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589 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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If you hypodermically inject the end product of a negative feedback system into the body, what effect would it most likely have on the system?
A. No Effect B. Speed it up C. Slow it down or stop it D. It may over a long time cause atrophy of the tissues that synthesize end products E. According to lecture C and D are True |
E. According to lecture C and D are true
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The instructor described "chemical equilibrium" as
A. a system at rest B. A homogenous system with out differences in concentration (no gradient) C. Death in the context of a living system D. All a,b,c are true |
D. All a,b,c are true
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You divide your patients body into 2 parts alone transverse plane through her acromial region. Her inguinal region is in which part of her body?
A. Anterior B. Superior C. Inferior D. Intermediate Level E. Posterior |
C. Inferior
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In the human, the heart is dorsal to the
A. Heels B. Buttocks C. Knees D. Sternum E. Head hair |
D. Sternum
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We listed some general characteristics of a living orgamism not including:
A. Metabolism B. Growth C. Complete stillness D. Reproduction E. Boundaries |
C. Complete Stillness
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Which specific plane divides the body into its natural bilateral symmetry?
A. Frontal B. Transverse C. Midsagittal D. Clavicular E. Lateral |
C. Midsaggital
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In our second example of positive feedback homeostasis, stomach digestion, what turned off the homeostatic system?
A. Chewing B. Oxytocin C. Stretch reflex D. Stomach emptying E. Childbirth |
D. Stomach emptying
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The clavicle is in what relation to the sternum?
A. Intermediate B. Medial C. Anterior D. Proximal E. Lateral |
E. Lateral
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The brachium is in what relation to the hand and shoulder?
A. Superior B. Inferior C Proximal D. Intermediate E. Distal |
D. Intermediate
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From Lecture about how many minutes should we allow for 3 or 4 fun items held in short term memory move into long term memory and become retrievable?
A. 5 B. 10 C 18-20 D. Just one minute |
C. 18-20
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As pme eats food the intestines are in what relation to the stomach in the digestive pathway?
A. Lateral B. Homeostatic C. Distal D. Proximal E. Isotonic |
C. Distal
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Blood has a very narrow pH range which averages out to what pH?
A. 2.5 B. 5.7 C. 6.3 D. 7.4 E. 8.7 |
D. 7.4
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Protein is a polymer of what monomers (individual units)?
A. Sugars B. Fatty acids C. Amino Acids |
C. Amino Acids
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Enzymes are globular proteins and have what function?
A. They are vitamins B. Primary source of energy C. They're decorative D. Accelerate the rate of biochemical reactions E. Provide structural support |
D. Accelerate rate of biochemical reactions
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The coronal plane divides the human into which 2 portions?
A. Superior/Inferior B. Ventral/Dorsal C. Proximal/distal D. Left and right lateral E. Superficial/deep |
B. Ventral/dorsal
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Which of the following would be considered a polysaccharide?
A. Starch B. Glucose C. Fructose D. Glycogen E. Both starch and glycogen |
E. Both starch and glycogen
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What disaccharide consisting of 2 glucoses is common in muscle tissue and sports drinks?
A. Sucrose B. Lactose C. Maltose (like maltodextrins) D. Galactose E. Ribose |
C. Maltose like maltodextrins
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Simple passive diffusion relies upon which of the following?
A. A vivid imagination B. ATP C. A concentration pressure gradient D. Sodium pump E. Water |
C. A concentration pressure gradient
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Triglycerides consist of a glycerol and 3 of which attached molecules?
A. Saccharides B. Amino acids C. Cholesterols D. Nucleic Acids E. Fatty acids |
E. Fatty acids
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Name the right superior portion of the ab wall (overlying the upper lateral liver and lower ribs).
A. Right iliac B. Hypogastric C. Epigastric D. Right hypochondriac E. Left iliac |
D. Right hypochondriac
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When water based solutions are separated by a semipermeable membrane with large nonpenetrating molecules on one side what type of transport results?
A. Na+ pumping B. Endocytosis C.Exocytosis D. Phagocytosis E. Osmosis |
E. Osmosis
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Glycogen is a polymer made up of what kind of subunits?
A. Amino acids B. Sucrose C. Glucose D. Fatty acids |
C Glucose
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The main function of carbohydrates in the body is
A. Structural B. Provide energy C. As enzymes D. As hormones E. They break down poisons in the liver |
B. Provide energy
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Generally a gene's worth of DNA codes specifically for what final molecule which can be structural or do work as an enzyme?
A. One polypeptide (or protein) B. A glycogen C. A triglyceride D. A polysaccharide |
A. one polypeptide (or protein)
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The lecture described a model for understanding membranes which surround the cell and the internal organelles, this model has what descriptive name?
A. egg-shell-like B. Picasso-esque C. Protein coated D. Fluid mosaic E. LaChatliers reversible coating |
D. Fluid Mosaic
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What principle best describes a healthy living system?
A. chemical equilibrium B. Balanced homeostasis C. Entropy D. Oxidation E. Stillness |
B. Balanced homeostasis
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What energy source allows passive diffusion to arrive at equilibrium (sugar dissolving in water)?
A. Gravity B. Atmospheric pressure C. ATP metabolism D. Kinetic energy E. Internal combustion |
D. Kinetic energy
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The cardiodiabetology abstracts note that what condition causes most of the pathology in diabetics?
A. lack of apetite B. lack of rest C. hyperglycemia D Too little protein E. A and D |
C. Hyperglycemia
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What results from persistent hyperglycemia if not resolved?
A. deep sleep B. over use of complex carbs C. increased flexibility D. matriculation E. Advanced glycosylated end products |
E. Advanced glycosylated end products
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In our U-tube diagram water flowed down its diffusion gradient diluting the side with non-penetrating solutes and cause the water level there to rise. Equilibrium resulted when the water's osmotic force was balanced by what other force?
A. Na+ pumping B. Hydrostatic pressure C. Atmospheric pressure |
B. Hydrostatic Pressure
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What force causes water and nutrients to leave the blood (filtration) in the proximal end of a capillary bed?
A. Osmatic pressure (osmosis) B. Exocytosis C. Na+ pumping D, Endocytosis E. Blood Pressure |
E. Blood Pressure
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Where blood pressure is low, water enters blood capillaries (reabsorption) due to what force?
A. High pH B. Osmotic pressure C. Na+ pumping D. Endocytosis E. Matriculation |
B. Osmotic pressure
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The most lateral part of the body in anatomical position is:
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Thumbs
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Which of the following nutrients is the one that most cells throughout the body rely on for energy?
A. protein B. polyunsaturated fats C. Glucose D. Essential amino acids E. Vitamic C |
C. glucose
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Molecules which can't be made within the cell by interconversions and must be provided by diet to sustain life:
A. foodstuffs B. bolus C. condiment D. Proteins E. Essential nutrients |
E. Essential nutrients
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Which of the following is not an essential nutrient for cellular life?
A. Glucose B. Protein C. Oxygen D. Vitamins E. Minerals |
B. Protein
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In human anatomical position the directional word ventral refers to which of these?
A. Anterior B. Toward the front C. Upward D Toward the rear E. Both A and B |
E. Both A and B
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In anatomical position the feet are in what relation to the hips?
A. Superior B. Lateral C. Ventral D. Dorsal E. Inferior |
E. Inferior
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Synthesis and release of sex hormones (estrogen or testosterone) are regulated by which of these?
A. Chemical equilibrium B. Positive feedback homeostasis C. Negative feedback homeostasis |
C Negative feedback homeostasis
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When a physiological system's end product can turn off or inhibit the system, what kind of homeostasis is this?
A. Lateral feedback B. Positive feedback C. Negative feedback D. LaChatlier's Principle |
C. Negative feedback
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In our example of positive feedback homeostasis, labor, what turned off the homeostatic system?
A. Oxytocin B. Hypothalamus stimulation C. Uterine stretch D. Estrogen E. Childbirth |
E. Childbirth
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According to Hilton's law, any nerve that innervates a muscle that produces movement at a joint also innervates:
A. Antagonistic muscles B. That joint and the skin overlying that joint C. All muscles originating distally from that joint D All abdominal organs on the the contralateral side E. Postural muscles of the opposite limb |
B. That joint and the skin overlying that joint
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The radial nerve innervates muscles that extend the wrist. What nerve innervates posterior wrist skin?
A. Musculocutaneous B. Axillary C. Median D. Ulnar E. Radial |
E. Radial
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Which muscle can weakly flex the knee and strongly plantarflex the foot?
A. Gastrocnemius B. Soleus C. Biceps femoris D. Tibialis posterior E. Flexor digitorum longus |
A. Gastrocnemius
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Which nerve innervates posterior compartment leg muscles and the sole of the foot?
A. Occulomotor B. Femoral C. Obturator D. Tibial E. Superficial fibular |
D. Tibial
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Cell bodies of preganglionic sympathetic nerves reside in what CNS gray matter?
A. Motor nuclei of cranial nerves in pons B. Hypothalamus C. Cerebellum D. Lateral horn spinal cord levels T1 to L2 E. Both A and C |
D. Lateral horn spinal cord levels T1 to L2
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In general the sympathetic system provides extra muscle tone for all of the following except
A. Daily exercise B. Sudden emergencies C. Food digestion D. Increased heart beat to increase blood flow requirements E. Increased alertness when moving quickly or more energetically |
C. Food digestion
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The parasympathetic system provides increased muscle tone for all of the following except:
A. Sexual arousal B. Recovery phase of sexual cycle C. Smooth muscle peristalsis D. Constricting pupil of eye E. Sexual climax or orgasm |
E. Sexual climax or orgasm
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Spinal nerves are very short and branch immediately into anterior and posterior rami. The spinal nerves reside where?
A. Vertebral canal B. Transverse foramen C. Intervertebral foramena D. Vertebral foramen |
C. Intervertebral foramena
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The dermatome at the umbilicus is innervated by spinal nerve___, while the nippes are innervated by __
A. T12/T8 B. L2/T6 C. T10/T4 D. T8/C7 E. L1/T7 |
C. T10/T4
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You tap the patellar ligament causing a stretch reflex that increases the tone in what muscle group while inhibiting the muscle tone in what muscle group?
A. Gluteals/thigh adductors B. Hamstrings/quadriceps C. Anterior leg/posterior leg D. Quadriceps/hamstrings E. Lateral thigh rotaters/sartorius and pectineus |
D. Quadriceps/hamstrings
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The patellar ligament tap reflex results in what joint movement?
A. Knee Flexion B. Hip extension C. Foot dorsiflexion D. Hip adduction E. Knee extension |
E. Knee extension
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Stepping on a sharp stone, reflexively lifting the foot and hopping to opposite foot is an example of what reflex?
A. Bob's B. Rooting C. Crossed-extensor D. Golgi tendon reflex E. Stretch Reflex |
C. Crossed-extensor
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What nerve of the cervical plexus innervates some of the infrahyoid muscles?
A. Lateral brachial cord B. Ansa cervicalis C. Axillary nerve D. Parker's ganglia E. Victoria's vincula |
B. Ansa cervicalis
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The brachial plexus's posterior cord ends by branching into the axillary nerve and what other nerve?
A. Median B. Ulnar C. Musculocutaneous D. Radial E. Phrenic |
D. Radial
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Name an insertion of fibularis brevis?
A. Third metatarsal B. First metatarsal C. Calcaneus D. Fibula E. Fifth metatarsal |
E. Fifth metatarsal
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Which nerve of the lumbar and sacram plexuses divides into nerves which serve the muscles of the posterior thigh and ALL of the leg and feet muscles?
A. Obturator B. Femoral C. Deep gluteal D. Sciatic E. Crural |
D. Sciatic
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Spinal Nerves C3,C4,and C5 give rise to what famous nerve that assists with respiration?
A. Vagus B. Ansa cervicalis C. Phrenic D. Frantic E. Subclavian |
C. Phrenic
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The anterior rami of spinal nerves T1 to T12 have branches that can be found where?
A. Axilla of arm B. Mandibular canal C. Along iliac crest D. Inside obturator foramen E. In all rib subcostal grooves |
E. In all rib subcostal grooves
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The area of the skin innervated by a pair of spinal nerves is called
A. cutaneum B. Ganglidermis C. Nucleodermis D. Dermatome E. Ahheavytome |
D. Dermatome
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In the hierarchy of motor control, what is the highest precommand level of all of the circuitry?
A. Cortical projection areas B. Spinal segmental motor controls C. Programs of the cerebellum and basal nuclei (Kobe Bryant and Nastia Liukin software) D. Corpora quadragemini E. The prefrontal lobe |
C. Programs of the cerebellum and basal nuclei
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What famous parasympathetic nerve controls heart rate, breathing rate, stomach, and intestinal perastalsis, gall bladder contraction, and senses blood pressure in the aortic arch?
A. Facial B. Occulomotor C. Glossopharyngeal D. Trigemincal E. Vagus |
E. Vagus
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What is the parasympathetic effect on the salivary glands?
A. Decreased secretion-dry mouth B. Increased secretion-drooling C. Improves taste sensation D. Changes sour to sweet E. Eye strain |
A. decreased secretion-dry mouth
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Which of these muscles would be best at everting the foot?
A. Tibialis anterior B. Fibularis longus C. Popliteus D. Fabularis evertis E. Flexor hallucis longus |
B. Fibularis longus
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What is the parasympathetic effect on the sweat glands during hot weather?
A. Copious sweating B. No effect-sweat glands are sympathetic C. Mild sweating D Causes gland cramps |
B. No effect-sweat glands are sympathetic
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What is the sympathetic effect on the lungs?
A. Constrict bronchioles B. Decreased rate of breathing C. Relaxes diaphragm D. Dilates bronchioles E. Decreases rate of hiccups |
D. Dilates bronchioles
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Getting a joyful morning aerobic workout results in what autonomic and metabolic effects?
A. increased metabolic rate B. Increased blood glucose from liver glycogen C. increased mobilization of fat for fuel D. Increased mental alertness E. All of these |
E All of these
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Your text refers to which of these as the boss of the autonomic nervous system (highest regulation)?
A. Cerebral cortex B. Hypothalamus C. Cerebellum D. Reticular formation E. Pons |
B. Hypothalamus
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What are the parasympathetic preganglionic cells bodies for regulation of urination and sexual function?
A. Vagus nerve nucleus B. Facial nerve nucleus C. Ciliary ganglion D. Spinal cord S2-S4 lateral horn |
D. Spinal cord S2-S4 lateral horn
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Preganglionic sympathetic neuron cell bodies reside where?
A. Nuclei of CN III, V, VI, VII B. Nuclei of VII and X C. Spinal cord lateral horns from T1 to L2 D. Pontine nuclei E. Basal nuclei |
C. Spinal cord lateral horns from T1 to L2
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Name the muscle that flexes the first toe:
A. Flexor digitorum profundis B. Extensor digitorum longus C. Flexor digiti minimi D. Flexor indicus longus E. Flexor hallucis longus |
E. Flexor hallucis longus
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Parasympathetic tone has what effect on heart rate?
A. Always stimulatory B. Inhibitory (maintains resting rate) C. Stimulatory only during exercise and strong emotion D. Stimulatory only during sleep |
B. Inhibitory (maintains resting state)
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Tibialis anterior is listed as the primary dorsiflexor of the foot and is strongly opposed by?
