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181 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
introduced "nerve block" cocaine into mandible
|
halsted
|
|
injected cocaine sol'n b/w spinous processes of inf. dorsal vert. into interspinous lig.
|
corning
|
|
invented subarachnoid injection
invented 1st subarachnoid tap |
bier
quinke |
|
introduced caudal (epidural) anes
procaine synth in germany |
cathelin
|
|
introduced "controlling" level (hyperbaric) procaine in sab
|
barker
|
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described midline lumbar epidural space approach (segmental epidural anes)
|
pages
|
|
added epi to sab to prolong anes
|
puckett
|
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sc descends caudally from _______ to _______ and includes _______ vertebrae: _______, _______, _______, _______, _______
|
foramen magnum to sacral hiatus
cervical-7, thoracic-12, lumbar-5, sacral-5(fused), coccygeal-4(fused) |
|
_______ vert is largest for weight bearing
its facet joints allow _______ & _______ |
lumbar
|
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its facet allows rotational movement and the lateral processes of vert are long, heavy, and articulate w/ribs
|
thoracic
|
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triangle shaped section of fused bodies of vert; wedged b/w 2 iliac crests
|
sacrum
|
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_______ is the laminae of last sacral vert that is incomplete & bridged by ligaments
inj point for caudal anes |
sacral hiatus
|
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_______ is 4 small bone segments fused into 2 bones as individual; triangular shape
|
coccyx
|
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coccygeal projections of articular processes
_______ is most pronounced |
cornua
superior |
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joint angulation is most pronounced in the _______ area
|
thoracic
|
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_______ is formed d/t non-fusion of S5 vertebral arch, cephalad to coccyx
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sacral hiatus
|
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sacral hiatus is an extension of _______ and covered by _______
site for _______ anes |
ligamentum flavum
sacrococcygeal ligament caudal (epidural) |
|
_______ & _______ curve anterior (highest points: _______ & _______)
_______ & _______ curve posterior (low points _______ & _______) |
cervical & lumbar (C5 & L2)
thoracic & sacral (T5 & S2) |
|
kids' sc ends @ _______, then ascends to _______ by 18mths
best placement for sab _______ |
L3; L1-L2
L2-S2 (best to start @L3-L4) |
|
iliac crest is located @ _______
|
L4
|
|
vertebrae are stacked to provide support for _______ & _______ and protection for _______
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cranium & trunk
sc enclosed w/in arch |
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_______ space out vert bodies and cushion the sc
|
fibrocartilagenous discs
|
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_______ & _______ link vertebrae
|
articular capsules & ligaments
|
|
KNOW!!!
_______: heavier portion of vert that is congiuous w/_______ |
anterior placed body
pedicles |
|
KNOW!!!
pedicles stretch posteriorly to join _______ & _______ to complete posterior arch |
transverse process & spinous process
|
|
KNOW!!!
name parts of vertebrae (except C1) |
ant. vert body, 2 pedicles, 2 trans. processes, laminae, 4 facet joints, 1 spinous process, vert foramen
|
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KNOW!!!
_______ articulate w/vert above and below (allow motion in the spine) |
facet joints
|
|
KNOW!!!
_______ is arch through which sc travels; smaller in _______, larger in _______ & _______ areas |
vert foramen
thoracic cervical & lumbar |
|
_______ has no vert body
|
C1
|
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facet joints are aka _______ or _______ joints
|
zygapophyseal or apophyseal
|
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on each vert, _______ joint faces upward and _______ faces downward, with 1 joint on each side (? & ?)
