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260 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Purpose of PFT
-evaluate cause of pulmonary symptoms
-evaluate abnormalities seen on the CXR and/or CT scan
-follow course of disease adn response to tx
-evaluate perioperative risk for pulmonary complications
-rule out pulmonary pathology in people with high risk for pulmonary dysfunction
-evaluate disability
PFT normal values vary with:
-age
-height
-gender
-race
Height
the most important factor predicting lung volumes
- the taller the person, the larger the values
Weight
important when BMI > or = to 30 = restrictive
Gender
males have larger lungs
Race
African Americans, Asians, East Indians have 12% smaller lung volumes
Spirometer
routine flows and volume
Body plethysmograph
TLC and airway resistance studies
Diffusion system
lung diffusion
Gas analysis
carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, helium, nitrogen, and oxygen
Multifunction device
measures lung volumes, flow rates, diffusing capacity, and response to bronchial provocation
Tidal Volume
volume during quiet breathing
adults: 350-600ml
stiff lungs: sm. vol. @ high rate
Obstruction: norm vol. @ slower rate
Minute volume
rate x volume
4 to 8L/min
Vital capacity
maximal volume exhaled
-measured after deepest breath possible
-slow vital capacity
-forced vital capacity
Phases
maximal inspiratory effort
initial expiratory blast
forceful emptying of lungs
<20ml/kg: risk of complications
Total lung capacity
SVC + RV
normal % predicted is 80% to 120%
increased in obstructive diseases due to air trapping
obtained by body plethysmography, open circuit nitrogen washout, closed circuit helium dilution, XR planimetry
Body plethysmography
Boyle's Law
-pressure and voluem of a gas vary inversely if temperature is constant
-V1 = V2 x P2/P1
-accurate but body box is expensive
-limited to facilities with high volume PFT
Open circuit nitrogen washout
oxygen 100% for 7 minutes or until nitrogen is washed out of patient's lungs
-estimation of intrathoracic gas volume
*79% of exhaled lung vol is Nitrogen
* V1 x N1 = V2 x N2
-if air trapping is present this technique will underestimate total intrathoracic volume
Closed system helum dilution
helium is inert and not significantly absorbed form lungs by blood
-helium is diluted in proportion to size of lung volume being measured
-equilibrium takes 7 min
-CO2 has to be removed from system
-FRC = (initial He - final He) x V x BTPS
Residual volume
gas left after exhalation
obtained from TLC studies
TLC - SVC or FRC - ERV
increased in air trapping
Expiratory reserve volume
maximal gas exhaled from resting status
Functional residual capacity
gas left after full exhalation at resting status
FEV1
-max vol exhaled during 1st second of expiration
-it is a forced maneuver
-varies with age, gender, race, and height
-the % predicted is 80% to 100%
-reduced in obstructive and restrictive lung disease
FEV3
-3sec point of the expiratory curve
-not as reproducible as FEV1
-reported as % of the FVC (normal approx 95%)
FEF 25%-75%
average flow rate during middle half of expiratory curve
-norm 65% to 100%
-more sensitive to airway obstruction than FEV1
Peak expiratory flow
-max flow rate achieved during FVC maneuver
-effort dependent
-peak flowmeters are inexpensive
Asthma action plans
- green zone: 80% to 100% of personal best
-yellow zone: 50% to 80%
-red zone: <50% = urgent physician intevention
Maximual voluntary ventilation
patient breathes as rapidly and deeply as possible for 12 to 15 seconds
-extrapolated to obtain MMV in 1 min
MMV reflects:
-status of resp. muscles
-compliance of thorax lung complex
-airway resistance
patient motivation and ability to move air
important in the preoperative patient
Amount of change required to qualify as improvement after bronchodilator
FVC >10%
FEV1 > 200ml or >15%
FEF 25%-75% >20% to 30%