A. Peroneus tertius B. Rectus femoris C. Gastrocnemius D. Tibialis lateralis E. Flexor plantaris magnus |
C. gastrocnemius
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During the sexual cycle, erectile tissues of the clitoris and penis become engorged with blood under the influence of which system?
A. Sympathetic B. Parasympathetic |
B. Parasympathetic
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A good example of cooperation between sympathetic and parasympathetic would be
A. arousal, climax, and recovery phases of sexual cycle B. Digesting a meal C. Accidentally hammering your thumb D. Sleeping E. Taking a test |
A. Arousal, climax, and recovery phases of sexual cycle
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Which activity would be turned off with sympathetic stimulation and turned on by parasympathetic stimulation?
A. Running B. Dancing C. Digesting a meal D. Tennis E. High speed bike riding |
C. Digesting a meal
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Cholinergic receptors bind to what kind of neurotransmitter?
A. Colonurge B. Dopamine C. Epinephrine D. Acetylcholine E. GABA |
D. Acetylcholine
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Adrenergic receptors bind to what kind of neurotransmitter?
A. GABA B. Dopamine C. Epinephrine D. Acetylcholine E. Estrogen |
C. Epinephrine
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Cholinergic receptors of the nicotinic type are found where?
A. parasympathetic target organs B. All ganglionic cell bodies and adrenal medulla cells C. Mostly in lungs D. Only in trachea E. Nucleus ambiguus |
B. All ganglionic cell bodies and adrenal medulla cells
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Cholinergic receptors of the muscarinic type are found where?
A. Parasympathetic target organs B. All ganglionic cell bodies C. Mostly in lungs D. Only adrenal medulla cells E. Adrenal cortical cells |
A. Parasympathetic target organs
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If you block adrenergic beta receptors, what result can be avoided?
A. increased heart rate B. Increased blood pressure C. Increased mental alertness D. Both A and B E. decreased heart rate |
D. Both answers A and B (increased heart rate and increased blood pressure)
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The parasympathetic preganglionic neurons can synapse with a ganglionic sympathetic cell body in all of these locations except:
A. Sympathetic ganglion of same level B. Sympathetic ganglion of different level C. Adrenal medulla cells D. Prevertebral (pre-aortic) ganglia E. Carotid sinus in carotid artery |
E. Carotid sinus in carotid artery
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A celery stick in a hypertonic solution will become
A. Normally rigid, no change B. Extra crisp C. Exploded from too much water entering D. Limp E. Both C and D are possible |
D. Limp
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Transcription of a gene's worth of DNA results most immediately in what?
A. Large amounts of ATP B. Messenger RNA C. Positive feedback homeostasis D. Inactive chromatin E. Excellent grades |
B. Messenger RNA
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What specialized nucleic acid molecules bring individual amino acids to the ribosome for peptide synthesis?
A. Cholesterol B. Glycogen C. tRNA D. ATP E. Galactose |
C. tRNA
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A solution that causes a cell to neither swell nor shrink has what tonicity:
A. Isotonic B. Hypotonic C. Hypertonic D. Acidity E. Alkalinity |
A. Isotonic
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Omega 3 fatty acids primary origins are in plant kingdom in cell membrane of phospholipids of green leaves and photosynthetic algae. We might have greater mobility of movement in our own fluid mosaic membrane if we ingest foods having phospholipid membranes rich in omega 3 fatty acids
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True
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A proteins amino acid sequence represents what level of its structure?
A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary |
A. Primary
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In our example of secondary active transport of glucose on a symport with Na+, what mechanism allows for diffusion of glucose against its own diffusion gradient and into the blood?
A. Osmosis B. Blood pressure C. ATP driven Na+ pump creates high diffusion gradient for symport D. Blood increases its speed E. A and B |
C. ATP driven Na+ pump creates high diffusion gradient for symport
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In lecture we defined an acid as a:
A. Salt B. Proton donor C. Proton acceptor D. Non-polar |
B. Proton donor
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The dark staining portions of the nucleus in the peripheral regions are viewed as:
A. Active chromatin B. Glycogen storage sites C. Inactive chromatin D. Naked DNA E. Both A and B |
C. Inactive chromatin
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The light staining portions of the nucleus in the central regions are viewed as
A. active chromatin B. Glycogen storage sites C. Inactive chromatin D. Open and available genes used by the fully differentiated cell E. Both A and D are true |
E. Both A and D are true
(Inactive chromatin and Open and available genes used by the fully differentiated cell |
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A solution that causes a cell to osmotically swell in size has what tonicity?
A. Isotonic B. Hypotonic C. Hypertonic D. Acidity E. Alkalinity |
B. Hypotonic
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What type of cell junction allows for communication between adjacent cells as in cardiac muscle?
A. Tight junctions B. Desmosomes C. Gap junctions D. Disjunctions E. Injunctions |
C. Gap junctions
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In order for aerobic metabolism of glucose to proceed past pyruvate and enter the Krebs cycle what essential molecule must be present in adequate supply?
A. Carbon dioxide B. Calcium C. Oxygen D. Nitrogen |
C. Oxygen
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Name the two carbon molecule that enters the Krebs Cycle to initiate aerobic energy production (ATP synthesis)
A. Fructose B. Glucose C. Ethanol D. Pyruvate E. Acetyl CoA |
E. Acetyl CoA
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Which organelle synthesizes large amounts of ATP utilizing Krebs cycle reactions coupled to oxidative phosphorylation?
A. Nucleus B. Ribosome C. Smooth ER D. Mitochondrion E. Lysosome |
D. Mitochondrion
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What type of cell junction stabalizes adjacent cells by long penetrating protein (keratin) filaments?
A. Tight junctions B. Desmosomes C. Gap junctions D. Disjunctions E. Injunctions |
B. Desmosomes
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What lipid category is insterspaced between membrane molecules to maintain fluidity?
A. Glycogen B. Cholesterol C. Phospholipid D Glucose E. Triglyceride |
B. Cholesterol
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When ribosomes read the transcription of a gene's worth of DNA, what is the immediate resule?
A. Translation B. Protein synthesis C. Both A and B D. Trigylceride synthesis E. Acetyl CoA |
C. Both A and B
(Translation and protein synthesis) |
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Which carrier transports amino acides to the ribosome during peptide synthesis?
A. mRNA B. rRNA C. gRNA D. tRNA E. Both A and B |
D. tRNA
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Which cell organelle gives rise to lysosomes which are vesicles containing digestive enzymes?
A. Nucleus B. Smooth ER C. Mitochondria D. Centrioles E. Golgi Apparatus |
E. Golgi apparatus
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Which organelle produces export vesicles containing polypeptides such as insulin and other hormones?
A. Nucleus B. Golgi apparatus C. Mitochondria D. Centrioles E. Smooth ER |
B. Golgi apparatus
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The occipital bone articulates with what bone?
A. Temporal B. Lacrimal C. Maxilla D. Parietal E. Both A and D |
E. Both A and D
(Temporal and Parietal) |
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It is possible to view at least some part of the sphenoid bone from the anterior, lateral, and inferior views of the skill.
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True
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The zygomatic's immediate superior relation to which it articulates is the
A. Temporal B. Parietal C. Ethmoid D. Lacrimal E. Frontal |
E. Frontal
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If you remove the upper covering of the skull and look down inside, you will see a piece of the ethmoid bone poking up through which anterior bone of the skull?
A. Occipital B. Temporal C. Sphenoid D. Maxilla E. Frontal |
E. Frontal
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The hard palate of the oral cavity is formed the by palatine bone and what other bone?
A. Sphenoid B. Maxilla C. Temporal D. Lacrimal E. Vomer |
B. Maxilla
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A small piece of which paired bone separates the nasal bone from the lacrimal bone (note it is intermediate between the nasal and lacrimal bones)
A. Frontal B. Zygomatic C. Ethmoid D. Temporal E. Maxilla |
E. Maxilla
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Through its arch process, the zygomatic bone articulates posteriorly to which other bone?
A. Sphenoid B. Parietal C. Temporal D. Lacrimal E. Occipital |
C. Temporal
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The temporal bone's immediate superior relation to which it articulates is the
A. Ethmoid B. Parietal C. Nasal D. Lacrimal E. Frontal |
B. Parietal
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Which paired bones articulate to form the sagittal suture along the midsagittal plane at the most superior aspect of the skull?
A. Ethmoid B. Sagittal bones C. Temporal D. Occipital E. Parietal |
E. Parietal
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When you pass a midsagittal plane through the skull, which bone will not be touched by it?
A. Ethmoid B. Zygomatic C. Temporal D. Vomer E. Both B and C |
E. Both B and C
(Zygomatic and Temporal) |
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The sphenoid bone does not articulate (form a joint) with which of the following bones?
A. Temporal B. Zygomatic C. Nasal and mandible D. Ethmoid E. Frontal |
C. Nasal and mandible
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The vomer bone articulates superiorly to what other bone in forming the nasal septum?
A. Temporal B. Sphenoid C. Palatine D. Ethmoid E. Nasal |
D. Ethmoid
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Which bone does the zygomatic not articulate with?
A. Sphenoid B. Temporal C. Maxilla D. Lacrimal E. Frontal |
D. Lacrimal
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As you look at the anterior of the skull the zygomatic bone articulates medially with which of these bones?
A. Ethmoid B. Palatine C. Occipital D. Frontal E. Maxilla |
E. Maxilla
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The lambdoidal suture is formed when the occipital bone articulates with which paired bones?
A. Zygomatic B. Temporal C. Maxilla D. Parietal E. Frontal |
D. Parietal
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All of the following bones are paired except
A Maxilla B. Parietal C. Temporal D. Ethmoid E. Nasal |
D. Ethmoid
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The mandible forms a joint with which other bones of the skull?
A. Ethmoid B. Sphenoid C. Temporal D. Zygomatic E. Vomer |
C. Temporal
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The lacrimal does not articulate with which bone?
A. Ethmoid B. Maxilla C. Zygomatic D. Frontal |
C. Zygomatic
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If you look at the skull from the lateral view, a small portion of what non-paired bone can be seen lying deep to the zygomatic arch?
A. Zygomatic B. Temporal C. Maxilla D. Sphenoid E. Palatine |
D. Sphenoid
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What is the common origin of hamstring muscles?
A. Tibia B. Greater trochanter C. Ischial tuberosity D. Ischial Spine E. Linea aspera |
C. Ishial tuberosity
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Spastic paralysis due to CNS injury occurs only when the upper motor neurons of the primary motor cortex are damaged
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True
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Name the connective tissue surrounding the nerve fascicles of a large nerve/
A. Epimysium B. Perimysium C. Endoneurium D. Perineurium E. Epineurium |
D. Perineurium
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Name an insertion of gracilis:
A. Fibula B. Tibia C. Pubis D. Femor E Ischium |
B. Tibia
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Which muscle has an opening for the femoral artery and vein to pass through?
A. Pectineus B. Adductor Brevis C. Adductor magnus D. Adductor longus E. Biceps femoris |
C. Adductor magnus
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What nerve innervates adductor brevis?
A. Tibial B. Deep Fibular C. Obturator D. Superficial fibular E. Femoral |
C. Obturator
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Most direct pyramidal motor actions from the left cerebral hemisphere control muscles on which side of the body?
A. Contralateral B. Ipsilateral C Retrosagittal D. Infraversatile E. Electromaximal |
A. Contralateral
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Name the muscle whose tendon forms the medial boundary of the popliteal region
A. Semi membranosus with semitendinosus B. Vastus lateralis C. Rectus femoris D. Soleus E. Biceps femoris |
A. Semimembranosus with semitendinosus
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The nerve which innervates the gracilis some times innervates the pectineus. Its name is
A. Femoral B. Tibial C. Deep fibular D. Superficial fibular E. Obturator |
E. Obturator
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What muscle can strongly adduct the hip and also functions as a synergist to extend the hip?
A. Adductor brevis B. Illiopsoas C. Tensor fascia lata D. Sartorius E. Adductor Magnus |
E. Adductor Magnus
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2nd order neurons carrying touch signals from the hand have cell bodies in the:
A. Nucleus cuneatus B. Nucleus pulposus C. Thalamus D. Nucleus gracilis E. Pyramidal decussation |
A. Nucleus cuneatus
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The direct pyramidal pathway regulates:
A. Postural muscles B. Positioning movements for lifting heavy objects C. Fast, fine, or highly skilled movements such as needlework D. Powerful actions such as splitting logs with an ax E. Answers A,B, and D are true |
C. Fast, fine, or highly skilled movements such as needlework
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Indirect pathways regulate:
A. Posture B. Fixating proximal joints C. Visual reflexes D. All A,B, and C |
D. All A, B, and C
(Posture, fixating proximal joints, and visual reflexes) |
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Which cranial nerve controls facial expression?
A. Facial B. Trigeminal C. Vagus D. Occulomotor E. Glossopharyngeal |
A. Facial
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Which cranial nerve controls the muscles of mastication:
A. Facial B. Trigeminal C. Vagus D. Occulomotor E. Glossopharyngeal |
B. Trigeminal
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What cranial nerve does NOT control a parasympathetic activity such as heart rate, rate of breathing, salivation, tear production, pupil size in response to light, and lens thickness to focus?
A. Facial B. Trigeminal C. Vagus D. Occulomotor E. Glossopharyngeal |
B. Trigeminal
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What nerve innervates semitendinosus?
A. Femoral B. Gluteal C. Obturator D. Common fibular E. Tibial |
E. Tibial
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What posterior thigh compartment muscle has on origin on the femur?
A. Semitendinosus B. Biceps femoris C. Gluteus maximus D. Semimembranosis E. Gluteus medius |
B. Biceps femoris
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Which posterior thigh compartment muscle's tendon forms the lateral boundary of the popliteal region behind the knee?
A. Semitendinosus B. Semimembranosus C. Biceps femoris D. Soleus E. Gluteus medius |
C. Biceps femoris
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Hamstring muscles mainly function to
A. Strongly flex the knee and weakly extend the hip B. Extend the hip C. Adduct the knee D. Extend the knee E. Abduct ankle |
A. Strongly flex the knee and weakly extend the hip
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Name the best antagonist to the actions of biceps femoris:
A. Pectineus B. Tensor fascia latae C. Rectus femoris D. Semitendinosus E. Gluteus minimus |
C. Rectus femoris
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2nd order neurons carrying touch signals from the hand synapse with 3rd order neurons at the
A. nucleus cuneatus B. Nucleus pulposus C. Thalamus D. Nucleus gracilis E. Pyramidal decussation |
C. Thalamus
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Eye movement involves which cranial nerves?
A. I, II, III B. III, IV, VI C. III only D. III, V-division 1, VI E. II, IV, VI |
B, III, IV, VI
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Which cranial nerve does not innervate the tongue for sensory or motor purposes?
A. V. Divisual III (mandibular) B. VII C. IX D. XII E. III |
E. III
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Cranial nerve #___ accounts for eye touch sensation while cranial nerve #___ accounts for some eye movements.
A. III/V B. VII/III C. VII/V D. VI/V E. V/III |
E. V/III
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Cranial nerve VIII carries sensory neurons for what purpose?
A. Smell B. Sound C. Balance (dynamic and static) D. Both answers B and C E. Taste from posterior 1/3 of tongue |
D. Both answers B and C (Sound and balance)
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2nd order neurons transmitting touch from the hand or the foot travels in which medulla oblongata white matter tract?
