Rad 119 Pathology Ch 7 & 8

Front 1

the innermost layer of the heart is a smooth delicate membrane called the

Back 1

endocardium

Front 2

is the specialized muscle layer

Back 2

myocardium

Front 3

is the outermost layer

Back 3

epicardium

Front 4

is the sac that surrounds the heart

Back 4

pericardium

Front 5

controls the heart rate

Back 5

autonomic nervous system

Front 6

controls the release of epinephrine in times of stress to provide increased heart rate and force of contractions

Back 6

sympathetic nervous system

Front 7

is released in response to the sympathetic nervous system, which controls our "fight or flight" responses

Back 7

epinephrine

Front 8

is also known as the mitral or bicuspid valve

Back 8

left AV valve

Front 9

the tricuspid valve is known as the

Back 9

right AV valve

Front 10

anchor the papillary muscles, which attach to the cusps of the valves

Back 10

chordae tendineae

Front 11

is the partition that separates the chambers on the right and left sides of the heart

Back 11

septum

Front 12

____ muscles attach to AV valve cusps

Back 12

papillary

Front 13

is the muscle layer of the heart

Back 13

myocardium

Front 14

is the delicate inner layer of the heart

Back 14

endocardium

Front 15

is also known as the right AV valve

Back 15

tricuspid valve

Front 16

empty into the right atruim to begin pulmonary circulation

Back 16

superior and inferior vena cava

Front 17

the right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood into the

Back 17

pulmonary artery

Front 18

transports the blood to the lungs for oxygenation

Back 18

pulmonary artery

Front 19

the pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the

Back 19

left atrium

Front 20

the pulmonary arteries transport _____ blood from the _____ to the _____

Back 20

deoxygenated, heart, lungs

Front 21

the pulmonary veins return _____ blood from the _____ to the _____

Back 21

oxygenated, lungs, heart

Front 22

the relaxed, filling phase of the heart is

Back 22

diastole

Front 23

is the term applied to the contraction phase

Back 23

systole

Front 24

systole is the _____ phase of the heartbeat cycle

Back 24

systole

Front 25

initiates the heartbeat and rhythm, also called the pacemaker of the heart

Back 25

SA node

Front 26

the heartbeat is initiated at the ___ ___, passes to the ____ ____, then to the ____ ____ ____ , and finally to the terminal _____ _____

Back 26

SA node, AV node, Bundle of his, Purkinje fibers

Front 27

is a well-lubricated, double walled membranous sac that surrounds the heart and protects it against friction and allows free movement of the heart during contraction

Back 27

pericardium

Front 28

is the double walled membranous sac that protects against friction and permits the heart to move freely during contraction

Back 28

pericardium

Front 29

are the most common type of left-to-right shunt and allow free communication b/w the left and right atria

Back 29

atrail septal defects

Front 30

shunts blood from the higher pressure in the left atrium to the lower pressure in the right atrium

Back 30

atrial septal defect

Front 31

this creats a backup of pulmonary blood flow and increases the chambers on the right side of the heart

Back 31

atrial septall defect

Front 32

is a normal part of fetal circulation that should close shortly after birth

Back 32

ductus arteriosus

Front 33

the ductus arteriosus bypasses the

Back 33

pulmonary circulation circuit

Front 34

all left-to-right shunts can be complicated by the development of

Back 34

pulmonary hypertension

Front 35

pulmonary hypertension is caused by increased

Back 35

vascular resistance within the pulmonary arteries

Front 36

is the most definitive, but also the most invasive, modality for demo. of the heart chambers

Back 36

angiography

Front 37

is a constriction of the aorta at the distal arch

Back 37

coarctation of the aorta

Front 38

can be seen on cxr of patients with coarctation of the aorta

Back 38

rib notching

Front 39

is a result of the increased pressure in the intercostal arteries

Back 39

rib notching on patients with coarctation of the aorta

Front 40

is an acquired disease in which the lumens of the coronary arteries are narrowed, thus decreasing the oxygen delivered to the myocardium

