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199 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1. Before going aloft, you must obtain permission from the
OOD
M10550.25
2. A shock victim would be unlikely to let go of an electrical circuit with a current level of ______ mA.
10 mA
EIM NAVSEA
SE000-00-EIM-100
3. Two methods used to measure ungrounded electrical power sources are
Shorting Bar method, Isolation Transformer
method
EIM NAVSEA
SE000-00-EIM-100
4. True/False Nickel-Cadmium Batteries should never be charged in parallel.
True
EIM NAVSEA
SE000-00-EIM-100
5. Floor rubber matting should be in compliance with
MIL-
MIL-M-15562D
M10550.25
6. Under what conditions should floor matting be replaced?
When cracked, torn or otherwise deteriorated.
M10550.25
7. Portable electrical tools should be inspected every
Quarter
8. Electrical outlets are required to be labeled whenever they provide voltages
other than
110 VAC
M10550.25
9. The required protective equipment which must be worn when handling Lead Acid Batteries are
Face shield, Apron, Rubber gloves
M10550.25
10. The amount of electromagnetic radiation penetration of energy into the body and its absorption depends upon what three factors?
The physical dimensions of the body.
The electrical properties of the tissues, and
The wavelength of the electromagnetic energy.
EIM NAVSEA
SE000-00-EIM-100
11. State the procedures for rescuing an electrical shock victim.
1. Secure power to circuit.
2. If not possible, do not touch victim but pry victim away from circuit by using an insulated object such as a belt or safety cane.
3. After you ensure that victim is free from
circuit, call for help and commence CPR
M10550.25
1. A physical inventory of a units EIR is required under what three circumstances?
a) Upon relief of the property custodian.
b) Within 2 years of the date the last inventory was taken.
c) At the time of disestablishment of a shore unit or decommissioning of an afloat unit.
M10550.25
2. What applications does CMPlus offer that AIMS does not?
In addition to EEIS and Property Management, CMPlus includes Configuration Management,
Maintenance Management, and Supply
Management.
3. List 5 types of supported electronics systems/equipment that are EIR entries using AIMS or CMPLus.
Communications systems
Depth sounding systems
Navigation systems (Loran, GPS, VTS, radio beacons)
Radar systems
Navy Type Navy Owned systems (NTNO)
Lighthouse Electronic systems
Computer Systems (other than CGSW’s)
All Electronic test equipment
Monitors and cameras used for VTS operations
and supported shipboard configurations
4. The ERPAL revision request should be submitted to
MLC
5. If it is determined that a parts allowance increase is warranted as a result of the
ERPAL submission, who is responsible for funding the required parts?
MLC or Headquarters using OG-42 money. M10550.25
6. Briefly explain the APA Repairable Program.
A program developed by the CG for issue and turn-in of electronic equipment that is not repairable by field units without specialized test equipment and/or training.
7. Who is in charge of managing the APA Repairable program?
Electronics/General Inventory Control Point (E/GICP) at Engineering Logistics Center (ELC) Baltimore, MD.
8. How are APA items requested?
Submitting a MILSTRIP or SURF request.
9. Complete instructions for requisition and turn in of Navy NONAV DLR MTR items can be found in ____________ or _________________.
COMDTINST M4400.13 (series) ch. 7 and
Navy’s Master Repairable Item List (MRIL)
10. You’ll find a complete listing of all Navy DLR items in
In NAVSUP PUB 4107 (Master Repairable Item List), or FED LOG.
11. Who ensures that units have the test equipment necessary to perform CG PMS?
MLC
M10550.25
12. What is the E-mail address for sending a FBR when using a SWSII?
CGPMS/ELC
13. What is the procedure for requesting Navy PMS materials?
Submit an OPNAV 4790/B to Naval Sea
Support Center, Pacific.
1. List 4 types of cable problems a TDR can detect.
Shorted cable, open cable, , frayed cable,
crimped cable
2. A TDR is indicating a dip in its display. This would most likely be caused by a
________ in the cable under test.
Short
3. What effect would decreasing the power of the incident pulse have on the TDR
display?
The smaller the signal out from the TDR, the less noise generated on the display.
4. What is the most common frequency transmitted when measuring line loss with a TTS?
1004 Hz
5. 0 dbm is equivalent to __________ watts.
.001 watts or 1 milliwatt
6. Explain the differences between termination and bridged mode when making a
reading using a TTS.
