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149 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
reproductive aging begin in ________________.

# follicles at 20 wks gestation?
# follicles at birth?
# follicles at menarche?

follicular loss accelerates when the total number of follicles is _________.

Menopause occurs when follicles are sufficiently depleted (# follicles < ________).
embryonic life

20wks gestation = 6-7 M
Birth = 1.5-2M
Menarche = 300-400K

follicular loss accelerates when total is about 25K

Menopause at <1000 follicles
Inhibin is produced by the ___________
granulosa cells of the follicle
________ declines with involution of the Corpus Luteum and ________ rises
Estradiol declines
FSH rises
________ stimulates follicular development and consequently the production of which hormones?
FSH

estragiol and inhibin B
major hormonal changes present in menopausal wome in comparison to younger women?
Day 3 FSH and estradiol are higher in menopausal women -- Why: fewer follicles in aged women, so less production of inhibin B and thus less inhibition of FSH from AP -- FSH will rise earlier, follicular development is advanced and thus production of estradiol is seen earlier. Also, overall FSH levels are higher in older women and rise in FSH seen earlier so we see a subsequent shorter follicular phase (or shorter time to ovulation) - shorter cycle
at what age does fertility begin to decline?
age 32. More rapid decline starting at 37-38yo
Define Perimenopause and its duration
follows period of declining fertility

period that preceeds menopause

characterized by cycle irregularity (shortening then lengthening) and increasing sx

durate = 2-8yrs with an average of 5 yrs
how do you dx perimenopause?
clinical dx based on menstrual cycle pattern

early rise in FSH (3d level) + sx = helps you solidify dx

rule out hypothyroid, depression, and hyperthyroid
sx of perimenopause
vasomotor instability = 85% (hot flashes)

others:
sleep disturbances
mood disturbance
somatic sx (fatigue, palpitations, HA, increased migraine (rise in E levels just before period can cuase this), breast pain, enlargemnt)
oligomenorrhe to anovulation (heavier or irreg cycles)
CA associ with perimenopause
endometrial CA
In managing perimenopause, what do you want to manage and what tx are best?
Endometrial CA prevention (OCP, Mirena, EPT)

Birth Control (OCP, Mirena)

Menstrual Cycle Control (OCP)

Sx Relief (OCP > EPT)

Note: OCP = oral or ring
EPT = estrogen plus progesterone
define menopause and how do you dx?
12 months of amenorrhea - marks the end of reproductive life - egg depletion and estrogen no longer produced due to natural aging or surgery

clinical dx
average age at menopause
51yo
factors that impact age at menopause
maternal age at menopuase
tobacco use (earlier)
SES/Education
ETOH use
BMI
Factors with no impact on menopause age
OCP use
parity
race
height
key physical changes that occur with menopause
vasomotor instability
metabolic changes
CAD
accelerated bone loss
skin changes
urogenital atrophy
cognition and libido loss = controverisal
How long do hot flashes usually last?
#1 complaint to the physician
few seconds to several minutes
usually most severe at night or during times of stress
last from 1-2 yrs usually but can last up to 5yrs (35%)
more common in overwt women
How are hot flashes managed?
estrogen treatment (primrin) - short term use if fine; long term use CI with women having an intact uterus (use EPT instead); long term use is fine in women without a uterus

SSRI for women who can't take estrogen

Alternatives:
high dose progestins
tibolone
SSRI (paroxetine, fluoxetine)
SNRI (velafaxine)
Gabapentin
CAM approaches to tx of hot flashes
Black Cohosh
Soy/phytoestrogens
(bind estrogen receptors so may have same side effects as estrogens)
mechanism of increased adipositiy of women in menopausal life
hormonal changes leading to higher adrogen levels and lowered E levels cause increased abdominal and intra-abdominal adiposity
What is the menopausal metabolic syndrome?
1. Lipid triad (high TGs, high LDL, low HDL)
2. Abnormalities in insulin (insulin resistance, decreased secretion and elimination that leads to hyperinsulinemia -- hormone tx can reduce onset of DM and improve insulin resistance)
3. other factors=increased BP, visceral fat, uric acid, decreased SHBG, increased PAI-1 (increases risk of thrombosis), increased endothelial dysfunction
In order to provide cardioprotective effects, when should HRT be initiated?
In general HRT should not be continued or started to prevent heart disease
the greatest change in bone marrow density in the postmenopausal period occurs in the ________ yrs after menoapuse. fracture risk increases with __________
4-5 yrs after menopause but increases with age

fracture risk increases with age
consequences of osteoperosis in menopausal women
SPINAL COMPRESSION FRACTURES (back pain, loss of height and mobility,postural deformities)

