Random Medical Stuff

Front 1

pancytopenia

Back 1

a medical condition in which there is a reduction in the number of red and white blood cells, as well as platelets.

If only two parameters from the full blood count are low, the term bicytopenia can be used. The diagnostic approach is the same as for pancytopenia.

Not enough reds and whites in the site of the pan!

Front 2

chordoma

Back 2

a rare slow-growing neoplasm thought to arise from cellular remnants of the notochord. The evidence for this is the location of the tumors (along the neuraxis), the similar immunohistochemical staining patterns, and the demonstration that notochordal cells are preferentially left behind in the clivus and sacrococcygeal regions when the remainder of the notochord regresses during fetal life.

Front 3

Action of Parathyriod hormone

Back 3

increases calcium in the blood (Ca2+)

Front 4

Actions of calcitonin

Back 4

acts to decrease calcium concentration.

Front 5

Calcitonin produced where?

Back 5

produced by the parafollicular cells (C cells) of the thyroid gland

Front 6

where are parathyroid hormone 1 receptors found and what is their function?

Back 6

PTH acts to increase the concentration of calcium in the blood by acting upon the parathyroid hormone 1 receptor (high levels in bone and kidney) and the parathyroid hormone 2 receptor (high levels in the central nervous system, pancreas, testis, and placenta)

Front 7

where are parathyroid hormone 2 receptors found?

Back 7

high levels in the central nervous system, pancreas, testis, and placenta

Front 8

PTH half life is

Back 8

4 minutes

Front 9

Bilirubin (formerly referred to as hematoidin)

Back 9

is the yellow breakdown product of normal heme catabolism. Heme is found in hemoglobin, a principal component of red blood cells.

Front 10

Bilirubin is excreted in

Back 10

bile and urine-
and elevated levels may indicate certain diseases

Front 11

bilirubin is responsible for what colors?

Back 11

the yellow color of bruises, the yellow color of urine (via its reduced breakdown product, urobilin), the brown color of faeces (via its conversion to stercobilin), and the yellow discoloration in jaundice.

Front 12

bilirubin structure

Back 12

consists of an open chain of four pyrrole-like rings (tetrapyrrole). In heme, by contrast, these four rings are connected into a larger ring, called a porphyrin ring.

Front 13

function: Bilirubin is created by

Back 13

the activity of biliverdin reductase on biliverdin, a green tetrapyrrolic bile pigment that is also a product of heme catabolism. Bilirubin, when oxidized, reverts to become biliverdin once again. This cycle, in addition to the demonstration of the potent antioxidant activity of bilirubin,[4] has led to the hypothesis that bilirubin's main physiologic role is as a cellular antioxidant

Front 14

Unconjugated bilirubin metabolism

Back 14

spleen, then liver.

Erythrocytes (red blood cells) generated in the bone marrow are disposed of in the spleen when they get old or damaged. This releases hemoglobin, which is broken down to heme as the globin parts are turned into amino acids. The heme is then turned into unconjugated bilirubin in the reticuloendothelial cells of the spleen. This unconjugated bilirubin is not soluble in water, due to intramolecular hydrogen bonding. It is then bound to albumin and sent to the liver. While it is sometimes mistaken that unconjugated bilirubin is indirect, indirect bilirubin actually underestimates the unconjugated bilurubin levels. Conjugated bilirubin reacts quickly with diazosulfanilic acid, leading to Azobilirubin (also known as Direct Bilirubin). However, unconjugated bilirubin will also react, although slowly, with diazosulfanilic acid. Thus, only looking at indirect bilirubin levels will underestimate unconjugated bilirubin, as some of it has reacted with diazosulfanilic acid.

Front 15

CEA test

Back 15

The carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) test measures the amount of this protein that may appear in the blood of some people who have certain kinds of cancers, especially large intestine (colon and rectal) cancer. It may also be present in people with cancer of the pancreas, breast, ovary, or lung.

Front 16

The carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) test is used to:

Back 16

Find how widespread cancer is for some types of the disease, especially colon cancer.
Check the success of treatment for colon cancer.
CEA levels may be measured both before and after surgery to evaluate both the success of the surgery and the person's chances of recovery.
CEA levels may be measured during treatment with medicines to destroy cancer cells (chemotherapy). This provides information about how well the treatment is working.
Check to see if cancer has returned after treatment.

Front 17

diverticulitis

Back 17

Diverticulitis is small, bulging sacs or pouches of the inner lining of the intestine (diverticulosis) that become inflamed or infected. Most often, these pouches are in the large intestine (colon).

