Q-Bank- Embryology

Front 1

What renal structures are derived from the Ureteric Bud?

Back 1

The collecting system, including the collecting ducts, minor and major calyces, the renal pelvis and the ureter are all derived from the Ureteric Bud.

Front 2

The Renal collecting system, including the collecting ducts, minor and major calyces, the renal pelvis and the ureter are all derived from what embyonic structure?

Back 2

The Ureteric Bud.

Front 3

Which renal structures are derived from the Metanephric Mesoderm?

Back 3

The renal glomerulus and Bowman's capsule, proximal tubule, loop of Henle, and distal tubule are all derived from the Metanephric Mesoderm

Front 4

The Renal glomerulus and Bowman's capsule, proximal tubule, loop of Henle, and distal tubule are all derived from what embryonic structure?

Back 4

The Metanephric Mesoderm.

Front 5

What does the Third Pharyngeal Pouch give rise to?

Back 5

The third pharyngeal pouch normally gives rise to the Inferior Parathyroid glands and the Thymus. Cells from these pouches migrate caudally in the embryo to the eventual location of these organs.

Front 6

What structures arise from the Fourth Pharyngeal Pouch?

Back 6

The Superior Parathyroid glands are derived from the Fourth Pharyngeal pouch.

Front 7

What is DiGeorge syndrome? Describe the signs and symptoms. What causes this congenital disease?

Back 7

DiGreorge syndrome is caused by an abnormal neural crest cell migration. The syndrome results in three types of malformations:

1) Craniofacial, including micrognathia, low-set ears, and cleft palate

2) Partial or total agenesis of the derivatives of pharyngeal of the derivatives of pharyngeal pouches of 3 and 4 (No Parathyroid hormone or Thymic tissue).

3) Cardiac anomalies, including a persistent truncus ateriosis because nerual crest cells fail to properly form the aorticopulmonary septum.

Front 8

What jaw/facial skeletal and muscle structures arise out of the Second Pharyngeal Arch?

Back 8

The Second Pharyngeal arch gives rise to several skeletal and muscular structures. These include the stapes, styloid process, stylohyoid ligament, a portion of the hyoid bone, the stapedius muscle, stylohyoid muscle, posterior digastric muscle, and all of the muscles of facial expression.

Front 9

Is obliteration of the Second Pharyngeal Cleft a good or bad thing? What happens if this does or does not occur?

Back 9

The Second Pharyngeal cleft is normally obliterated. A persistance of this cleft may result in a lateral cervical cyst, sinus, or fistula.

Front 10

What structures arise out of the Second Pharyngeal Pouch?

Back 10

The Second Pharyngeal Pouch gives rise to the tonsillar fossa and the palatine tonsils.

Front 11

Defects in what embryonic tissues can lead to Confined placental Mosaicisim? What is the effect on the fetus?

Back 11

Confined placental mosaicism is the consequence of a genetic aberration occuring in the trophoblasst or in the extraembryonic progenitor cells in the inner cell mass. The genetic abnormality (e.g. a trisomy) leads to abnormal placental development and intrauterine growth retardation. Genetic mosaicism may also be confined to the embryo or may affect both the embryo and the placenta depending on when the mutation occurs.

Front 12

Myelomeningocele is associated with what two specific clinical findings? Does this result from failed closure of the rostral or caudal neuropore?

Back 12

Myelomenigocele is associated with Polyhydramnios and increased Alpha Fetoprotein, which may be detected in the maternal serum or in amniotic fluid. this results from failed closure of the caudal neuropore.

Front 13

Failed closure of the Rostral Neuropore in the Fetus results in what condition?

Back 13

The Rostral neuropore is the opening at the head end of the embryo, and this closes at day 28. Failure to close results in Anencephaly (absence of brain formation).

Front 14

What condition results from failed closure of the Caudal Neuropore in an embryo? Name the various forms of this condition.

Back 14

The Caudal Neuropore is at the Distal end of the fetus and this normally closes at day 28. Failure to close results in the various forms of Spina Bifida: Spina bifida occulta, or Spina bifida with meningocoele, myelomeningocoele, or myeloschisis (open neural tube that lies on the surface of the back)

Front 15

Failure of absorption of CSF by the growing fetus results in what condition. Describe the clinical findings associated with this condition.

Back 15

Failure of absorption of cerebrospinal fluid by the arachnoid villi results in Normal Pressure Hyrocephalus. the ventricles are enlarge due to a lack of the final absorption step in CSF circulation, but there is not obstruction present.

Front 16

What type of neoplasm might lead to the oversecretion of CSF? What condition does this oversecretion lead to?