Diffusion capacity
determinants of gas exchange
-surface area of membrane
-thickness of membrane
-hemoglobin and blood flow in capillaries
-matching of ventilation and perfusion
Cal DLCO
[VA x 60/ (Pbar - 47) x t] x [ln x (PACOi/ PACOt)]
DLCO - SB norm
80% to 120% predicted
Airway resistance
greater on expiration than on inspiration
-increases with asthma, bronchitis, emphysema
-uses the plethysmograph
-normal 80% to 120% predicted
Esophageal balloon
proximal end connected to pressure transducer
-serial pressure readings at various volumes
Static compliance
decreased in atelectasis, pneumonia, pulmonary fibrosis
Cal. total CL
CL thorax + CL lung
Nitrogen washout
-to determine distribution of ventilation
-pt breathes 100% oxygen
-nitrogen analyzer measures diminishing N2 concentration from lungs
-well ventilated units empty first
-uneven pattern common in obstructive lung disease
Closing volume
special form of nitrogen washout to diagnose obstruction in small airways
-pt inhales single breath of 100% O2, then slowly exhales while N2 is monitored
what are the 4 phases of CV
phase I (dead space)
phase II (dead space + alv gas)
phase III (alveolar gas)
phase IV (abrupt increase in N2)
Respiratory Quotient
ratio of CO2 produced to O2 consumed
-assess food group metabolized for energy
-norm: 0.8 to 0.85
If RQ < 0.7 fats are the sole source of energy
If RQ is 1, carbohydrates are the main source
-glucose produces more CO2 than if fed with fat and protein
Stress ECG
detection of coronary artery disease
Ventilatory capacity
ability of lungs to respond to exercise
Blood gases
problems not apparent at rest
Exercise bronchial provocation
drop of exp. flows 20% postexercise; asthma
Anaerobic threshold
where oxygen need exceeds availability
-athletes in training and patients with heart disease for individualized exercise program
Maximal oxygen uptake
level of exercise that causes maximum oxygen consumption
Bronchoprovocation testing
diagnosis of occult asthma
provoking agents
- inhaled histamine or methacholine
-exercise
-cold air
a 20% decrease in FEV1 indicates hyperreactive airways
Other applications of PFT
smoking censsation
surgery
sleep apnea
environmental lung disease
Obstructive
expiratory flow < 80% predicted
TLC>80% predicted (air trapping)
obstruction changes flow vol loop
Fixed: flattened expiratory and inspiratory limbs of FVL
Restrictive
lung volume < 80% predicted
If FVC
> 80% predicted = no restrictive
<80% predicted = look at TLC
If TLC
>80% predicted = no restrictive
<80% predicted = restrictive
FEV1 and FEF 25%-75%
FEV1 normal and FEF 25%-75% < 65% predicted = mild obstructive disease
Response to bronchodilator
if FVC, FEV1, FEF 25%-75% improve = response
FVL
scooping of expiratory limb = obstructive
flattening inspiratory and expiratory limbs = fixed or variable large airway obstruction
DL
>80% prediced is normal
Pattern Recognition Asthma
low FEV1 and FEF 25%-75%: normal TLC; normal DL; response to bronchodilator
Pattern Recognition Emphysema
low FEV1 and FEF 25%-75%; normal TLC; low DL; no response to bronchodilator
Pattern Recognition Pulmonary Fibrosis
low FVC; low FEV1 but normal FEV1/FVC; small TLC, low DL; no response to bronchodilator
Hematology
two major categories of tests are part of the hematology evaluation
1. the complete blood count
2. tests of the blood clotting ability of the pt's blood
Complete Blood Count
-this test determines the number of circulating red and white blood cells
-in addition, the test determines the number and type of white blood cells present in the circulating blood
-red blood cells are also evaluated for their size and amount of hemoglobin present
White blood cell count
-total number of white blood cells in a known volume of blood important to know
-also important to know distribution of white blood cell types: neutrophils, eosinophils, lymphocytes, basophils, monocytes