Colles' (forearm) fractures

hip fractures

tooth loss
When does one measure MBD in postmenopausal women?
present with one or more of the following
65 or older
caucasian
family hx
hx of fracture or falls
bad eyesight
demential
early menopause (<45)
smoker
low body wt
etoh
immobility
poor niturition
meds
certain medical condition
prevention of osteoperosis in menopause
1500mg of Ca daily (one dairy servicng has 300mg) - divided doses w/ meals

400IU/daily of Vitamin D with 20mins/day of sunshine

wt bearing exercise

smoking cessation

moderate ETOH intake

(not recommended = HRT, raloxifene, bisphosphonates unless woman is osteopenic or can't tolerate hormones or has high risk factors)
first line agents for the tx of osteoperosis for the prevention of fractures
bisphosphonates (limit osteoclast destruction of bone by b/coming incorportated in bone -- SE = osteonecrosis of jaw)

raloxifene (doesn't relieve hot flashes - give to older women w/o hot flashes; for younger women, give estrogen) SE = heart dz
Urogenital sx assoc with menopause and tx
dysuria
urgency
frequency
recurrent UTI
dysparunia
pruritus
stenosis

tx = vag E (no prog needed) or HRT
best relief for vaginal atrophy due to menopause
estrogen - vaginally
benefits of HRT
decreased hot flashes
prevents/tx osteoperosis and hip and vertebral fractures
prevents/tx urogenital atrophy
risks of HRT
increased risk for venous thrombosis and embolism (more if systemic - consider transdermal administration)

inc risk for breast CA with prolonged (>3-5yr use) -- EPT, not estrogen alone

increased risk for endometrial cancer (w/estrogen alone -- not EPT) and only if uterus is present

EPT - older women - possible increase in cardiac events -- contraversial

probable increase in is chemic stroke in older women started on HRT

BENEFITS OF HRT ARE DEPENDENT ON NUMBER OF MENOAPUSE RELEATED SX
INDICATIONS FOR HRT
ESTROGEN DEFICIENCY SX:
vasomotor (night sweats, hot flashes)
disturbed sleep patterns (fatigue, concentratoin, memory)
GU atrophy (bladder irritability, vaginal dryness, dyspareunia)

min dose for shortest time req and consider non-hormonal alt
evaluate all post menopausal over 65 for ________
osteoperosis
Causes of perimenopause
surgical removal of uterus, ovaries, or premature ovarian failure (sex chromosome abnormalities usually involving x chromosome, fragile X premutation, autoimmune, chemo/RT)

screen all perimenopausal women for fragile X
evaluation of premature ovarian failure with perimenopausal women

tx?
karyotype (<30yo)

asess fragile X premutation by number of CGG repeates

autoimmune (hypothyroid, adrenal insuff)

HRT!!! counseling -- oocyte donatin if they want to still have kids unless they have turner's which carries a high mortality in PG and is one cause of POF
sx of menopause tend to mirror those of ________
HIV

mean age of HIV infected women is 47-48 -- safety of HRT in HIV not studied currently
most common Gyn CA
endometrial cancer Type I
- estrogen related
- less aggressive
- younger and heavier
- low grade histology
- perimenopausal have better prognosis
- 80% with PTEN mutation and only some with p53 mutation,
- ER/PR+
- defects in DNA mismatch repair
- associated with KRAS2
most common endogenous risk factor associated with endometrial cancer type I subtype
obesity (>30lbs = increased 3x; >50lbs = increased 10x)

unopposed estrogen - 9.5xrisk


(others = nulliparity, htn, tumors, high fat diet, other CA, amenorrhea, DM, PCOS, Liver dz, caucasian, no exercise)
exogenous risk factors for endometrial cancer
pelvic irradiation
hormone therapy
tamoxifen (antiestrogen effects in breast but estrogen effects in uterus)
sequential OCP
combination OCP = protective (against undue proliferation)
Most common single agents causing PID

PID caused by bacteria assoc with IUDs?

other couases secondary to tissue damage + infection?
N gonorrhea
Chlamydia
Mycoplasma
Actinomyces -- assoc with IUDs

