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242 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
first decade, edema, HTN, oliguria, hematuria ( cola colored) , azotemia, mild proteinuria goes away
acute prolif glom nephritis
acute post infectious, acute post strep
-may not go away in adults
a form of APGN w marked hypercellularity, leukocyte infiltration, sub ep hump and neutrophil in llumen, granular deposits of igg, igm, c3 in mesangium (subep humps)
diffuse prolif glomerulonephritis-
what is the hallmark of FSGS
ep cell foot process effacement and detachment
what is the mutation in FSGS
NPHS1- on chrom 19q13- for nephrin which controls glom perm
dz that have nephrotic synd and FSGS are due to what mutation
a mutation of the slit diaphragm which could be NPHS1, podocin or actinin 4, and TRpC6
what is the most common cause of nephrotic syn
FSGS-occurs in sev dz settings and is always a marker for bad prog w progression of renal dz
-20% will get malignant FSGS-dead in 2y
how does FSGS differ from min change
1. high hematuria,htn and dec gfr
2. poor response to cs tx
3, non sective proteinuria
4.signif progress to chronic kidney dz
HIV FSGS is called
collapsing FSGS
what are the three mesangial dzs
iga, mpgn I, mpgn II
what is the most common glom nephritis
iga nephropathy- two types are HS purpura and berger
what is hematuria in iga nephropathy coincident with
significant infxn at body site
iga nephropathy has true mixed__ and __
hematuria and proteinuria
in iga neph, recurrent episodes of __ occur without progression of renal dz
hematuria
what are three main histo changes in MPGN
1. alter glom BM
2. prolif of glom cells ( mostly in mesangium)
3. leukocyte infilt
the most common presentation of MPGN is
combo hematuria and proteinuria
what is another name for MPGN II
dense deposit disease
what infection is assoc with MPGN I
hep c
what is histo important in MPGN I
subendo deposits
50 percent MPGN progess to __ __ __ in 1 yr
chronic renal failurew
what does mpgn I usu present as
nephrotic synd w mild hematuria
what is secondary mpgn I assoc with
chronic antigenemia- adults
mpgn I occurs in pt with
hep c, chronic immune complex dz, endocarditis, malignancies
what age group is mpgn II
children
what is dom clinical finding in mpgn Ii
hematuria and 50 percent have nephritic synd
-mpgn II - more dismal prognosis
what is the histo of mpgn II
intramembranous dense depostis in glom BM, ratty and irreg, lipid deposits
What is the mech behin MPGN II
alternative complement pathway is always turned on, so there is too much complement- c3nef(nephric factor) is an igg autoantibody actives the path
most primary glom dz progess to __ __
chronic glomnephritis
what do you see in histo of chronic glomneph
trichrom stain shows replacement of almost all glomeruli
what are main diseases that lean to CG
PSGN, cresenteric, FSGS. MPGN II
what do you see on histo of mpgn
Mesangial cell proliferation
Increased mesangial matrix (black with silver stain). Basement membrane
thickening and
focal splitting,
Accentuation lobular architecture
Influx PMNs
in both types of mpgn what does mesangial matrix do to the BM
dissects or splits it
the MDRD equation takes into account the patients:
age, female or black
bc in renal disease age gender and race are most imp
why does gfr decrease with age
Global glomerulosclerosis consequent to “normal” aging- there is a loss of cortex and ischemia
what are the three biggest risk factors for CKD
obesity, age and HTN
which laboratory tests below may be used to indicate kidney
damage for staging patients in stages 1 or 2?
urine albumin or kidney biopsy
what does obesity due in the MDRD equation
obesity results in an underestimation
of the estimated GFR.
besides obesity what is the other problem with the MDRD equation
In a patient with a risk factor for CKD (obesity) but no apparent signs
of kidney damage, serum creatinine will not be sensitive enough to
reveal a decrease in GFR corresponding with early CKD; therefore his
GFR may be relatively overestimated.
