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142 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What information is recorded in the health records of a swine unit?
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-Problem
-Number treated, date, dose -Number of deaths/culls -Vaccinations |
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What is the average earning for finished pigs per sow per year?
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£1,400
|
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What is the average price per sow?
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£60
|
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What is the price for finished pigs in the UK?
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60-134p/kg dead weight (currently 136p/kg)
|
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What is the major cost for a pig producor?
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Feed (60-70% of total farm costs)
|
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What are some key biosecurity factors on a pig farm?
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-Location: 3km from another pig unit
-Secure perimeter fence -Isolation offsite for new stock: 4weeks -Loading bay -Transport -Visitors -Feed lorries outwith the perimeter fence -Bedding materials -Vermin control -Personnel not to come into contact with other pigs -No pork products on the unit -Dead pigs disposed of properly |
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What diseases are SPF pigs free from?
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-Enzootic pneumonia (M. hyopneumoniae)
-Pleuropneumonia (Actiobacillus pleuropneumoniae) -Atrophic rhinitis (toxigenic P. multocida) -Swine dysentery (Brachyspira hyodysenteriae) -Streptococcal meningitis (Strep suis II) -Mange (Sarcoptes scabei) |
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"High Health Status" pigs may carry what disease?
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enzootic pneumonia
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How often must a pig farm be inspected by a veterinarian?
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4 times a year
|
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What should a vet visit to a pig farm include?
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-Inspection of records
-Evaluation of husbandry system -Clinical inspection of animals -Laboratory testing if needed -Post mortem evaluation |
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The abattoir monitoring scheme involves the quarterly monitoring of slaughtered pigs by a vet for what diseases?
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-Pneumonia
-Atrophic rhinitis -Mange -White spot livers (ascarids) |
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At what level is a pig's snout sawn to invetigate atrophic rhinitis?
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At the level of premolar teeth 1/2
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What is the highest score possible when grading pig lungs for pneumonia?
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55
|
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What is the optimal backfat measurement in a pig?
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12mm
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What is the maximum gradient on a lorry loading ramp for a pig unit?
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20%
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What is the optimum body condition score for a pig at farrowing?
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3.5-4
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What is the optimal piglet body weight at weaning (4 weeks)?
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7-8kg
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What is the optimal ambient temperature for an adult pig?
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15-20°C
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What is the water requirement for a lactating sow?
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15-30L
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What is the minimum space on a lorry per finished pig?
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0.4sqm/100kg
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What is the age of gilts at first service?
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220 days
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What is the weaning to service time for a sow?
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7 days
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How many litters should a sow have per year?
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2.5
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How many piglets should be born alive per litter?
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10.9
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How many piglets should a sow wean per year?
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27
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What is the daily gain for a piglet?
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570gm
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What is the feed conversion rate for a piglet?
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2.2
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What is the net energy requirement for a 45kg growing pig?
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17.54MJ/d
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Protein requirements for pigs are expressed in terms of ____ with the other amino acids in balance.
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standardised ileal digestible lysine
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Statutory Declaration Labels on pig feed must include:
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-Protein
-Fibre -Ash -Vitamins A, D, E -Lysine -Copper -Ingredient list -Best before date |
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Name some environmental factors that can affect the health and performance of a sow.
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-Poor building/farrowing crate design
-Change in temperature or season -Poor outdoor conditions -Inadequate water |
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Name some management factors that can affect the health and performance of a sow.
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-Improper techniques for introducing sows and gilts into groups
-Allowing vices to develop -Poor hygiene -Poor stockmanship/health program |
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Name some nutritional factors that can affect the health and performance of a sow.
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-insufficient feed/energy in relation to ambient temperature and body condition
-incorrect feeding at different production stages -Insufficient feed space |
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What is the target time for culling sows?
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When they reach parity 6 or 7.
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Define "farrowing rate".
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The number of sows which farrow to the number of servies in a given period.
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When do most reproductive failures in sows occur?
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At conception
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What is the target for sows returning to service at 21 days?
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<6%
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What is the target for sows with irregular returns to service (>24 days)?
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<3%
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What factors should be considered when investigating reproductive problems on a pig unit?