A. Pyramids B. Olives C. BLTs D. Medial lemniscus E. Inferior collicular peduncle |
D. Medial lemniscus
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Motor information exits the primary motor cortex and travels in what spinal cord white column:
A. Fasiculus gracilis B. Medial spinothalamic C. Lateral corticospinal D. Fasciculatus lateralis E. Fascicilus cuneatus |
C. Lateral corticospinal
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Which receptor is found in the muscle tendon and causes the attached muscle to relax?
A. Pacinian corpuscles B Ruffinis corpuscles C. Golgi tendon organs D. Merkel's discs E. Edmond's end bubls |
C. Golgi tendon organs
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After a peripheral axon has been severed, it degenerates and then sprouts anew. Then what cells guide regenerating axon sprouts?
A. Schwan cells B. Satellite cells C. Sentinel's glial cells D. Lyte bulbs E. Macrophages |
A. Schwann cells
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The first order sensory neurons carrying touch sensation from the foot synapse with the 2nd order neurons at the:
A. Medulla's nucleus cuneatus B. Dorsal root ganglion C. Thalamus D. Medulla's nucleus gracilis E. Pons |
D. Medulla's nucleus gracilis
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The first order neuron carrying touch sensation from the ankle travels in what spinal cord tract?
A. Anterior funiculus B. Spinothalamic tract C. Fasciculus gracilis D. Fasciculus cuneatus E. Lateral Funiculus |
C. Fasciculus gracilis
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The sciatic nerve emerges from under the piriformis and ends by dividing into the common fibular and what other nerve?
A. Femoral B. Obturator C. Anterior fibularis D. Phrenic E. Tibial |
E. Tibial
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First order neurons carrying touch sensation from the foot synaps with 2nd order neurons at the:
A. Medulla's nucleus cuneatus B. Dorsal root ganglion C. Thalamus D. Medulla's nucleus gracilis E. Midbrain |
D. Medulla's nucleus gracilis
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Which receptor is a tactile receptor especially prevalent in the fingertips and nipples?
A. Pacinian corpuscles B. Thomphon's corpuscles C. Teague's basal end bulbs D. Meissner's corpuscles E. Both B and C |
D. Meissner's corpuscles
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Cranial nerve VII stimulates all of these except:
A. Taste on anterior 2/3 of tongue B. Parotid gland C. Sublingual gland D. Lacrimal gland E. Orbicularis oculi |
B. Parotid gland
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Second order neurons carrying touch signals from the hand synapse with 3rd order neurons at the
A. Nucleus cuneatus B. Nucleus pulposus C. Thalamus D. Nucleus gracilis E. Pyramidal decussation |
C. Thalamus
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The glossopharyngeal nerve innervates:
A. Carotid baroreceptors for blood pressure B. Submandibular gland C. Lacrimal gland D. Parotid gland E. Answers A and D |
E. Answers A and D (Carotid baroreceptors for blood pressure and Parotid gland)
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Which cranial nerve is said to innervate the heart, lungs, and reflexes for swallowing, vomitting, and hiccups?
A. Trigeminal B. Spinal accessory C. Glossopharyngeal D. Vagus E. Visceral splanchnic |
D. Vagus
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The cranial nerve that innervates trapezius and the cranial nerve that innervates the parotid salivary gland both exit together through which cranial opening?
A. Superior orbital fissure B. Foramun rotundum C. Jugular foramen D. Internal acoustic meatus E. Foramen ovale |
C. Jugular foramen
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Pain from the foot travels in which spinal cord white tract?
A. Fasciculus gracilis B. Funiculus rubric C. Fasciculus cuneatus D. Spinothalamic tract E. Cerebrospinal ambiguity |
D. Spinothalamic tract
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Which receptor in the central muscle belly causes reflexive stimulation of that muscle?
A. Ephedric corpuscles B. Ruffinis corpuscles C. Golgi tendon organs D. Merkel's discs E. Muscle spindles |
E. Muscle spindles
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Deep sleep is when which hormone that we've often spoken of is released in its highest concentration?
A. Epinephrine B. Insulin C. Growth hormone D. FSH E. Oxytocin |
C. Growth hormone
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What stage or period of sleep involves dreaming as well as voluntary muscle paralysis?
A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Stage 4 E. REM |
E. REM
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Your text indicates that night terrors and sleep walking may occur in what stage or period of sleep?
A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Stage 4 E. REM |
D. Stage 4
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The text notes that declarative memory regarding names, faces, words, and dates is processed first by which structure on the way to the brain's cortex?
A. Pons B. Hippocampus C. Cerebral peduncles D. Cerebellum E. Pituitary Gland |
B. Hippocamus
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Declarative memory involves which neurotransmitter?
A. GABA B. Estrogen C. Endorphins D. Acetylcholine E. Dopamine |
D. Acetylcholine
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Procedural or skills memory (playing piano) is processed first by which structure on the way to the brain's cortex?
A. Medulla's olivary nucleus B. Basal nuclei C. Pituitary gland D. Corpora quadragemini E. Pons |
B. Basal nuclei
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Procedural or skills memory involves which neurotransmitter?
A. GABA B. Glycine C. Somatostatin D. Acetylcholine E. Dopamine |
E. Dopamine
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A spinal tap to obtain CSF is usually performed below which vertebral lamina?
A. C7 B. T6 C. T10 D. L3 or L4 E. S2 |
D. L3 or L4
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On average the spinal cord ends at which vertebral level?
A. T6 B. T8 C. Disc below L1 D. L5 E. S5 |
C. Disc below L1
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Spinal roots for lower lumbar and sacral spinal nerves hang below the spinal cord and are called
A. Conus medularis B. Cauda felina C. Filum Terminale D. Denticulate ligaments E. Cauda equine |
E. Cauda Equine
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The spinal cord ends in what feature?
A. Arrowheads B. Conus medularis C. Point Lobos D. Cape neurosis E. Neural terminus |
B. Conus medularis
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What fibrous extension of pia matter holds the spinal cord to the sacrum/coccyx?
A. Pia medularis B. Cauda canina C. Filum terminale D. Sacrum ligamentum E. Spinal nerve roots |
C. Filum terminale
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Subsequent to a CVA, what molecule is released that causes further damage by over exciting surrounding cells?
A. Na+ B. Ca++ C. Pyruvate D. Acetyl CoA E. Glutamate |
E. Glutamate
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What brain condition toward the end of life is associated with accumulations of protein deposits and neurofibrillar tangles?
A. Increased longevity B. Telomere shortening C. Alheimer's disease D. Jacksonian seizures E. Casting subsequent to cholesterol plaques |
C. Alzheimers disease
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What are the slowest and most high amplitude brain waves found in deep sleep (stage 4):
A. Alpha B. REM C. Delta D. Beta E. Lambda |
C. Delta
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A full sleep cycle from stage 1 to stage 4 and back up to stage 1 involves how much time?
A. 8 hours B. 1.5 hours C. 6 hours D. 10-20 minutes E. 5 hours |
B. 1.5 hours
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Fiber tracts of the posterior funiculus carry what information?
A. Motor to the hand B. Touch from upper and lower extremities C. Pain/temperature from the foot D. Motor to the foot E. Pain/temperature from the hand |
B. Touch from upper and lower extremities
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Biofeedback involving learning to change habits or coping with challenging phobias involves learning to meditate in a calm yet alert manner using which of the brain waves?
A. Alpha B. Beta C. Gamma D. Delta E. Theta |
A. Alpha
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A traumatic blow to the head that causes CNS neural tissue damage may be referred to as
A. Concussion B. Contusion C. CVA D. Mycardial infarction E. CIA |
B. Contusion
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All sensory information enters which spinal cord gray matter?
A. Lateral horn B. Medial horn C. The antlers D. Ventral horn E. Dorsal horn |
E. Dorsal horn
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Cell bodies of motor neurons reside what what spinal cord gray matter?
A. Midsagittal horn B. Medial horn C. Antlers D. Ventral horn E. Dorsal horn |
D. Ventral horn
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All voluntary motor information exits from which spinal cord gray matter?
A. Inferior horn B. Medial horn C. Antlers D. Ventral horn E. Dorsal horn |
D. Ventral horn
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The sciatic nerve emerges from under which lateral rotator of the hip and sometimes adheres to this muscle?
A. Gluteus maximus B. Pectineus C. Obturator internus D. Quadriceps femoris E. Piriformis |
E. Piriformis
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Name the insertion of the obturator internus
A. Sacrum B. Ilium C. Ischium D. Femur's greater trochanter E. Tibia |
D. Femur's greater trochanter
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Getting up from a seated position requires extension of the hip and is performed largely by:
A. Hamstrings B. Sartorius C. Gluteus maximus D. Obturator internus E. Iliopsoas |
C. Gluteus maximus
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The cervical enlargement of the spinal cord represents extra neural cell bodies and connections for serving what part of the anatomy?
A. Heart B. Lungs C. Upper extremity D. Lower extremity E. Digestive system |
C. Upper extremity
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The lumbar enlargement of the spinal cord represents extra neural cell bodies and connections for serving what part of the anatomy?
A. Heart B. Lungs C. Upper extremity D. Lower extremity E. Digestive system |
D. Lower extremity
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Name a muscle that originates from the anterior superior iliac spine?
A. Quadratus lumborum B. Iliacus interior C. Levator ani D. Pectineus E. Sartorius |
E. Sartorius
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The anterior compartment of the thigh is innervated by what nerve?
A. Vagus B. Sciatic C. Obturator D. Femoral E. Pelvic splanchnic |
D. Femoral
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What muscle is the prime mover for flexing the hip
A. Rectus femoris B. Iliopsoas C. Gluteus maximus D. Sartorius E. Flexor tibialis longus |
B. Iliopsoas
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What is the common insertion of the quadriceps?
A. Femur B. Tibial tuberosity C. Iliotibial tract D. Fibula E. Ischial tuberosity |
B. Tibial tuberosity
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Name an insertion for gluteus maximus:
A. Greater trochanter B. Gluteal tuberosity/iliotibial tract C. Lesser trochanter D. Iliac crest E. Inferior pubic ramus |
B. Gluteal tuberosity/iliotibial tract
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Which of the following are causes of a CVA?
A. Cerebral blood vessel hemorrhage due to high blood pressure B. Middle meningeal blood vessel hemorrhage causing subdural hematoma C. Meningitis infection causing cerebral edema from inflammation D. All A, B, C |
D. All A, B, C
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Most muscle actions of the anterior compartment of the thigh involve
A. Hip extension B. Hip flexion and knee extension C. Hipp adduction D. Knee flexion E. Plantar flexion of the foot |
B. Hip flexion and knee extension
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Name the best synergist to the actions of vastus intermedialis muscle.
A. Pectineus B. Tensor fascia latae C. Rectus femoris D. Semitendinosus E. Gluteus minimus |
C. Rectus femoris
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What muscle arises from the lumbar vertebral and transverse processes, crosses over the top of the pelvic brim superficial to the inguinal ligament and inserts onto the anterior femur surface?
A. Sartorius B. Gluteus minimus C. Pectineus D. Vastus intermedialis E. Psoas major |
E. Psoas major
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What is an anterior thigh compartment muscle that originates on the anterior inferior iliac spine?
A. Pectineus B. Tensor fascia latae C. Rectus femoris D. Vastus intermedialis E. Vastus medialis |
C. Rectus femoris
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Name the muscle that abducts and medially rotates the hip during walking and was demonstrated during lab in a moment of hilarity:
A. Gluteus maximus B. Pectineus C. Piriformis D. Gluteus medius and minimus E. Tensor fascia latae |
D. Gluteus medius and minimus
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What muscle assists in flexion, abduction, and lateral rotation of the hip while also flexing the knee for sitting cross legged?
A. Iliopsoas B. Vastus medialis C. Sartorius D. Tailorius E. Gluteus maximus |
C. Sartorius
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Which of the following is not listed as a feature of epithelium?
A. Has a basement membrane B. Contains lots of blood vessels C. Its avascular but innervated D. Has high regenerative capacity E. Has apical and basal cellular polarity |
B. Contains lots of blood vessels
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Name the protein that forms at the apical surface of stratified squamos on your calloused hand areas
A. Collagen B. Elastin C. Myosin D. Actin E. Keratin |
E. Keratin
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Which mitotic stage involves the splitting of the replicated chromosomes and the microtubular pulling of the daughter chromosomes with dangling arms to opposite poles to complete dosage regulation?
A. Telophase B. Anaphase C. Metaphase D. Unphased E. Prophase |
B. Anaphase
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What do goblet cells secrete?
A. Keratin B. Collagen C. Growth hormone D. Mucous E. Saliva |
D. Mucous
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The relaxed surface cells of transitional epithelium have what shape when viewed through the microscope?
A. Flat B. String of pearls=round C. Dome shaped large puffy cells D. CIliated E. Tall narrow columnar |
C. Dome shaped large puffy cells
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The basal surfaces of all epithelial tissue basal cells are in contact with what?
A. A lumen or open space B. Cranial nerves C. Ligaments or tendons D. Basement membrane E. Major arteries |
D. Basement membrane
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Cancer as a malignancy requires what first stage before the malignancy or oncogenesis can occur?
A. Transformation-opening up of all the genome B. Transformation may include changes in differentiation C. Cell death D. Both A and B E. Cell apoptosis |
D. Both A and B (Transformation-opening up of all the genome and Transformation may include differentiation)
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What is the normal function of an oncogene?
A. Fetal development from 1 to many cells B. Causes cilia to beat C. Mucous secretion in the stomach D. Hair growth after 35 years of age E. Both B and C |
A. Fetal development from one cell to many cells
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Which of the following is not one of the four primary tissues?
A. Connective B. Epithelial C. Neural D. Muscular E. Cardiovascular |
E. Cardiovascular
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The oral cavity has which epithelial lining?
A. Stratified squamos B. Simple columnar C. Pseudostratified columnar with cilia and goblet cells D. Transitional E. Simple cuboidal |
A. Stratified squamos
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Simple squamous epithelium is usually found lining the interior of what part of the body?
A. Heart B. Lungs C. Capillaries D. Oral cavity and trachea E. A, B, and C are true |
E. A, B, and C are true
(heart, lungs, capillaries, oral cavity and trachea) |
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During what part of the cell cycle does DNA synthesis occur?
A. Prophase B. S-phase of interphase C. Metaphase D. Anaphase E. G-1 growth phase |
B. S-phase of interphase
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In which mitotic stage do the chromosomes align along the equatorial plane of the cell?
A. Interphase B. Prophase C. Metaphase D. Anaphase E. Telophase |
C. Metaphase
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The stated purpose of mitosis in lecture was
A. producing gametes B. Dosage regulation of DNA during cell division C. DNA replication D. Transcription E. Translation |
B. Dosage regulation of DNA during cell division
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All of the following are smooth ER functions except:
A. Lipid metabolism B. Cholesterol synthesis C. Steroid hormone synthesis D. Polypeptide synthesis E. Detox of drugs and toxins |
D. Polypeptide synthesis
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Transitional epithelium has a functional design for which?
A. Breathing very quickly-translocation of air B. Removing particulate matter from inspired air C. Absorption of nutrients D. Diffusion of gases E. Changing interior surface area to accept changes in volume |
E. Changing interior surface area to accept changes in volume
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Simple squamos epithelium has a functional design for what?