Which of the listed pathophysiologic mechanisms is the etiology of isolated nephrotic range proteinuria?
Diffuse injury to the glomerular basement membranes throughout both kidneys
Idiopathic membranous glomerulopathy is an immune-mediated disorder with localization of immune complexes in which location and pattern within the glomerulus?
subep diffuse
Large epidemiologic studies have demonstrated an apparent
increase in the prevalence of CKD Stage 3 over the last 2 decades from 5% to 8%. What factor of those below may contribute to these findings?
agining of us pop
The most accurate serum test currently available for the assessment of patients with early CKD is:
cystatin c
what are the cutoff for Bp that indicated HTN
140 and 90
Pre-disease hypertension:120-139 mmHg systolic; 80-89 mmHg diastolic.
ost likely cause of Nephrotic Syndrome with a history of progressive isolated proteinuria?
membranous glomerulopathy idiopathic
what differentiates FSGS causing nephrotic synd and idiopathic membranous cause of nephrotic synd
FSGS occurs in Hispanic and African-American patients with onset in the 3rd and 4th decades in contrast to Membranous which has a later onset and occurs in Caucasian males.
Which clinical course is most likely for patients with Nephrotic Syndrome (NS) caused by Idiopathic Membranous Glomerulopathy?
Insidious onset progressive proteinuria that evolves to NS; 50% patients develop remission of NS; 1/3 of patients progress to end-stage renal disease.
high insidence of remission if untreated
heymann deposits___
immune complex deposits__
anti GMB deposits__
subep (cationic)
subendo (anionic)
GBM
what are two small vessel renal vasc dz
benign nephrosclerosis
malignant htn
what is a large vessel renal vasc dz
renal a sclerosis
what are two thrombotic microangiopathies
HUS and TTP
what are the effects of benign nephosclerosis
multifocal ischemia of parenchyma supplied by sclerotic vessels
what are three causes of BNS
increasing age, HTN, DM
medial and intimal thickening ( interloblar and aff arterioles) and hyaline deposition in arterioles
BNS is not assoc with __ __ with the exceptions of af amer, severe HTN, DM
renal insufficency
what is malig htn superimposed on usually
benign htn, seconday htn, or CKD
what are the effects of malig htn
ischemic kidneys, elevated renin, self perpetuating cycle of damage, arterio and nephrosclerosis, bleeding
necrosis leads to arteriosclerosis
what causes a flea bitten kidney
malig htn
increase diastolic above 130, papiledema, encephalopathy, renal faiure, early sx due to inc intracranial p
malig htn
__ __ __ is a potentially curable form of htn
renal artery stenosis
what is the lesion in renal a stenosis
atheromatous plaque at origin of renal a. also fibromuscular dysplasia..can have it in one or both kidneys ( one big one small ( other one inc gfr and inc htn and >glomsclerosis)
what are the clinical effects of thrombotic microangiopathies
thromb in caps and arterioles, microangipathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia>>lead to vasc obstruction, vasoconstriction and ischemia
HUS clinical features
after intestinal infxn, sudden onset of bleeding,oliguria, anemia, NEURO CHANGE, HTN!
