morning headache may be caused by?
|
hypercapnia
|
|
|
the peak incidence of snoring in adult males occurs at ages ___ years
|
50 to 59
|
|
|
which of the following terms represent the lighter regions of xray film?
A. radiolucent B. radiopaque C. radiographic D. tomographic |
B. radiopaque
|
|
|
as a patient being positioned for a chest xray is moved closer to the source of the xrays, what happens to the shadows of anatomic structures seen on the chest film?
|
they get larger
|
|
|
for a conventional chest xray, how far are the patient and film positioned from the source of the xrays?
|
4-6ft
|
|
|
a patient who is standing upright with her back to the xray tube, her anterior thorax pressed against a metal cassette containing the film, and her arms positioned out of the way is positioned for what xray view?
|
PA view
|
|
|
there is less cardiacc magnification with a PA view. true/false
|
true
|
|
|
the determination of whether or not an extrathoracic lesion has metastasized to the lung is the most important use of which type of radiology study?
|
computed tomography
|
|
|
a normal ECG tracing is strong evidence that the heart has good pumping ability. true/false
|
false. electrical activity
|
|
|
what term describes heart cells that have the ability to spontaneously depolarize?
|
automaticity
|
|
|
what term applies to any heartbeat that originates outside the SA node?
|
ectopic impulse
|
|
|
what term describes the sudden loss of the negative charge inside the myocardial cells?
|
depolarization
|
|
|
what is represented by the P wave on the ECG tracing?
|
depolarization of the atria
|
|
|
which of the following is not a common cause of tachycardia?
A. pain B. fever C. hypoxemia D. hypothyroidism |
D. hypothyroidism
|
|
|
which of the following is not a hallmark of a premature contraction (PVC)?
A. the QRS is premature B. the QRS is wider than normal C. there is a P wave in front of the QRS D. there is a T wave opposite in polarity to the QRS complex |
C. there is a P wave in front of the QRS
|
|
|
what dysrhythmia represents a dissociation of the mechanical and electrical activities of the heart?
|
pulseless electrical activity (PEA)
|
|
|
what gas is required for optimum production of ATP?
|
oxygen
|
|
|
basal energy expenditure
|
it gives an estimation of the pt's nutritional needs
|
|
|
which of the following is true about anaerobic metabolism?
I. it can cause metabolic acidosis II. it results in excess lactate produciton III. it results in excess production of CO2 IV. it is very inefficient method of producing ATP |
all the above
|
|
|
what dietary adjustment might be best for patients with more severe COPD?
|
increased fats
|
|
|
what method of nutritional delivery is considered the least efficient?
A. by mouth B. by NG tube C. by arterial line D. by IV |
D. by IV
|
|
|
during inspection what would suggest that the patient is malnourished?
|
weak cough
|
|
|
how does a cachectic patient appear physically?
|
very thin and malnourished
|
|
|
immature neutrophil
|
band
|
|
|
what type of white blood cell fights bacterial infections?
|
neutrophils
|
|
|
what type of white blood cell is useful against allergic reactions and defends against parasitic infestations?
|
eosinophil
|
|
|
what is the normal lifespan of the neutrophil?
|
10 days
|
|
|
what is the typcial lifespan of a red blood cell?
|
120 days
|
|
|
what term descirbes red blood cells that are larger than normal?
|
macrocytic
|
|
|
heavy smokers are prone to what change in the red blood cell count?
|
secondary polycythemia
|
|
|
what problem is associated with an abnormal INR value?
|
bleeding
|
|
|
what is the major cation of the extracellular fluid?
|
sodium
|
|
|
the normal value for potassium is 3.5 to 4.8 mEq/L. true/false
|
true
|
|
|
what is the normal anion gap is potassium is not considered in the equation?
|
8 to 16 mEq/L
|
|
|
elevation of the BUN and creatinine levels in the blood suggests what type of problem?
|
renal failure
|
|
|
elevation of troponin is associated with what disorder?
|
acute myocardial infarction
|
|
|
a patient with a platelet count of about 80,000/mm2 is likely to have what condition?
|
excessive bleeding
|
|
|
the primary instrument used in performing PFTs has to be the:
|
spirometer
|
|
|
a restrictive defect is present when lung volumes are reduced to less that what percentage of predicted levels?
|
80%
|
|
|
obstructive disorders are characterized by a reduction of:
|
expiratory flows
|
|
|
the VC is equal to:
|
B. IC +ERV
|
|
|
FRC is equal to:
|
TLC-IC
|
|
|
TLC is equal to:
|
IRV +TV +ERV
|
|
|
the volume of air inhaled and exhaled during quiet breathing is known as the:
|
tidal volume
|
|
|
waht may cause the FVC to decrease in a patient with a restrictive lung disorder?
|
an increase in airway resistance becaue of the disease
|
|
|
the boyd plethysmograph uses what gas law?
|
boyle's law
|
|
|
the closed system helium dilution method is used to measure?
|
FRC
|
|
|
the FEV1 is an indicator of the flow characteristic in what airways?
|
the larger airways
|
|
|
the post bronchodilator testing assesses the reversibility of airway obstruction; what percentage increase is required to consider it significant test?