Front 18

diverticulitis symptoms

Back 18

People with diverticulosis often have no symptoms, but they may have bloating and cramping in the lower part of the belly. Rarely, they may notice blood in their stool or on toilet paper.

Symptoms of diverticulitis are more severe and often start suddenly, but they may become worse over a few days. They include:

•Tenderness, usually in the left lower side of the abdomen

•Bloating or gas

•Fever and chills

•Nausea and vomiting

•Not feeling hungry and not eating

Front 19

what is obstructive jaundice?

Back 19

blockage of the flow of bile out of the liver.

*results in an overflow of bile and its by-products into the blood, and bile excretion from the body is incomplete. Bile contains many by-products, one of which is bilirubin, a pigment derived from dead red blood cells. Bilirubin is yellow, and this gives the characteristic yellow appearance of jaundice in the skin, eyes, and mucous membranes. Symptoms of obstructive jaundice include yellow eyes and skin, abdominal pain, and fever.

Front 20

hyponatremia

Back 20

an electrolyte disturbance in which the sodium concentration in the serum is lower than normal. Sodium is the dominant extracellular cation and cannot freely cross the cell membrane. Its homeostasis is vital to the normal physiologic function of cells. Normal serum sodium levels are between 135 and 145 mEq/L. Hyponatremia is defined as a serum level of less than 135 mEq/L and is considered severe when the serum level is below 125 mEq/L.[1]

Front 21

bile

Back 21

Bile or gall is a bitter-tasting, dark green to yellowish brown fluid, produced by the liver of most vertebrates, that aids the process of digestion of lipids in the small intestine. In many species, bile is stored in the gallbladder and upon eating is discharged into the duodenum. Bile is a composition of the following materials: water (85%), bile salts (10%), mucus and pigments (3%), fats (1%), inorganic salts (0.7%) and cholesterol (0.3%).

Front 22

what does bile do?

Back 22

Bile acts to some extent as a surfactant, helping to emulsify the fats in the food. Bile salt anions have a hydrophilic side and a hydrophobic side, and therefore tend to aggregate around droplets of fat (triglycerides and phospholipids) to form micelles, with the hydrophobic sides towards the fat and hydrophilic towards the outside. The hydrophilic sides are positively charged due to the lecithin and other phospholipids that compose bile, and this charge prevents fat droplets coated with bile from re-aggregating into larger fat particles.

Front 23

The dispersion of food fat into micelles by bile is useful b/c

Back 23

provides a largely increased surface area for the action of the enzyme pancreatic lipase, which actually digests the triglycerides, and is able to reach the fatty core through gaps between the bile salts.

Hey billy, Get that pancreatic lipase to digest those triges!!!

Front 24

in intestine, a triglyceride is broken down into

Back 24

two fatty acids and a monoglyceride, which are absorbed by the villi on the intestine walls. After being transferred across the intestinal membrane, fatty acids are reformed into triglycerides, then absorbed into the lymphatic system through lacteals. Without bile salts, most of the lipids in the food would be passed out in feces, undigested.

Front 25

Since bile increases the absorption of fats, it is an important part of the absorption of the fat-soluble substances, such as

Back 25

the vitamins D, E, K and A.

Front 26

Besides its digestive function, bile serves also as

Back 26

the route of excretion for bilirubin, a byproduct of red blood cells recycled by the liver. Bilirubin derives from haemoglobin by glucuronidation.
"Hey Billy! Get rid of that rubin!"

Front 27

The alkaline bile also has the function of neutralizing

Back 27

excess stomach acid before it enters the ileum, the final section of the small intestine. Bile salts also act as bactericides, destroying many of the microbes that may be present in the food.

Front 28

hyponatremia ususally occcurs as result of

Back 28

excess body water diluting the serum sodium.
Hyponatremia is most often a complication of other medical illnesses in which excess water accumulates in the body at a higher rate than can be excreted (for example in congestive heart failure, syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone, SIADH, or polydipsia). Sometimes it may be a result of overhydration.

Front 29

COPD

Back 29

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, a common long term effect of smoking

Front 30

In the pre-hospital environment, high flow oxygen is definitively indicated for use in

Back 30

shock, resuscitation, anaphylaxis, major trauma, major haemorrhage, active convulsions and hypothermia.[1][3]

"shock ramma hypo"

Front 31

target levels for oxygen therapy when hypoxaemia present..