Back 40

coronary artery disease

Front 41

is the accumulation of fatty material on the inner lining of the artery

Back 41

atherosclerosis

Front 42

is a dramatic narrowing of the aorta

Back 42

coarctation

Front 43

is pulmonary hypertension related to congenital cardiac defects

Back 43

Eisenmenger's syndrome

Front 44

is a death of myocardial cells caused by a lack of blood supply

Back 44

myocardial infarction

Front 45

generally the coronary arteries are stenotic from

Back 45

atherosclerotic plaque

Front 46

all of the conditions listed can cause ____ and an ______ _____ ______

Back 46

CHF, intrinsic cardiac abnormality

Front 47

is the abnormal accumulation of fluid in the extravascular pulmonary tissues

Back 47

pulmonary edema

Front 48

it is usually caused by an increase in pulmonary venous pressure as a result of left-sided heart failure

Back 48

pulmonary edema

Front 49

all of these may cause pulmonary edema (8)

Back 49

lymphatic blockage, lymphatic metastatic disease, uremia, exposure to noxious fumes, excessive oxygen, fat embolism, high altitudes, and various neurologic abnormalities

Front 50

is the leading cause of strokes and CHF

Back 50

hypertension

Front 51

a localized dilatation of an artery defines

Back 51

aneurysm

Front 52

cause bulging in the entire circumference of the vessel

Back 52

fusiforrn aneurysms

Front 53

is a potentially fataal complication of closed chest trauma

Back 53

traumatic rupture of the aorta

Front 54

in most cases in the rupture of the aorta the tear occurs just distal to the _____ ____ _______ at the site of the _______ _______

Back 54

left subclavian artery, ductus arteriosus

Front 55

is an intravascular clot that forms in places where blood flow is slowed or where the vessel wall is damaged

Back 55

thrombus

Front 56

the heart valves that almost always suffer major damage from rheumatic fever, is usually the

Back 56

mitral and aortic valves

Front 57

is a narrowing of the opening, and insufficiency allows blood to regurgitate when the valve cusps are supposed to be closed

Back 57

stenosis

Front 58

echocardiography is the most sensitive and specific noninvasive method for evaluating

Back 58

mitral valve stenosis

Front 59

is most commonly caused by rheumatic fever

Back 59

aortic valve insufficiency

Front 60

aortic valve insufficiency can also be caused by

Back 60

syphilis, infective endocarditis, and Marfan syndrome

Front 61

is a disease in which the growth of vegetation on the heart valves is the result of bacteria or fungi

Back 61

infective endocarditis

Front 62

the vegetations can break apart and are filled with _____, creating ____ _____ that can lodge in other parts of the body

Back 62

bacteria, septic emboli

Front 63

is an accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac

Back 63

pericardial effusion

Front 64

the serous membrane surrounging the heart

Back 64

pericardial sac

Front 65

are dilated, tortuous, superficial veins of the lower legs

Back 65

varicose veins

Front 66

is the modality of choice for the diagnosis of DVT since it is noninvasive and has a 95% accuracy

Back 66

color-flow doppler ultrasound

Front 67

is a prefix that means 4

Back 67

tetra

Front 68

is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease

Back 68

tetralogy of Fallot

Front 69

tetralogy of fallot is a congenital condition that consists of 4 abnormalities

Back 69

high ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, overriding of the aortic orifice, right ventricular hypertrophy

Front 70

is the most common left-to-right shunt disorder

Back 70

atrial septal defect

Front 71

is a characteristic of coarctation caused by the pressure exerted by the increased blood flow through the costal arteries

Back 71

rib notching

Front 72

are weakness in the entire circumference of the arterial wall

Back 72

fusiform aneurysms

Front 73

are localized bulges in an artery

Back 73

saccular aneurysms

Front 74

is an intravascular clot, which can give rise to an embolism

Back 74

thrombus

Front 75

is a primary source of pulmonary embolism

Back 75

DVT

Front 76

refers to the backward flow of blood through a valve that is suppose to be closed

Back 76

regurgitation

Front 77

the backward flow of regurgitation is due to an opening that is

Back 77

too large or from valves that cannot close properly

Front 78

rheumatic fever is a primary cause of _____ _____, especially on the _____ and _____ valves