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-Sow condition
-Service management -Boar usage -AI usage -Seasonal effets -Pregnancy testing -Farrowing house management -Culling policy -Gilt replacement -Acuracy of data recording |
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Anoestrus is one of the most common reproductive disorders in pigs. Gilts >____ or sows >_____ without signs of estrus are consider to be in anoestrus.
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8 months old; 10 days post weaning
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Type I stillbirths are often the result of _____.
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infectious causes
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Oxytocin ___ induce farrowing in sows and gilts.
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will not
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Name some organisms associated with vaginal discharge syndrome in pigs.
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-A. pyogenes
-E.coli -Streptococci -Pseudomonas -Eubacterium suis |
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A vaginal discharge in the sow 7 days after service is indicative of ____.
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normal seminal debris
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Once a sow has acquired coliform mastitis she is _____ to get the disease again.
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just as likely (no protective immunity forms)
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____ is the cause of agalactia in sows with coliform mastitis.
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Endotoxaemia
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PRRS stands for ____.
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Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome
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The causative organism in PRRS is ____.
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an arterivirus (RNA virus)
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Of the 3 strains of Swine Influenza which one is the most common in the UK?
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195852 (avian like strain)
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Which viruses in pigs areassociated with the SMEDI syndrome?
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Porcine parvovirus and Porcine Inclusion Body Rhinitis
(Stillbirths Mummification Embryonic Death Infertility) |
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In Porcine Parvovirus, foetal mummification occurs from the _____ end to the ____ of the sow's reproductive tract.
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ovarian; cervical
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If infection with Porcine Parvovirus occurs at ______ of gestation, foetal mummification is likely.
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days 35 through 70
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Name the causative agents of Porcine Leptospirosis in the UK vs North America.
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UK: Leptospira bratislava (rarely L. canicola and L. icterohaemorrhagiae)
NA: L. pomona and L. icterohaemorrhagiae |
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By UK law, piglets must not be weaned before day ___.
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28
|
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Name two diseases more common in outdoor pig units.
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-Leptospirosis
-Clostridium perfingens typce C |
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Neonatal colibacillosis is caused by ___ or ____.
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enterotoxigenic E. coli or vero-toxignic E. coli
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How is heritable resistance to enteric colibacillosis achieved?
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This is an autosomal recessive trait is some pigs in which the receptor for K88 or F18 fimbriae on the epithelial brush border is not produced.
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What is the most common age for presentation with enteric colibacillosis in pigs?
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birth to 4 days
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Which sero groups of rotavirus can cause disease in pigs?
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Sero groups A, B, C and E
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Colostral antibodies _____ piglets against clinical coccidiosis, but infection ___ immunity.
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do not protect; confers
|
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Isospora suis oocysts can be detected in feces ___ after infection.
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5-7 days
(diarrhea is seen for days prior to oocysts in feces) |
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Necrotizing beta toxin produced by Clostridium perfingens type C is sensitive to ____ which is not produced by the porcine small intestine until 4 days of age.
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trypsin
|
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A farmer brings you a dead piglet that was born the previous day. You conduct a post mortem and find intesely hemorrhagic small intestines and bloody fluid in the abdominal cavity. You suspect ____.
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Clostridium perfingens type C infection
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Fecal examination to confirm cryptosporidiosis in the piglet can be done ____.
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10 days post infection
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What two factors at weaning can result in diarrhea?
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-Decreased height of intestinal villi reduces absorptive capacity
-Loss of protective effects of secretory IgA from sow's milk |
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What is the target body weight for a piglet at weaning?
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8.5kg
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Piglets should be grouped according to size in pens with approximately ___ at weaning.
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20 pigs
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Post-weaning E. coli diarrhoea in pigs is caused most commonly by the K88 strain, while the F18 strain causes ___.
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"oedema disease"
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Toxaemia associated with E. coli infection post-weaning in pigs may result in neuroloical signs due to ___.
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cerebrovascular angiopathy
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Proliferative enteropathy in pigs is due to Lawsonia intracellularis invading the ____.
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epithelial cells of the small and large intestine
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Lawsonia intracellularis can cause three syndromes in pigs - what are they?
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-Proliferative Enteropathy
-Proliferative Haemorrhagic Enteropathy (in heavy infection) -Necrotic Enteritis and regional ileitis (due to secondary bacterial infection) |
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Swine dysentery is caused by ______ and results in blood, mucus, and mucofibrinous exudate in diarrhea.