-in healthy people, neutrophils and lymphocytes make up majority of WBC count
The neutrophil
-normally makes up 40% to 70% of the total white blood cell count
-produced in the bone marrow, where it matures and waits to be called inot action
-once neutrophil leaves the bone marrow it enters the circulating blood
-next it marginates through the wall of the blood vessel and into the surrounding tissues
-once the neutrophil marginates into the tissues, it usually participates in phagocytosis and dies (as in pneumonia)
-then normal life span of any neutrophil is about 10 days
Eosinophils
make up 0% to 6% of the WBCs
probably play a role in allergic reactions
(asthmatics)
Basophils
make up 0% to 1% of the WBCs normally
also may play a role in allergic reactions
Lymphocytes
make up 20% to 45% of the circulating WBCs
useful in the fight against viral, fungal, and tuberculosis infections
What are the two types of lymphocytes:
B cells and T cells
Monocytes
make up 2% to 10% of the circulating WBCs
the largest of the different WBCs
in the lung the monocyte converts to a macrophage, then plays a key role in clearing the lung of inhaled dusts through phagocytosis
Leukocytosis
an abnormal increase in the circulating white blood cells
Neutorphilia
if the increase in leukocytes is due to neutrophils
(drug epi and steroids)
Leukopenia
an abnormal decrease in the circulating white blood cells
Neutropenia
a drop in WBC due to a decrease in neutrophils
Left shift
when bone marrow stimulated to release and produce additional neutrophils, immature version also released.
bands normally make up a very small percent of the circulating cells
when bands increase significantly this is a sign that the body is under stress (severe infection)
Eosinophilia
occurs with allergic reactions and parasitic infestations (increase asthma)
Basophilia
occurs with similar disorders that cause eosinophilia
(increase basophil)
Lymphocytosis
occurs with viral infections especially mononucleosis
Monocytosis
seen in chronic infections such as tuberculosis
(preleukemia and malignancies)
Lymphocytopenia
decrease in lymphocytes
is seen in trauma and acute infection. (HIV infection)
Neutropenia
is a serious medical problem because it represents a reduced ability to fight infection.
caused by: bone marrow failure (chemotherapy or leukemia) or when the cells are destroyed rapidly in the tissues when severe infection is present.
Red Blood Cells
produced in bone marrow
life span of 120days
do not marginate into the tissues like WBCs.
main component = hemoglobin
Primary funct: carry O2 to the tissues with the help of hemoglobin
Anemia
a low RBC count
(loss of blood)
Microcytic
when RBCs are smaller than normal
Hpyochromic
when RBCs lack adequate hemoglobin
Microcytic anemia
caused by a diet deficient in iron (most common)
Polycythemia
an abnormal increase in the number of circulating RBCs
occurs when: bone marrow is overstimulated to produce RBCs in response to a secondary problem
Caused: chronic hypoxia (COPD), living at high elevation, and some heart diseases
Thrombocytes
blood platelets
they form clots
normal count: 140,000 - 440,000/mm3
Thrombocytopenia
abnormally low platelet count
the lower the platelet count the more likely pt will have problems with bleeding.
RTs should check pts platelet count before performing an arterial puncture
When platelet count is less than 20,000 the pt is more likely to have?
bleeding problems, especially with trauma such as surgery or arterial puntures.
When platelet count is less than 5,000 the pt is more likely to have?
at risk for serious spontaneous internal hemorrhage (brain hemorrhage)
The disorders most likely to result in decreased platelets are?
side effects of drugs such as heparin, bone marrow diseases, and idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura, an autoimmune disorder in which antibodies are produced that destroy the person's own platlets.