(infections are typically polymicrobial, but single agent causes = first two listed)

(can also be caused by E coli, staph, strep, clostridium, bacteroides -- 2nd infection following tissue damage)
symptoms of PID
pelvic pain
dysmenorrhea
menstrual abnormalities
Acute abdomen
complications
infertility from tubal scarring
ectopic pregnancy
peritonitis
intestinal obstruction from adhesions
bacteremia
numerous neutrophils within the tube lumen
acute salpingitis
chronic salpingitis is commonly associated with what complication? how does it present? what are predisoposing factors? dx? complications? tx?
ectopic pregnancy

(pelvic pain w/ or w/o menstural irregularity)

risk factors = anything altering the normal structure/function of the tube = PID, prior pelvic surgery, endometriosis

dx = HCG level + U/S

Complications = rupture and hemorrhage

tx? MTX - terminates the PG and given when the conceptus is smaller than 4 cm
most common tumors found in the fallopian tubes
mets (adenocarcinomas similar to those seen in the ovaries), implants from ovarian or endometrial tumors >>> primary tumors
what type of mutation presents a risk for tubal carcinoma?

where is it most likely found?
BRCA1 mutation

fimbriated region
most common fallopian tube tumor

most common fallopian tube primary malignancy
adenomatoid tumor (small, circumcribed, mesothelial origin)

adneocarcinoma
(50-60yo, bilateral 25%, poor prognosis b/c of late stage detection, tx like ovarian CA)
most common cause of enlarged ovaries
cysts
cysts arising from invaginated surface epithelium
serous cysts or simple cysts
follicular and corpus luteal cysts are considered _________ and arise from ___________

causes
functional cysts

arise from ovarian follicles

follicular cysts = related to abnormalities in pituitary
gonadotropin release

corpus luteum cyst results from delayed resolution of corpus luteum's central cavity
characterized by inappropriate gonadotropin secretoin, hyperandrogenemia, increased peripheral conversion of androgens to estrogens, chronic anovulation, polycystic ovaries
PCO (polycystic ovaries)
common presentation:
secondary amenorrhea or oligo
infertility
hirsutism
hx of premenarcheal obesity in 3rd decade
PCO
prolonged or excessive uterine bleeding occurring irregularly and more frequently than normal

causes?
menometorrhagia

caused by
hormonal imbalance
endometriosis
uterine fibroids
cancer

(can lead to anemia)
pathogenesis of PCO
increased ovarian production of androgens due to abnormal regulation of 17ahydroxylase (expressed in ovary and adrenal gland) --- this causes :
1. premature follicular atresia (resulting in anovulation and decreased progesterone and subseq increased secretion of LH)
2. hyperandrogenemia (resulting in hirsuitsim, acen, adnrogen dependent allopecia)
3. multiple follicular cysts
4. persistent anovulatory state

this results in conversion of excess androgens to estrogens in peripheral adipose -- long term effects of unopposed E are endometrial hyperplasia and adenocarcinoma

insulin resistence also noted
carcinoma that tends to present at high stage is cause of 1/2 deaths related to tumor of the female genital tract

risk factors?
ovarian carcinoma

risk factors = older age, nulliparity, family hx of ovarian or breast CA (think common epith neoplasms here b/c these account for over 90% of ovarian cancers)
3 cell origins from which ovarian cancers arise
serosal epithelium
germ cell
gonadal stromal
most important prognostic factor in OVCA
stage/extent of dz at presentation

(other = histologic type -- serous/clear cell = poor prognosis; grade; amount of residual tumor following surgical debulking)
benign surface epith tumor of the ovary that has a think, translucent wall, lined by a single layer of cilaiated tubal type epithelium, smooth walls
cystadenoma
lining of benign serous cystadenom is ________
non-stratified serous epithelium
ovarian epithlial tumor characterized by papillary excrescenses from the cyst wall
tumors of low mlaignant potential OR atypical proliferating tumors
malignant epithelial tumor that cystic and solid or just solid -- most common malignancy of the ovary
cystadenocarcinoma
multiple psammoma bodies may be seen in association with what type of ovarian tumor?
cystadenocarcinoma or serous carcinoma

these are lamellated purple caclifications
__________ is an epith tumor of the ovary with a complex, confluent glandular architecture formed by mucinous type epith
mucinous adenocarcinoma

mucin = gray within cell cytoplasm

those that lack benign or borderline components are often mets from GI sites such as appendix or colon
adenocarcinoma from epith origin of ovary that is composed of malignant glands arranged in acribrioform pattern composed of mucin producing columnar cells
endometroid adenocarcinoma