cortical necrosis, arteriole thrombosis, glom change, intima and media hyperplasia
HUS
what are the pentad of TTP ( thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura) features
fever, neuro change, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, renal failure in 50%
what is the gene affected in ttp
ADAMTS13
what are the two types of hereditary nephritis
alport synd and thin BM dz- both have asymptomatic hematuria
what is another name for thin BM or alport disease
benign familial hematuria
what percentage of alport pt get renal failure
all of them
what is the inheritance pattern of alport
x linked where men get full dz and there is also AD and AR where men and women can both get full dz
what is appearance of alport on EM
moth eaten
what is the majority of inheritance in thin bm dz
most heterozygous and carriers
what is the end result of thin bm
rnal fxn is normal and rare progression to end stage, they have hematuria and proteinuria
what are some secondary nephrotic diseases
DM, SLE, hep C, HIV nephropathy
what are some acute nephritic diseases
SLE, bacterial endocarditis, goodpastures, HS, IGA neph
what are the two main processes assoc with diabetic nephropathy
metabolic: glycosolation-thicken BM and tubules inc mesangial matrix sclerosis
hemodynamic: nodular glom sclerosis( keimellsteil wilson)
-arterioscler (hyaline) and papillary necrosis
-hy
what are the three changes that are seen with nephosclerosis in a kidney with long term diabetes
diffuse granular transformatio
thinning of renal cortex
irreg cortical depressions secondary to pyelonephritis
what is the marker for the extent of diabetic neph--when is it irreversible
degree of proteinuria
> 300 albumin/cr/d (acr) is macroalbuminuria and diab glom scler no tx intervention only renal failure
what is the histo appearance of diffuse prolif lupus nephritis
subendo immune deposits that correspond with wire loops, increase cellularity, increase glom size, glom appears stuffed into bowmans with a dec in urinary space
class i minimal mesangial lupus neph histo changes
IF mesangial immune deposits but glomeruli are normal by light microscopy.
class II mesangial lupus neph histo change
— Light microscopy reveals mesangial hypercellularity or mesangial matrix expansion.
what is seen in urine and what is clinical effect of mesangial lupus neph
Urine: At most mild proteinuria or mild microscopic hematuria
Clinical: Generally associated with an excellent renal prognosis
what is seen in urine and what is the clinical effect of focal prolif lupus neph class III
Urine: Hematuria (microscopic) without (or minimal) proteinuria Clinical: Death directly attributable to renal disease or advanced renal failure within 5 years occurs in < 5% of patients
what is seen in urine and what is the clincal efffect of diffuse prolif lupus neph class IV
Urine: Nephritic Syndrome or visible hematuria; mild proteinuria
Clinical: 50% respond to immunosuppressive therapy. No response or recurrence occurs in ~50%. 1/3 progress to end-stage renal disease
what is seen in urine and what is the clinical effect of membranous lupus neph class V
Urine: Patients typically present with Nephrotic Syndrome; may occasionally show microscopic hematuria if they have associated proliferative component
Clinical: Most patients maintain a normal plasma creatinine for five years or more with no progression of renal disease
what is char of advanced sclerosing lupus neph class VI
Characterized global sclerosis in greater than 90% of glomeruli; represents advanced stage lupus nephritis Classes III, IV & V ; end-stage renal disease
fpln- histo
necrotizing lesions, subendo dep=wire loops
dfln histo
mesangial and cap subendo deposits
membranous lupus neph histo
thickening of glom cap wall, meangial expansion and hypercellularity, Subepithelial immune deposits (D) are characteristic of any form of membranous nephropathy, but the intraendothelial tubuloreticular structures (arrow) strongly suggest underlying lupus
in all classes of lupus nephritis the deposits are __ but in membranous they are__
subendo
subepithelial and subendo
mesangial gn__
fpgn__
