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119 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Colonization initially occurs on _____. Followed by ______. |
skin, umbilical cord, genitals eyes, throat, nares |
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Stage 1 of GI tract colonization |
birth to 1 week of age contact organisms |
|
Stage 2 of GI tract colonization |
Diet breastmilk maintains acid environment, which prevents growth of acid sensitive bacteria protects from gram pos/neg organisms |
|
most common probiotics |
bifidobacterium lactobacilus |
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limitations of PMNs (6) |
1.) decreased chemotaxis 2.) decreased opsonization 3.) decreased phagocytosis 4.) decreased macrophage activity 5.) decreased natural killer cells 6.) unable to increase neutrophil production |
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Immunoglobulins that cross placenta |
IgG, esp IgG1 and IgG3 cross placenta in 3rd month (16weeks) and increase until term |
|
purpose of IgG1 and IgG3 |
opsonization |
|
IgA |
does not cross placenta, but present in fetus about 30 weeks after birth, comes from breast milk |
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IgA is present in tears, saliva, intestinal mucosa by ____ weeks |
33 |
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Only ______ immunoglobulins are directly responsible for antibodies against most common organisms causing neonatal sepsis |
IgM and IgA |
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IgE production begins at ____ weeks. |
12
|
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IgE is responsible for ____ |
allergic reactions |
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Fetus can produce IgM to TORCH organisms by ____ weeks |
19-20 |
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IgM is secreted by ____. |
B lymphocytes |
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which is the major immunoglobulin synthesized in the first month of life? |
IgM |
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IgG purpose |
immunity to gram negative organisms and virus |
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IgA purpose |
localized immunity in the GI and respiratory tract |
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IgM purpose |
protection agains blood born infections |
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Most common lymphokine |
interleukin 1 |
|
purpose of interleukin 1 (2) |
1.) activates helper t cells 2.) produces fever |
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Do T cells cross placenta? When are they produced? |
No, they do not cross the placenta. Immunity can take 4-6 weeks after birth. |
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Complement proteins are made in the ____. |
Liver |
|
Gram positive cocci (2) |
1.) Streptococcus (A,B,D) pneumoniae 2.) Staphylococcus aureus and epidermidis |
|
Gram negative cocci (3) |
1.) Neisseria meningitidis 2.) N. gonorrhaea 3.) branhamella catarrhalis |
|
Gram positive rods (3) |
1.) Listeria 2.) C diff 3.) c botulinum |
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Gram negative rods(7) |
1.) E coli 2.) klebsiella 3.) Shigella 4.) Salmonella 5.) H. flu 6.) Pseudomonas 7.) Citrobacter |
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Risk of infection decreases after ______. |
2-3 months of age |
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Formation of the neural tube begins: |
4th week |
|
Somites become: |
skeleton, vertebral column, muscles, dermis of neck/trunk |
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cranial portion of neural tube closes on what day |
25th |
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caudal part of neural tube closes on what day |
2 days after cranial (27) |
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Occipital somites (first 4 pair) |
eyes, ears, muscles of tongue
|
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Cervical somites (next 8 pair) |
occipital bone, cervical vertebrae, dermis of neck |
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Thoracic somites (next 12 pair) |
muscles/bone of thorax, abdominal wall |
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Lumbar somites (5 pair) |
abdominal muscle |
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Sacral somites (5 pair) |
dermis/musculature |
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Coccygeal somites (3 pair) |
coccyx |
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Neural crest cells become: |
migrate to diverse locations of the body initiates development of sensory and autonomic nerves |
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3 layers of neural tube |
1.) ventricular zone (inner) 2.) Intermediate zone (mantle) 3.) Marginal zone |
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Ventricular zone contains: (2) |
1.) neuroblasts 2.) glioblasts |
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Neuroblasts |
future nerve cells |
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Glioblasts |
future supporting cells (astrocytes, oligodendrocytes) |
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Marginal zone contains: (2) |
1.) white matter of spinal cord 2.) axons grow into in from nerve cells in spinal cord, spinal ganglia, and brain |
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Intermediate zone purpose |
area where neurons develop |
|
sulcus limitans |
groove that separates cells into the walls of neural tube, located on each side of the neural tube |
|
cells dorsal of the SC sulcus limitans |
"alar plate" development of sensory neurons |
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cells ventral to SC sulcus limitans |
"basal plate" form motor neurons, ventral and lateral gray horns, spinal nerves |
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3 layers of spinal meninges |
1.) dura mater (external) 2.) pia mater (internal) 3.) arachnoid mater (middle) |
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Which layer of the meninges former the CSF cavity? |
pia mater. impermeable to fluid |
|
CSF begins to form in the ____ week. |
5th |
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When does myelinization begin? |
2nd trimester |
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Where does myelinization first appear? |
PNS - motor before sensory CNS - sensory before motor |
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Myelin is a _____ |
lipoprotein |
|