A. Abrasion B. Removing particulate mattter from inspired air C. Absorption of nutrients D. Changing interior circumference to accept changes in volume E. Diffusion of gases |
E. Diffusion of gases
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In which mitotic stage will the nuclear envelope dissolve, chromosomes condense, and become attached to the spindles of centrioles?
A. Little known bob-phase B. Metaphase C. Prophase D. Anaphase E. Telophase |
C. Prophase
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In what part of the body does pseudostratified columnar epithelium with cilia and goblet cells reside?
A. Lung alveoli B. Stomach's lining C. All blood lumn lining D. Trachea E. Both a and C |
D. Trachea
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We noted that there is a rare ciliated columnar epithelium in the female anatomy lining the lumen of what structure?
A. Vagina B. Lactiferous sinuses C. Urinary bladder D. Heart E. Oviducts (fallopian tubes) |
E. Oviducts (fallopian tubes)
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The foramen ovale transmits which structure?
A. Maxillary nerve (CN V, Div. II) B. Mandibular nerve (CN V, Div. III) C. Middle meningeal artery D. Abducens nerve E. Vagus nerve |
B. Mandibular nerve (CN V, Div III)
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The temporal bone does not have which bony landmark?
A. Mastoid process B. Styloid process C. Optic canal D. Internal acoustic meatus E. External acoustic meatus |
C. Optic canal
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The mandible has which of the following foramena?
A. Rotundum B. Ovale C. Jugular D. Magnum E. Mental |
E. Mental
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The mandible has which process projecting from its superior surfaces?
A. Styloid process B. Mastoid process C. Pterygoid process D. Coronoid process E. Crista galli |
D. coronoid process
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The maxilla's infraorbital foramen transmits which structure?
A. Maxillary nerve B. Mandibular nerve C. Middle meningeal artery D. Abducens nerve E. Opthalmic nerve |
A. Maxillary nerve
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The carotid canal transmits which structure?
A. Maxillary nerve B. Mandibular nerve C. Internal carotid artery D. Facial nerve E. Vagus Nerve |
C. Internal carotid artery
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The temporal bone has which of the following processes?
A. Coronoid B. Mastoid C. Pterygoid D. Alveolar E. Both A and D |
B. Mastoid
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The mandibular canal transmits what structure?
A. Maxillary nerve B. Mandibular nerve C. Genius nerve D. No nerves E. Hypoglossal nerve |
B. Mandibular nerve
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The sphenoid has all of the following except
A. Optic canal B. Pterygoid process C. Sella turcica D. Styloid process E. Lesser wing |
D. Styloid process
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Which nerve resides in the hypoglossal canal?
A. Vagus B. Trigeminal C. Facial D. Abducens E. hypoglossal |
E. Hypoglossal
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The internal auditory meatus transmits which cranial nerve?
A. Vestibulocochlear B. Abducens C. Vagus D. Facial E. Both A and D |
E. both A and D
(Vestibulocochlear and Facial) |
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The occipital bone does not have which feature?
A. hypoglossal canal B. condyles C. Foramen magnum D. Pterygoid process |
D. Pterygoid process
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Which of the following bones does not contribute some part to form the orbit of the eye?
A. Frontal B. Palatine C. Sphenoid D. Temporal E. Zygomatic |
D. Temporal
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The stylomastoid foramen houses which structure in life?
A. Maxillary nerve B. Mandibular nerve C. Internal carotid artery D. Facial nerve E. Vagus nerve |
D. Facial nerve
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All of cranial nerves IX, X, and XI exit the skull through which foramen?
A. Hypoglossal B. Magnum C. Jugular D. Ovale E. Spinosum |
C. Jugular
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The tears pass through the nasolacrimal canal flow into the nasal cavity at what feature?
A Eustacian tube B. Superior meatus C. Inferior meatus D. Fauces E. Sphenoid sinus |
C. Inferior meatus
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The olfactory nerve passes through the skull through which foramen?
A. Optic foramen B. Orbital foramen C. Foramen rotundum D. Cribiform foramena E. Infraorbital foramen |
D. Cribiform foramena
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In life which nerve is not found inside the superior orbital fissure?
A. Abducens B. Occulomotor C. Trochlear D. Optic E. Trigeminal, opthalmic branch |
D. Optic
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In life the opthalmic nerve division of CN V resides in the
A. optic canal B. Superior orbital fissure C. Stylomastoid foramen D. Foramen rotundum E. Both a and D |
B. Superior orbital fissure
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The middle meningeal artery passes through which foramen?
A. Jugular B. Spinosum C. Superior orbital fissure D. Rotundum E. Ovale |
B. Spinosum
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An epidural hematoma (bleeding just inside the skull) might cause the brain to squeeze some cranial nerves against the posterior part of what sphenoid structure?
A. Zygomatic arch B. Pterygoid process C. Sella turcica D. Crista galli E. Styloid process |
C. Sella turcica
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Which lobe of the brain contains visual perception cortex?
A. Frontal B. Parietal C. Occipital D. Temporal |
C. Occipital
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Which lobe of the brain contains the visual motor cortex for eye movements?
A. Frontal B. Parietal C. Occipital D. Temporal |
A. Frontal
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Which lobe of the brain has a cortex for conscious intellect and complex learning?
A. Frontal B. Parietal C. Occipital D. Temporal E. Insula |
A. Frontal
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Name the commissural fiber structure that connects the left and right brain to each other?
A. Association callosum B. Internal capsule C. Corpus callosum D. Thalamus E. Cortical commissure |
C. Corpus callosum
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When the motor fibers travel through the medulla oblongata they travel in what structure?
A. Red nucleus B. Pyramids C. Trapezoids D. Olives E. Martinis |
B. Pyramids
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The postcentral gyrus contains what important brain function?
A. Primary motor cortex B. Premotor cortex C. Broca's area D. Visual perceptual cortex E. Primary somatosensory cortex |
E. Primary somatosensory cortex
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What subcortical telencephalon gray matter structure regulates fine motor control initiated by the motor cortex? (Mohammed Ali and Janet Reno)
A. Internal Capsule B. Thalamus C. Corpus callosum D. Basal nuclei E. Lateral colliculi |
D. Basal nuclei
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Your somatosensory association area has a cortex that holds memories of:
A. Visual objects B. Sounds C. Flavors D. Proprioception (body positions) and things you touched E. Aromas |
D. Proprioception (body positions) and things you touched
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The frontal lobe's precentral gyrus contains what important brain function?
A. Primary somatosensory cortex B. Primary visual cortex C. Brocas area D. Primary motor cortex E. Auditory cortex |
D. Primary motor cortex
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The basal nuclei utilize which neurotransmitter associated with the midbrain's substantia nigra? (Mohammad Ali and Janet Reno)
A. GABA B. Epinephrine C. Acetylcholine D. Enkephalins E. Dopamine |
E. Dopamine
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A midsagittal section through the cerebellum reveals what special feature?
A. Root of evil B. Leaves of grass C. Arbor vitae D. Clinging vine E. Fruits of labor |
C. Arbor Vitae
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What famous diencephalon structure receives impulses from all sensory inputs and distributes the sensory information to the correct cerebral cortex? (Hint: Sensory corona radiata comes from there)
A. Pituitary gland B. Thalamus C. Pineal gland D. Hypothalamus E. Basal nuclei |
B. Thalamus
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The lateral walls of the 3rd ventricle are formed by the
A. Thalamus B. Pituitary gland C. Hypothalamus D. Prefrontal cortex E. Premotor cortex |
A. Thalamus
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Which lobe of the brain contains motor memories of how to write with your pencil (or ride a bike)
A. Frontal B. Parietal C. Occipital D. Temporal E. Insula |
A. Frontal
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Injury to one side of the brain results in paralysis or loss of sensation in which part of the body?
A. Contralateral side B. Ipsilateral side C. Controversial side D. The insouciant center E. Equilateral digyroscopic ganglia |
A. Contralateral side
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A midsagittal section through the cerebellum reveals what special feature?
A. Root of evil B. Leaves of grass C. Arbor vitae D. Clinging vine E. Fruits of labor |
C. Arbor Vitae
|
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What famous diencephalon structure receives impulses from all sensory inputs and distributes the sensory information to the correct cerebral cortex? (Hint: Sensory corona radiata comes from there)
A. Pituitary gland B. Thalamus C. Pineal gland D. Hypothalamus E. Basal nuclei |
B. Thalamus
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The lateral walls of the 3rd ventricle are formed by the
A. Thalamus B. Pituitary gland C. Hypothalamus D. Prefrontal cortex E. Premotor cortex |
A. Thalamus
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Which lobe of the brain contains motor memories of how to write with your pencil (or ride a bike)
A. Frontal B. Parietal C. Occipital D. Temporal E. Insula |
A. Frontal
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Injury to one side of the brain results in paralysis or loss of sensation in which part of the body?
A. Contralateral side B. Ipsilateral side C. Controversial side D. The insouciant center E. Equilateral digyroscopic ganglia |
A. Contralateral side
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Which of the following is not a limbic system structure?
A. Hypothalamus B. Corpus callosum C. Hippocampus D. Amygdaloid nucleus E. Cingulate gyrus |
B. Corpus callosum
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The limbic system helps us to become conscious of what?
A. knee pain B. Loud noises C. Emotional richness of our lives D. How to win at chess E. both A and B |
C. Emotional richness of our lives
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Which feature represents the boundary separating the frontal and parietal lobes?
A. Lateral fissure B. Longitudinal fissure C. Central sulcus D. Parietofrontal fossa E. Intermediate homuncular abcess |
C. Central sulcus
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The telencephalon represents which portions of the brain?
A. Pons B. Basal nuclei C. Thalamus D. Cerebral hemispheres E. Both B and D |
E. Both B and D
(basal nuclei and cerebral hemispheres) |
|
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CSF enters the brain's ventricles via what?
A. arachnoid membrane B. Pituitary gland C. Hypothalamus D. Choroid plexus E. Sphincter of ambiguity |
D. Choroid plexus
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The cerebral hemispheres have neuronal cell bodies and their synapses residing in the
A. white matter B. Cortical gray matter C. Just inside lateral ventricles |
B. Cortical gray matter
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Motor fibers leaving the motor cortex of the brain descend through a narrow opening between the thalamus and the basal nuclei called the
A. Putamen B. Lentiform nucleus C. Internal capsule D. Geniculate body E. Corpora quadragemini |
C. Internal capsule
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What is the classification given to the above motor fibers?
A. Association B. Projection C. Commisural |
B. Projection
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The above motor fibers travel in what midbrain structure?
A. Superior colliculus B. Thalamus C. Caudate nucleus D. Cingulate gyrus E. Cerebral peduncles (hint remember golden arches) |
E. Cerebral peduncles
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What are the white fibers called that form synapses within the cerebral cortex forward and posteriorly within one hemisphere?
A. Projection fibers B. Association fibers C. Pyramidal decussation fibers D. Commissural fibers E. Peduncular fibers |
B. Association fibers
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The cerebral hemispheres have neuronal cell bodies and their synapses residing in the
A. white matter B. Cortical gray matter C. Just inside lateral ventricles |
B. Cortical gray matter
|
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Motor fibers leaving the motor cortex of the brain descend through a narrow opening between the thalamus and the basal nuclei called the
A. Putamen B. Lentiform nucleus C. Internal capsule D. Geniculate body E. Corpora quadragemini |
C. Internal capsule
|
|
|
What is the classification given to the above motor fibers?
A. Association B. Projection C. Commisural |
B. Projection
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|
The motor fibers leaving the motor cortex of the brain travel in what midbrain structure?
A. Superior colliculus B. Thalamus C. Caudate nucleus D. Cingulate gyrus E. Cerebral peduncles (hint remember golden arches) |
E. Cerebral peduncles
|
|
|
What are the white fibers called that form synapses within the cerebral cortex forward and posteriorly within one hemisphere?
A. Projection fibers B. Association fibers C. Pyramidal decussation fibers D. Commissural fibers E. Peduncular fibers |
B. Association fibers
|
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|
The cerebral hemispheres have neuronal cell bodies and their synapses residing in the
A. white matter B. Cortical gray matter C. Just inside lateral ventricles |
B. Cortical gray matter
|
|
|
Motor fibers leaving the motor cortex of the brain descend through a narrow opening between the thalamus and the basal nuclei called the
A. Putamen B. Lentiform nucleus C. Internal capsule D. Geniculate body E. Corpora quadragemini |
C. Internal capsule
|
|
|
What is the classification given to the above motor fibers?
A. Association B. Projection C. Commisural |
B. Projection
|
|
|
The above motor fibers travel in what midbrain structure?
A. Superior colliculus B. Thalamus C. Caudate nucleus D. Cingulate gyrus E. Cerebral peduncles (hint remember golden arches) |
E. Cerebral peduncles
|
|
|
What are the white fibers called that form synapses within the cerebral cortex forward and posteriorly within one hemisphere?
A. Projection fibers B. Association fibers C. Pyramidal decussation fibers D. Commissural fibers E. Peduncular fibers |
B. Association fibers
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Which muscles originating from flexor digitorum profundis tendons flex the phalangeal-metacarpal joints of fingers 2-5?
A. Dorsal interossei B. Palmar interossei C. Flexor digitorum brevis D. Lumbricals E. Flexor profundis |
D. Lumbricals
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Which intrinsic hand muscle adducts fingers toward the middle finger?
A. Dorsal interossei B. Palmar interossei C. Flexor digitorum brevis D. Lumbricals E. Flexor profundis |
B. Palmar interossei
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Which intrinsic hand muscle abducts fingers away from the middle finger?
A. Dorsal interossei B. Palmar interossei C. Flexor digitorum brevis D. Lumbricals E. Flexor profundis |
A. Dorsal interossei
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Which midbrain structure coordinates neural impulses for the startle reflex arising from loud sounds?
A. Cerebral peduncles B. Hypothalamus C. Interior colliculus D. Vaermis E. Superior colliculus |
C. Inferior colliculus
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What midbrain structure synthesizes and releases melatonin and dopamine?
A. Nucleus ambiguus B. Hypothalamus C. Basal nuclei D. Anterior colliculi E. Substantia nigra |
E. Substantia nigra
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The whimsical name given for the space between the tendons of the extensor pollicis longus and brevis on the lateral edge of the wrist proximal to the thumb is:
A. Groove of inquiry B. Anatomical snuffbox C. Trough of iniquity D. Tobacco road E. Interextensory denticulate fossa |
B. Anatomical snuff box
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Name a muscle which makes up the floor of the pelvis also called the pelvic diaphragm
A. gluteus inferior B. Iliacus posterior C. Pubic levator D. Coccygeus E. Quadratus iliacus |
D. Coccygeus
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Name a muscle which makes up the floor of the pelvis also called pelvic diaphragm:
A. Gluteus interior B. Iliacus interior C. Levator ani D. Valsalva's mover E. quadratus lumborum |
C. Levator ani
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Name the nerve emerging from the greater sciatic foramen hugging the ischial spine, flowing inwardly through the lesser sciatic foramen and innervating pelvic floor mucles:
A. Sciatic nerve B. Obturator nerve C. Femoral nerve D. Vagus nerve E. Pudendal nerve |
E. Pudendal nerve
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Name a muscle innervated by the median nerve that assists the thumb and fifth finger to oppose each other:
A. Adductor pollicis B. Opponens digiti minimi C. Opponens pollicis D. Flexor digiti minimi brevis |
C. Opponens pollicis
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What muscle could still move the thumb toward another finger if the median nerve was badly damaged by carpal tunnel syndrome?