diffuse prolif gn__
membranous gn__
1.mesangial
2.mes and subendo
3. mes and subendo more than focal
4. subendo and subepi and mes
what is the most common cause of acute renal failure
acute kidney injury
what are the two common causes of acute kidney injury
ischemia and direct injury to the tubule
what tubules have a high rish for ischemia and injury
PCT- by high demands
what phase of aki is this: pregressive azotemia and oliguria
initiating phase 24-36 hrs
what phase of aki is this: oliguria, high azotemia, metab acidosis, hyperkalemia, transient
maintenance phase
what phase of aki is this: polyuria, hypokalemia, decreasing azotemia
recovery phase
what is aki prog related to
underlying cause- 95 percent get better but burn and sepsis have worse prog
what are the common bacterias in UTI
gram neg- ecoli, enterobacterm proteus, klebsiella
what are most UTIs caused by
ascending cystitis
what is most vesicoureteral reflux caused by
partial or absent intravesical ureter
Wheres is most inflam in acute pyelonephritis
cortex and medulla
what are the three complications of acute pyelonephritis
papillary necrosis, pyenephrosis, perinephritic abcess
what is analgesic nephropathy
chronic renal dz caused by chronic massive dose of phenactin and one other analgesic- usu aspirin)-first seen in switzerland
what path changes are seen in analgesic neph
papillary necrosis in medulla and then cortical tubulointersitial nephritis
gross: red brown necrotic papilla sloughed into calyx
what is a severe sx of RPGN
oliguria -death in weeks to months
blood in urine
HTN, edema, mailaise weak, nausea
rapidly rising azotemia
what are the three dx criteria for RPGN
1. decline in renal fxn 50% loss or greater
2. rapid decline in <3 mo
3. renal biopsy finding of crescents
what are the tx for RPGN
CS, immunosuppressants, some will need dialysis and transplant
who gets RPGN
55 yo and caucasions
what are the three mech of RPGN-to cause severe glom injury
anti gbm, immune complex mediated cresenteric, pauci immune type
what is seen in histo of crescentic GN
collapsed compacted glom tufts, crescent shaped mass, dense inflitrates of Macrophages and leukocytes. obliteration of urinary space, fibrin strands, *wrinkling of gbm
where is the goodpasteure ag
in the alpha3 chain of collagen type IV
what is the tx for goodpasteure
plasmaphoresis to rmeove pathogenic circulating abs also immunosuppression
what three diseases are included under type II immune complex deposition RPGN
iga neph, acute prolif gn , lupus nephritis
what is seen on histo of type ii immune complex RPGN
cell prolif w/in glom tuft and crescent formation, granular immune complex depos
what is the tx for type II RPGN
tx underlying prob
what Ab do most pt with type III RPGN have
anti neutrophil cytoplasmic abs (ANCAs)
what is the most common benign renal neoplasm
renal papillary adeonoma
what are the three main benign renal neoplasms
renal pap adenoma, angiomyolipoma, oncocytoma
what are the two main malignant renal tumors
renal cell carcinoma, urothelial carcinoma
what kind of tumore is a renal fibroma or hamartoma
renal nmedullary interstitial cell tumore
what are three stomal or mesenchymal tumors
lipoma, leiomyoma, angioma
what are the two benign renal tumors that are not small
oncomyocytoma, angiomyocytoma
how big are renal papillary adenomas
less than one cm-- now if a neoplasma is adeonoma like and is bigger than that it is called a low grade RCC
what is the path of renal pap adenoma
cortical discrete, yellow-gray, small, multiple
What is common between low grade rcc and renal pap adenoma
trisomy 7, 17, acidophil cytoplasm, papillae, thin fibrovascular cores
where do renal oncocytomas arise from- what is their main role
type a intercalated cells of the renal cortex CDs, involved in acid base homeostasis
what is the chromosomal aleration in oncocytoma- what can it be confused with
10q dele, RON proto oncogene
ddx needs to be estab between RCC chromophobe
what is this path: mohangony brown, well circumscribed neoplasm, with a stellate scar, may be very large >10cm
oncocytoma
what is this: abundant acidophilic granular cytoplasma, alveaolar nesting or solid pattern. EM- shows packed w mitochondria