Norms for Sodium
137-147mEq/L
Norms for Potassium
3.5-4.8mEq/L
Norms for Chloride
98-105mEq/L
Norms for Carbon Dioxide
25-33mEq/L
Norms for Blood urea nitrogen
7-20mg/dL
Norms for Creatinine
0.7-1.3mg/dL
Norms for total protein
6.3-7.9g/dL
Norms for Albumin
3.5-5.0g/dL
Norms for Cholesterol
150-220 mg/dL
Norms for Glucose
70-105 mg/dL
Decreased Potassium Intake
low potassium diet
alcoholism
(causes of Hypokalemia)
Increased Loss of Potassium
Gastrointestinal loss
Renal disease
diuretics
(causes of Hypokalemia)
Extracellular to Intracellular shift of Potassium
alkalosis
increased plasma insulin
diuretic use
(causes of Hypokalemia)
Increased Potassium Intake
high potassium diet
oral potassium supplement
transfusion of old blood
(causes of Hyperkalemia)
Decreased Potassium Excretion
renal failure
hypoaldosteronism
(causes of Hyperkalemia)
Intracellurlar to Extracellular Shift of Potassium
acidosis
crush injuries
tissue hypoxia
(causes of Hyperkalemia)
Pseudohyperkalemia
hemolysis
leukocytosis
(causes of Hyperkalemia)
Sodium
primary cation
norms 137-147mEq/L
regulated by the kidneys
Hypernatremia
occurs from loss of water
sweating, diarrhea
The four electrolyte concentrations commonly measured are:
Na, K, Cl-, and total CO2
Potassium
primary intracellular cation
norms 3.5-4.8mEq/L
vomiting, kidney diseases, diarrhea, nausea, abdominal distention, muscle weakness, abdominal muscle cramps.
Hyperkalemia
tall peaked T waves, wide QRS complexes
Chloride
most common extracellular anion
norm 98-105mEq/L
Hypochloremia
occurs with severe vomiting and chronic metabolie alkalosis
Hyperchloremia
occurs with certain kidney diseases and prolonged diarrhea
Norm anion gap
8-16mEq/L
Bicarb (total CO2)
plays a major role in acid base balance.
COPD pts who have chronic CO2 retention will have an elevated total of CO2
The two most common tests to check on renal function are?
BUN and Creatinine
neither test is sensitive to early kidney disease
Normal BUN
7-20mg/dl

Heart failure = elevates BUN
Normal Creatinine
0.7 to 1.3mg/dl
Anion Gap
missing anions that are not measured
High anion gap
metabolic acidosis is usually caused by lactic acid (as in sepsis), ketoacids (diabetic ketoacidosis), sulfates (renal failure), and poisons (aspirin overdose)
Enzymes
found in the body cells
when organs suffer damage, an enzyme will elevate in the the circulating blood
In some cases, the type of enzyme found to be elevated along with the medical history can help diagnose the problem
-AST elevates the acute hepatitis and following an acute myocardial infarciton
Glucose
Norm fasting levels: 70-105mg/dl
needed to create energy
Hyperglyceima
an elevated blood glucose
occurs from type II diabetes
Hypoglycemia
reduced blood glucose
Microbiology
involves the isolation and identification of organisms causing disease in the body.
RT is often asked to obtain a sputum sample from the pt to identify the organism causing the pneumonia
AST
aspartate aminotrasferase
SGOT
serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase
ALT
alanine aminotransferase
SGPT
serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase
Amylase and lipase
enzymes used primarily in assessing pancreatitis.
Amylase
in blood and urine is predominantly from the pancreas and salivary glands.
elevated in pancreatitis, diabetic detoacidosis, and diseases of the gallbladder, stomach, and small intestine.
Serum lipase levels are elevated in:
acute pancreatitis
Sputum sample
a legitimate sample from lower airways is needed to identify the offending organism.
the sample is Gram stained and cultured
Bronchoalveolar Lavage
performed during bronchoscopy by injecting a large volume of fluid into the lungs and then collecting it after it mixes with cells in the lung.
lung lavage diagnoses interstitial lung disease and identifies cause of pneumonia.
