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73 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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If an employee is possibly exposed to a communicable disease what do they do
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Wash the area with soap and water, saline flush the eyes if necessary and Immediately report the exposure to their supervisor
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Who does the supervisor notify if one of their subordinates tell them that they've been exposed to a communicable disease
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the supervisor shall immediately report the exposure to the infection control officer via communications
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Define "Parenteral"
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Piercing mucous membranes or the skin barrier through such events as needlesticks, human bites, cuts and abrasions.
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If no answer is recieved from the infection control officer, how long should you wait to take action and what would that action be
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if you recieve no answer within 15 minutes, have communications page a second time
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If there is no answer from the infection control officer after 2 attempts, what should you do
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contact the EMS division manager or director of BET
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In situations where criminal investigation and/or arrests are indicated AND AIDS testing or other types of communicable diseases is indicated what must be attached to the police report and by whom is it sent
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a "request for AIDS testing" form for attachment to the police report will be completed and routed by the INFECTION CONTROL OFFICER. This must be done prior to review by the DA's office
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What is the "pertinent exposure information" that a captain must have ready for the infection control officer once they are contacted
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- level of exposure
- station / shift - incident number, date, time and location - paramedic unit number - expected destination of PT - name, age, date of birth, sex of PT - precautions taken - suspected, confirmed communicable disease exposed - names of personnel exposed/home phone numbers - other pertinent information |
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For exposures where symptoms are experienced, a doctor is seen, or time is missed from work, complete the following forms
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1. form 5020, employers report of occupational injury/illness
2. DWC - 1, employers claim for workers compensation 3. form 240-120A, employers injury memo 4. 240-120F, supervisors accident investigation report |
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Level 1 exposure
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contact limited to merely being in the presence of a person suspected of having a communicable disease
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Level 2 exposure
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contamination of clothing or equipment by PT's bodily fluids
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Level 3 exposure
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exposure of skin/mucous or conjunctival membranes to PT's body fluids. This includes needle sticks, open cuts or sores that have been exposed directly, active coughing in close proximity to the rescuer
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Which level of exposure requires decontamination
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Level 2 and 3
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What is the information needed fot a "request for AIDS testing procedure"
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1. advise PD that the FD will be submitting documentation to "request for AIDS testing"
2. provide name and assignment for FD members affected 3. provide level of exposure 4. obtain arresting officers name, badge number and dept 5. obtain defendants (person in custody) name, dob, case number and booking number 6. obtain info regarding the destination of defendant (jail, hospital, etc.) |
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Universal precautions "casual" definition
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is a common phrase used to refer to self protection against occupational exposure
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How should emergency medical and pulic safety personnel treat bodily fluids
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they should treat all body fluid as potentially hazardous
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Body substance Isolation strategy that has been adopted by SJFD
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BSI refers to an infection control strategy in which ALL body substances are POTENTIALLY infectious. Proper implementation should isolate responders skin and mucous membranes from any contact with blood or other body fluids
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There have been no documented cases of HIV/HBV transmission involving the following body fluids
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- shit
- nasal secretions - sputum or saliva - sweat - tears - urine - vomitus |
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What is the definition of a disease that can be readily transmitted from one person to another, either directly or indirectly
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this is known as a communicable disease
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Type A exposure
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percutaneous exposure with blood or body fluids (ie needle stick or cut exposure)
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Type B exposure
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mucous membrane exposure (ie splash to eyes, nose or mouth)
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Type C exposure
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direct respiratory exposure to droplets or discharge from nose or throat of infected person
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Type D exposure
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indirect respiratory exposure to airborne spread of secretions (ie vicinity exposure to a person infected with chicken pox or measles)
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What is the bleach solution that we use to decon equipment
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1/4 cub of bleach in one gallon of water
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Wavicide has a ___ day use life
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42 day use life
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If your skin has been contaminated what do we use to shower or wash our hands
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septisol solution
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Where do we empty our 10 gallon bag of infectious waste that sits on the tailboard of our engines
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in a 33 gallons infectious waste container back at the station. Place smaller bags in the larger bags, do not OPEN bags
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Where is medical waste taken after it leaves the station
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it is taken to your battalion house
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Where is medical waste placed at a battalion house
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48 gallon bio hazard sharps containers
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For sharps disposal each station will have ___
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two 8 gallon OSHA approved sharps containers for the disposal of sharps shuttles and 1 quart sharps containers
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How do you secure a sharps container after it has been filled
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they are to be secured with a double wrap of tape to prevent accidental opening
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What can be placed in the 8 gallon OSHA approved sharps containers
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ONLY SECURED SHARPS
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How do we dispose of expired medications
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via the AMR supply box at each battalion station
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How often will bio waste and sharps be picked up from the battalion house
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once a week
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Purpose of the unusual occurrence reports
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to appropriately collect, organize and document pertinent data concerning specific EMS calls
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Under what conditions will an unusual occurrence report be completed
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- outside agency complaint
- outside agency commendation - extended transport unit response that negatively impacted PT care - SJFD transport - policy issue - protocol issue - documentation issue - special study - any circumstance where additional information may be useful |
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Which of the conditions of an unusual occurrence report requires that MED 30 be contacted immediately