Back 78

valvular disease, mitral and aortic valves

Front 79

is the largest portion of the brain

Back 79

cerebrum

Front 80

the meninges are made of ____ layers

Back 80

3

Front 81

the 3 layers of the meninges are

Back 81

the dura mater (outer), arachnoid (middle), and pia mater (inner)

Front 82

is a viral infection of the brain and meninges

Back 82

encephalitis

Front 83

encephalitis is caused by the

Back 83

herpes simplex virus

Front 84

can spread to the brain and cause empyemas or abscesses

Back 84

sinus infections

Front 85

is the best imaging modality for detection and evaluation of brain tumors

Back 85

MRI

Front 86

modality that is best for trauma to the head

Back 86

CT

Front 87

the most common type of primary brain tumor is a

Back 87

glioma

Front 88

are the most frequently fractured facial bones

Back 88

nasal bones

Front 89

skull radiography cannot indicate the extent of injury to the brain in

Back 89

trauma - CT is necessary

Front 90

as a result of its ring like structure, _____ _____ are common in the mandible

Back 90

bilateral fractures

Front 91

the brain and spinal cord make up the

Back 91

central nervous system (CNS)

Front 92

the peripheral nervous system (PNS) consists of

Back 92

remaining neural structures, 12 pairs of cranial nerves, 31 pairs of spinal nerves, autonomic nerves, & ganglia

Front 93

the 12 pairs of cranial nerves are part of the

Back 93

peripheral nervous system

Front 94

the spinal cord is part of the

Back 94

CNS

Front 95

the spinal nerves and autonomic nerves are part of the

Back 95

peripheral nervous system

Front 96

supplies the striated skeletal muscles

Back 96

somatic nervous system

Front 97

supplies the smooth muscles and other structures

Back 97

autonomic nervous system

Front 98

the nerve that does not exist

Back 98

meningeal cranial nerve

Front 99

provides motor function for the tongue

Back 99

hypoglossal nerve

Front 100

is a sensory nerve from the mucous membranes of the nose

Back 100

olfactory

Front 101

provides sensory and motor functions for the pharynx, larynx, heart, and thoracic and abdominal viscera

Back 101

vagus nerve

Front 102

is the basic unit of the nervous system

Back 102

neuron

Front 103

is a type of brain tumor

Back 103

glioma

Front 104

separates the 2 halves of the cerebrum

Back 104

corpus callosum

Front 105

is the fatty insulation layer covering the axons

Back 105

myelin sheath

Front 106

a characteristic abnormality of multiple sclerosis is

Back 106

deterioration of the myelin sheath

Front 107

is the larges portion of the brain

Back 107

crebrum

Front 108

the brainstem lies b/w the

Back 108

cerebrum and the spinal cord

Front 109

the cerebellum is located below the

Back 109

posterior cerebrum

Front 110

are islands of gray matter deep within the white matter of the cerebrum

Back 110

basal ganglia

Front 111

the diencephalon is located b/w the

Back 111

cerebrum and the midbrain

Front 112

the pons and medulla make up the

Back 112

midbrain

Front 113

the choroid plexus is located within the

Back 113

ventricles

Front 114

functions as a relay station that receives sensory impulses before sending them to the crebral cortex

Back 114

thalamus

Front 115

____ acts with the _____ ____ to coordinate skeletal muscles to maintain equilibrium and balance, making movements smooth and steady, rather than jerky and trembling

Back 115

cerebellum, cerebral cortex

Front 116

is the tough, outermost covering of the CNS

Back 116

dura mater

Front 117

is an extension of the dura mater that projects downward into the longitudinal fissure to separate the cerebral hemispheres

Back 117

falx cerebri

Front 118

_____ and _____ are other extensions of the dura mater that function to separate and protect portions of the cerebellum

Back 118

tentorium and falx cerebelli

Front 119

the ventricles of the brain are filled with

Back 119

cerebrospinal fluid

Front 120

the presense of blood in the ventricles is abnormal, caused by

Back 120

trauma or cerebrovascular accident (stroke),& increases intracranial pressure, thus compressing brain tissues