myelinization is associated with ____ (2) |
1.) cognition 2.) learning development |
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Myelin sheathes are formed by ____ |
oligodendrocytes |
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Purpose of schwann cells |
myelin sheathes that wrap around axons on PERIPHERAL nerves |
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What part of the neural tube becomes the brain? |
cranial to the 4th pair of somites |
|
3 primary brain vesicles |
1.) forebrain 2.) midbrain 3.) hindbrain |
|
forebrain AKA |
prosencephalon |
|
midbrain AKA |
mesencephalon |
|
hindbrain AKA |
rhombencephalon |
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The forebrain divides into __(2)____ in the _____ week. |
1.) telencephalon (anterior) 2.) diencephalon (posterior) 5th week |
|
Telencephalon becomes |
cerebral hemispheres (cortex, olfactory system) |
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Diencephalon becomes (2) |
thalamus hypothalamus |
|
Hindbrain divides into (3) |
1.) myelencephalon (caudal) 2.) metencephalon (rostral) 3.) cavity of hindbrain |
|
Myelencephalon becomes |
medulla oblongata |
|
Metencephalon becomes |
pons and cerebellum |
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Cavity of hindbrain becomes |
4th ventricle |
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The ____ secretes CSF |
choroid plexus |
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The cavities of the telencephalon and diencephalon contribute to the formation of the: |
3rd ventricle |
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The Posterior Pituitary secretes |
oxytocin ADH |
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The first snaps appears at _____ GA |
8-9 weeks |
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Cortical synapses appear at ____ |
23 weeks |
|
Tight junctions can be altered by (3) |
1.) asphyxia 2.) hemorrhage 3.) hypercarbia |
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Factors that interfere with cerebral auto regulation (3) |
1.) hypoxemia 2.) hypercarbia 3.) acidosis |
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2 ares of brain most susceptible to damage |
1.) subependymal germinal matrix 2.) periventricular white matter |
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_____ areas of the brain are less sensitive |
grey matter |
|
HIE causes damage to |
cerebral cortex - cerebrum - cerebellum - brain stem RESULT: edema |
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The eyes are developed from 4 structures: |
1.) neuroectoderm of the forebrain 2.) surface ectoderm of the head 3.) mesoderm between 1 and 2 4.) neural crest cells |
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First evidence of eyes occurs at ____ GA |
22 days Appear in the neural fold |
|
The neuroectoderm of the forebrain develops into what portions of the eye? (3) |
1.) retina 2.) posterior layers of the iris 3.) optic nerve |
|
The surface ectoderm becomes what portions of the eye? (2) |
1.) lens 2.) corneal epithelium |
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The mesoderm becomes what portion of the eye? (1) |
fibrous and vascular coats of the eye |
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The neural crest cells become what portions of the eye? (3) |
1.) Choroid 2.) Sclera 3.) Corneal endothelium |
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In what week does melanin pigment the retina? |
6th |
|
The optic cup becomes the ____. |
Retina |
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The optic stalk becomes the ___. |
Optic nerve |
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The optic nerve has 3 sheathes: |
1.) outer from dura mater (thick/fibrous) 2.) intermediate from arachnoid mater (thin) 3.) Inner from pia mater (vascular) |
|
Neonates are _____ sighted |
far |
|
Detachment of the retina occurs in what syndromes |
Down Marfan |
|
Coloboma occurs in what month |
2nd |
|
How common are colhbomas? Are they hereditary? |
1/10K autosomal dominant |
|
Cyclopia inheritance |
recessive |
|
Cause of coloboma |
alcohol |
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Microphthalmia occurs in what week? |
4th |
|
Causes of microphthalmia |
1.)Autosomal dominant, recessive or X linked 2) Infections (toxoplasmosis, HSV) |
|
Color of iris is definitive by |
6-10 months |
|
pigment containing cells are called |
chromatophores |
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congenital glaucoma causes |
genetic rubella early in pregnancy |
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Causes of congenital cataracts |
1.) genetic (dominant) 2.) Rubella (4th-7th week) 3.) Enzyme deficiency (galactosemia) |
|
The eyelids develop in the ____ week |
6th week |
|
The eyelids are derived from the |
neural crest cells and 2 folds of ectoderm that grow over the cornea |
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Eyelids are fused: |
from 8th week until 26-28 weeks |
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The cornea develops from: |
external corneal epithelium connective tissue from the mesoderm neural crest cells |
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Muscles of the eye come from the ___ pharyngeal arch |
2nd |
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The muscles of the eye are supplied by Cranial nerve ___. |
7 |
|
The lacrimal glands do not function fully until |
6 weeks |
|
Tears are not present until what age |
1-3 months |
|
3 parts of the ear |
1.) external ear (pinna, acoustic passage, eardrum) 2.) middle ear (3 ear bones, tympanic membrane) 3,) internal ear ( hearing and balance) |
|
2 portions of inner ear |
1.) utricular portion (semicurcular ducts) 2.) saccular portion (cochlear ducts, cochlea) |
|
Template for 3 middle ear bones comes from |
first 2 pharyngeal arches |
|
The smallest, lightest bone in the body |
stapes |
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Main growth of the eustachian tube occurs |
16-28 weeks |
|
comparison of adult and infant eustachian tube |
infants is shorter, more narrow, horizontal, opened by single muscle adult is longer, wider, 45 degrees, opened by 2 muscles |
|
The external ear develops from the |
1st pharyngeal groove |
|
The external ear is plugged until the ___ week |
28th |
|
Preauricular sinus may be assoc with |
deafness and kidney malformation |
|
Preauricular sinus is caused by a defect of the _______ during the ____ week. |
1st pharyngeal arch 6th week |
|
Ear tags |
typically inherited trait |