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- outside agency complaint
- extended transport unit response time that negatively impacted PT care - SJFD transport - policy issue - protocol issue |
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What should be put on the first responder worksheet at a minimum
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- PT name, age, sex
- SJFD company Identifier - times for: PT contact, vitals, tx, med administration, and transfer of care to the transporting ambulance |
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When are PCR's required to be done by
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by the end of the shift
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For Pt's who are not competent or legally able to refuse care who needs to sign tha AMA
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a parent or a law enforcement officer
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Is phone contact with a legal representative acceptable to execute a refusal of care
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YES. The only exception is in the case of a durable power of attorney (advanced directive) in which case the surrogate or attorney myst in fact be present
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Define the Emancipated minor
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1. valid marriage (dissolved or not)
2. active duty in the military 3. court declaration of emancipation (with valid copy of the declaration or DMV ID card declaring emancipation) 4. any female minor who is at least 13 years old and has a child (this does not apply to pregnancy) |
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All ECG downloads must occur for what calls
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1. cardiac arrests
2. field determination of death 3. any PT treated with cardiac IV drugs 4. any ECG rates <60 or >150 5. anytime directed by the ems division 6. all 12 leads 7. ventricular ectopy >6/min or couplets, any runs of V-tach at any rate |
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All ranks below ___ must maintain their EMT certification or they will be removed from firefighting duty until they regain EMT certification
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Battalion chief
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Employees who have been permanently removed from FF duty can or cannot elect to discontinue their EMT certification of when it expires
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CAN elect to discontinue EMT but would then be inelegible to recieve EMT pay
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When can the company officer and crew clear the scene of an EMS call
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only after direct verbal release by the paramedic in charge of PT care
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If a paramedic maintains care all the way to the hospital, what is the policy in order to get the FF back to the station
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- the fire unit will retrieve the FF if the hospital is within that fire unit's first alarm response area
- if the hospital is outside the units first due, notify the battalion chief for return arrangements - paramedic will contact med 30 to request taxi cab authorization for return transportation to the station - or med 30 will personally return the paramedic back to his or her station |
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Authority for management of the scene of a medical emergency shall be vested with the FD unless the situation indicates a possible _____
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criminal case. In that situation the ranking PD officer will assume command of the overall scene with PT care being the responsibility of the FD
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Child abuse policy
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we must report any case, or suspected case of child abuse immediately to PD and the Santa Clara county social services agency, child abuse center
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Define "mandated reporter" when it comes to reporting child abuse
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any FF, PD officer, EMT and other providers as listed
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What is the form used to report child abuse
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form ss-8583
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What form is used to report possible elder abuse
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form soc-341
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Whenever morphine or versed/midazolam is reduced to 20 mg what must occur
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you must contact med 30 immediately
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If an irregularity or a discrepancy is found within our sealed narcotics what must occur
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the EMS field coordinator must be notified IMMEDIATELY through the company officer
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If the off going paramedic is unavailable to sign out of the narcotics log, what needs to happen
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the company officer shall inspect the container, confirm the amount of each medication, and then co-sign the ALS controlled substance log with the on coming paramedic
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Per AMR policy, and AMR medic can or cannot, witness the wasting of a SJFD controlled substance
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CANNOT
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Who can witness the wasting of a controlled substance
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company officer, receiving RN, or receiving MD
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Who is responsible for overall scene management of a medical call
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the company officer
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Who is responsible for medical control on an EMS call
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the first on scene paramedic
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If there is differences in opinion about what medical care should be given between the company officer and the paramedic what is the next action to take
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call base, they will determine appropriate treatment
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Whenever base is contacted, who has medical control
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the base station MD or Rn
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What is the purpose of the vial of LIFE
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to allow FD personnel acces to vital medical information at the scene of EMS responses
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Where is the vial of LIFE kept at a residence
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inside the refrigerator on the top shelf of the door nearest the handle
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What does the acronym LIFE stand for in regards to the vial of LIFE
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Lifesaving Information For Emergencies
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What is the acronym STAR stand for in regards to STAR car
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Supplemental Transport Ambulance Resources
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Transport criteria for STAR car
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- PT is in extemis (eg cpr, cannot be effectively ventilated, delivery of a baby in a breech presentation or prolapsed cord)
- emergent PT, PT has a severe and imminently life threatening condition - whenever the paramedic is directed to immediately transport under base order - when requested by AMR - during and MCI or disaster |
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When does the PCR need to be completed if you transport in a STAR car
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prior to departing from the recieving hospital
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How many levels of conflict resolution are there when dealing with AMR
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4
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1st level of conflict resolution with AMR
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the two medics discuss the conflict immediately following the call and resolve
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2nd level of conflict resolution
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AMR and SJFD meet after the call at the station and resolve
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3rd level of conflict resolution
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formal meeting is set up using the AMR supervisor and MED 30 as facilitators
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4th level of conflict resolution
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each agency's director will be consulted as to approprate resolution up to and including involvement with Santa Clara county EMS agency
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Who is the Infection control officer as of 12/2011
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Reggie Williams BFO Captain in charge of Quality Control
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Who is the assistant Infection Control Officer
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Med 30
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