A. Flexor pollicis brevis B. Flexor pollicis longus C. Palmar interossei D. Adductor pollicis E. Both C and D because they are innervated by ulnar nerve |
E. Both C and D because they are innervated by ulnar nerve
(Palmar interossei and Adductor pollicis) |
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The medial 2 lumbricals, the dorsal interossei, the adductor pollicis, the abductor digiti minimi and the opponens digiti minimi are all innervated by what nerve?
A. Median B. Ulnar C. Radial D. Pudendal E. Vagus |
B. Ulnar
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Name the oval shaped lateral medulla oblongata structure which has cranial nerves emerging from in front of it and behind it:
A. Pons B. Cherry C. Olive D. Grape E. Peach pit |
C. Olive
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Which midbrain structure is a visual reflex center coordinating head and eye movements?
A. Cerebral peduncles B. Pontine nuclei C. Inferior colliculus D. Anterior cerebeller lobe E. Superior colliculus |
E. Superior colliculus
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Which of the follwing brain structure dispatches a blueprint for coordinated activity via relays to the cerebral motor cortex?
A. Superior colliculi B. Pineal gland C. Cerebellum D. Inferior colliculi E. Amygdala |
C. Cerebellum
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The highest control ofautonomic function, endocrine function and has settings for emotional response resides in the
A. Epithalamus B. Inferior colliculi C. Pontine nuclei D. Pituitary gland E. Hypothalamus |
E. Hypothalamus
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The cerebellum's middle cerebral peduncle receives one way communication advising the cerebellum of voluntary motor activities. The synaptic relay for this information is from the:
A. Pontine nuclei B. Olive C. Vagus nerve D. Hypothalamus E. Corpus callosum (what is the same level as the middle cerebellar peduncle) |
A. Pontine nuclei
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Your patient's rash covers her entire right upper extremity (arm, forearm, hand) her entire left lower extremity and the back of her torso from cervical to inguinal regions. By the rule of nines about what percentage of her body is covered with a rash?
A. 18% B. 27% C. 35% D. 45% E. 55% |
D. 45%
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Fingernails are modifications of the skin produced by skin keratinocytes and are made of collagen.
|
False
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Which of the following bones utilizes intramembranosus ossification in its development?
A. Humerus B. Every bone of the hand C. Parietal bone D. Bones of the forearm E. Femur of the thigh |
C. Parietal bone
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The red marrow has what main function?
A. Vitamin D synthesis B. Blood cell synthesis C. Protein storage area D Immune surveillance E. Keratin synthesis |
B. Blood cell synthesis
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In lecture we noted (according to Wolf's law) that bone develops and grows in response to
A. Seasonal forces B. Proximity to blood vessels C. Blood glucose levels D. Moon phases E. Direction of stress or weight bearing |
E. Direction of stress or weight bearing
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The yellow bone marrow of the long bone's diaphysis has what function?
A. Vitamin D synthesis B. Blood cell synthesis C. Protein storage area D. Immune surveillance E. Keratin synthesis |
D. Immune surveillance
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How do the osteon's osteocytes obtain nutrition from the central canals?
A. From osteoblasts B. From food stored in the lacunae C. Via canaliculi D. From osteoclasts E. Both A and D |
C. Via canaliculi
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Bone fractures do not cause pain or bleeding since the matrix is just mineralize cartilage.
|
False
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The main hormone to activate osteoclast activity is
A. Calcitonin B. Insulin C. Oxytocin D. Testosterone E. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) |
E. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
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When osteoclasts reabsorb bone matrix they release what important chemical (or nutrient) to the blood?
A. Vitamic C B. Vitamin B1 C. Acetyl Co A D. Calcium E. Iron |
D. Calcium
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Bone matrix differs from cartilage matrix in that it is a storage site for:
A. Iron B. Granite C. Calcium and phosphate ions D. Mica E. Fluorine |
C. Calcium and phosphate
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Your book calls a prominent narrow ridge of bone a
A. sinus B. Furrow C. Groove D. Ramus E. Crest |
E. Crest
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By structures or features connect the Haversian (Central) canals of the osteon?
A. Lacunae B. Volkmann's canals C. Canaliculi D. Microtubules E. Dermal suspensory ligaments |
B. Volkmann's canals
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Which hormone activates osteoblast activity?
A. Calcitonin B. Insulin C. Oxytocin D. Testosterone E. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) |
A. Calcitonin
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Which of the following bones utilizes endochondral ossification in its development?
A. Parietal bone B. Occipital bone C. Frontal bone D. Humerus E. Bones of the earlobes |
D. Humerus
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The purpose of the yellow marrow of the long bones is
A. Hematopoiesis B. Has protective periosteum C. Immune surveillance D. Aerobic energy for red blood cells E. Both A and B |
C. Immune surveillance
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What specifically causes goose bumps when the skin is cold?
A. Capillary tightening B. Arrector pili muscle contraction C. Suspensory ligament tightening D. Dermal papillae contraction |
B. Arrector pili muscle
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Which degree of burning specifically causes blistering?
A. 1st B. 2nd C. 3rd D. 4th E. 5th |
B. 2nd
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Which degree of burning produces a blackened center with little initial edema, no blisters, and no pain at the charred center?
A. 1st B. 2nd C. 3rd D. 4th E. 5th |
C. 3rd
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A scale like modification that forms a clear protective covering on the dorsum of the distal part of each finger or toe is a
A. Mole B. Dermal reticular formation C. Dermatoglyph D. Nail E. Dermal ridge |
D. Nail
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Hair is mainly composed of
A. Collagen B. Elastin C. Plexus of capillaries D. Glycogen E. Keratin |
E. Keratin
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How many true rib pairs are there
A. 12 B. 2 C. 5 D. 7 E. 10 |
D. 7
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Which feature is unique to thoracic vertebra?
A. Transverse foramen B. 2 inferior articular processes C. Transverse articular facet D. 2 superior articular processes E. Both B and D |
C. Transerve process articular facet
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What rib feature guides you to know if its a left or right rib?
A. Head always posterior B. head always anterior C. Costal groove always inferior D. Tubercle always anterior E. Answers A and C |
Answers A and C
(Head always posterior and costal groove always inferior) |
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Rib #8's costal cartilage articulates with what
A. sternal body B. xiphoid process C. manubrium D. Nothing its floating E. Rib #7's costal cartilage |
E. Rib #7's costal cartilage
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Which of the following is not a bony feature of the sacrum?
A. Sacral prominence B. Sacral canal C. Lateral sacral crest D. Sacral hiatus E. Transverse process facets for rib tubercles |
E. Transverse process facets for rib tubercles
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Which of the following is not a bony feature of the sternum?
A. Manubrium B. Body C. Angle D. Articular site for 10th rib costal cartilage E. Xiphoid process |
D. Articular site for 10th rib costal cartilage
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Which of the following is not a bone of the axial skeleton
A. C-1 vertebra B. Ileum C. Sternum D. Rib #1 E. Occipital bone |
B. Ileum
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How many articulations does vertebra T-6 have
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 E. 12 |
E. 12
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Which bones articulate with vertebra T-1?
A. Vertebra C-7 B. vertebra T-2 C. Left and right first rib D. Clavicle and scapula E. All A,B, and C |
E. All A, B, and C
( Vertebra C-7, Vertebra T-2, Left and right first rib) |
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Cervical vertebrae differ from other vertebrae due to what feature?
A. Large vertebral bodies B. Transverse foramena C. Articular facets for ribs D. Large blunt processes E. Both A and D |
B. Transverse foramena
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Wolf's law states that bone grows or remodels in response to the demands placed on it
|
True
|
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|
If the thyroid gland were removed what hormone(s) would be absent aside from thyroxine?
A. Estrogen B. Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone C. Insulin D. Epinephrine E. Cholesterol |
B. Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
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The head of the sixth rib articulates with what two bony features
A. T-6 and T-5 transverse facets B. T-6 and T-5 costal facets C. T-6 and T-5 pedicle facets D. T-6 and T-5 spinous facets E. T-6 and T-7 laminar facets |
B. T-6 and T-5 costal facets
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True ribs have coastal cartilage which articulate with some part of what?
A. Thoracic vertebral body B. Thoracic vertebral transverse process C. Sacrum D. Sternum E. Both a and B |
D. Sternum
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The twelfth ribs have what anterior articulation?
A. Xiphoid process B. Rib 7's costal cartilage C. Iliac crest D. Nothing they are floating ribs E. Eleventh ribs costal cartilage |
D. Nothing they are floating ribs
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Thoracic vertebra differ from other vertebra by posessing demifacets or costal facets on their body. What articulates there?
A. Spinous processes B. Rib heads C. Intervertebral discs D. Transverse processes E. Both a and D |
B. Rib heads
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The dens (odontoid process) of C2 (axis) articulates with what?
A. Mastoid process B. Occipital protuberances C. C1's arch facet D. Occipital condyles E. Inferior articular process of C1 |
C. C1's anterior arch facet
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Which rib articulates with the sternal angle?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 |
B. 2
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How many pairs of floating ribs are there?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 |
B. 2
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In life what resides in the sacrum's anterior sacral foramina
A. Sacral nerve anterior primary branches B. Sacrotuberous ligaments C. Pubosacral ligaments D. Femoral nerve |
A. Sacral nerve anterior primary branches
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All are features of one of the thoracic vertebra except
A. Long spinous processes B. Transverse foramena C. Transverse costal facets D. Inferior costal facet E. Superior costal facet |
B. Transverse foramena
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|
The total number of phalanges in one hand or foot is
A. 15 B. 14 C. 10 D. 5 E. 2 |
B. 14
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The medial malleolus is a bony feature in which bone?
A. Talus B. Calcaneus C. Fibula D. Tibia E. Femur |
D. Tibia
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Which is not one of the bones used by the 3 named foot arches to touch the ground?
Consider only a high and well formed arch. A. Calcaneus B. Intermediate cuneiform C. 1st metatarsal D. 5th metatarsal |
B. Intermediate cuneiform
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The lateral wall of the carpel tunnel would be partly formed by a capral bone which is most lateral and also lying anterior (toward palmar surface) in front of another more posterior carpal bone. Pick the best carpal for this
A. Schaphoid B. Triquetral C. Trapezium E. Pisiform |
E. Pisiform
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The lower extremity digiti minimi's metatarsal articulates with what tarsal bone?
A. Hamate B. Navicular C. Cuboid D. Calcaneus E. Lateral cuneiform |
C. Cuboid
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The first toe is called
A. Bob B. Indicus C. Digiti minima D. Hallux E. Pollex |
D. Hallux
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Which of the tarsal bones articulates with metatarsal one?
A. Talus B. Calcaneus C. Cuboid D. Navicular E. Medial cuneiform |
E. Medial cuneiform
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Which lower extremity (appendicular skeleton) bone articulates (forms a joint) with the axial skeleton?
Some ppl complain of pain in this joint A. Femur B. Pubis C. Ilium D. Ishcium |
C. Ilium
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Which of the following is not a bony feature of the scapula
A. Coroacoid process B. Acromium process C. Glenoid fossa or cavity D. Deltoid tuberosity E. Infraspinous fossa |
D. Deltoid tuberosity
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Which carpal bones articulate with the radius to form the proximal wrist joint?
A. Pisiform and hamate B. Lunate and Triquetral C. Scaphoid and Pisiform D. Capitate and Trapezoid E. Scaphoid and Lunate |
E. Scaphoid and Lunate
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The pollex's metacarpal articulates with which carbal bone to form a saddle shaped joint?
A. Triquetral B. Trapezium C. Scaphoid D. Lunate E. Pisiform |
B. Trapezium
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|
Digiti minimi's metacarpal articulates with which carpal bone?
A. Hamate B. Capitate C. Trapezoid D. Scaphoid E. Lunate |
A. Hamate
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The ulna articulates distally with what structure (other than the radius) at the wrist
A. Hamate B. Capitate C. Trapezoid D. An articular disc E. Scaphoid |
D. An articular disc
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The fetal head must pass through the maternal pelvic outlet which does not include which bony feature. (the pelvic exam discussed in lab notes all of these except one which is not a part of the pelvic outlet)
A. Ischial spines B. Coccyx C. Sacral promontory D. Pubic arch |
C. Sacral promontory
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The female's pelvic inlet is better shaped for passing the head of the fetus. Its shape is
A. heart shaped B. Rhomboid C. Oval or round D. Squamos E. Icosahedral |
C. Oval or round
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|
The fibula is in what relation to the tibia?
A. Superior B. Lateral C. Posterior D. Medial E. Distal |
D. Medial
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The bones of the elbow (humerus, ulna, and radius) for a carry angle in anatomical position when the forearme is
A. Pronated B. Flexed C. Supinated D. Held with the hand in front of the face |
C. Supinated
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|
Which bone must move in order to close the carry angle in the anatomical position?
A. Humerus B. Ulna C. Scapula D. Clavicle E. Radius |
E. Radius
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|
The head of the radius presses against and is supported by what part of the humerus at the elbow?
A. Capitulum B. Trochlea C. Medial epicondyle D. Coranoid process E. Olecranon process |
A. Capitulum
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The upper extremity has only one articulation with the axial skeleton at which joint?
A. Glenohumeral B. Radio-ulnar C. Sternoclavicular D. Sternal angle E. Acromioclavicular |
C. Sternoclavicular
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Which of the following bones does not contribute to the formation of the ankle joint?
A. Calcaneus B. Talus C. Fibula D. Tibia |
A. Calcaneus
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Joint stability is improved by all of these except
A. Increase muscle tone B. Good fitting shape of bones forming the joint C. Decreased contact between the bones D. Having more ligaments and tendinous support |
C. Decreased contact betweeen the bones
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What joint classification is limited to performing only flexion and extension and no other actions
A. Pivot joint B. Hinge joint C. Gliding joints D. Ball and socket joints E. Saddle joints |
B. Hinge joints
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When a joint can perform flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction, it can also perform which of the following actions?
A. Lateral rotation B. Medial rotation C. Gliding D. Pronation E. Circumduction |
E. Circumduction
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The index (2nd) finger's interphalangeal joints (between proximal, middle, or distal phalanx bones) is classified as what kind of joint?
A. Gliding B. Ball and socket C. Hinge D. Saddle E. Pivot |
C. Hinge
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Rising up on your toes (toes moving downward) is required during running and jumping. This action is called
A. Dorsiflexion B. Plantarflexion C. Hyper-extension D. Pronation E. Eversion |
B. Plantarflexion
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The carpometacarpal joint at metacarpal #1 is capable of which action?
A. Lateral rotation B. Medial rotation C. Gliding D. Pronation E. Circumduction |
E. Circumduction
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The glenohumeral joint is not capable of which of the following movements?
A. Circumduction B. Extension C. Medial rotation D. Flexion E. Gliding |
E. Gliding
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In lecture we examine what happens during a posterior-lateral blow to the knee as is experienced in certain contact sports. Which of the following is not one of the 3 structures most often injured in this event?