BAL is contraindicated inthe pt who is unstable and hypoxic
Gram Neg
stinks
transdate
low plearal
exidate
high plearal (cancer, pulmonary embolism trauma)
LDL
Bad cholesterol
HDL
Good cholesterol
Albumin
vol. replacement protein draw fluid from 3rd spacing,
decrease fluid overload
Urine analysis:
appearance
gravity (concentration)
pH
protein (renal)
glucose (diabetes /renal disease)
ketones (starvation and diabetic)
Bilirubin
occurs in the urine inthe conjugated form adn is seen when there is an obstruction to the outflow of bile from the liver.
Urobilinogen
appears in some liver diseases and hemolytic states
Nitrates
may indicated that significant numbers of bacteria are present
Average cholesterol
<160
Nutritional status has major influence on pt outcomes
provides energy for breathing and movement
food quality adn quantity affect oxygen needs and CO2 production
Nutrients influence lung immune function
Interdependence of Respiration and Nutrition
O2 and nutrients travel inthe blood to tissues
nutrient conversion to energy at cellular level requires O2 to support the process
-aerobic metabolism required for life
-breathing fuels the metabolic process
-thus breathing is part of nutrition
Metabolic rate determines
oxygen uptake (VO2) by measuring VO2 at rest, the basal metabolic rate (BMR) or resting energy expenditure (REE) can be calculated
Harris Benedict equation
basal energy expenditure (BEE) of healthy person at rest
-men: 66+(13.7xW)+(5xH)-(6.8xage)
-women:655+(9.6xW)+(1.7xH)-(4.7xage)
W= weight in kg
H=height in cm
True energy measurments are better
direct calorimetry
indirect calorimetry
Direct calorimetry
special room measures heat produced by metabolism
metabolism genrates heat, measured in calories
this is not practical clinically
Indirect calorimetry
VO2 and VCO2 to determine energy consumption VO2 correlates directly with ATP produciton
-the higher the metabolic rate, the higher the VO2
this is now measured with a metabolic cart
-portable
-easy on vent pts
-nose clips and mouth piece req for spont breathing pts
Nutritional Depletion and Respiration
12 to 16hrs of insufficient carbohydrate intake will result in gluconeogenesis
-process of converting muscle and enzyme proteins into sugar
-leads to functional tissue loss
-in starvation:
*muscle loss endurance and strength (including those of respiration)
Noted by: decreased FVC, FEV1, and DLco
-diminished immune function because antibodies are proteins
Emphysema produces:
a catabolic state typically with weight loss even with normal caloric intake
-REE high in malnourished emphysemic pt
-exacerbates symptoms of COPD
*diminished respiratory muscle strength adn exercise tolerance
*compromised immune function, thus increased pulmonary infections
-increased intake of food can normalize weight
*emphysemic pts are not comfortable eating large quantities of food
Bronchodilators cause:
nausea
Nasal O2 interferes with:
smell and taste
Medications can interact to render:
nutrients less useful or inhibit some metabolic enzymes
Intubation complicates
eating process
Large meals interfere with
diaphragm movement
Anxiety, depression
often reduce appetite
Semistarved states can
decrease hypoxic drive
Critically ill pts require constant aid:
breathing: intubation, MV
feeding: NG tube or even total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
matching energy adn nutritional needs with ventilatory needs can be challenging
Metabolism
produces bodies energy
-transfers food to ATP-body's energy source
*can occur by aerobic or anaerobic metabolism
Aerobic pathway
oxygen is consumed
-very efficient yield of ATP
-waste product is CO2, which is exhaled
Anaerobic pathway occurs without oxygen
-very inefficient
-waste product is lactic acid; may result in lactic acidosis
RQ
CO2 production/O2 consumption
Fat has RQ of
0.7
Protein has RQ of
0.85
Carbohydrate has RQ of
1
Burning of combination of the above produces a normal RQ of
0.8
that is 200ml CO2/250ml O2
What provides energy and are building blocks?