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superior articular facet
inferior articular facet (R & L) |
|
_______: strong fibrous cord connecting tips of spinous processes from sacrum to C7 (and continues upward to _______ as _______); max thick in _______ area
|
supraspinous ligament (1st to meet needle)
external occipital protuberance as nuchal ligament |
|
_______: think membranous lig, runs b/w spinous processes & blends ant w/_______
|
interspinous ligament
ligamentum flavum |
|
_______: strongest post lig, connects _______
|
ligamentum flavum (LF)
|
|
yellow tough lig that runs from ant/inf vert laminae to post/sup;
most dense in _______ area; final barrier before sc |
ligamentum flavum (LF)
lumbar |
|
_______: ant and post lig that run from base of skull to sacrum; attach _______ & _______
|
longitudinal ligaments
intervert discs & vert bodies |
|
_______: potential space surrounding spinal meninges;
extends _______ to _______; covered by _______ |
epidural space
foramen magnum to sacral hiatus sacrococcygeal lig boundaries |
|
name the sacrococcygeal lig boundaries
|
anterior: post longtitudinal lig
lateral: pedicles & intervert foramina posterior: LF & ant surface of lamina |
|
epidural space contains _______, _______, _______, & _______
|
nerve roots
fat lymphatics arteries |
|
_______ provide drainage of blood from sc and cord lining
|
internal vert venous plexus
|
|
LF is _______ in the middle and _______ towards sides of sc
|
thicker
thinner |
|
sc starts in foramen magnum of _______ & _______ and ends below _______
|
brainstem & medulla oblongata
conus medullaris |
|
at birth sc ends @ _______ and moves _______ to reach adult position @ _______ by _______ age
|
L3
cephalad L2 2yrs |
|
spinal nerve are attached to sc by 2 roots: _______ & _______
|
anterior (motor) &
posterior (sensory) |
|
_______: portion of sc that gives rise to rootlets of single spinal nerve
|
cord segment
|
|
_______: skin area innervated by given spinal nerve and its cord segment
|
dermatome
|
|
sc is protected by _______ & 3 conn. tissue coverings called _______ (_______, _______, & _______)
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vert column & meninges (dura, arachnoid, & pia mater)
|
|
_______: tough outermost mem covering spinal column
|
dura mater
|
|
_______: firmly attached to foramen magnum of occipital bone, and
_______: dural sac ends @ S2 |
sup dura mater
inf dura mater |
|
inf dura mater is pierced by _______ (an extension of _______)
|
filum terminale
pia mater |
|
_______: extends from sc to blend w/periosteum on post coccyx
|
filum terminale
|
|
dura becomes _______ upon reaching intervert foramina and continues as _______ of periph nerves
|
thinner
perineural conn tissue |
|
_______: middle meningeal layer; closely conn to dura and ends @_______
|
arachnoid mater
S2 |
|
_______: potential space b/w dura and arachnoid; may explain fx spinals, high epidurals
|
subdural space
|
|
_______: delicate vascular membrane that contacts outer surface of sc
|
pia mater
|
|
_____: space bw arachnoid & pia mater, filled w/CSF;
continous w/central canal of cord & ventricles; site for SAB |
subarachnoid space (SAS)
|
|
3 divisions of SAS
|
cranial (surrounds brain)
spinal (surrounds sc) root (surrounds dorsal & ventral roots) |
|
spinal nerve roots transverse _____ and carry meningeal layers w/_____, _____, _____, & _____ spaces
|
epidural space
epidural, subdural, subarachnoid, & subpial |
|
as dura extends toward intervert foramen it becomes _____
|
thinner
|
|
_____: ultrafiltrate of bld plasma in osmotic & hydrostatic equilibrium that runs b/w _____ & _____
|
CSF
pia & arachnoid mater |
|
most of CSF is formed in ...
_____ml made each day and absorbed via _____ |
choroid plexus in lateral, 3rd, & 4th ventricles
450ml subarachnoid villi into adj venous sinus |
|
~_____ml CSF in SAS
Flows through _____ to _____ into _____ Bathes _____, _____, & _____ |
25-35ml
ventricles-->foramen of luschka & magendie-->SAS sc, cauda equina, & brain |
|
CSF is 90% _____, also _____ & _____
pH=_____ sp grav=_____ |
H2O; 'lytes & glucose
7.39-7.50 1.003-1.009 (isobaric) |
|
CSF+dextrose=_____
CSF+H2O=_____ CSF+plain LA=_____ |
hyperbaric
hypobaric isobaric |
|
specific gravity increases w/_____, _____, & _____ and decreases w/_____
|
age, hyperglycemia, hypothermia
hyperthermia |
|
CSF maintains _____ & _____ for CNS
|
physiologically stable env & buffering capacity
|
|
majority of CSF in sc in _____ (horizontal position pressure=_____)
|
lower cauda equina
(6-8cm H2O) |
|
arterial supply enters via _____ of SC, aorta, and iliac arteries
enters _____, crosses _____, enters _____ in region of _____ |
radicular branches
intervert foramina epidural space SAS dural cuff of spinal nerve roots |
|
2 paired PSAs arise from _____ and descend _____; fed by _____ and send vessels to _____
|
inf cerebellar a.