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Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
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What is the most common cause of diarrhea in growing/finishing pigs in the UK?
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Porcine Colonic Spirochaetosis (Brachyspira pilosicoli)
|
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What disease does the "Meat Juice" ELISA monitor?
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Salmonellosis - 20% of pigs have this in their cecum at slaughter
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Name three parasites that can cause enteritis and colitis in pigs.
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-Ascaris suum
-Trichuris suis -Oesophagostomum spp. |
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Gastric ulceration can be common in pigs 3-6 months of age. Ulcers may be seen on the ____.
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pars oesophagea
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What "abdominal accident" is more commonly seen in adult sows?
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Hepatic lobe torsion
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You visit a pig unit and find a room of piglets born the week before are sneezing. What do you suspect?
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Bordetella bronchiseptica or Porcine Inclusion Body Rhinitis
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Turbinate atrophy associated with Bordetella bronchiseptica in pigs ____ after infection.
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resolves
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You visit a pig unit and notice some of the weaners and growers have a "barking" cough. What do you suspect?
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Enzootic pneumonia (Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae)
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Name three factors that exacerbate the clinical signs of enzootic pneumonia in pigs.
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-co-infection with other agents
-over stocking -poor ventilation |
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Of the 14 serotypes of Actinobacillus pleropneumoniae, which ones are seen in the UK? Which ones are the most virulent?
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3, 6, and 8 in the UK
1, 3 and 5 are most virulent |
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What two things can readily kill Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae organisms?
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-Heat
-Dessication |
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PCR testing for Porcine Pleuropneumonia detects _____.
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the ApxIV gene of Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
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Which disease of pigs is monitored at the slaughterhouse using the "55 point plan"?
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Enzootic pneumonia
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Pleurisy lesions caused by Pleuropneumonia (A. pleuropneumoniae) in pigs ____ after treatment.
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persist
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In which two diseases of pigs is herd depopulation highly advised in eradicating disease?
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-Swine dysentery
-Pleuropneumonia |
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What are the four most common viral respiratory diseases in pigs?
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-Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome
-Swine Influenza -Porcine Respiratory Coronavirus -Porcine Circovirus type 2 |
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Pasteurella multocida type A causes ____ in pigs.
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pneumonia
|
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Pasteurella multocida type D causes ___ in pigs.
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Atrophic rhinitis
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The PCR used to confirm Atrophic Rhinitis in pigs detects _____.
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tox A of P. multocida type D
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Which serovars of Streptococcus suis are the most important?
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1, 1/2, 2 (meningitis), 9, and 14
|
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In which disease of pigs are tranquilizers indicated to alleviate symptoms?
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Meningitis associated with Streptococcus suis
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"Exudative Dermatitis" in pigs is caused by _____.
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Staph hyicus (Greasy Pig Disease)
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Glässer's disease in pigs is characterised by fibrinous polyserositis in weaner and growers, and is caused by _____.
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Haemophilus parasuis
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There are 14 serovars of Glässer's disease, but only _____ are found in the UK.
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4 and 5
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Pigs that recover from Swine Erysipelas develop immunity but the antibodies do not ______.
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cross the joint capsules so joint infections may persist
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Mycoplasma hyosynoviae causes ____ in growers and finishers.
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arthritis
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Transmissable Gastroenteritis is less prevalent in the UK than in North America because of the presence of ___.
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Porcine Respiratory Coronavirus
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It is recommended that piglets with TGE _____.
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be euthanased
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Porcine Epidemic Diarrhea, similar to TGE, is characterized by _____ 1-2 days prior to the onset of diarrhea.
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a drop in feed
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Porcine Inclusion Body Rhinitis causes rhinitis in piglets, but can also cause ____ in sows.
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SMEDI syndrome
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Congenital Tremor Type A3 is a rare hereditary condition seen in _____.
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male Landrace pigs
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Congenital Tremor Type A4 is a rare hereditary condition seen in _____.
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British Saddleback pigs
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Congenital Tremor Type A5 is due to ____.
|
toxins (take care when treating pregnant sows with organophosphates)
|
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Piglets suffering from Congenital Tremor Type A2 will ____.
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most likely make a full recovery if they survive the first 7 days
|
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Porcine Multisystemic Wasting Syndrome is associated with Porcine Circovirus Type 2 and another stimulant to the immune system (ie parvovirus, PRRS, bacteria) and is characterized by the virus localizing in what tissues?