oncocytoma
__ neoplasma has a strong assoc with tuberous sclerosis
what gene losss is it assoc with
angiomyolipoma
loss of TSC 1 or TSC 2 tumor suppressor gene
what neoplasm is this: first presenting sign may be hemorrhage or shock- due to rupture and masive retroperitoneal hemorrhage
renal angiomyolipoma
what is an important dx clue for angiomyolipoma
intimate relat of perivasc epiteloid sm mus cells (PECs) of the tumor with large vessel
what tumor is this: young adult with severe HTN due to excessive renin secretion- histo resembles hemangiopericytoma and glomus tumores
juxtaglomerular cell tumor
how common is RCC
it is unusual compared to the other organ tumors but of the renal tumors it is the most common
who gets rcc
men 6th to 8th decade
what are risk factors for rcc
cig smoke, dm, estrogen, CRD
occurs mosly sporadic but 4 % is AD
what are ther hereditary RCC types
1. von hippel landau- most common
2. hereditary clear cell carc
3. hered pap carc
what is the most common rcc
clear cell
is clear cell rcc sporadic or inherited
mostly sporadic but the inherited type has a chrom 3 short arm dele--VHL tumor supressor dele
what genes are assoc with pap carcinoma
chrom 7,17, 16 Y met , prcc oncogenes
what tumor is this: pale espinophilic cytoplasm, nuclear halo, good prognosis, from type b intercalated cells of renal cortex, looks like oncocytoma
chromophobe renal carcinoma
what malignant rcc's have worst prog
collecting (bellini) duct carcinoma, - medullary location
and sarcomatoid and medullary carcinoma
what is the clinical triad of rcc
hematuria, costovertebral pain, palpable flank mass
what are the presenting sx of rcc usu assoc with
metastasis
what is the prog of rcc with and without met
overall 45% 5 y survival, but 75 % without met and 15 % with met
of the rcc classify prog as better, avg and worse
pap and chromophobe= better
clear= avg
worse= sarcomatoid and medullary
what is the mode of spread of most rcc
hematogenous
if rcc penetrates gerots fascia- what stage are you
iv
what tumor is this: ywllowish, one pole of kidney, well circ, inades IVC, combo of cystic and solid, varigated, can get into renal vein
RCC
what tumor is this:sim to oncocytoma, see mitochon.some clear cells. granular cytoplasm, perinuclear clear halo, solid pattern of growth
chromophobe
what is another name for clear cell
hypernephroma
why is it called clear cell
bc there is glycogen and lipid which looks clear- looks sim to normal adrenal
what is this tumor: entrap glomerulus, diffuse pattern of growth, pink in cyto
clear cell
what tumor is this: made of spindle cells. sim mesenchymal tumore
sarcomatoid
what tumor is this: in pt with sickle cell dz, poorly differentiated, heavily infiltrated with neutrophils
renal medullary carcinoma
where do clear cell tumors come from
PCT
where do pap rcc come from
DCT
where do tubular or spindle rcc come from
LOH or CD
where do oncocytoma and chromophobe rcc come from
intercalated cell of cortex
where do CD carcinoma or medullary carcinomas come from
CD of medulla
what tumor is this: originate from urothelium of renal prelvis, hematuria, small, flank pain, hydronephrosis, infiltrate wall of pelvis and calyces
urothelial( transitional cc) of renal pelvis
what is this: child, large abdominal mass, palpable, hematuria, htn
wilms tumor
what is a group one wilms tumor
WAGR assoc with chrom 11 and WNT1 mut or loss
what is group two wilms
denys-dash synd- gonadal and retinal tumors assoc with WNT1
what is group 3 wilms
beckwith windmann synd- assoc with WNT 2
what tumor is this: small, well circ. areas of necrosis, lower pole, nephrogenic rests( precursor for b/l) tumors, atypical nec. p53, hyperchrom nuc
wilms- small round cell tumor of childhood
what is the favorable triphasic histology
mimics normal kidney with three cell types: 1. blastemal 2. epithelial 3. stromal (spindle)...no signif anaplasia
what is anaplasia assoc with
p53 mutation and chemo resistance
how do you get most diverticula
aquired from urethral obstruction
ie prostae enlarged
what do diverticula predispose pt to