medial to post nerve roots 25-40 radicular a. post white & gray columns |
|
_____: formed at terminal part of each vertebral a.
runs down midline ant and sends branches into _____ & _____ |
ant spinal a.
center of sc & into ant & lat gray and white columns |
|
how does LA get into sc?
|
CSF & LA enter Virchow-Robbins space and enter sc
|
|
1 ASA supplies _____
2 PSA supply _____ |
ant 2/3 sc
post 1/3 sc |
|
three longitudinal vessels are fed by spinal branches of the following arteries... (6)
|
vertebral
deep cervical ascending cervical post intercostal lumbar lat sacral |
|
75% of motor tracts in sc supplied by...
|
1 ASA
|
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upper sc receives blood from _____, middle from _____, and lower from _____
|
branches of sc a.
branches of intercostal & lumbar a. (T3 & T4) branches of internal iliac a. |
|
radicular a. give rise to 3 branches...
|
ant & post a.
neuromedullary a. a. of adamkiewicz (radicularis magna) |
|
ant & post a. supply...
|
vert column
|
|
neuromedullary a. supplies _____ & _____ via...
|
sc & meninges
ant & post radicular a. |
|
_____ is the largest feeder of sc; ant segmented medullary a. that supplies ASA mainly in lumbar enlargement; enters b/w T8 & L3
|
a. of adamkiewicz (radicularis magna)
|
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most tenuous region of bld supply is _____ d/t sluggish flow
|
T4 (tenuous supply to ant sc!)
|
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high thoracic and cervical sc supplied mainly by branches of _____
|
subclavian a.
|
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ischemia in ant sc mainly results in _____
|
motor deficits
|
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extensive sx manipulation of ant sc can result in _____, causing _____, _____, &/or _____
|
ischemia of conus medullaris
ischemia, motor deficit, +/or paralysis |
|
stimulation of sns cz _____, _____, & _____
|
vasoconstriction, sweating, bowel constriction
|
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pre-gang nerves of sns originate in _____ and pass through _____
|
lat gray column of gray matter
spinal nerves from T1 to L2 |
|
_____ are motor, sensory, and symp fibers that exit vert column thru intervert foramina
|
spinal nerves
|
|
spinal nerve and corresponding cord segment are named for
|
intervert foramen thru which they run
|
|
sns pre-ganglionics leave spinal n. to become part of _____, go up/down symp chain, and synapse at/above/below point of entry
|
white rami comunicantes
|
|
_____ runs alongside sns pre-ganglionics on the anterolateral surface of vert column
|
symp paravert ganglia
|
|
_____ & _____ innervate the gut
|
celiac ganglia &
mesenteric ganglia |
|
symp post-gangl fibers innervate _____, _____, _____, & _____
|
bld vessels (constr), heart (incr chronotropy & inotropy), bronchi (dilation), smooth muscle (bladder contr & bowel distention)
|
|
psns pre-gangl fibers reside in _____ & _____ and synapse w/short post-gangl fibers in _____
|
cranial n. & S2-S4
walls of organs they innervate (i.e. vagus n.-GIT motility & tone, sacral n.-bladder and lower GIT) |
|
SAB and epidural used for _____, _____ & _____ procedures (not higher d/t _____)
|
lower abd, extremity, limited upper abd
(don't want anes of lungs) |
|
indications for neuraxial RA (=spinal, epidural, caudal)
|
lower abd, gyne/ob, hernia, lower limb, uro, perineal, rectal
|
|
benefits of RA
|
no GA risk of 'full stomach'
no airway/intub difficulties (but should still prep for it!) |
|
sx stress results in metabolic/endocrine elevations in..