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-Lymphoid tissue (especially follicles and B cells)
-Lungs -Kidneys |
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What is the most common skin condition in pigs?
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Mange caused by sarcoptes scabei var suis
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What condition in pigs is characterized by an allergic type dermatitis in weaners that resolves over 1-2 months?
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Pityriasis Rosea
|
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Porcine Dermatitis and Nephropathy Syndrome is due to ____.
|
immune complex deposition
|
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Zinc deficiency or high phytic acid in the diet (from soya or wheat) causes what condition in pigs?
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Parakeratosis
|
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Osteochondrosis is a common degenerative joint disease in pigs, mostly affecting ____.
|
the medial aspect of the largest weight bearing bones
|
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Why do some pigs that have been elecrocuted dog sit?
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They tend to break their backs at the thoracolumbar junction
|
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The Movement of Pigs Order has helped to limit the spread of notifiable diseases. Describe this mandate.
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Pigs must not be moved off a farm within 21 days of arrival.
|
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Classical Swine Fever is caused by a ___ which degenerates _____cells.
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Togavirus (pestivirus); endothelial
|
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Compare the aetiologies of Classical Swine Fever and African Swine Fever.
|
CSF: caused by a pestivirus; direct, aerosol and transplacental transmission.
ASF: soft tick born iridovirus; direct transmission |
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Foot and Mouth Disease in pigs is caused by ____.
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an aphtovirus
|
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What is the first presenting sign of a pig with suspected FMD?
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Pallor of the snout prior to vesicle eruption.
|
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Which disease spurred the introduction of the 21 day movement ban on pigs?
|
Swine Vesicular Disease
|
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Swine Vesicular Disease is caused by _____ and is indistinguishable from ____.
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an enterovirus; FMD
|
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Vesicular Exanthema of Swine is caused by ______.
|
calicivirus
|
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Which disease in pigs is related to San Miguel Sealion Virus?
|
Vesicular Exanthema of Swine
|
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Anthrax is caused by _____.
|
bacillus anthracis
|
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A methylene blue slide shows square ened bacilli with pink/blue capsules - what do you suspect?
|
Anthrax
|
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What are the three forms of Anthrax in the pig?
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Pharyngeal form
Intestinal form Septicaemic form |
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Aujeszky's Disease in pigs is caused by ______.
|
a herpesvirus
|
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How long does villous restoration take in a pig recovering from clinical enteric disease?
|
5-10d
|
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How often is abattoir monitoring done for each herd in British Pig scheme/Wholesome pigs Scotland scheme?
|
Once every 3 months
|
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What type of flooring systems are most commonly associated with enteric disease in pigs?
|
Straw, solid floor +/-scraper,
|
|
Which defined health status would give you the most healthy pigs?
|
"Minimal disease"
|
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What is the treatment of choice for coccidiosis in piglets?
|
Toltrazuril
|
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What is the avg growth rate of grow/finish pigs in the UK (g/day)?
|
650gm
|
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What is the most common serotype of E.coli causing neonatal colibacillosis in pigs in the UK?
|
K88
|
|
Name some potential sources of enteric infections in pigs?
|
-vehicles
-fomites -visitors -carrier pigs -vermin -birds |
|
At what age is rotavirus diarrhea most commonly seen in pigs?
|
5-14 days
|
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How would you describe the genetic trait for E.coli K88 resistance in pigs?
|
Autosomal recessive
|
|
Approximately how much villus atrophy occurs in piglets as a physiological response to weaning?
|
50%
|
|
Gastric ulceration of pars esophagia in pigs is caused by:
|
-High wheat diets
-fine particle size -pelleted feed -low fiber content of diet |
|
Name some therapeutic agents that can be used to treat porcine hemorrhagic enteropathy (PHE) caused by L.intracellularis?
|
-Tiamulin
-Tylosin -Chortetracycline |
|
“White spot” liver in pigs are caused by which parasitic infection?
|
Ascaris suum
|
|
“Button ulcers” in the colonic mucosa in pigs are:
|
-Sometimes seen in pigs w/PDNS
-A possible indicator of CSF |
|
What type of sample can be used for Salmonella serology in pigs?
|
-Meat juice
-Serum |