(occurs mostly after menopause, most of these tumors are malignant and 1/2 are bilateral)
epith adenocarcinoma of ovary that often occurs in assoc with endometriosis -- displays sheets of malignant cells with clear cytoplasm
clear cell adenocarcinoma

rare tumors of the ovaries that are almost always malignant
neopolasms derived from granulosa cells, theca, sertoli, leydig or fibroblast cells -- may produce E or Androgens
sex cord stromal tumors of the ovary
Typically benign, 75% of sex cord stromal tumors, peak presentaion during perimenopause -- solid, white tumors = 1/2 well differentiated spindle cells + collagen
fibroma (sex cord stromal tumor of the ovary)
think post meno women ; always benign, produce estrogens and adrogens so in premen women, irregularity of emnstrual cycle and breast enlargement is common
thecoma (sex cord stromal tumor of the ovary)
may be associated withMeigs syndrome = triad of ovarian fibroma, ascites, hydrothorax
fibroma of the ovary
associated with precocious puberty -- tumor that secretes estrogen and sig cause of benign endometrial hyperplasia and assoc with endometrial carcinoma
granulosa cell tumor (sex cord stromal tumor of the ovary)

- estrogen secretion = cause of complications
solid tumor of the ovary with focal hemorrhages and lipid laden luteninzed granulosa cells -- characteristic follicular patern of tumor cells around central spaces on microscopy
granulosa cell tumor -- Call Exner bodies!!
comprise 60% of ovarian neoplasms in children and adolescents -- 1/3 are malignant
germ cell tumors (from primitive germ cells of embryonic gonad)
ovarian tumor common in women <20

ovarian tumor common in women >20

ovarian tumor common in women of all ages
germ cell tumor

surface epith tumor

sex cord-stromal tumors
most common ovarian germ cell tumor in adults
usually occur in women <20, but in adults, benign mature cystic teratomas (aka dermoid cysts) are most common

germ cell tumors are usually malignant in kids and benign in adults
most common ovarian cancer in children
germ cell tumors
malignant germ cell tumor that is analagous to the testicular seminoma
dysgerminoma
aggressive germ cell tumor of the ovary that secretes HCG
choriocarcinoma
germ cell tumor of the ovary that produces AFP and analogous to endodermal sinus tumor fhte testis
yolk sac tumor (endodermal sinus tumor)

this is malignant
germ cell tumor of the ovar thtat is derived from 2 or 3 embyronic layers - can be mature (benign) or immature (malignant)
teratoma
Genetic tumor cells are diploid genetically (46XX)
Peak incidence in third decade
Due to endoreduplicatoin of haploid germ cells
mature cystic teratoma or dermoid cyst = 20% of ovarin tumors and 90% of germ cell tumors

(cyst lined by skin, including hair follicles, bone, tooth cartilaget, focal calcifications etc may be present)
ovarian tumor composed of embyronal tisuse and three germ layers -- usually solid, lobulated, with multiple small cysts and solid areas containing immature bone and cartilage
immature teratoma
Usually unilateral germ cell tumor
Presents in women under the age of 30
2nd most common malignant germ cell tumor
Extensive necrosis and hemorrhage
Honey comb structure micro
Secretes AFP
yolk sac tumor or endodermal sinus tumor
germ cell tumor associated with schiller duval body
yolk sac tumor or endodermal sinus tumor
germ cell tumor that manifests in young girls as precocious sexual development, menstrual irregularities, or rapid breast enlargment
chriocarcinoma

highly aggressive
responds to chemo
secretes HCG (so + PG test)
bilateral theca lutein cysts may be found
characteristics of mets to the ovaries
multinodularity (usually remove both ovaries even if only one found to be positive)

bilateral

mcc primary sites = breast (lobular carcinoma) > lg intestine > endometrium > stomach

of GI origin = krukenburg tumor -- stomach, colon, pancreas, appendix
most common site of met to ovary being the stomach, ovarian cells replaced bilaterally by mucin secreting signet ring cells
krukenburg tumors

stomach = 75% of origin
colon = next mcc
give the type of ovarian tumors the following are markers for:

CA125

CEA

AFP

HCG

Inhibin
CA125 - serous/endometrioid

CEA = mucinous

yolk sac tumor = AFP

HCG = choriocarcinoma

inhibin = granulosa cell tumor
clear cytoplasmic vacuoles are seen in the ______ phase of hte endometrium wherease mitotic figures are more characteristic of the ________ phase
secretory

proliferative
abnormal uterine bleeding secondary to ovulatory dysfunction is ______

must exclude with dz first before dx?
DUB = dysfunctional uterine bleeding

polyps
carcinoma
exogenous hormones
complications of pregnancy
postmenopausal blleeding
main causes of DUB
anovulatory cycles (most common cause)

luteal phase abnormalities
cuases of the following:

acute endometritis
chronic endometritis
pyometra
Acute: think staph aureus or trept -- spontaneous abortion; currettage; post-partum -- presence of PMNs in the endometrium usually from ascending infection of cervix after breach of cervical barrier

Chronic: PID, IUD (actinomyces), retained products of conception, TB

PYO = pus in endometrial cavity -- secondary to cervical stenosis
endometritis presentation
bleeding, pelvic pain, or both
endometrial glands and stroma in ectopic locations

mcc site of involvement?
sx?
complication?
endometriosis

ovaries > uterine ligaments > rectovaginal seputm > pelvic peritoneum

menstrual related pain
'
NOT cancer (unless longstanding -- then endometroid adenoCA or clear cell adenoCA)-- think infertility
chocolate cysts -- think
endometriosis -- menstrual type bleeding in ectopic endometrium resulting in blood filled cysts
presence of endometrial glands and stroma within the myometrium presenting with abnormal bleeding and pain
adenomyosis

due to downgrowth of endometrial basalis into myometrium

20% of uterus have this upon removal
uterus is thick, not nodular, presents with multiple tiny hemorrhagic cysts

sx of abnormal bleeding and pain
adenomyosis
benign focal hyperplasia of the basalis with sx of abnormal bleeding
endometrial polyp
endometrial hyperplasia is caused by __________

what are the subtypes?
unopposed estrogen

simple hyperplasia w/o atypia
(prop increase in glands and stroma)

complex hyperplasia without atypia
increase glands > increase in stroma

atypical hyperplasia
simple or complex w/ cytologic atypia
risk of progression of endometrial hyperplasia to carcinoma by subtype
simple hyperplasa = 1% over 10-15yr

complex hyperplasia = 3% over 10-15yr

atypical hyperplasia = 25-35% over 4-5 yrs
mcc invasive CA of the female genital tract and 4th most common CA in women
endometrial adenocarcinoma
endometrial CA associated with unopposed estrogent, premen, perimen, hyperplasia, low grade, minimal invasion, stable behavior

subtype?
mutation?
type 1

endometrioid
PTEN
endometrial CA associated with no unopposed estrgen, postmen, no hyperplsia, high grade, deep invaskion and progressive behavior

subtype?
mutation?
type II

serous, clear cell
p53
receptor status of endometrial adenocarcinoma that is more favorable
ER/PR +
most common uterine tumor and most common of all tumors in women
leiomyoma (bening smooth muscle tumor)

increased incidence in AA women
leiomyomas lie within the ___________ and have sx of ________________

usually senstivie to ________
myometrium
subendometrial or subperitoneal locations

sx = mennorhagia

Estrogen
cause of leiomyosarcoma

appearance?
usually never due to malignant transformtion of leiomyoma to malignancy

arises de novo

lack whorled appearance and not as sharply circumscribed (as with leiomyoma)
acute salpingitis
adenomyosis
benign cystadenoma
benign cystadenoma
benign cystadenoma
chronic endometritis
chronic salpingitis
clear cell adenocarcinoma
chronic salpingitis
type of inheritance?

vertical transmission = each generatoin
males and females affected in equal frequency
unaffected individual do not transmit the phenotype
autosomal dominant
(affected parent has 50% chance of transmitting phenotype )
for most single gene d/o with AD inheritance, only the _____ phenotype is known
heterozygous

usually, homozygous phenotype is not viable (SAB)

exception = Hungtingtons's Disease - vast majority are heterozygous
AD defects are usually with ________
proteins

rarely involve enzyme defects
delayed manifestation of dz
incomplete penetrance
sporadic cases
variable expressivity
germline/somatic mosicism

all are characteristics of what pattern of inheritance?
AD

sporadic appearing -- could be due to a new mutation (ex: achondroplasia - 80%; NF1 = 50%)

also, think about variable expressivity due to incomplete penetrance (tuberous sclerosis)
AD d/o assoc with new mutations are often associated with __________
advanced paternal age
What do these diseases have in common?