|
prolactin
growth h. ACTH, ADH (vaso) cortisol, aldo, renin catecholamines bld glucose |
|
stress response (=hormonal changes) d/t sx can be modulated with _____ or _____
|
high epidural or spinal anes (although inconsistently effective in upper abd sx)
|
|
SAB+epi (vs. GA)=less bld loss
total hip repl=_____ prostatectomy=_____ TURP=_____ hysterectomy=_____ c-section=_____ |
22-50%
37% 18% 45% ?% |
|
why is there less bld loss when SAB+epi used?
|
hypotension (no sns response) &
redistribution of bld flow away from op site (steal effect) |
|
SAB/epidural effect on thromboembolic phenomena
|
sns blockade=incr bld flow and decr venostasis in LE; also decr stress response-->decr platelet aggregation; also higher plasminogen-activator levels = :-) DVT/PE outcome
|
|
CAD benefits of RA (and why?)
|
<pre/afterload in pts w/CHF, aortic/mitral regurg d/t sns blockade and arteriovasodilation
|
|
CAD detriments of RA (and why?)
|
mitral/aortic stenosis, cardiomyopathy b/c pre/afterload decr may be critical
|
|
absolute contraindications for epidural/spinal
|
pt refusal; allergy to LA
shock/severe hypovolemia uncorrected coags sepsis @ LP site abnormal anatomy elevated ICP |
|
relative contraindications for epidural/spinal
|
deformity/tattoo
pre-existing dx of sc chronic HA/backache no success w/in 3 attempts aortic stenosis |
|
pts w/post-op epidurals have better outcomes such as...
|
lower mortality, reduced cost, less infections, earlier extubation
|
|
what is the precaution for pts w/hx of mobitz I or II or 3rd block w/o pacemaker?
|
Large vol LA may stabilize cardiac cellular membrane and increase heart block
|
|
_____: level of skin that corresponds to respective sensory innervation by spinal nerves
|
dermatomes
|
|
_____ & _____ mediate visceral sensation and visceromatic reflexes and help determine segmental levels of anes for op
|
cutaneous n. distribution & autonomic afferents from organs
|
|
sensory dermatomes include _____, _____, _____, & _____
|
cervical 1-8
thoracic 1-12 lumbar 1-5 sacral 1-5 |
|
sensory dermatomes:
_____ clavicle, _____ nipple _____ diaphragm, xiphoid _____ pelvis, sym pubis |
T2, T4
T6 T10 T12-L1 |
|
_____ ilioing lig, heel, 5th toe
_____ genitofem n. _____ med ankle _____ big toe, _____ knee |
L1
L1-2 L4 L5, S2 |
|
KNOW!!!
LA into CSF provides total blockade _____ and anesthesia _____ to site of injection |
blockade - caudad
anesthesia - cephalad |
|
absolute contraindications for epidural/spinal
|
pt refusal; allergy to LA
shock/severe hypovolemia uncorrected coags sepsis @ LP site abnormal anatomy elevated ICP |
|
relative contraindications for epidural/spinal
|
deformity/tattoo
pre-existing dx of sc chronic HA/backache no success w/in 3 attempts aortic stenosis |
|
pts w/post-op epidurals have better outcomes such as...
|
lower mortality, reduced cost, less infections, earlier extubation
|
|
what is the precaution for pts w/hx of mobitz I or II or 3rd block w/o pacemaker?
|
Large vol LA may stabilize cardiac cellular membrane and increase heart block
|
|
_____: level of skin that corresponds to respective sensory innervation by spinal nerves
|
dermatomes
|
|
_____ & _____ mediate visceral sensation and visceromatic reflexes and help determine segmental levels of anes for op
|
cutaneous n. distribution & autonomic afferents from organs
|
|
sensory dermatomes include _____, _____, _____, & _____
|
cervical 1-8
thoracic 1-12 lumbar 1-5 sacral 1-5 |
|
sensory dermatomes:
_____ clavicle, _____ nipple _____ diaphragm, xiphoid _____ pelvis, sym pubis |
T2, T4
T6 T10 T12-L1 |
|
_____ ilioing lig, heel, 5th toe
_____ genitofem n. _____ med ankle _____ big toe, _____ knee |
L1
L1-2 L4 L5, S2 |
|
KNOW!!!