infxn, vesicoureteral refluz if impinge on ureter, carcinomas that will be more advanced due to thin wall
what can happen to exposed mucosa of bladder exstrophy
can undergo metaplasia and get infected, also pt is incr risk for adenocarincoma
tx w surgery
what is the prog for grades I-III vesicoureteral reflux
it will disappear child given antibiotics daily
what is a urachal cyst
ant to bladder, midline. heterogenous, causes pain, and fever- carcinomas may arise from them . closed at umbilicus. cyst can get infected
what are the three most common causes of acute cystitis
1. ecoli 2 . proteus 3. klebsiella 4. enterobacter
also radiation can cause it
what is the path of cystitis
hyperemia and exudate. non specific acute inflam
who gets hemorrhagic cystitis
pt on antitumor drugs such as cyclophosphamide
also adenovirus pt
what is the diff between chronic cystitis and acute cystitis
chronic- mononuclear cells and acute- pmns
follicular cystitis is not necess assoc with
infxn
what are sx of cystitis and what is tx
freq, lower abdominal pain localized over bladder or suprapubic. dysuria,
tx: hospitalization and antibiotics
what is the main sx assoc with interstitial cystitis
chronic pelvic pain- recurring, suprapubic, freq urgency, hematuria dysuria, ****with out evidence of bact infxn- some say only psychos have it
what are some cytoscopic sx of chronic cystitis
punctate hem, glomerulations, fissure, mast cells, transmural fibrosis, HUNNER's ulcers!
what is this: peculiar pattern of bladder inflam, 3-4 cm in diam, soft yellow plaques , foamy macrophages, giant cells, enlarged lysosomes called michaelis gutmann bodies, related to chronic bact infxn,
malakoplakia
who gets makaloplakia
immunosupressed transplant pt
what is this: inflam conditon resulting from irritation to the bladder from indwelling catherters, extensive submucosal edema- raises ep
polypoid cystitis
not a neoplastic mass, benign reactive process that occurs in the urothelium, caused by chronic irritation from a stone or previous surgery, causes metaplasia of urothelium>devel pap and tubular growths
nephrogenic adenoma
what layer are nephrogenic adenomas in
the lamina propria- they spare the muscularis
what are sx of NA
irritative voiding and hematuria
who is most likely to get NA
men age 26-80, that have had repeat biopsies for urthelial carcinoma
what are the cytoscopic findings of NA
multiple polypoid or single papillary . cystic, or polypoid growths lined by cuboidal ep, it can occur at diverticula or at sites of previous surgery- definitive dx can only be made at biopsy
what is this: caused by irrriation, causes metaplasia of urothelium, forms buds that grow down into lamina propria- buds can become cystic deposits or fill with mucin
cystits cystitca and cystitis glandularis
CC arises when the urothelial cells int he center of solid clusters of __ __ undergo degenerative changes- these are large cysts
brunns nests
intestinal CG is a risk factor for bladder ___
adenocarcinoma
what sx are assoc w CC and CG
those sx of irritation, freq, dysuria, urgency, hematuria
what is seen on path of CC and CG
cobblestone appearance with a focal polypoid mass
what is keratinizing sqaumous metaplasia of bladder a risk factor for
devel of carcinoma, bladder contracture
sq metaplasia of bladder can occur secondary to
chronic cystits. schistosomiasis, diverticulum, non functioning bladder
sq cell carcinoma of bladder are mostly just __ variants
transitional cell carc
what are the sq cell carcinoma of bladder
mixed carcinoma, adenocarincoma, small cell carcinoma
what kind of neoplasms make up 90 percent of bladder neoplasia
urothelial tumors
what are the benign nonep bladder tumors
leimyoma, lipoma, fibroma, neurofibroma
what are the two malignant nonep bladder tumors
rhabdomyosarcoma
what tumor has a cambium layer of clusters of tumor cells present beneath ep- results in nevoid appearance
rhabdomyosarcoma
what is a malignant non ep tumor that is part of a systemic dz
primary malignant lymphoma
in assoc with chronic cystitis
who is at the highest risk for urothelial cell carcinomas