A. Medial meniscus B. Anterior cruciate ligament C. Fibular collateral ligament D. Tibial collateral ligament |
C. Fibular collateral ligament
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The thumb's carpometacarpal joint allows the thumb which special action with respect to other fingers
A. Extension B. Abduction C. Opposition (and finger snapping) D. Circumlocution E. Introspection |
C. Opposition (and finger snapping)
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The radio-ulner joints of the antebrachium collectively perform which action?
A. Flexion B. Abduction C. Circumduction D. Supination/pronation E. What's an antebrachium |
D. Supination/pronation
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The intervertebral joint at the disc is listed as which joint classification?
A. Syndesmosis B. Synchondrosis C. Symphysis D. Gomphosis E. Synovial |
E. Symphysis
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The knee joint can perform which of the following actions
A. Flexion/extension B. Gliding C. Circumduction D. Rotation E. Abduction/adduction |
A. Flexion/extension
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All of the following muscles have tendons which contribute to the shoulder's rotator cuff except
A. Teres minor B. Supraspinatus C. Infraspinatus D. Teres major E. Subscapularis |
D. Teres major
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Which of the following diseases refers to degenerative joint disease caused by wear and tear and is mostly non-inflammator except in its initial stages
A. Gouty arthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. osteoarthritis D. Pagets disease |
C. Osteoarthritis
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The synovial joint between vertebral superior and inferior processes has what structural type?
A. Hinge B. Ball and socket C. Pivot D. Saddle E. Planar (gliding) |
E. Planar (gliding)
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The ankle joint at the tibia is categorized as what structural type?
A. Ball and socket B. Gliding C. Pivot D. Hinge E. Saddle |
D. Hinge
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What do you call a synovial sac lined with synovial membrane filled with synovial fluid and lying between 2 ligaments
A. Symphysis B. Chondrosynovium C. Bursa D. Synovial cyst E. Synovitalitis |
C. Bursa
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The pubic symphysis is classified as what kind of joint
A. Syndesmosis B. Synchondrosis C. Symphysis D. Gomphosis E. Synovial |
C. Symphysis
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The atlantoaxial joint at the dens between C1 and C2 vertebrae haas what stuctural classification
A. Hinge B. Pivot C. Ball and socket D. Condyloid E. Saddle |
B. Pivot
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The first rib's articulation with the manubrium is listed as which joint classification?
A. Syndesmosis B. Synchondrosis C. Symphysis D. Gomphosis E. Synovial |
B. Synchondrosis
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What type of movement at the temperomandibular joint occurs when your front incisor teeth bite into an apple?
A. Elevation B. Adduction C. Depression D. Circumduction E. Supination |
A. Elevation
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Name the CT that surrounds the muscle fiber
A. Perimysium B. Sarcomysium C. Epimysium D. Endomysium E. Lyceum |
D. Endomysium
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The action potential (electrical signal) enters the interior muscle cell by what means?
A. Rough ER B. Sarcolemma is continuous with T-tubule membrane C. Z-line D. Golgi apparatus E. Tropomysium |
B. Sarcolemma is continuous with the T-tubule membrane
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Which of the following is a basic unit of contraction within the myofibril?
A. Myomere B. Myolemma C. Myoglobin D. Myofiber E. Sarcomere |
E. Sarcomere
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What muscle molecule does ATP phosphorylate to form a high energy charged molecule able to bind to actin and cause contraction?
A. Iron B. Creatine C. Co-Q D. Acetyl Co A E. Myosin |
E. Myosin
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Perimysium is the connective tissue which surrounds what
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Fascicle
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During rest, where does the muscle cell store its Ca++?
A. Bound to myoglobin B. In T-tubule lumens C. In mitochondria D. In the sarcoplasmic reticulum's terminal cisternae E. In transport vesicles |
D. In the sarcoplasmic reticulum's terminal cisternae
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Which ion initiates neurotransmitter release from the axon terminal at the neuromuscular junction to stimulate muscle contaction?
A. Fe++ B. Na+ C. K+ D. Mg++ E. Ca++ |
E. Ca++
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What ion initiates the muscle's contraction cycle causing myosin to bind to actin?
A. Fe++ B. Ca++ C. K+ D. Mg++ E. Na++ |
B. Ca++
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What specific structure does the calcium interact with in order to move the intervening filament away from the actin binding site?
A. Z-line B. Myosin tail C. Troponin complex D. Myosin hinge E. The t-tubule |
C. Troponin complex
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What is the intervening filament (that is moved away from the actin binding site) which covers the actin binding sites?
A. Keratin B. Betazine C. Collagen D. Tropomyosin E. Reculo-elastane |
D. Tropomyosin
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What occurs spontaneously right after the myosin head binds to the actin filament?
A. Relaxation B. Contraction C. ATP hydrolysis D. Turning off cell phone E. Answer C and D |
B. Contraction
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Myosin will unbind from actin due to a greater affinity for which molecule when in it presents itself?
A. Ca++ B. Mg++ C. K+ D. ATP E. Na++ |
D. ATP
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The myosin head is comprised of what globular protein enzyme?
A. Myoglobin B. Amylase C. Peptidase D. Lipase E. ATPase |
E. ATPase
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Which of the following is a unique structural feature of skeletal muscle cells?
A. Central nucleus B. Branching cells separated by gap junctions C. Has gap junctions D. Striations E. Multinucleated syncytium |
E. Multinucleated syncytium
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What was the stated neurotransmitter found at the neuromuscular junctions?
A. Acetylcholine B. GABA C. Norepinephrine D. Niacin E. Seratonin |
A. Acetylcholine
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Which muscle tissue has a central nucleus, striated cells, gap junctions, and is exclusively aerobic until the aging process injures it?
A. Skletetal B. Cardiac C. Smooth |
B. Cardiac
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It was noted that marbeling or fat found between the fascicles in a sirloin steak represents which area of connective tissue in skeletal muscle?
A. Perimysium B. Sarcomysium C. Epimysium D. Endomysium E. Lyceum |
A. Perimysium
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Skeletal muscle cells during aerobic activity obtain over half its ATP from metabolizing which nutrient category?
A. Glucose B. Cholesterol C. Fatty acids D. Protein E. Nucleic acids such as RNA |
Fatty acids
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What is not a function of muscle?
A. Locomotion (walking, moving blood) B. Maintaining posture C. Erythropoiesis D. Stabalizing joints E. Generating heat |
C. Erythropoiesis
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Any given skeletal muscle can be extended or elongated through the actions of its
A. Synergist B. Origin C. Antagonist D. Prime Mover E. Insertion |
A. Synergist
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During pregnancy the developing fetus will draw nutrients from the maternal blood through the placenta with great forces of diffusion due to rapid growth. the mother's feeling of fatigue may often be due to what most commonly missing nutrient described in the lab presentation?
A. Na+ B. Cholesterol C. Starch D. Saturated fat E. Ca+++ |
E. Ca+++
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The muscular attachment that remains stable during contraction is called the
A. Synergist B. Origin C. Antagonist D. Prime mover E. Insertion |
B. Origin
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The platysma has a tendinous attachment to the fascia underlying the upper chest skin. What is its innervation?
A. Facial B. Trigeminal C. Vagus D. Trochlear E. Occulomotor |
A. Facial
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Which muscle has the styloid process as its origin?
A. Zygomaticus minor B. Risorius C. Masseter D. Sternocleidomastoid E. Styloglossus |
E. Styloglossus
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The genioglossus, styloglossus, and hyoglossus muscles are innervated by which nerve?
A. Facial B. Vagus C. Hypoglossal D. Mandibular E. Olfactory |
C. Hypoglossal
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What muscle inserts onto the mandibular coronoid process and elevates the mandible
A. Frontalis B. Temporalis C. Buccinator D. Zygomaticus E. Levator mandible superioris |
B. Temporalis
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Without magnification we can see longitudinal structures in the contractile bellies of muscle organs that we call
A. Tendons B. Fascicles C. Fibers D. Myofibers E. Ligament |
B. Fascicles
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The genioglossus, styloglossus, and hyoglossus muscles all can move what organ or structure?
A. Mandible B. Hyoid bone C. Ears D. Tongue E. Uvula |
D. Tongue
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What nerve serves the medial and lateral pterygoid muscles?
A. Vagus B. Abducens C. Hypoglossal D. Glossopharyngeal E. Mandibular branch of trigeminal |
E. Mandibular branch of trigeminal
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Sternocleidomastoid muscle has what action
A. Head flexion B. Extension of shoulder C. Pronation D. Adduction of shoulder E. Answers B, C, and D |
A. head flexion
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Accessory nerve innervates which muscle?
A. Temporalis B. Genioglossus C. Sternocleidomastoid D. Buccinator E. Accessorizor brevis |
C. Sternocleidomastoid
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Which of these muscles is not innervated by the mandibular nerve CN V, division III
A. Medial pterygoid B. Buccinator C. Lateral Pterygoid D. Temporalis E. Masseter |
B. Buccinator
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The origin of the masseter muscle is the
A. Skull's temporal fossa B. Angle of mandible C. Zygomatic arch D. Mandible coronoid process E. Ramus of mandible |
C. Zygomatic arch
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Frontalis originates posterior from the
A. Frontal bone B. Galea aponeurotica C. Zygomatic arch D. Sphenoid greater wing E. Eyebrows |
B. Galea aponeurotica
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Which muscle closes the mouth's lips?
A. Labias B. Labial corrigator C. Orbicularis oculi D. Constrictor labia torus E. Orbicularis oris |
E. Orbicularis oris
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Zygomaticus major and minor contribute to what action?
A. Frowning B. Jaw protrusion C. Side to side grinding D. Drawing mouth corners upward and laterally in smiling E. Elevation of cheekbones |
D. Drawing mouth corners upward and laterally in smiling
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The action of the masseter is to
A. Depress jaw B. Elevate the jaw C. Elevate the hyoid D. Depress the hyoid |
B. Elevate the jaw
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What is the origin of the genioglossus muscle?
A. Mandible B. Hyoid C. Mastoid process D. Maxilla E. Answers B and C |
A. Mandible
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Which of the following muscles act as a synergist with masseter?
A. Orbicularis oculi B. Temporalis C. Zygomatic D. Sternocleidomastoid E. Trapezius |
B. Temporalis
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Which of the following is an origin of the sternocleidomastoid muscle?
A. Sternum B. Medial portion of clavicle C. Nuchal ligament D. Acromion process E. Answers A and B |
E. Answers A and B
(sternum and medial portion of clavicle) |
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Corrugator supercilli has what action?
A. Purses lips B. Chin dimpling C. Pinches the nostrils closed D. Retracts mandible E. Draws eyebrows together |
E. Draws eyebrows together
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The platysma is innervated by which of the following nerves?
A. Trigeminal B. Occulomotor C. Vagus D. Trochlear E. Facial |
E. Facial
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Fast oxidative fibers do not have which of these characteristics compared to other fiber types?
A. Fast twich rate B. Many mitochondria C. Many capillaries D. Gets most of its ATP from anaerobic patheays E. Large amounts of myoglobin |
D. Gets most of its ATP from anaerobic pathways
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Which fiber type is the most fatigue resistant
A. Fast oxidative B. Fast glycolytic C. Slow oxidative |
C. Slow oxidative
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What is the origin of the digastric muscle?
A. Mandible B. Hyoid C. Mastoid process D. Sternum E. Answers A and C |
E. Answers A and C
(mandible and mastoid process) |
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Which of the following is an insertion for trapezius muscle
A. Acromium of scapula B. B. Lateral 1/3 of clavicle C. Nuchal ligament D. C-7 to T-12 processes E. Answers A and B |
E. answers A and B
(acromium of scapula and lateral 1/3 of clavicle) |
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Between the anterior and middle scalene muscles there is a triangular space above the first rib. What structure passes through that space?
A. Brachial plexus of nerves and subclavian artery B. Internal jugular vein C. Vagus nerve D. Carotid artery E. Both C and D |
A. Brachial plexus of nerves and subclavian artery
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Which muscle fiber type is exercised and developed most during marathon training?
A. Fast oxidative B. Fast glycolytic C. Slow oxidative |
C. Slow oxidative
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of fast glycolytic muscle fibers?
A. Fast fatigue rate B. Uses anaerobic pathway for ATP C. Can develop large fiber diameters D. They have relatively few capillaries E. They have many mitochondria compared to other fiber types |
E. They have many mitochondria compared to other fiber types
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Which nerve innervates both the omohyoid and the sternohyoid?
A. Vagus B. Ansa cervicalis C. Accessory D. Mandibular branch of trigeminal E. Obturator |
B. Ansa cervicalis
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Latissimus dorsi has what action
A. Medial rotation, extension and adduction of shoulder B. Flexion of shoulder C. Lateral rotation of shoulder D. Abduction of shoulder E. Answers C and D |
A. Medial rotation, extension, and adduction of shoulder
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The infrahyoid muscles have what action during swallowing and speaking
A. Depress zygomatic arch B. Elevate the jaw C. Elevate the hyoid D. Depress the hyoid and thyroid cartilage |
D. Depress the hyoid and thyroid cartilage
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The latissimus dorsi originates through what tendon from the iliac crest, lumbar vertebra, and lower ribs?
A. Diaphragms central tendon B. Trapezial tendon C. Thoracodorsal aponeurosis D. Platysmal tendon |
C. Thoracodorsal aponeurosis
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By opening the posterior lamina of the thoracodorsal aponeurosis you can view and even encircle with your fingers what muscle or group of muscles
A. Latissimus dorsi B. Trapezius C. Quadratus lumborum D. Transversospinalis group E. Erector spinae group |
E. Erector spinae group
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Non-aerobic sources of ATP, fully depleted during a fast sprint must eventually be replenished by ATP from aerobic metabolism
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True
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Which of the following is not a suprahyoid muscle
A. Digastric B. Geniohyoid C. Thyrohyoid D. Mylohyoid E. Stylohyoid |
C. Thyrohyoid
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Which muscle was described as forming the floor of the anterior mouth?
A. Thyrohyoid B. Mylohyoid C. Inferior pharyngeal constrictor D. Sternocleidomastoid E. Orbicularis oris |
B. Mylohyoid
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Slow oxidative fibers have all of the following characteristics except
A. Slow twitch rate B. Many mitochondria C. Few capillaries D. Reliance on aerobic metabolism E. Red color |
C. Few capillaries
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Which muscle fiber produces the largest concentrations of myoglobin(provides red color)
A. Fast glycolytic B. Medium rapid isotonic C. Moderately zippy anaerobic D. Reflexively myogenic E. Slow oxidative |
E. Slow oxidative
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Name the muscle fiber that relies on aerobic ATP synthesis, which has lots of mitochondria and has a quick twitch rate
A. Fast glycolytic B. Slow glycolytic C. Fast oxidative D. Slow oxidative E. Fast cyanotic |
C. Fast oxidative
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Accessory nerve innervates which muscle?
A. Temporalis B. Genioglossus C. Trapezius D. Buccinator E. Latissimus dorsi |
C. Trapezius
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Which of the following is not an origin on the trapezius
A. Occipital bone B. Thoracic spinous processes C. Nuchal ligament D. C-7 Transverse process |
D. C-7 transverse process
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The suprahyoid muscles collectively act to do what during swallowing and speaking
A. Depress the acromium B. Elevate the hyoid C. Elevate the jaw D. Depress the hyoid |
B. Elevate the hyoid
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Erector spinae has which action?