LA into CSF provides total blockade _____ and anesthesia _____ to site of injection |
blockade - caudad
anesthesia - cephalad |
|
KNOW!!!
level of cephalad anes depends on _____, _____, & _____ |
pt position
total dose LA baricity of LA sol'n |
|
KNOW!!!
blockade of sns fibers extends _____ than sensory fibers |
2-4 segments higher
|
|
KNOW!!!
_____ fibers are most difficult to block |
motor (Aalpha & Abeta)
|
|
KNOW!!!
motor fibers block _____ than sensory blocks |
2 segments
|
|
KNOW!!!
block onset is _____ > _____ fibers > _____ fibers |
sns > sensory > motor
|
|
_____ fibers are most sensitive to LA
|
pregang sym fibers (B-fibers)
|
|
_____ fibers are blocked 1st and remain blocked longest
|
pain C-fibers (sensation to cold)
|
|
_____ fibers are blocked and recover 2nd
|
A-delta fibers (pin-prick)
|
|
_____ fibers are last to block and 1st to recover
|
A-beta fibers (touch)
|
|
_____ fibers are the largest, and less sensitive to LA than sensory fibers
|
A-alpha (motor)
|
|
level of motor block is _____ dermatomes _____ than sensory anesthesia
|
2-4 dermatomes
lower than |
|
_____ or _____ anes good for perineal/vag sx; blocks _____ dermatomes
|
low spinal or saddle block
sacral |
|
T10 spinal anes useful for which procedures?
T4 or T6? |
TURP, cystoscopy, lower extremity sx
intra-abd sx, c-section (T4) |
|
_____: weight in gm of 1ml sol'n @ specific temp (usually gm/ml)
|
density
|
|
_____: ratio of density of sol'n compared to water @ same temp
|
specific gravity
|
|
_____: ratio of density of LA to density of CSF at same temp
CSF density @37C=_____ |
baricity
1.003g/ml |
|
density of baric sol'ns varies inversely w/_____
|
temp
|
|
isobaric sol'n baricity ranges _____ to _____
|
0.9998 to 1.0008
|
|
in a supine pt, hyperbaric sol'n results in a rise of anes to _____ level
in sitting pt for 5min it cz _____ |
T5
saddle block |
|
less important factors for LA behavior in SAS
|
site/level/speed of inj, physical status/age, intra-abd pressure, direction of bevel
|
|
duration of blocks:
_____: short-acting _____: intermed-acting _____ & _____: long-acting |
procaine (short)
lidocaine (med) tetracaine & bupivacaine (long) |
|
_____ spinals are most popular and achieve higher level of SAB; prepared commercially by adding _____.
|
hyperbaric
glucose |
|
hyperbaric sol'n spreads _____ in sitting position and _____ in trendelenberg position
|
caudad
cephalad |
|
_____ is long-acting drug for SAB
mixed w/D10=_____ mixed w/sterile H2O=_____ duration:_____ |
tetracaine
hyperbaric hypobaric 2-3hrs (longer w/Epi) |
|
FDA rec for Lidocaine dilution
|
Lido5% + D7.5% (hyperbaric)
Lido2% (isobaric) can be used if preservative-free |
|
Hyperbaric bupivacaine contains _____ and is _____-acting w/_____ onset than tetracaine
Isobaric bupi is _____% |
Bupivacaine0.75% + D8.25%
shorter-acting, slower onset 0.5% |
|
_____: alpha2-agonist that cz decr bld flow and analgesia w/short and intermed LA
|
epinephrine
|
|
_____ ug/ml Epi added to SAB prolongs block duration _____%
|
5
40-70% |
|
_____: alpha2-agonist that inhibits C & A fibers when given with LA
|
clonidine
|
|
clonidine prolongs sensory block ~100min when _____ug added to long-acting LA for _____, _____, & _____ blocks
|
100-150ug
neuraxial, IV, periph n. |
|
larger doses of clonidine (>150ug) w/long-acting LA cz _____, _____, & _____
|
hypotension, sedation, bradycardia
|
|
procaine prep is _____%
duration=_____min duration w/epi=_____min |