Front 121

are networks of capillaries in the ventricles that form CSF from filtering the plasma of the blood

Back 121

choroid plexuses

Front 122

the meninges are the ______ layer of protection for the ____

Back 122

inner, CNS

Front 123

is a specialized extension of one layer of the meninges

Back 123

falx cerebri

Front 124

is the specialized spongy middle layer of the skull

Back 124

diploe

Front 125

CSF is absorbed into venous blood by the

Back 125

arachnoid villi

Front 126

the meninges function to protect the

Back 126

CNS

Front 127

the cerebellar hemispheres are separated by a special projection of meninges ____ _____

Back 127

outer layer

Front 128

the choroid plexuses secrete

Back 128

CSF

Front 129

brain abscesses are usually caused by chronic infections in adjacent structures, such as

Back 129

paranasal sinuses, middle ear, mastoid, or systemic infections

Front 130

unusual organisms can cause brain abscesses in persons with

Back 130

HIV

Front 131

the most common cause of a subdural empyema is spread of infection in the

Back 131

frontal or ethmoid sinuses

Front 132

subdural empyema less frequently results from

Back 132

osteomyelitis in the skull

Front 133

herpes simplex virus causes

Back 133

encephalitis

Front 134

make up about 70% of all gliomas

Back 134

astrocytomas

Front 135

is a slow-growing benign tumor that arises from the schwann cells of the 8th cranial nerve

Back 135

acoustic neuroma

Front 136

acoustic neuroma is also called

Back 136

schwannoma

Front 137

metastasis to the brain most commonly comes from primaries in the

Back 137

lung and breast

Front 138

demo. primarily bony fractures and cannot provide information on underlying soft tissue structures

Back 138

radiography

Front 139

_______ is useful in brain imaging but in trauma _____ is faster and reliable

Back 139

MRI, CT

Front 140

usually result from an arterial bleed

Back 140

epidural hematomas

Front 141

are the result of venous bleeding

Back 141

subdural hematomas

Front 142

usually results in a subdural hematoma in the brain

Back 142

venous bleeding

Front 143

arterial bleeding results in an

Back 143

epidural hematoma

Front 144

is when the zygoma is separated from the other facial bones

Back 144

tripod fracture

Front 145

fracture that involves the maxillae

Back 145

Le Fort fracture

Front 146

blow-out fracture is on the

Back 146

orbital rim

Front 147

the SMV projection using a low kVp will demo. the

Back 147

zygomatic arches, w/ the cranium underexposed

Front 148

is defined as paralysis on one side of the body

Back 148

hemiplegia

Front 149

denotes paralysis of the 2 lower limbs

Back 149

paraplegia

Front 150

indicates paralysis of all 4 limbs

Back 150

quadriplegia

Front 151

is defined as a focal neurologic defect that completely resolves w/i 24 hrs

Back 151

TIA

Front 152

is a focal neurologic defect, but of greater magnitude and time frame

Back 152

stroke

Front 153

modiality most commonly used to screen patients with a suspected TIA

Back 153

color-flow doppler ultrasound

Front 154

a major cause of subarachnoid hermorrhage is the rupture of a ____ ____, and what procedure should be used

Back 154

berry aneurysm, noncontrast CT

Front 155

head trauma, hypertensive hemorrhage, berry aneurysm rupture, and AVM are causes of

Back 155

intraparenchymal hemorrhage (A VM are the most common causes)

Front 156

is a condition in which brain impulses are disturbed

Back 156

epilepsy

Front 157

symptoms range from a few seconds of unconsciousness to violent seizures

Back 157

epilepsy

Front 158

CT demo. a pathologic hallmark of atrophy of the caudate nucleus and putamen with focal dilatation of frontal horns in

Back 158

huntington's disease

Front 159

causes widespread selective atrophy and loss of motor nerves that eventually leads to paralysis and death

Back 159

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (AKA Lou Gehrig disease)

Front 160

is pyogenic, and is most commonly caused by Haemophilus influenzae in neonates and young children, & by meningococci and pneumococci in teen & adults

Back 160

bacterial meningitis