Carbs, proteins, and fats
Vitamins
facilitate metabolic pathway reactioins
Minerals
provide elemnets for molecules
Water
provides fluidity for blood flow and medium for various chemical reactions
Oxygen
without it everything stops
Carbohydrate (sugar)
should be largest amount of dietary intake
complex carbs in grains, vegi, fruits
simple sugars present in the above foods but primarily found in refined processed foods
pts with severe COPD may do better with a lower carbohydrate, higher fat diet due to reduced CO2 production
Protein
should comprise 12% to 15% of intake
Recommended daily amount varies
-0.8g/kg for healthy individual
-1.2-1.5g/kg for average hospital pt
-2-2.5g/kg for severe catabolic pts
Nitrogen found only in protein amino acids
-quick estimate of protein catabolism is made by multiplying blood urea nitrogen (BUN) by 6.25
Fat
carries fat soluble vitamins: A,D,E,K
-important for immunity, clotting, antioxidants, etc.
Fats twice as calorie dense as other nutrients
-thus efficient for increasing caloric intake for pts on fluid restrictions
Higher fat content may decrease dyspnea for COPD pts
Vitamins
fat soluble A,D,E,K
water soluble B group and C
Co-factors in enzyme systems for various metabolic functions
Minerals
used in chemical reactions and enzyem systems
iron key for role in O2 transport on hemoglobin
Omega 3 useful anti-infalmmatory for
asthmatics
Nutritional administration route:
enteral or parenteral
Enteral is preferred as most natural
by mouth if possible (emphysema pt more freq small meals)
if intubated maybe by NG tube, PEG tube
Parental (last resort)
if GI tract not functioning, pt may require TPN, which is IV infusion of all nutrients
Inspection findings
cachectic pts are bony with depressed intercostal spaces
accessory muscles are often readily visible
poor cough secondary to muscle weakness
viscous secretions may suggest dehydration
Basilar coarse or fine crackles
may indicate fluid overload or loss of blood protein
Wheezing
secondary to food intolerance/allergy
Fine late inspiratory crackles
may indicate diminished surfactant secondary to malnutrition
S3
may indicate fluid overload and CHF
S4
may indicate severe anemia
PFT changes:
decreased FVC, FEV1, PEP, PIP
ABG changes:
hypercarbia with acidosis due to excessive nutrition or ventilatory failure
anemias decrease O2 carring capacity of hemoglobin and thus Ca)2
high fat intake may cause a low PaO2
pH alterations
-secondary to foods that are alkalotic or acidotic
-lactic acidosis due to low PaO2
What are the formed elements of the blood?
RBCs
WBCs
Platelets
Blood serum is plasma form which the clotting factors have been removed by liquid chromatography. (T/F)
True
In the presence of a significantly reduced RBC count, a normal oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood can be maintained. (T/F)
False
What is the normal range of WBCs?
4500-10,000/mm3
Which white cell type normally represents the largest percent int he differential?
Neutrophils
A tissue monocyte is called a macorphage (T/F0
True
What is the most common cause of anemia?
iron deficiency
Polycythermia
it can be caused by chronic hypoxemia.
it is defined as an increase in RBC, Hb, and hematocrit.
it increases the O2 carrying capacity of the blood
A left shifted white cell differential is evidenced by?
an increase in the number of bands (immature neutrophils)
What is the most common finding in patients with bacterial pneumonia?
neutrophilia
What is the most common finding in patients with an allergic reaction?
eosinophilia
Viral infections typically produce which of the following abnormalities?
lymphocytosis
Leukemia is defined as an uncontrolled increase in the number of WBCs. (T/F)
True
The sedimentation rate is a nonspecific test used to determine the general presence of disease. (T/F)
True
What test is used to assess the patient's blood clotting ability?
prothrombin time
Which electrolyte closely affects muscle function?
potassium
Which electrolyte is mainly responsible for extracellular water balance?
sodium
What is the normal range for the anion gap?