Back 31

oxygen flow should be moderated to achieve target oxygen saturation levels, based on pulse oximetry (with a target level of 94–98% in most patients, or 88–92% in COPD patients).

Front 32

high concentration oxygen use: vaso constrictive or vaso dilative?

Back 32

vaso-constrictive effects

Front 33

Negative effects of O2 therapy:

Back 33

*not recommended for patients who have suffered pulmonary fibrosis or other lung damage resulting from bleomycin treatment.
*High levels of oxygen given to infants causes blindness by promoting overgrowth of new blood vessels in the eye obstructing sight. This is retinopathy of prematurity (ROP).

Front 34

additional oxygen given to a patient is dissolved in the plasma according to

Back 34

Henry's Law.

This allows a compensating change to occur and the dissolved oxygen in plasma supports embarrassed (oxygen-starved) neurons, reduces inflammation and post-stroke cerebral edema.

Since 1990, hyperbaric oxygen therapy has been used in the treatments of stroke on a worldwide basis. In rare instances, hyperbaric oxygen therapy patients have had seizures.

However, because of the aforementioned Henry's Law effect of extra available dissolved oxygen to neurons, there is usually no negative sequel to the event. Such seizures are generally a result of oxygen toxicity, although hypoglycemia may be a contributing factor, but the latter risk can be eradicated or reduced by carefully monitoring the patient's nutritional intake prior to oxygen treatment.

Front 35

how many pumps does heart have?

Back 35

double pump

Front 36

what is innermost lining of heart called?

Back 36

endocardium - consists of the endothelial cells forming a smooth membrane

Front 37

muscular tissue of the heart is called

Back 37

myocardium. The myocardium is composed of specialized cardiac muscle cells with an ability not possessed by muscle tissue elsewhere in the body. Cardiac muscle, like other muscles, can contract, but it can also conduct electricity, like nerves.

Front 38

The blood to the myocardium is supplied by

Back 38

the coronary arteries

Front 39

how do atria and ventricles differ?

Back 39

The atria are smaller with thin walls, while the ventricles are larger and much stronger.

Front 40

Atria facilitate circulation primarily by

Back 40

allowing uninterrupted venous flow to the heart, preventing the inertia of interrupted venous flow that would otherwise occur at each ventricular systole.

Front 41

Ventricles have thicker walls than the atria, and thus can

Back 41

create the higher blood pressure.

Front 42

Comparing the left and right ventricle

Back 42

the left ventricle has thicker walls because it needs to pump blood to the whole body

Front 43

the thick wall separating the lower chambers (the ventricles) of the heart from one another

Back 43

The interventricular septum (ventricular septum, or during development septum inferius)

Front 44

vestibule

Back 44

1.An antechamber, hall, or lobby next to the outer door of a building.
2.An enclosed entrance compartment in a railroad car.

Front 45

the upper and posterior part of the interventricular septum

Back 45

is termed the membranous ventricular septum, and it separates the aortic vestibule from the lower part of the right atrium and upper part of the right ventricle. It is thin and fibrous.

Front 46

AV valves

Back 46

one-way valves that ensure that blood flows from the atria to the ventricles, and not the other way

Front 47

SL valves

Back 47

The two semilunar (SL) valves are present in the arteries leaving the heart; they prevent blood from flowing back into the ventricles. The sound heard in a heart beat is the heart valves shutting.

Front 48

right AV valve is also called

Back 48

tricuspid valve

Front 49

during diastole, the tricuspid valve...

Back 49

allows blood to flow from the right atrium into the right ventricle (heart is relaxed during this time period)

Front 50

when the heart begins to contract, it enters

Back 50

sistole

Front 51

hypoxemia

Back 51

Hypoxemia (or hypoxaemia):deficiency of oxygen in arterial blood
*Standard manuals take this to mean an abnormally low partial pressure of O2 (mm Hg), content of oxygen (ml oxygen per dl blood) or percent saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen, either found singly or in combination.

One simple rule is that hypoxemia becomes very serious when the decreased partial pressure of oxygen in blood is less than 60 mm Hg, because that point is the beginning of the steep portion of the hemoglobin dissociation curve, where a small decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen results in a large decrease in the oxygen content of the blood.[3] or when hemoglobin oxygen saturation is less than 90%.

Front 52

pulse oximetry

Back 52

a non-invasive method allowing the monitoring of the oxygenation of a patient's hemoglobin.