A. Back extension and maintenance of posture B. Vertebral column anterior flexion C. Back circumduction D. Adduction of the hip E. Both C and D |
A. Back extension and maintenance of posture
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Which muscle attaches to both the iliac crest and the 12th rib?
A. Splenius capitis B. Quadratus lumborum C. Latissimus dorsi D. Trapezius E. External oblique |
B. Quadratus lumborum
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The ansa cervicalis nerve of the cervical plexus innervates which muscle(s)
A. Trapezius B. Scalenes C. Three of 4 infrahyoid muscles D. Muscles of mastication E. Sternocleidomastoid |
C. Three of four infrahyoid muscles
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Accessory nerve CN XI innervates which muscle
A. Trapezius B. Splenius capitis C. Erector spinae D. Sternocleidomastoid E. Both answers A nd D |
E. Both answers A and D
(Trapezius and sternocleidomastoid) |
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Name the muscle originating on the sternum and inserting onto the hyoid
A. Omohyoid B. Sternohyoid C. Sternothyroid D. Digastric E. Thyrohyoid |
B. Sternohyoid
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Splenius capitis has which action
A. Abduct the head B. Rescues head from its abductors C. Extend the head D. Flex the head E. Elevates the head above the neck and shoulders |
C. Extend the head
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Erector spinae muscle group is enclosed inside which CT
A. Galea aponeurotica B. Pubofemoral ligament C. Anterior cruciate ligament D. Thoracodorsal aponeurosis E. Iliofemoral ligament |
D. Thoracodorsal aponeurosis
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You have followed the digestive course of barium sulfate through you patients small intestine and can see it radiographically in your patients anterior upper thigh region. What name do you give this condition
A. Ouch B. Femoral hernia C. Testicular detachment D. Severe diarrhea E. Inguinal hernia |
B. Femoral hernia
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The diaphragm is innervated by which nerve?
A. Trigeminal B. Vagus C. Phrenic D. Axillary E. CN XII |
C. Phrenic
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Which abdominal muscle has fascicles running in the sagittal plane?
A. External oblique B. Internal oblique C. Transversus abdominis D. External intercostals E. Rectus abdominus |
E. Rectus abdominus
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Which abdominal muscle has fascicles running diagonally from upper lateral to lower medial (hands in pockets) and originates on the lower ribs?
A. External oblique B. Internal oblique C. Transversus abdominus D. External intercostals E. Rectus abdominus |
A. External oblique
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A scalene muscle origin is
A. Clavicle B. Scapula C. Temoral bone mastoid process D. Cervical vertebrae transverse processes E. Hyoid Bone |
D. Cervical vertebrae transverse processes
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The lecture indicated that aerobically active muscles functioning joyfully in the mid range will obtain more than 50% of their calories for producing ATP from what source?
A. Glucose B. Maltodextrin C. Fatty acids from adipose tissue D. Protein E. Cholesterol |
C. Fatty acids from adipose tissue
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Recall that increased aerobic exercise calls upon the body to use more calories per day. Thus what glucose storage molecule becomes increased in muscle and liver cells?
A. Starch B. Protein C. Fat D. Glycogen E. Cholesterol |
D. Glycogen
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The transverse spinalis group of muscle includes which of these
A. Spinalis B. longisimus C. Rotators and multifidus D. Serratus anterior E. Quadratus lumborum |
C. Rotators and multifidus
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The internal intercostals muscles have what action?
A. Expiration (breathing out) B. Inspiration C. Food digestion D. Gallbladder contraction E. Back extension |
A. Expiration (breathing out)
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What muscle(s) constricts the pharynx during swallowing to propel food into the esophagus
A. Tongue B. Pharyngeal constrictors C. Scalenes D. Digastric E. Sternyhyoid |
B. Pharyngeal constrictors
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Pharyngeal constrictors is innervated by which nerve
A. Spinal accessory B. Mandibular C. Facial D. Hypoglossal E. Vagus |
E. Vagus
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Which muscle has fasicles running sagitally and inserts onto the occipital bone?
A. Semispinalis capitis B. Splenius capitis C. Erector spinae D. Trapezius E. Rectus abdominus |
A. Semispinalis capitis
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Motor neurons of the spinal cord innervating arm and leg muscles were classified in lecture as
A. Bipolar B. Pseudounipolar C. Multipolar D. Completely nonpola E. Jumping from pole to pol |
C. Multipolar
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Dark staining Nissle bodies in the neural cell cytoplasm have what function?
A. Acetylcholine or other neurotransmitter synthesis B. ATP production C. Both answers A and D D. Peptide synthesis because they are rough ER E. Lipid synthesis |
C. Both answers A and D
(Acetylcholine or other neurotransmitter synthesis and peptide synthesis because they are rough ER) |
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The neural process that conducts signals toward the neural cell body is called a
A. Axon B. Neurophrambulator C. Synapse D. Nissle body E. Dendrite |
E. Dendrite
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Which glial cell produces the myelin sheath in the peripheral nervous system?
A. Ependymal cell B. Stereocyte C. Microglial cell D. Astrocyte E. Schwann cell |
E. Schwann cell
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Which glial cell functions in support of neurons anchoring them to their blood and nutrient supply?
A. Oligodendrocytes B. Ependymal cells C. Microglia D. Astrocytes E. Neuronautical morphine |
D. Astrocytes
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Post synaptic neural membranes must depolarize beyond what point to arrive at an all or nothing action potential?
A. Resting potential B. Threshold potential C. Inhibitory post synaptic potentials D. Excitatory generator potentials E. A combo of A and C |
B. Threshold potential
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Which event initiates the depolarization event leading to action potential?
A. Closure of sodium channels B. Opening of potassium channels C. Decreased permeability of Ca++ D. Opening of sodium channels E. Closure of potassium channels |
D. Opening of sodium channels
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If the potassium channels were selectively opened (sodium channels remain closed) what would be the result?
A. Depolarization B. Hyperpolarity C. Approaching threshold potential D. Resting potential |
B. Hyperpolarity
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When an action potential jumps quickly from node to node on a myelinated axon, what is accomplished?
A. decreased speed of impulses B. Increased speed of impulses C. Increased strength D. No effect E. Increased precision |
B. Increased speed of impulse
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What event mainly causes the action potential's repolarization?
A. Closure of Ca+++ channels B. Closure of K+ channels C. Opening of K+ channels D. Opening of Na+ channels E. Answers A and B |
C. Opening of K+ channels
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Which event occurs at the peak of action potential?
A. Closure of trace mineral channels B. Opening of Ca+++ channels C. Closure of K+ channels D. Closure of Na++ channels E. Both A and C |
D. Closure of Na++ channels
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Which of the following muscles do not insert onto the humerus
A. Pectoralis Major B. Latissimus dorsi C. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis D. Triceps brachii E. Deltoid |
D. Triceps brachii
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The microglial cell has what function?
A. Forms CNS myelin sheath B. Forms PNS myelin sheath C. Ventricular lining D. Macrophage-phagocytosis E. Structural anchoring of neurons and capillaries |
D. Macrophage-phagocytosis
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What glial cell produces the myelin sheath in the CNS?
A. Ependymal cell B. Oligodendrocyte C. Microglial cell D. Astrocyte E. Quadracyte |
B. Oligodendrocyte
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At a synapse what ionic influx at the axon terminal causes neurotransmitter to be released into the synapse
A. Na+ B. K+ C. Ca++ D. Mg++ E. Fe++ |
C. Ca++
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The neural process that conducts signals away from the cell body is called a
A. axon B. efferon C. Afferon D. Dendrite E. Nissle fiber |
A. axon
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Action potentials leading toward the nervous system are what kind of impulses
A. Sensory B. Expressive C. Motor D. Isotonic E. Person next to me clueless |
A. Sensory
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Which glial cell lines the brain's CSF filled ventricles and moves the CSF with its cilia?
A. Oligodendrocytes B. Ependymal cells C. Microglia D. Astrocytes E. Neuronautical morphins |
B. Ependymal cells
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A resting potential depends on which of the following features?
A.Leaky K+ channels B. Unleaky Na+channels C. ATP-driven Na+/K+ pump D. All of answers A, B, and C |
D. All of answers A, B, C
(Leaky K channels, unleaky Na channels, ATP drivin Na/K pump) |
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The central nervous system consists of
A. Brain B. Adrenal medulla C. Spinal cord D. Cranial nerves E. A and C |
E. A and C
(Brain and spinal cord) |
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When a neurotransmitter binds to a post synaptic chemically gated sodium channel receptor, what specifically results
A. Intrepidness B. IPSP C. Mild frustration D. Insouciance (carefreeness) E. EPSP |
E. EPSP
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When a neurotransmitter binds to a post synaptic chemically gated potassium channel receptor what generally results
A. Hyperpolarization B. Inhibitory post synaptic potential C. Both A and B D. Elation E. Excitement |
C. Both A and B
(Hyperpolarization and inhibitory post synaptic potential) |
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All action is shaped by the summation of all IPSPs plus all EPSPs. The summation may lead eventually to enough depolarization to result in a threshold potential or enough hyper polarization to prevent one.
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True
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The brachial plexus lateral and medial cords both contribute to which nerve?
A. Radial B. Musculocutaneous C. Ulnar D. Median E. Axillary |
D. Median
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Name the muscle originating on the sternum, ribs, and clavicle, and inserting onto the humerus
A. Deltoid B. Pectoralis major C. Latissimus dorsi D. External oblique E. External intercostals |
B. Pectoralis major
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What structure passes between teres major and minor to clearly separate them?
A. Biceps brachii short head B. Deltoid C. Pectoralis major D. Posterior scalene E. Long head of tricept brachii |
E. Long head of triceps brachii
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What nerve lies in the spiral groove of the humerus running diagonally just behind and below the deltoid tuberosity?
A. Median B. Musculocutaneous C. Axillary D. Ulnar E. Radial |
E. Radial
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Which of the following is the origin of the triceps long head?
A. Supraglenoid tuberosity B. Medial border of the scapula C. olecranon process D. Infraglenoid tuberosity E. Corocoid process of the scapula |
D. Infraglenoid tuberosity
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The brachial plexus posterior cord divides into what famous nerves?
A. Musculocutaneous and Ulnar B. Median and axillary C. Radial and ulnar D. Radial and axillary E. Musculocutaneus and median |
D. Radial and axillary
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The 3 brachial plexus cords are lateral, posterior, and medial to what anatomical structure?
A. Posterior cord B. Intermediate nerve C. Axillary artery D. Median nerve E. radial artery |
C. Axillary artery
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Deltoid muscle is innervated by the
A. Medial cord B. Intermediate nerve C. axillary nerve D. Median nerve E. Radial nerve |
C. Axillary nerve
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The brachial plexus arises from the anterior primary rami of which spinal nerves?
A. T1 to T12 B. C1 to C7 C. C5,6,7,8 and T1 D. C7, T1-3 E. A and B |
C. C-5, C-6, C-7, C-8, and T-1
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Musculocutaneous nerve innervates which compartment?
A. Anterior forearm B. Anterior arm C. posterior forearm D. Posterior arm E. A and D |
B. Anterior arm
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What nerve innervates the anterior compartment of the forearm?
A. Radial B. Median C. Both B and E D. Axillary E. Ulnar |
C. Both answers B and E
(median and ulnar) |
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What nerve innervates the posterior compartment of the arm?
A. Radial B. Median C. Musculocutaneous D. Axillary E. Ulnar |
A. Radial
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Pectoralis major has which insertion?
A. Supraglenoid tuberosity B. Infraglenoid tuberosity C. Scapula's coracoid process D. Both A and C E. Intertubercular groove and ridge of greater tuberosity |
E. Intertubercular groove and greater tuberosity
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Pectoralis major does not have which action
A. Flex shoulder B. Medial rotation of shoulder C. Extend shoulder from raised hand position D. Abduct and laterally rotate shoulder E. Assists latissimus dorsi in rope climbing |
D. Abduct and laterally rotate shoulder
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Latissimus dorsi shares a tendinous insertion with what other muscle
A. Pectoralis minor B. Pectoralis minor C. Teres major D. Trapezius E. Triceps brachii |
C. Teres major
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What muscle is the prime mover of shoulder of shoulder flexion?
A. Trapezius B. Teres minor C. Latissimus dorsi D. Pectoralis major E. Sternocleidomastoid |
C. Pectoralis major
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What muscles will be used in hand over hand rope climbing to lift the torso of the body?
A. Deltoid B. Pectoralis major C. Supraspinatus D. External oblique E. Scalene muscles |
B. Pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi
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The triceps brachii has three heads which all come to a common tendon which inserts onto which bony feature
A. Radial tuberosity B. Ulna tuberosity C. Olecranon process of ulna D. Intertubercular groove E. Coronoid process of ulna |
C. Olecranon process of ulna
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Which of the following muscles does not insert onto the vertebral (medial) Border or superior angle of the scapula?
A. Rhomboid minor B. Trapezius C. Triceps D. Serratus anterior E. Levator scapula |
C. Triceps
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Which adductor and/or flexor of the arm originates on the scapula's coracoid process?
A. Pectoralis major B. Coracobrachialis and biceps short head C. Triceps lateral head D. Teres major E. Deltoid |
B. Coracobrachialis and biceps short head
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Which muscle does not have an origin on the scapula?
A. Supraspinatus B. Biceps brachii long head C. Levator scapula D. Coracobrachialis E. Teres major |
C. Levator scapula
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Which of the following muscles does not have an attachment to the scapula's coracoid process?
A. Biceps brachii short (medial) head B. Corachobrachialis C. Pectoralis minor D. Serratus anterior |
D. Serratus anterior
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The superficial flexors of the forearm share what common origin?
A. Humerus's lateral epicondyle B. Head of the radius C. Humerus's medial epicondyle D. Pisiform E. Ulna's olecranon process |
C. Humerus' medial epicondyle
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the muscle that flexes the distal phalanx of the thumb is
A. Flexor digiti indicus longus B. Flexor opponens C. Flexor digiti minimi D. Flexor pollicis longus E. Flexor radial phayrilongus |
D. Flexor pollicis longus
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Which forearm anterior compartment muscle's medial half is innervated by the ulnar nerve?
A. Flexor digitorum profundis superficialis B. Palmaris longus C. Flexor carpi radialis D. Pronator teres E. Flexor digitorum profundis |
E. Flexor digitorum profundis
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Which of the following is not found in the wrist's carpal tunnel? A. Flexor digitorum superficialis tendons
B. Radial artery C. Median nerve D. Flexor digitorum profundis tendons E. Flexor pollicis longus tendon |
B. Radial artery
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Which muscle inserts into the palmar aponeurosis and originates on the humerus' medial epicondyle?
A. Flexor carpi radialis B. Flexor carpi ulnaris C. Flexor aponeurosis D. Palmaris longus E. Brachioradialis |
D. Palmaris longus
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Name muscle which inserts onto base of 2nd metatarsal, origin medial epicondyle, flexes wriste, and is innervated by median nerve
A. Flexor digitorum superficialis B. Flexor carpi radialis C. Flexor carpi ulnaris D. Flexor lateralis wristus E. Palmaris longus |
B. Flexor carpi radialis
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Which muscle is not innervated by the median nerve?