Back 16

An etiology for the oversecretion of CSF might be a Choroid Plexus Papilloma. Such a neoplasm results in communicating hydrocephalus without obstruction.

Front 17

What is Rathke's Pouch and what problems does it lead to? What structures are invovled?

Back 17

Rathke's Pouch is an outgrowth of oral ectoderm in which the anterior pituitary develops. Persistance of remnants of Rathke's pouch may produce a Craniopharyngioma, an often-calcified tumor in the sella turcica that frequently exhibits some symptoms through compression of the optic chiasm.

Front 18

What is responsible for causing Syringomyelia? How does this condition present/what are the clinical symptoms?

Back 18

The progressive cavitation of the central canal of the spinal cord causes Syringomyelia. This most commonlyl occurs in the cervical canal, but may occur in other parts of the canal, or even medulla. Early presentation is with bilateral loss of pain and temperature in the hands and forearms. With progression, lower motor neurons in the ventral horns are compressed, resulting in flaccid paralysis of the upper limb muscles.

Front 19

What type of malformation will present immediately at birth with excessive oral secretions and gagging, with immediate vomiting upon feeding, with less likelihood of pneumonitis and wheezing? How would this diagnosis change if pneumonitis and wheezing were present?

Back 19

The first set of conditions describe Esophageal Atresia. If pneumonitis and wheezing were present due to feeding, one would have to consider the possibility of a Tracheoesophageal fistula.

Front 20

An newborn infant presenting with bilious vomit shortly after each feeding, along with evident polyhydramnios during the pregancy most likely has what condition?

Back 20

This patient most likely had Annular pancreas from a bifid ventral pancreatic bud that rotates around both the right and left sides of the second part of the duodenum, causing duodenal stenosis. Neonates with this condition present with bilious vomiting and a double-bubble sign on the abdominal x-rays.

Front 21

The placenta is derived from both maternal and fetal tissues. Describe the Maternal and Fetal contributions to the placenta.

Back 21

Mother:
-produces the capillary bed that forms the lacunar network of the placenta.

Fetus:
-produces both the cytotrophoblast and the syncytiotrophoblast, which together from the Chorion. The earliest projections of the Chorion are called the Primary Villi that serve to maximize contact with maternal blood.

Front 22

What embryonic structure gives rise to the smooth part of the right atrium (the sinus venarum), the coronary sinus and the oblique vein of the left atrium?

Back 22

The Sinus Venosus gives rise to all of these structures.

Front 23

The Bulbus Cordis goves rise to what parts of the adult ventricles?

Back 23

The Bulbus Cordis gives rise to the smooth part of the right ventricle (conus arteriosus) and the smooth part of the left ventricle (aortic vestibule).

Front 24

The Primitive Atrium gives rise to what parts of the the adult atria?

Back 24

The Primitive Atrium gives rise to the trabeculated parts of the right and left atria.

Front 25

The Primitive Ventricle gives rise to what parts of the adult ventricle?

Back 25

The Primitive Ventricle gives rise to the trabeculated parts of the right and left ventricles.

Front 26

The Truncus Arteriosus gives rise to what parts of the great vessels?

Back 26

The Truncus Arteriosus gives rise to the proximal part of the aorta and the proximal part of the pulmonary artery.

Front 27

The Adrena Medulla is derived from what type of embryonic tissue?

Back 27

The Adrenal Medulla is derived from neural crest cells.

Front 28

What are some of the adult structures that the Neural Crest Cells give rise to?

Back 28

Neural Crest Cells give rise to the Adrenal medulla, cells of the spinal and cranial nerves, autonomic ganglia (the adrenal medulla is like an autonomic ganglia), melanocytes, leptomeninges, and connective tissue and bone of branchial arch origin.

Front 29

The Adrenal medulla, cells of the spinal and cranial nerves, autonomic ganglia, melanocytes, leptomeninges, and connective tissue and bone of branchial arch origin are all derived from what embryonic origin?

Back 29

These tissues are all derived from Neural Crest Cells.

Front 30

The embryonic Ectoderm gives rise to what adult tissues and structures?

Back 30

The Ectoderm gives rise to the central nervous system, the peripheral nervous system, epidermis and its appendages, mammary glands, pituitary gland, tooth enamel, and neural crest.

Front 31

The central nervous system, the peripheral nervous system, epidermis and its appendages, mammary glands, pituitary gland, tooth enamel, and neural crest are all derived from what embyonic origin?

Back 31

All of these tissues and structures are derived from Ectoderm.

Front 32

What tissues and structures does the embryonic Endoderm give rise to?