Front 53

hypoxia

Back 53

Hypoxia, or hypoxiation, is a pathological condition in which the body as a whole (generalized hypoxia) or a region of the body (tissue hypoxia) is deprived of adequate oxygen supply.

Front 54

anoxia

Back 54

Hypoxia in which there is complete deprivation of oxygen supply

Front 55

AMS

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altered mental status

Front 56

DA serum

Back 56

drugs of abuse test

Front 57

How does an oximeter work?

Back 57

A source of light originates from the probe at two wavelengths (650nm and 805nm). The light is partly absorbed by haemoglobin, by amounts which differ depending on whether it is saturated or desaturated with oxygen. By calculating the absorption at the two wavelengths the processor can compute the proportion of haemoglobin which is oxygenated. The oximeter is dependant on a pulsatile flow and produces a graph of the quality of flow. Where flow is sluggish (eg hypovolaemia or vasoconstriction) the pulse oximeter may be unable to function. The computer within the oximeter is capable of distinguishing pulsatile flow from other more static signals (such as tissue or venous signals) to display only the arterial flow.

Front 58

hypovolaemia

Back 58

a state of decreased blood volume; more specifically, decrease in volume of blood plasma.[1][2] It is thus the intravascular component of volume contraction (or loss of blood volume due to things such as hemorrhaging or dehydration), but, as it also is the most essential one, hypovolemia and volume contraction are sometimes used synonymously.

Front 59

how does hypovolaemia differ from dehydration?

Back 59

Hypovolemia is characterized by salt (sodium) depletion, while dehydration is defined as excessive loss of body water

Front 60

pulse oximeter alarm goes off in response to

Back 60

a slow or fast pulse rate or an oxygen saturation below 90%. At this level there is a marked fall in PaO2 representing serious hypoxia

Front 61

pulse oximeter readings may not be accurate when -

Back 61

A reduction in peripheral pulsatile blood flow produced by peripheral vasoconstriction (hypovolaemia, severe hypotension, cold, cardiac failure, some cardiac arrhythmias) or peripheral vascular disease. These result in an inadequate signal for analysis.

Venous congestion, particularly when caused by tricuspid regurgitation, may produce venous pulsations which may produce low readings with ear probes. Venous congestion of the limb may affect readings as can a badly positioned probe. When readings are lower than expected it is worth repositioning the probe. In general, however, if the waveform on the flow trace is good, then the reading will be accurate.

Bright overhead lights in theatre may cause the oximeter to be inaccurate, and the signal may be interrupted by surgical diathermy. Shivering may cause difficulties in picking up an adequate signal.

Pulse oximetry cannot distinguish between different forms of haemoglobin. Carbo-xyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin combined with carbon monoxide) is registered as 90% oxygenated haemoglobin and 10% desaturated haemoglobin - therefore the oximeter will overestimate the saturation. The presence of methaemoglobin will prevent the oximeter working accurately and the readings will tend towards 85%, regardless of the true saturation.

When methylene blue is used in surgery to the parathyroids or to treat methaemoglobinaemia a shortlived reduction in saturation estimations is registered.

Nail varnish may cause falsely low readings. However the units are not affected by jaundice, dark skin or anaemia.

Front 62

what is abnormally low blood pressure called?

Back 62

hypotension

Front 63

surgical diathermy

Back 63

The use of electrocautery for coagulation or cauterization, as for sealing a blood vessel, resulting in local tissue destruction.

Front 64

biliary atresia

Back 64

blockage in tubes (ducts) that carry bile from liver to gallbladder. The condition is congenital, which means it is present from birth.

Front 65

oxygen saturation should always be above

Back 65

95%

Front 66

oxygen saturation readings will be lower when

Back 66

patients have long standing respiratory disease or have cyanotic congenital heart disease .. in which case readings will reflect severity of disease

Front 67

can oximeters detect problems before they are noticed clinically?

Back 67

yes - especially in ICU. In some hospitals oximeters are used on the wards and in casualty departments. When patients are sedated for procedures such as endoscopy, oximetry has been shown to increase safety by alerting the staff to unexpected hypoxia.

Front 68

SIADH

Back 68

The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH) is characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH or vasopressin) from the posterior pituitary gland or another source. The result is hyponatremia and sometimes fluid overload. It is usually found in patients diagnosed with pneumonia, brain tumors, head trauma, strokes, meningitis, encephalitis, or small-cell carcinoma of the lung.