A. Flexor digitorum superficialis B. Flexor pollicis longus C. Flexor carpi ulnaris D. Palmaris longus E. Pronator teres |
C. Flexor carpi ulnaris
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What muscle flexes fingers 2-5 by inserting into the distal phalanges
A. Flexor digitorum profundis B. Flexor digitorum superficialis C. Flexor fingers pharalongis D. Slexor distal palmaris E. Distal phalageal flexoris |
A. Flexor digitorum profundis
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Which muscle innervated by the median nerve originates on the medial epicondyle, inserts onto the radial shaft and cuase the radius to swivel around the ulna in a medial rotation?
A. Flexor carpi ulnaris B. Flexor carpi radialis C. Rotatore radialis D. Epicondylar radialis brevis E. Pronator teres |
E. Pronator teres
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Name the muscle that inserts onto the scapula's vertebral (medial) border and retracts the scapula?
A. Serratus anterior B. Pectoralis minor C. Trapezius D. Subscapularis E. Rhomboid major |
E. Rhomboid major
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Reverbeating circuits are exemplified by
A. Simple reflex B. Imagining sight of a face from a familiar voice or smell C. Breathing and sleep wake cyle D. Both A and B E. Problem solving |
C. Breathing and sleep wake cycle
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Name a serratus anterior antagonist
A. Trapezius B. Levator scapula C. Biceps brachii D. Pectoralis major E. Latissimus dorsi |
A. Trapezius
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The muscle that extends the distal phalanx of the thumb is
A. Extensor digitorum longus B. Extensor indicis C. Extensor pollicis longus D. Extensor adductus E. Extensor opponens |
C. Extensor pollicis longus
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Name a muscle that inserts onto the ulnar tuberosity and flexes the elbow
A. Biceps brachii B. Brachioradialis C. Brachialis D. Coracobrachialis E. Pronator teres |
C. Brachialis
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Name the deep anterior forearm muscle near the wrist with fascicles running in the transverse plane, originating on the ulna, and inserting onto the radius
A. Flexor digitorum profundis B. Flexor pollicis longus C. Supinator D. Pronator quadratus E. Flexor carpi ulnaris |
D. Pronator quadtratus
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Which muscle is not innervated by the radial nerve?
A. Brachioradialis B. Extensor carpi ulnaris C. Extensor digitorum D. Supinator E. Pronator quadratus |
E. Pronator quadratus
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The muscle that extends the proximal phalanx of the thumb is
A. Extensor digitorum longus B. Extensor indicis C. Extensor pollicis brevis D. Extensor adductus E. Extensor opponens |
C. Extensor pollicis brevis
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In presynaptic inhibition an inhibitary neuron has an axon-axonal synapse that causes the 2nd neuron to come hyperpolarized and causes it to release less neurotransmitter. The inhibitory neurotransmitter coming from the inhibitory neuron is often
A. Acetylcholine B. Histamine C. Dopamine D. GABA E. Norepinephrine |
D. GABA
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Which neurotransmitters insufficiency causes Parkinson's disease and excess may cause schizophrenia
A. Glycine B. Dopamine C. Glutamate D. Epinephrine E. Histamine |
B. Dopamine
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What neurotransmitter increases heart rate and blood flow to skeletal muscles during exercise while decreasing blood flow to the gut?
A. Glycine B. Glutamate C. Epinephrine D. Histamine E. Dopamine |
C. Epinephrine
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The diencephalon represents which portions of the brain
A. pons of brainstem B. Medulla of brain stem C. Thalamus, hypothalamus, and other gray matter regions between the midbrain and cerebrum that regulate set points D. Cerebral hemispheres E. Both B and D |
C. Thalamus, hypothalamus, and other gray matter regions between the midbrain and cerebrum that regulate set points
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Which muscle has a common insertion with pronator teres but has its origin on the lateral epicondyle
A. Extensor digitorum B. Extensor carpi ulnaris C. Extensor carpi radialis brevis D. Extensor carpi radialis longus E. Supinator |
E. Supinator
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Which muscle is not innervated by musculocutaneous
A. Biceps brachii B. Coracobrachialis C. Brachioradialis D. Brachialis |
C. Brachioradialis
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Which muscle extends the wrist and adducts it
A. Brachioradialis B. Extensor carpi ulnaris C. Extensor digitorum D. Supinator E. Pronator quadratus |
B. Extensor carpi ulnaris
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Which muscle extends the wrist and abducts it
A. Brachioradialis B. Extensor carpi radialis longus C. Extensor digitorum D. Extensor digiti minimi E. Supinator |
B. Extensor carpi radialis longus
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With increased experience in a subject area one can get beyond serial pathways of newly learned material. One can see clues causing one to follow several different pathways leading to the same conclusion. This type of neural pathway architecture is referred to as what kind of processing?
A. Serial B. Sequential C. One step at a time D. Parallel E. Peripheral |
D. Parallel
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Serial processing has which important feature?
A. Each stimulus proceeds down many pathways B. Only one specific pathway results in a predictable response C. It has a uniquely different response each time |
B. Only 1 specific pathway results ina predictable response
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Which muscle extends and flares fingers 2-5 and inserts on their distal phalanges?
A. Brachioradialis B. Extensor carpi radialis longus C. Extensor digitorum D. Extensor digiti minimi E. Flexor digitorum profundis |
C. Extensor digitorum
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Extensors of the wrist and fingers have what common origin?
A. Humerus's medial epicondyle B. Pisiform C. head of radius D. olecranon process E. Humerus's lateral epicondyle |
E. Humerus' lateral epicondly
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Which muscle extends the index finger digit #2
A. Extensor indicis B. Extensor digitorum C. Extensor carpi ulnaris D. Extensor carpi radialis E. Both A and B |
E. Both A and B
(Extensor indicis and extensor digitorum) |
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The telencephalon represents which portions of the brain?
A. Pons B. Cerebellum C. Thalamus D. Cerebral hemispheres E. Both B and C |
D. Cerebral hemispheres
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Opiate receptors utilize the same receptors as this naturally occurring brain neurotransmitter
A. Glycine B. Somatostatin C. GABA D. Epinephrine E. Endorphins |
E. Endorphins
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CSF travels from the 3rd ventricle to the 4th via
A. Foramen of Monro B. Foramen of Lushka C. Claude Bernard's cul de sac D. Cerebral aqueduct E. Professor magendis cana |
D. Cerebral aqueduct
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CSF exits the 4th ventricle through which opening?
A. Neural tube B. Epidural space C. Superior apertures D. Dorsal hiatus E. Foramena of magendi and lushka |
E. foramena of magenda and lushka
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CSF returns to the venous blood via what means
A. Via the canal of lushka B. Diffusion from arachnoid villi to superior sagittal dural sinus C. Choroid plexus reabsorption D. Metabolized by liver E. Metabolized by kidney |
B. Diffusion from arachnoid villi to superior sagittal dural sinus
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Converging circuits (stimuli from multiple sources) are exemplified by
A. SImple reflex B. Stimulation from sight of a loved ones face, sound of voice, familiar smell C. Breathing and sleep wake cycle D. Both C and E E. Problem solving |
B. Stimulation from sight of loved ones face, sound of voice, familiar smell
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The star shaped Langerhans cell has what function in the skin?
A. Gives rise to the stratum granulosum B. Macrophage-phagocytic C. Sensory D. secretes melanin E. Decorative |
B. Macrophace-phagocytic
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Name the type of cell in the stratum basale that represents the germinative cell type of the epidermis
A. Merkel B. Langerhans C. Melanocytes D. Keratinocytes E. Fibroblast |
D. Keratinocytes
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Which of the following does not contribute to the color of healthy skin
A. Melanin B. Hemoglobin from blood C. Livers bile D. Carotene from diet |
C. Livers bile
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Ground substance and connective tissue fibers are called what and made by what cells
A. Matrix/melanocytes B. Plasma/osteocytes C. Matrix/fibroblasts D. Matrix/osteoblasts E. Both C and D are correct |
E. Both C and D are correct
(matrix/fibroblasts and osteoblasts) |
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Name a location where dense irregular CT is found
A. Tracheal cartilage B. Tendons and ligaments C. Dermis of skin D. Invading areolar tissue E. Lining oral cavity |
C. Dermis of the skin
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Which stratum or layer of epidermis contains spiny or prickle cells held together by visible tonofilaments of desmosomes
A. Corneum B. Lucidum C. Granulosum D. Spinosum E. Basale |
D. Spinosum
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The ground substance of the CT proper is ___ while that of cartilage is ___
A. Both are solid B. Gaseous/liquid C. Solid/liquid D. Both are liquid E. Liquid/Solid |
E. Liquid/solid
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The dermal papillary layer is closest the epidermis and contains
A. Adipose tissue B. Lots of capillaries for nourishing the epidermis C. Articular cartilages D. Fibrocartilage E. Transitional epithelium |
B. Lots of capillaries for nourishing the epidermis
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The dermal reticular layer is composed largely of what sort of fibroblast secretion?
A. Keratin B. Sebum C. Solid ground substance D. Digestive enzymes E. Woven collagen bundles |
E. woven collagen bundles
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Sometimes babies from natural childbirth have what abnormal skin color due to lack of circulation
A. cyanotic (blue) B. Blushing (pink) C. Jaundiced (yellow from bile) D. Green (from photosynth) |
A. Cyanotic blue
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Name the cells of areolar tissue that form the fibers and ground substance
A. Osteoblasts B. Chondroblasts C. Fibroblasts D. Connectocytes E. Keratinocytes |
C. Fibroblasts
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What tissue may collect in the areolar or loose CT where ever it resides?
A. Simple squamous B. Adipose C. Transitional D. Neural tissue E. Pseudostratified columnar |
B. Adipose
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Name the hyaline cartilage cells and their location
A. Fibroblasts/inside collagen B. Chondrocytes/inside lacunae C. Osteoblasts/inside temporal meatus D. Keratinocytes/inside neurovascular bundles |
B. Chondrocytes inside lacunae
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Dense regular CT forms what structures
A. Lining of stomach B. Organ capsules C. Skin surface D. Bone matrix E. Tendons and ligament |
E. Tendons and ligaments
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Elastic cartilage is commonly found in the
A. Finger joint articular cartilage B. Mandible C. Intervertebral discs D. Ear E. FIngernails |
D. Ear
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Fibrocartilage makes up what important feature
A. Organ capsules B. Fingernails C. Intervertebral discs between vertebrae D. Toe nails E. Ear |
C. Intervertebral discs between vertebrae
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Which smooth glassy cartilage form moveable joint surfaces and tracheal cartilage?
A. Elastic cartilage B. Hyaline cartilage C. Fibrocartilage D. Calcified cartilage E. Mica |
B. Hyaline cartilage
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Hair follicles arise from what skin layer?
A. Dermis' papillary layer B. Dermis' reticular later C. Dermis' collage under layer D. Hypodermis E. Epidermal stratum basale |
E. Epidermal stratum basale
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Holocrine glands are exemplified by which type of gland
A. Salivary B. Sweat C. Sebaceous D. Pituitary E. Lacrimal |
C. Sebaceous
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Which stratum or layer of the epidermis contains keratin and the plasma membranes of dead skin cells?
A. Basement membrane B. Corneum C> Granulosum D. Spinosum E. Basale |
B. Corneum
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Which stratum or layer of the epidermis contains a vast network of arteries and veins?
A. Basale B. Lucidum C. Granulosum D. Spinosum E. None of these the epidermis is avascular |
E. None of these the epidermis is avasuclar
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Name the bony feature that joins the transverse process of the vertebra to its spinous process
A. Body B. Crest C. Fossa D. Pedicle E. Lamina |
E. Lamina
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As you pass your finger down the mid-sagittal line on the back of your nexk you feel the most prominent spinous process near the base of the neck. This belongs to which of these vertebrae
A. C1 B. C8 C. C7 D. T9 E. L1 |
C. C7
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Which of the following represents a secondary spinal curve that develops from standing erect on 2 feet?
A thoracic B. Coccygeal C. Sacral D. Scoliotic E. Lumbar |
E. Lumbar
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Which of the following represents a primary spinal curve that we are born with
A. Sacral B. Thoracic C. Cervical D. A and B E. Lumbar |
D. A and B
(sacrum and thoracic) |
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In life the spinal cord occupies which part of the vertebral column
A. Transverse foramena B. Vertebral Canal C. Intervertebral foramen D. Interspinous canal E. Flavum canal |
B. Vertebral canal
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Name the ligament that supports the vertebral column along the anterior aspect of each vertebral body
A. Central ligament B. Anterior longitudinal ligament C. Posterior longitudinal ligament D. Ligamentum flavum E. Supraspinous ligament |
B. Anterior longitudinal ligament
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Name the ligament that supports the vertebral column along the anterior aspect of the vertebral canal
A. Central ligament B. Anterior longitudinal ligament C. Posterior longitudinal ligament D. Ligamentum flavum E. Supraspinous ligament |
C. Posterior longitudinal ligament
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Recall that the pedicles ossify sequentially and directionally. We gave some vertebral features the expression zip ip or zip down regarding ossification. Which vertebra are last to ossify their pedicles?
A. Lumbar B. Thoracic C. Cervical D. Occipital E. Costal |
A. Lumbar
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Name the ligament that supports the vertebral column along the posterior aspect of the vertebral canal by connecting the lamina of all adjacent vertebrae.
A. Posterior vertebral ligament B. Anterior longitudinal ligament C. Posterior longitudinal ligament D. Ligamentum flavum E. Supraspinous ligament (Pierce for anesthesia) |
D. Ligamentum flavum
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What is the nucleus pulpsus?
A. Part of the supraspinous ligament B. A sacral bone process C. Both A and B D. Gelatinous mass at the center of each intervertebral disc E. Part of the brain |
D. Gelatinous mass at the center of a intervertebral disc
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An exaggerated thoracic curve is referred to as what
A> Secondary curve B. Lordosis C. Sacral curve D. Scoliosis E. Kyphosis |
E. Kyphosis
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The sacrum is usually formed by how many fused vertebrae
A. 4 B. 5 C. 3 D. 6 E. 7 |
B. 5
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Recall that the lamina ossify posteriorly to form the spinous processes. Which spinal processes form last causing them to appear bifid
A. Lumbar B. Thoracic C. Cervical D. Occipital E. Costal |
C. Cervical
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A abnormal lateral curvature of the spine usually forming an S curve is
A. Thoracis primary curve B. Lordosis C. Sacral cruve D. Scoliosis E. Lumbar secondary curve |
D. Scoliosis
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Vertebra C4 has how many articulations with other bones
A. 2 B. 6 C. 12 D. 4 E. 8 |
B. 6
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Thoracic vertebrae differ from other vertebrae because they have extra articulations for
A. Spinous processes B. Ribs C. Intervertebral discs D. Transverse processes E. A and D |
B. Ribs
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Name the vertebra that articulates with the occipital condyles and allows for head to nod forward and backward in the yes gensture
A. Axis B. Athena C. Aphrodite D. Atlas E. Apollo |
D. Atlas
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Name the vertebra immediately superior to T1
A. C1 B. C8 C. T2 D. C7 E. L5 |
D. C7
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What part of the vertebra joins the transverse process to the body
A. Spinous process B. Lamina C. Infundibulum D. Superior articular process E. Pedicle |
E. Pedicle
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Name the vertebra immediately superior to the sacrum
A. T12 B. C7 D. L1 D. L5 E. L6 |
D. L5
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