8-16 mEq/l
Anion gap is useful in assessing what type of situation?
cause of metabolic acidosis
An increase in the sweat electrolyte concentration is typical for what disease?
Cystic Fibrosis
What test is a measure of kidney function?
BUN
Creatinine
What enzymes are elevated in a patient who has had a myocardial infarction?
AST
LDH
CPK
What is the therapeutic level for theophylline?
5-15 mg/mL
What decreases the clearance of theophylline?
CHF
What bacteriologic test is used to determine the effectiveness of antibiotics on a particular organism?
sensitivity
Bacteria that usually are present in a healthy person are called?
normal flora
A Ziehl-Neelsen stain is used to identify what type of organism?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
What items are evaluated during a macroscopic (gross) sputum examination?
color
consistency
volume
What is the most common cause of bacterial pneumonia?
Strptococcus pneumonia
What finding is consistent with pleural infection?
opaque or turbid pleural fluid
What test performed during urinalysis could be helpful in diagnosing diabetes mellitus?
glucose
pH
ketones
Proteinuria usually is indicative of ?
kidney disease
What is responsible for producing primary lung carcinomas?
adenocarcinoma
What may cause a patient to have a negative reaction to a skin test?
does not have a disease
anergic
PPD
is positive if the patient has previously had a BCG vaccination
In what situation is a PFT least useful?
evaluating the probablity of getting a pulmonary disease
The tracing obtained from a PFT is called a:
spirogram
What is the most important in predicting PFT measurements?
height
What piece of standard PFT equipment is used to determine total lung capacity and resistance of the airways?
body plethysmography
What is consistent with obstructive lung disease?
decreased expiratory flows
An anatomic obstruction located in the upper airway will affect which part of the spirometric tracing?
initial portion
Restricitve disease
it is characterized by reduced lung volumes on the PFT.
it can be caused by obesity
expiratory flows generally are normal.
Emphysema can produce both obstructive and restrictive defects in lung function
True
Total lung capacity is the sume of which of the following?
vital capacity and residual volume
What test is useful in determining the need for mechanical ventilation?
FVC
Residual volume is normally what value?
33% of VC
FRC
it is the sum of the RV & ERV
increased in obstructive disease
reduced in restrictive disease
Body plethysmography is based on what gas law?
Boyle's law
Open circuit nitrogen washout can be helpful in measuring what?
RV
TLC
FRC
What test is the best indicator of obstructive lung disease?
FEV1
What is the normal value for FEV1?
75% of VC
Prebronchodilator and postbronchodilator PFT
used to assess the reversibility of airway obstruction
DLco
it decreases with decreasing lung surface area
Bronchoprovocation testing
used to test of occult asthma
methacholine is commonly used as a bronchoprovocation agent
histamine is commonly used as a bronchoprovocation agen
dangerous
What test is useful in determining coronary artery disease?
stress electrocardiograph
Basal energy expenditure
it requires a VO2 measurement in order to calculate
it gives an estimation of the patient's nutritional needs.
if it is not met, use of body energy stores is required
Measuring the patient's energy expenditure using oxygen consumption is referred to as?
indirect calorimetry
What is a pulmonary effect of starvation?
increased risk of pneumonia
What might hinder attempts at nutritional repletion in patients with respiratory disease?
the use of bronchodilators
What element must be stored in sufficient quantities to meet the metabolic demands of the diaphragm?
glycogen
What may be more difficult with a high carbohydrate diet?
weaning from the mechanical ventilation
What is nitrogen balance useful in determining?
the adequacy of protein intake
What is associated with a low protein diet?
immune compromise
High fat diet may:
increase risk of heart disease
decreased DLco
increased CO2 production
What mineral plays a very important role in oxygen transport?
iron
What might indicate poor nutritional status?
body weight less than ideal
neg. nitrogen balance
neg. response to skin antigen testing
What test is most useful for screening the pt for protein malnutrition?
thyroxin binding prealbumin