Front 69

function of Vasopressin (or ADH)

Back 69

Arginine vasopressin (AVP), also known as vasopressin, argipressin or antidiuretic hormone (ADH), is responsible for increasing water absorption in the collecting ducts of the kidney nephron.[1] Vasopressin increases water permeability of kidney collecting duct by inducing translocation of aquaporin-CD water channels in the kidney nephron collecting duct plasma membrane.

Front 70

More about vasopressin

Back 70

-it is a peptide hormone that controls the reabsorption of molecules in the tubules of the kidneys by affecting the tissue's permeability.

-It increases peripheral vascular resistance, which in turn increases arterial blood pressure.

-It plays a key role in homeostasis, by the regulation of water, glucose, and salts in the blood.

-It is derived from a preprohormone precursor that is synthesized in the hypothalamus and stored in vesicles at the posterior pituitary. Most of it is stored in the posterior pituitary to be released into the bloodstream; however, some AVP is also released directly into the brain, where it plays an important role in social behavior and bonding.

Front 71

ADH or vasopressin

Back 71

One of the most important roles of AVP is to regulate the body's retention of water; it is released when the body is dehydrated and causes the kidneys to conserve water, thus concentrating the urine and reducing urine volume. At high concentrations, it also raises blood pressure by inducing moderate vasoconstriction. In addition, it has a variety of neurological effects on the brain, having been found, for example, to influence pair-bonding in voles. The high-density distributions of vasopressin receptor AVPr1a in prairie vole ventral forebrain regions have been shown to facilitate and coordinate reward circuits during partner preference formation, critical for pair bond formation.[3]

Front 72

heart attack also known as

Back 72

MI myocardial infarction
or AMI- acute myocardial infarction

Front 73

MI results from

Back 73

interruption of blood supply to a part of the heart, causing heart cells to die.

Front 74

most common cause of MI

Back 74

occlusion (blockage) of a coronary artery following the rupture of a vulnerable atherosclerotic plaque

Front 75

Classical symptoms of acute myocardial infarction

Back 75

sudden chest pain (typically radiating to the left arm or left side of the neck), shortness of breath, nausea, vomiting, palpitations, sweating, and anxiety (often described as a sense of impending doom). Women may experience fewer typical symptoms than men, most commonly shortness of breath, weakness, a feeling of indigestion, and fatigue.[2] A sizeable proportion of myocardial infarctions (22 - 64%)[3] are "silent", that is without chest pain or other symptoms.

Front 76

diagnostic tests available to detect heart muscle damage

Back 76

Among the diagnostic tests available to detect heart muscle damage are an electrocardiogram (ECG), echocardiography, cardiac MRI and various blood tests. The most often used blood markers are the creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) fraction and the troponin levels. Immediate treatment for suspected acute myocardial infarction includes oxygen, aspirin, and sublingual nitroglycerin.[4]

Creatine kinase (CK), also known as creatine phosphokinase (CPK) or phospho-creatine kinase (and sometimes incorrectly as creatinine kinase), is an enzyme (EC 2.7.3.2) expressed by various tissues and cell types. CK catalyses the conversion of creatine and consumes adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to create phosphocreatine (PCr) and adenosine diphosphate (ADP). This CK enzyme reaction is reversible, such that also ATP can be generated from PCr and ADP.

In tissues and cells that consume ATP rapidly, especially skeletal muscle, but also brain, photoreceptor cells of the retina, hair cells of the inner ear, spermatozoa and smooth muscle, PCr serves as an energy reservoir for the rapid buffering and regeneration of ATP in situ, as well as for intracellular energy transport by the PCr shuttle or circuit.[3] Thus creatine kinase is an important enzyme in such tissues.[4]

Clinically, creatine kinase is assayed in blood tests as a marker of myocardial infarction (heart attack), rhabdomyolysis (severe muscle breakdown), muscular dystrophy, the autoimmune myositides and in acute renal failure.

Front 77

STEMI

Back 77

A pre-hospital 12-lead ECG test is a key component to the early diagnosis of a heart attack. When someone is having a STEMI, the patient is experiencing ST-segment elevation on the pre-hospital 12-lead ECG. This ST-segment elevation is an indicator that your heart has a blockage preventing blood to circulate in one of the heart’s main arteries. Without opening the blockage as quickly as possible, the heart can’t receive the appropriate oxygen supply from the blood, causing damage to the heart muscle.
The American Heart Association recommends that STEMI patients receive “door to balloon” care in less than 90 minutes. STEMI patients should be in the cardiac catheterization lab, and have their blocked artery open within 90 minutes after arrival.