|
30%
|
|
|
what test would determine whether there is gross maldistribution of ventilation in the lungs of a patient diagnosed with emphysema?
|
nitrogen washout
|
|
|
CBABE
|
CF
bronchitis asthma bronchectasis emphysema (all are obstructive disease) |
|
|
what test is often used preoperatively to evaluate whether the patient may have postoperative complications?
|
PEF test
|
|
|
a loss of elasticity of the lung tissue will cause the FRC to:
|
increase
|
|
|
factors that may affect patient performance of PFTs include all the of the following except:
A. language B. hearing C. CVA D. oxygen dependence |
d. oxygen dependence
|
|
|
the opposite of the valsalva maneuver is the:
|
muller maneuver
|
|
|
what is the maximum depth that the standard adult bronchoscope can visualize in some patients?
|
sixth level bronchi
|
|
|
for what condition is the rigid bronchoscope most likely to be used?
|
massive hemoptysis
|
|
|
what is the most common cause of episodic hemoptysis?
|
bronchitis
|
|
|
what is the primary purpose of bronchoscopy in the patient with intersitial lung disease?
|
to perform microscopic assessment of the biopsy sample, which often is diagnostic
|
|
|
what complication associated with bronchoscopy is most common?
|
those associated with medications used in the procedure
|
|
|
which patients/situaations are most likley to develop hypoxemia?
|
prolonged bronchoscopic procedures
|
|
|
which of the following is not a contraindication for flexible bronchoscopy?
A. lung abcess B. tracheal disease C. immunosuppression D. obstruction of the superior vena cava |
B. tracheal disease
|
|
|
what is the most important factor in assessment of the ability of the cardiovascular system to meet the body's metabolic demands?
|
adequacy of perfusion
|
|
|
the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle in 1 minute is?
|
C.O
|
|
|
blood flow is directed to organs that have the highest metabolic needs when at rest. what organ would have the lowest metabolic needs when at rest?
|
heart
|
|
|
CO/BSA
|
CI
|
|
|
the average C.O for adult men and women at rest is ____L/min.
|
5
|
|
|
tacycardia in an adult is defined as a heart rate greater than ______ beats/min
|
100
|
|
|
preload
|
the stretch on the ventricular muscle fibers before contraction
|
|
|
the filling pressure of the right heart
|
central venous pressure
|
|
|
the filling pressure of the left heart
|
pulmonary capillary wedge
|
|
|
the resistance to ventricular ejection
|
afterload
|
|
|
what method of measuring C.O is most popular in ICUs around the country?
|
thermodilution
|
|
|
which of the following is not use in continuous C.O monitoring?
A. echocardiography B. doppler ultrassound C. pulse contour cardiac output monitoring D. thermaldilution |
A. echocardiography
|
|
|
the periodic, noninvasive measurment of cardiac performance that requires only the use of a sphygmomanometer is called:
|
pulse pressure
|
|
|
why hs use of the pulmonary artery catheter diminished in many ICUs?
|
some experts believe it increases moratility
|
|
|
all of the following can affect cardiac output except:
A. race B. body size C. hematocrit D. tissue demand for oxygen |
A. race
|
|
|
normal ejection fraction is approximately:
|
65% to 70%
|
|
|
the cardiac output of the right ventricle is the same as the C.O of the left ventricle. compared with the left ventricle,the CWI of the right ventricle is:
|
less
|
|
|
arterial cannulation is indicated for all of the following except:
A. determining C.O B. severe hypotension C. unstable respiratory failure D. avoiding arterial injury from mulitple arterial punctures |
A. determining C.O
|
|
|
what does the dicrotic notch represent on an arterial pressure waveform?
|
aortic vavle closure
|
|
|
the pulse pressure is important hemodynamically because it is an indication of:
|
left ventricular stroke volume
|
|
|
circulation of the vital organs (kidneys, coronary arteries) may be compromised if the mean arterial pressure falls to below _____ mm Hg.
|
60
|
|
|
the central venous pressure represents:
A. right ventricular preload B. pressure of blood in the right atrium C. right ventricular end diastolic pressure |
all the above
|
|
|
the central venous pressure catheter insertion site that provides both stability after placement and accurate hemodynamic information is the ______ vein.
|
subclavian
|
|
|
complications involving the use of central venous pressure catheters include all of the following except:
A. bleeding B. pneumothorax C. infection D. atrail septal puncture |
D. atrial septal puncture
|
|
|
the pulmonary artery catheter allows assessment of:
A. left ventricular preload B. mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2) C. cardiac output D. all of the above |
all the above
|
|
|
the purpose of the balloon at the tip of the pulmonary artery catheter is to:
|
obtain wedge pressure measurements
|
|
|
the normal range for pulmonary artery systolic pressure is ____ mmHg.
|
20 to 30
|
|
|
for the pulmonary capillary wedge pressure to reflect pulmonary venous and left atrial pressures, blood flow must be uninterrupted between the catheter tip and the left heart. This condition exists only in West's zone:
|
III
|
|
|
normal pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is:
|
4-12 mm Hg
|
|
|
the normal range for pulmonary artery diastolic pressure is:
|
8-15 mm Hg
|