Back 32

The Endoderm gives rise to the parenchyma of the tonsils, thyroid and parathyroid glands, thymus, liver, pancreas, the epithelial lining of the GI and respiratory tracts, urinary bladder, urethra, and auditory tube.

Front 33

The parenchyma of the tonsils, thyroid and parathyroid glands, thymus, liver, pancreas, the epithelial lining of the GI and respiratory tracts, urinary bladder, urethra, and auditory tube all arise from what embryonic origin?

Back 33

All of these tissues and structures arise from the embryonic Endoderm.

Front 34

What tissues and structures does the embryonic Mesoderm give rise to?

Back 34

The Mesoderm gives rise to the Adrenal Cortex, rather than the adrenal medullla. It also gives rise to connective tissue, cartilage, bone muscle, blood and lymph vessels, the kidneys, gonads, serous membranes lining body cavities and the spleen.

Front 35

The Adrenal Cortex, rather than the adrenal medullla. It also gives rise to connective tissue, cartilage, bone muscle, blood and lymph vessels, the kidneys, gonads, serous membranes lining body cavities and the spleen all arise from what embryonic origin?

Back 35

All of these tissues and structures arise from the embryonic Mesoderm.

Front 36

The Nucleus pulposis of the intervertebral disks in the spinal column is a remnant of what embryonic structure?

Back 36

The Notochord.

Front 37

A remnant of the embryonic Notochord persists in the adult spine as what structure?

Back 37

The Nuclei Pulposus of the intervertebral disks in the spinal column.

Front 38

What are the cell types that are derived from Neural Crest cells?

Back 38

Pseudopolar cells of spinal and cranial nerve ganglia, Schwann cells, multipolar ganglion cells of autonomic ganglia, chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla, odontoblasts, melanocytes, and cells that make the leptomeninges (pia and arachnoid).

Front 39

Pseudopolar cells of spinal and cranial nerve ganglia, Schwann cells, multipolar ganglion cells of autonomic ganglia, chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla, odontoblasts, melanocytes, and cells that make the leptomeninges (pia and arachnoid) are derived from what type of cells?

Back 39

Neural crest cells.

Front 40

The Neural tube gives rise to what type of cells?

Back 40

Astrocytes, ependymal cell, and oligodendroglia.

Front 41

Astrocytes, ependymal cells, and oligodendroglia are all derived from what embryonic tissue?

Back 41

The Neural tube.

Front 42

Microglia are derived from what embryonic tissue?

Back 42

The Microglia appear derive from blood monocytes.

Front 43

Blood monocytes give rise to what type of cells?

Back 43

Blood monocytes appear to give rise to Microglia.

Front 44

What are the cardiac cells that have been derived from Nerual Crest origin?

Back 44

The Aorticopulmonary septum, and endocardial cushion.

Front 45

What embryonic problem does Hirschsprung disease arise from?

Back 45

Hirschsprung disease results from the failure of neural crest cells to form the myenteric plexus in the sigmoid colon and rectum. Adrenal medulla is another structure which arises from the same embryonic tissue.

Front 46

Describe the embryonic origin of Astrocytes and Oligodendrocytes. What are other tissues derived from the same origin?

Back 46

Astrocytes and oligodendrocytes are both derived from glioblasts, which, inturn, are derived from Neuroepithelial cells. Other neuroepithelial cell derivatives include neuroblasts and ependymal cells.

Front 47

Name some of the neural crest cell derived tissues. Which Cranial Nerves have ganglia of neural crest origin? What are some cell types that have neural crest cell origin?

Back 47

Parasympathetic and sympathetic ganglia (including the adrenal medulla), the dorsal root ganglia of the peripheral nervous system, the sensory ganglia of CNs V, VII, IX and X, and the leptomeninges (pia and arachnoid). Schwann cells, Odontoblasts, Melanocytes, and Enterochromaffin cells are all also of neural crest cell origin.

Front 48

What type of cell do Neuroepithelial cells give rise to? After that cell what comes next in the lineage?

Back 48

Neuroepithelial cells give rise to the earlly neural cell, "Glioblast", which gives rise to neuroglial cells including astrocytes and oligodendrocytes.

Front 49

Describe the maturation from a Primordial Follicle to a Primary Follicle.

Back 49

The most primitive follicles, Primordial Follicles, are inactive reserve follicles that contain primary oocytes (arrested in prophase of the first meiotic division) surrounded by a single layer of flattened follicular cells. The next stage is the Primary Follicle, which is slightly larger and contains a central oocyte surrounded by one or several cuboidal follicular cells.

Front 50

Describe the maturation from a Primary Follicle to a to the Secondary Follicle. What are the differences between the two?