achondroplasia
Huntingtons Dz
osteogenesis imperfecta
tuberous sclerosis
von Willebrand's Dz
NF1
NF2
all AD dz

most common AD dz is von Willebrand's dz
males and females affected equally
only one generation affected or skipping generation
parents are typically unaffected carriers
AR inheritance pattern

associated with consanguinity
most common type of mendelian gene d/o
AR
AR sx usually have onset during _______ phase of life
early
sickle cell and CF have what in common
both AR resulting in protein defect

(most AR d/o involve enzyme deficiencies)
inborn errors of metabolism most commonly have what type of inheritance pattern
AR (think enzyme deficiency)
affected males transmit the mutant gene to all daughters = characteristic of ________ inheritence?

and daughters are usually asym?
X linked

asym? = X linked recessive
no male to male transmission
males are affected, but generally not females
female has 1/4 chance of conceiving an affected son
asymptomatic females transmit d/o to 50% of offspring
x-linked recessive
in what event will an X linked recessive d/o manifest sx in a female?
1. maternally derived X w/o mutant gene invactivated, leaving the mutant X from paternal side active = skewed X inactivation

2. only one structurally normal X in female -- contains mutant gene
risk of offspring affected by dz if sex is unknown is calculated by ?
risk of having inherited gene x 1/2 (accounts for 50/50 chance of being male or female)
dz that is X linked recessive where 1/2 of cases represent new mutations and 2/3 of the time the mother is a carrier
duschenne's muscular dystrophy

applies to case where only one male is affected in pedigree -- can either be a new mutation or from carrier - here the carrier is most likely to be mom b/c DMD males usually do not survive to reproduce
most common type of proteins affected in XR d/o
enzymes
what inheritance pattern do these have?

Lesch-Nyhan
Fragile X
agammaglobulinemia (bruton's)
CGD
testicular feminization
XR
MCC mendelian d/o that causes mental retardation
Fragile X (XR inheritance)
affected males have all affected daughters and no affected sons

variable expressoin in females
X-linked Dominant
chance of affected female in an XD d/o transmitting it to children is _______
50% - regardless of sex
acrocentric chromosomes
13,14, 15, 21,22

short arms of these chromosomes contain redundant genetic material -- loss of the short arm does not confer an abnormal phenotype
what are problems of early growth development that are indicated for obtaining a karyotype/microarray?
FTT
developmental delay
dysmorphic facies
multiple malformations
short starture
ambig genitalia
mental retardation
indications for karyotype/microarray
problems of early gorwth and develpment
stillbirth/neonatal death (7-10% +)
fertility problems (3-6%+)
family hx w/ 1st degree relative
neoplasia
PG of AMA
births defects by US
anbormal maternal serum screen
abnormal chromosome number with not structural abnormality is assicated with (normal or abnormal phenotype) usually?
abnormal phenotype

facts that can produce a milder or undetectable phenotype include mosaicism (nondisjunction in mitosis) and sex chromosome aneuploidy
karyotypes with an abnormal number with no structural abnormalities = _______
unbalanced

don't karyotype the relatives -- due to nonkisjunctoin - parents offered prenatal dx in future PG
abnormal karyotype containing a structural abnormality may be _________ and associated with a noraml phenotype
balanced

structural abnormalities can be inherited or de novo
is a translocation balanced or unbalanced?
can be either
most common robertsonian translocations?
13q14q and 14q21q

2 acrocentric chromosomes fuse at long arms with loss of short arms
"der" means?
structural abnormality involving 2 or more chromosomes
karyotypes with a balanced robertsonian translocatoin have ____ chromosomes
45

loss of short arms don't matter -- long arms fuse -- one less chromosome
___________ occur between usually 2 non-homologous chromosomes with receprocal exchange of parts. the total number of chromosomes in this type of tranlocation when balanced = ?
balanaced reciprocal translocations

46 -- remains unchanged

still have risk of ;passing unbalanced chromosomes to offspring
in translocations, normal phenotypes result when ...
no detectable significant material is lost or gained
der del and add signify what types of karyotypes
abnormal chromosome - unbalanced

can also have extra or missing chromosome copy (aneuploidy) = +21 or -21