Front 78

Erythrocytes (red blood cells) generated in the bone marrow are disposed of in the

Back 78

spleen when they get old or damaged

Front 79

When old or damaged blood cells are disposed of in the spleen this is released...

Back 79

hemoglobin

Front 80

Heme is broken down into

Back 80

heme and globin parts

Front 81

The globin parts of hemoglobin are broken down further into...

Back 81

amino acids

Front 82

After hemoglobin is broken down (upon disposal of old/damaged RBC's) the heme part is turned into

Back 82

unconjugated bilirubin

Front 83

Where is unconjugated bilirubin formed?

Back 83

in the reticuloendothelial cells of the spleen.

Front 84

Is unconjugated bilirubin lipid or water soluble? why?

Back 84

unconjugated bilirubin is not water soluble b/c of intramolecular hydrogen bonding.

Front 85

what happens to unconjugated bilirubin go after it leaves the spleen?

Back 85

bilirubin and albumin become friends...
It is bound to albumin and sent to the liver.

Front 86

Unconjugated bilirubin will react with what acid to form

Back 86

Diazosulfanilic acid

Front 87

spleen is considered part of what system?

Back 87

lymphatic.
It is also integral part of immune system.

Front 88

spleen is located where?

Back 88

upper left part of the abdomen, just below the diaphragm and behind the stomach. It is a small organ, not larger than the size of a fist. The human spleen is a soft organ, which is dark purple in color.

Front 89

tissues of spleen can be classified into two types

Back 89

white pulp and red pulp

Front 90

spleen produces these cells

Back 90

lymphocytes (type of WBC)

Front 91

red part of spleen is involved with

Back 91

1. filtration activities - i.e. removing the old or damaged RBC's from the body.
2. acting as a reservoir of blood to be supplied in time of emergencies like hemorrhagic shock or excess loss of blood due to cuts or injury.
3. stores monocytes, which is a type of leukocytes that help engulfing and digesting bacteria and other harmful microorganisms.

Front 92

RBC's are broken down by

Back 92

macrophages, which are a type of phagocytes. Macrophages not only engulf and digest the red blood cells, but other invading microorganisms and debris as well.

Front 93

Spleen preserves what part of the RBC's that the macrophages destroy

Back 93

Iron

Front 94

Iron is stored in the spleen as

Back 94

bilirubin and ferritin -

Front 95

Iron that is preserved as bilirubin and ferritin in the spleen is transported to the.... which is the main site for making Hemoglobin

Back 95

bone marrow

Front 96

colon

Back 96

large intestine

Front 97

bleomycin is tx for...

Back 97

Bleomycin injection is used alone or in combination with other medications to treat head and neck cancer (including cancer of the mouth, lip, cheek, tongue, palate, throat, tonsils, and sinuses) and cancer of the penis, testicles, cervix, and vulva (the outer part of the vagina). Bleomycin is also used to treat Hodgkin's lymphoma (Hodgkin's disease) and non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (cancer that begins in the cells of the immune system) in combination with other medications. It is also used to treat pleural effusions (a condition when fluid collects in the lungs) that are caused by cancerous tumors. Bleomycin is a type of antibiotic that is only used in cancer chemotherapy. It slows or stops the growth of cancer cells in your body.

Front 98

how it bleomycin used?

Back 98

Bleomycin comes as a powder to be mixed with liquid and injected intravenously (into a vein), intramuscularly (into a muscle), or subcutaneously (under the skin) by a doctor or nurse in a medical office or hospital outpatient department. It is usually injected once or twice a week. When bleomycin is used to treat pleural effusions, it is mixed with liquid and placed in the chest cavity through a chest tube (plastic tube that is placed in the chest cavity through a cut in the skin).

Front 99

pulmonary fibrosis

Back 99

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is scarring or thickening of the lungs without a known cause. No one knows what causes pulmonary fibrosis or why some people get it. It causes the lungs to become scarred and stiffened. This stiffening may make it increasingly difficult to breathe. In some people the disease gets worse quickly (over months to a few years), but other people have little worsening of the disease over time.

The condition is believed to result from an inflammatory response to an unknown substance. "Idiopathic" means no cause can be found. The disease occurs most often in people between 50 and 70 years old.

Front 100

atherosclerotic plaque

Back 100

an unstable collection of lipids (cholesterol and fatty acids) and white blood cells (especially macrophages) in the wall of an artery. The resulting ischemia (restriction in blood supply) and ensuing oxygen shortage, if left untreated for a sufficient period of time, can cause damage or death (infarction) of heart muscle tissue (myocardium).