Back 50

Primary Follicles are the next stage after primordial follicles. They are slightly larger than the primordial follicle and contain a central oocyte surrounded by one or several cuboidal follicular cells. When several small spaces in the follicular mass fuse to form the antrum (follicular cavity), the follicle is termed a Secondary Follicle.

Front 51

What is a Graffian Follicle? What does it release and what does it become?

Back 51

The Graafian follicle is the mature form of the follicle, which extends through the entire cortex and bulges out at the ovarian surface. After it ruptures and releases the ovum, the Corpus Luteum develops as the cells of the follicle and the Theca Interna cells enlarge, become epithelioid and secrete estrogen.

Front 52

What are the Corpus Luteum, Theca interna, and the Granulosa lutein. What role do they play in ovulation?

Back 52

After the Graffian follicle ruptrues and releases the ovum, the Corpus luteum develops as the cells of the follicle and the Theca interna enlarge, become epithelioid and secrete estrogen. The Granulosa lutein contain yellow pigment and secrete progesterone. If pregnancy does not occur, the Corpus luteum eventually degenerates; if pregnancy occurs, it is maintained throughout the pregnancy.

Front 53

What hormone do the Theca interna cells of the Corpus luteum secrete? What hormone do the Granulosa lutein cells secrete?

Back 53

The Theca interna secretes Estrogen. The Granulosa lutein secretes Prgesterone.

Front 54

What stage of Meiosis is the Primary Oocyte arrested in?

Back 54

The Primary Oocyte is arrested in the Prophase of Meiosis I

Front 55

What stage of Meiosis is the Secondary Oocyte arrested in?

Back 55

The Secondary Oocyte is arrested in Metaphase of Meiosis II

Front 56

What heart abnormality will be the cause of a machine-like murmur that is two-phase, and continuous across diastole and systole?

Back 56

A Patent Ductus Arteriosis.

Front 57

Describe the signs and symptoms associated with a Ventricular Septal Defect. Is this a cyanotic disease? Where is the murmur heard?

Back 57

VSD is a non-cyanotic heart disease. The VSD mumur is typically harsh and holosystolic, best heard at the left lower sternal border. A thrill is frequentlly associated.

Front 58

What symptoms does an Aortic Valve stenosis present with? What sort of sounds come through with the murmur?

Back 58

Aortic Valve Stenosis is generally a disease of the elderly population. It presents with angina, dyspnea, and syncope. There is an aortic ejection click, followed by a systolic ejection murmur in the aortic area.

Front 59

What artery supplies blood to the structures derived from the embryonic Foregut? What structures are these?

Back 59

The Celiac trunk arises at the level of T12 and supplies blood to all the structures of the embryonic Foregut, and the spleen (which is derived instead from a mass of mesenchymal cells). The structures that are derived from the embryonic Foregut include all the epithelial lined organs that attach to or include the esophagus, stomach, 1st and 2nd part of duodenum, exocrine pancreas, gallbladder, and liver (biliary apparatus).

Front 60

What artery supplies blood to the structures derived from the embryonic Midgut? What structures are these?

Back 60

The Superior Mesenteric Artery supplies the structures that are derived from the embryonic Midgut. These structures include The 2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts of the duodenum, the jejunum, ileum Cecum, appendix, ascending colon, and transverse colon (proximal two-thirds).

Front 61

What artery supplies blood to the structures derived from the embryonic Hindgut? What structures are these?

Back 61

The artery that supplies the structures derived from the embyonic Hindgut is the Inferior Mesenteric artery. The structures include the distal third of the transverse colon, the descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum, and upper part of the anal canal.

Front 62

What organ is involved in an Arnold-Chiari malformation? How many types are there? What are the malformations associated with each?

Back 62

Arnold-Chiari malformations are congenital herniations of hindbrain structures into the spinal canal. Arnold-Chiari type I results from a downward displacement of the cerebellar tonsils; it is more common than type II, but generally asymptomatic. Type II AC involves parts of the hindbrain, cerebellar vermis and fourth ventricle herniating into the foramen. This second type is commonly associated with meningomyeloceles.

Front 63

What are the CNS malformations associated with Dandy-Walker malformation?

Back 63

Dandy-Walker malformation is associated with hypoplasia of the cerebellum and an enlarged fourth ventricle.

Front 64

What is Holoprosencephaly?

Back 64

Holoprosencephaly is a complex malformation of the brain such that only a single large monoventricular cerebral hemisphere exists.

Front 65

What is another name for Agrya, or a "smooth brain", which is a condition characterized by a lack of hemispheric sulci and by severe neurological impairment.

Back 65

Lissencephaly.