10%
45min 60min |
|
bupivacaine prep is _____
duration=_____min duration w/epi=_____min |
0.75% in D8.25%
90-120min 100-150min |
|
tetracaine prep is _____
duration=_____min duration w/epi=_____min |
1% in D10%
90-120min 120-240min |
|
lidocaine prep is _____
duration=_____min duration w/epi=_____min |
5% in D7.5%
60-75min 60-90min |
|
ropivacaine prep is _____
duration=_____min duration w/epi=_____min |
0.2 to 1%
90-120min 90-120min |
|
dose for procaine for
peri,lower,saddle=_____ lower abd T10=_____ upper abd T2-T4=_____ |
75mg
125mg 200mg |
|
dose for bupivacaine for
peri,lower,saddle=_____ lower abd T10=_____ upper abd T2-T4=_____ |
4-10mg
12-14mg 12-18mg |
|
dose for tetracaine for
peri,lower,saddle=_____ lower abd T10=_____ upper abd T2-T4=_____ |
4-8mg
10-12mg 10-16mg |
|
dose for lidocaine for
peri,lower,saddle=_____ lower abd T10=_____ upper abd T2-T4=_____ |
25-50mg
50-75mg 75-100mg |
|
dose for ropivacaine for
peri,lower,saddle=_____ lower abd T10=_____ upper abd T2-T4=_____ |
8-12mg
8-12mg 16-18mg |
|
procaine:
dose range:_____mg 2-derm regression:_____min resolution:_____min prolonged by adr. agonists:_____% |
50-200mg
30-50min 90-120min 30-50% |
|
chloroprocaine:
dose range:_____mg 2-derm regression:_____min resolution:_____min prolonged by adr. agonists:_____% |
30-100mg
30-50min 70-150min N/A |
|
lidocaine:
dose range:_____mg 2-derm regression:_____min resolution:_____min prolonged by adr. agonists:_____% |
25-100mg
40-100min 140-240min 20-50% |
|
bupivacaine:
dose range:_____mg 2-derm regression:_____min resolution:_____min prolonged by adr. agonists:_____% |
5-20mg
90-140min 240-380min 20-50% |
|
tetracaine:
dose range:_____mg 2-derm regression:_____min resolution:_____min prolonged by adr. agonists:_____% |
5-20mg
90-140min 240-380min 50-100% |
|
two chief landmarks for SAB and epidural
|
iliac crests identify L4 spine or L4-L5 interspace
spinous processes identify midline |
|
sc ends at _____, so safe SAB choices are _____, _____, _____, or _____
|
L1-2
L2-3, L3-4, L4-5, L5-S1 |
|
most popular position for SAB is _____
|
lat decubitus (opens up interspaces; max flexion of knees & hips, shoulders & iliac crest inline)
|
|
easier to find midline in obese pts in _____ position, but disadvantages are
|
sitting position
vasovagal/fainting, discomfort for hip fx pt |
|
in the midline approach for SAB the bevel should be parallel to the dural fiber b/c...
|
reduces extent of dural tear and incidence of post-dural h/a by splitting rather than cutting fibers
|
|
in midline approach for SAB in lumbar region needle should be angled _____ and when it enters _____ you may feel a pop
|
slightly cephalad
ligamentum flavum |
|
gold standards for SAB include _____, _____, & _____
|
free flow of CSF
no heme no parasthesia (although common & transient) |
|
if you hit bone on SAB approach...
|
redirect needle cephalad, walk up lamina
|
|
if parasthesia is present...
|
NEVER inject!
|
|
a 22g introducer over a 25g or 26g needle prevents...
|
spinal needle bending and contact w/prep sol'n
|
|
describe the paramedian approach for SAB (useful esp. in _____ pts)
|
arthritic
insert needle 1cm lat to edge of sp. process, direct toward same midline entry point |
|
describe the taylor approach for SAB
|
more extreme paramedian angle
approached @ L5-S1 (largest vert. interspace) |
|
level of anes must be documented at _____, _____, & _____ in PAR
|
1min, 5min, end of sx
|