white males..industrial, cig smokers, exposure to aryamines, schistomes, long term analgesics, long term exposure to cyclophoshamide or radiation
what chrom are assoc with urotheliam carcinoma
chrom 9 monosomy or dele ( for more superficial tumors), also chrom 17 deled ( for invasive), CIS is assoc with p53
what is usu the only clincal finding with urothelial cell carcinoma
painless hematuria
** frequently multiple tumors at initial dx
what is the tx for noninvasive TCC
transurethral resection or intravesical therapy
what is tx for invasive tcc
segmental cystectomy, radical cystectomy, immunotherapy
what is the most common malig bladder cancer
papillary carcinoma non invasive
flat lesions cause discomfort but papillary lesions cause__
hematuria
what are some benign changes in bladder urothelium- flat
hyperplasia, reacive atypia, atypia of unknown signif-->
none of these have increase risk of malignancy
what are some premalig changes in bladder- flat
dysplasia and cis
what are some high risk changes for devel of invasive carcinoma
dysplasia, CIS
what bladder lesion is this: benign, no atypia, low recurrence, fibrovasc core, small, extends from surface, lined with normal ep
papilloma
what bladder lesion is this: younger males, trigone region, low recurrencem raised bump, covered with normal ep, prolif into lamina propria, ep growing down
inverted papilloma
what bladder lesion is this: moderate recurrence, thickened ep covering pap porjections, minimal cellular atypia
pap urothelial neoplasia of low malig potential
what bladder lesion is this: most common of papilllary tumors, high recurrence rate, very thick epm scattered hyperchomatic nuc, mitosis
pap carcinoma- low grade tcc
what bladder lesion is this: high recurrence rate, severe cytologic atypia, hyperchromatic nuc, huge nuc, multifocal
pap carcinoma high grade tcc
both low and high grade pap carcinoma do not invade as much as
flat CIS
what bladder lesion is this: nodular, fills lumen, hemorrhagic. tan, full thickness, ulceration and necrosis, yellow areas
high grade pap carcinoma
__ is critical for prognosis
stage
cytology for urothelial neoplasia has high specificty for___ and low sensitivity for __ and __
high grade
hg and lg
what is it important to rule out when you think that you have an adenocarcinoma of the bladder
that it is not a Met from another place
- in bladder it is in the dome cells ( urachal remnants
-also seen in relation to chronic inflam w intestinal metaplasia
what does red and clear urine indicate
free hb and myoglobin
what can you do with a midstream urine catch
microscopy and culture
what is a sterile suprapubic aspiration of urine used for
to eval for lower UTI- best technique for getting culture bladder urine for <1 yo
dilute urine can give misleading __ results
negative
bacterial overgrowth produces__ urine
alkaline
what is the ref range for urine specific gravity
1.020 and 1.028
dont use dipstick to test this
should there ever be positive glucose on a dipstick
no must find explaination
dipstick is highly sensitive for blood but low___
specificity
dipstick esterase is more __ than __
sensitive than specifiv
dipstick nitrite is more__than __
specific than senstive
but both esterase and nitrite lack sensitivty
what holds RBC casts together
tamm horsefall
- this means the prob is in the kidneys
what is the common matrix of hyaline casts
tamm horsefal protein- secreted by renal tubule
what is the avg urine protein conc
5mg/dl
where does all protein in urine come from
hemorrhage from mucosa or penetrating the GBM
what do you have to do if you want plasma from drawn blood
give anticoag- to prevent clotting
what are the alpha and beta globulins
specialized and diverse proteins
isolated porteinuria is always assoc with
renal origin
albumin has a high sensitivity of glom perm because it is
small and anionic
what is almost always the cause of proteinuria
glomerular dz--- tubularintersitial dz and overflow hardly ever happens bc its mild and not really detected by dipstick
dipstick is not accurate in assessing the ___ of proteinuria
severity
in order to know the severity of proteinuria you need to order
24 hr quantative urine, pcr and acr