"Oh no! YOu're agonig to have an MI if that atherosclerotic plaque bursts! It's made of lipids (cholesterol and fatty acids - both bad!) and white blood cells (mostly macrophages)!! didn't you know that?"

Front 101

chlorhexidine

Back 101

a chemical antiseptic.[1] It is effective on both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, although it is less effective with some Gram-negative bacteria.[2] It has both bactericidal and bacteriostatic mechanisms of action, the mechanism of action being membrane disruption, not ATPase inactivation as previously thought.[3] It is also useful against fungi and enveloped viruses, though this has not been extensively investigated. Chlorhexidine is harmful in high concentrations, but is used safely in low concentrations in many products, such as mouthwash and contact lens solutions.

used to prevent pneumonia in ventilator patients

Front 102

Aortic vestibule

Back 102

The portion of the left ventricle immediately inferior to the aortic orifice is termed the aortic vestibule, and possesses fibrous instead of muscular walls.

Front 103

Pleural effusion

Back 103

is excess fluid that accumulates between the two pleural layers, the fluid-filled space that surrounds the lungs. Excessive amounts of such fluid can impair breathing by limiting the expansion of the lungs during ventilation.

Front 104

Meta-analysis

Back 104

a meta-analysis refers to methods focused on contrasting and combining results from different studies, in the hope of identifying patterns among study results, sources of disagreement among those results, or other interesting relationships that may come to light in the context of multiple studies.[1] In its simplest form, this is normally by identification of a common measure of effect size, of which a weighted average might be the output of a meta-analysis. The weighting might be related to sample sizes within the individual studies. More generally there are other differences between the studies that need to be allowed for, but the general aim of a meta-analysis is to more powerfully estimate the true effect size as opposed to a less precise effect size derived in a single study under a given single set of assumptions and conditions.

Front 105

coarctation

Back 105

The term coarctation is a synonym for stenosis,[4] but is commonly used only in the context of aortic coarctation.

Front 106

Partition coefficient

Back 106

a partition- (P) or distribution -(D) coefficient is the ratio of concentrations of a compound in a mixture of two immiscible phases at equilibrium. Hence these coefficients are a measure of the difference in solubility of the compound in these two phases.

Front 107

Partition coefficient

Back 107

In the chemical and pharmaceutical sciences, the two phases are often restricted to mean two immiscible solvents. In this context, a partition coefficient is the ratio of concentrations of a compound in the two phases of a mixture of two immiscible liquids at equilibrium.[

Front 108

Partition coefficient: Normally one of the solvents chosen is water while the second is hydrophobic such as ____________.

Back 108

octanol

Front 109

both the partition and distribution coefficient are measures of how hydrophilic ("water-loving") or _____________________a chemical substance is.

Back 109

hydrophobic ("water-fearing")

Front 110

In medical practice, partition coefficients are useful for example in estimating _________________ within the body.

Back 110

distribution of drugs

Front 111

Hydrophobic drugs with high octanol/water partition coefficients are preferentially distributed to hydrophobic compartments such as lipid bilayers of cells while hydrophilic drugs (low octanol/water partition coefficients) preferentially are found in hydrophilic compartments such as _____________________

Back 111

blood serum.

Front 112

If one of the solvents is a gas and the other a liquid, the "gas/liquid partition coefficient" is the same as the dimensionless form of the Henry's law constant. For example, the blood/gas partition coefficient of a general anesthetic measures how _____________________... Partition coefficients can also be used when one or both solvents is a solid (see solid solution).

Back 112

easily the anesthetic passes from gas to blood.

Front 113

The phrase "partition coefficient" is now considered obsolete by IUPAC, and "_______________", "partition ratio", or "distribution ratio" are all more appropriate terms that should be used.[3]

Back 113

partition constant

Front 114

GatingVoltage-gated sodium channels have three types of states: _____________ (closed), _______________(open), and ________________(closed). Channels in the deactivated state are thought to be blocked on their intracellular side by an "activation gate", which is removed in response to stimulation that opens the channel.

Back 114

deactivated
activated
inactivated

Front 115

Therapeutic index

Back 115

The therapeutic index (also known as therapeutic ratio) is a comparison of the amount of a therapeutic agent that causes the therapeutic effect to the amount that causes death (in animal studies) or toxicity (in human studies).[1]

Front 116

Therapeutic index
In animal studies, the therapeutic index is the ______________50% of the population (LD50) divided by the minimum effective dose for 50% of the population (ED50).

Lethality is not determined in human clinical trials; instead, the dose that produces a toxicity in 50% of the population __________ is used to calculate the therapeutic index.

Back 116

lethal dose of a drug for
(TD50)

Front 117

Vasodilation refers to the widening of blood vessels resulting from relaxation of smooth muscle cells within the ____________, particularly in the large veins, large _____________, and smaller arterioles. The process is essentially the opposite of vasoconstriction, which is the narrowing of blood vessels.

Back 117

vessel walls
arteries

Front 118

When blood vessels dilate, the flow of blood is increased due to a decrease in _____________.

Back 118

vascular resistance

Front 119

The dilation of arterial blood vessels (mainly the arterioles) causes a decrease in ________________.

Back 119

BP

Front 120

The dilation of arterial blood vessels (mainly the arterioles) causes a decrease in blood pressure. The response may be intrinsic (______________) or extrinsic (_____________).

Back 120

due to local processes in the surrounding tissue

due to hormones or the nervous system

Front 121

When blood vessels dilate, the flow of blood is increased due to a decrease in vascular resistance. Therefore, dilation of arterial blood vessels (mainly the arterioles) causes a decrease in blood pressure. The response may be intrinsic (due to local processes in the surrounding tissue) or extrinsic (due to hormones or the nervous system). Additionally, the response may be localized to a specific organ (depending on the metabolic needs of a particular tissue, as during strenuous exercise), or it may be _________________ (seen throughout the entire systemic circulation).

Back 121

systemic

Front 122

The primary function of vasodilation is to increase blood flow in the body to tissues that need it most. This is often in response to a localized need of ________, but can occur when the tissue in question is not receiving enough _________ or lipids or other nutrients.

Back 122

oxygen
glucose

Front 123

Localized tissues utilize multiple ways to increase blood flow including releasing vasodilators, primarily ________________, into the local _________________ which diffuses to capillary beds provoking local vasodilation. Some physiologists have suggested it is the lack of oxygen itself which causes capillary beds to vasodilate by the smooth muscle hypoxia of the vessels in the region. This latter hypothesis is posited due to the presence of precapillary sphincters in capillary beds. Neither of these approaches to the mechanism of vasodilation is mutually exclusive of the other.

Back 123

adenosine
instersitial fluid

Front 124

Vasodilation directly affects the relationship between mean arterial pressure, cardiac output and __________________.

Back 124

total peripheral resistance (TPR).

Front 125

Vasodilation works to decrease TPR and blood pressure through relaxation of smooth muscle cells in the _______________ layer of large arteries and smaller arterioles.

Back 125

tunica media

Front 126

Vasodilation is the result of relaxation in smooth muscle surrounding the blood vessels. This relaxation, in turn, relies on removing the stimulus for contraction, which depends on intracellular calcium ion concentrations and, consequently, phosphorylation of the light chain of the contractile protein myosin. Thus, vasodilation mainly works either by lowering ____________________concentration or the ____________________ of myosin.

Back 126

intracellular calcium
dephosphorylation

Front 127

Why does only arterial vasodilation cause tachycardia?

Back 127

The body has a normal tachycardic response to arterial vasodilation. This is to ensure that there is no fall in blood pressure when the arteries are dilated. So, the tachycardia actually increases cardiac output when there is arterial vasodilation to achieve the same blood pressure.

As for veins, they are capacitance vessels. What that means is, they have the ability to dilate and store a larger amount of blood in comparison to the muscular arteries. Dilation of veins has no great effect on blood pressure, although in cases of dehydration or pronounced venodilation, there may be a reduction in pre-load to the heart and then a drop in cardiac output causing a subsequent drop in BP.

Front 128

Why does only arterial vasodilation cause tachycardia?

Back 128

Just a brief answer, you'll have to look up the exact pathways:

Vasodilation lowers your blood pressure, since there's more space to fit the same amount of blood. This lowering of the blood pressure is detected by baroreceptors located mainly in your carotid sinus (at the bifurcation of your carotid artery). The baroreceptors send impulses along your glossopharyngeal nerve to your brainstem, which in turn sends impulses to your sino atrial node to speed up your heart rate (sympathetic activation). This is a neural reflex. By increasing your heart rate, your cardiac output and blood pressure are increased and this compensates for the initial low blood pressure.

As for the question that's not your title... you can't dilate veins. And even if you could, it would not prevent tachycardia, it would do quite the opposite.