A terminated reading means that the TTS is loading the circuit. In bridged mode, the TTS is a high impedance to the circuit. Bridge mode is
used when you don’t want to interfere with the circuit.
7. True/False The SINAD test is used to measure an AM’s receiver sensitivity.
False, SINAD is only used in FM receivers
8. What is the delayed sweep function of an oscilloscope used for?
To amplify a certain part of a signal that is under observation
9. Who is delegated authority for the establishment and administration of the CG’s electronic test equipment program?
MLC
COMDTINST
M10550.25
1. You can find information concerning electronic equipment alterations in CG
Manual
Electronics Manual M10550.25
2. List four types of transmission cables
Coaxial, Fiber Optic, Multi-Conductor, Power
3. Given the following information, determine the power loss (in watts) of the cable.
Power into cable 50 watts
Voltage into cable: 100 volts
Cable length: 352 ft.
Cable loss: 2.3 db per 100 ft.
42.25 watts… Total loss in db is .023 db per ft. X 352 ft. equals -8.096 loss. Applying the Power out formula 10 (db/ 10) x Pin = Pout gives a Pout of 7.751 watts. This results in a total loss of 42.25 watts(50 watts minus 7.751 watts)
4. What is the minimum separation required between an Active cable and a Passive cable?
18 inches
5. The minimum bend radius of a Semi-rigid cable with an outside diameter of
.875” is
10 inches
6. Cable tags shall be installed on one side/either side/both sides of bulkheads and decks.
both sides
7. What can be done to protect cables from sharp edges?
Install support clamps, synthetic tubing, or wrap cable with several layers of electrical tape.
8. When routing a cable to a terminal board, how long should you leave spare conductors?
Long enough to reach the farthest terminal.
9. When testing multi-conductor cables, the minimum resistance between individual conductors should be _______________ohms.
Greater than 50 k ohms.
10. What is the maximum temperature that stored cables should be exposed to?
151 degrees Fahrenheit.
11. What must be done to a cable that has been exposed to moisture before you use it? (explain procedure)
Cut back the end of the cable that was exposed no more than four feet to determine if the insulation resistance increases. If it doesn’t increase, discard cable. If it does, run a current through the cable for a few hours to improve its resistance. Continue this process until cable meets the required resistance value.
12. The two basic types of connectors used by the Coast Guard are ___________ and _____________.
Multi-pin and RF connectors
13. List 4 types of RF Connectors used in the Coast Guard.
UHF, N, C, BNC
14. In general, a connector can be left without weatherproofing for up to __________ hours.
24
15. The range of the Microwave frequency band is
900 Mhz to 100 Ghz.
16. What key factor determines the size of a waveguide?
Wavelength
17. How much pressure (psi) Are waveguide systems designed to hold?
3 to 5 psi
18. What are pressure windows?
A moisture barrier that allows a waveguide to be pressurized.
19. A localized area of discoloration in a waveguide indicates
The presence of a foreign object inside the waveguide. A.K.A. hot spot.
20. Box connectors are/are not classified as watertight.
Not
21. What should you do if you tighten down the gland nut in a metal stuffing tube and the cable is still loose?
Add additional sealing packs around the cable.
22. State the procedure for replacing a rubber bushing on an existing nylon stuffing tube with a cable run.
Cut a 30 degree slit on the new rubber bushing and wrap around cable.
23. What is bonding?
The process of joining metal objects together and producing a low impedance connection between them
24. State the 2 types of bonding.
direct, indirect
25. State the 2 classifications of bonds.
Permanent, Semi-permanent
26. The maximum resistance between two bonded metals should be
Less than .001 ohm
27. After completing an installation, what other steps should be taken to insure your customer(s) are totally satisfied?
a. Clean up your mess
b. Document any work alterations and notify the issuing authority
c. Perform a complete functional check to ensure system works properly
d. Update unit drawings
e. Walk customer though
f. Train personnel on new system/installation
1. Define Tower Feed.
A transmission line interconnecting the antenna tower to the transmitter
2. What is the primary difference between an antenna tower and an antenna support tower?
An antenna tower itself is radiating (hot) where as a support tower is not
3. Who must accompany a volunteer climber during the qualifying climb?
At heights up to 100 ft, the climber who wants to qualify does not need to be accompanied. At heights over 100 ft, a CG or civilian engineer must accompany the climber on the qualifying climb
4. Under what circumstances is a climber required to re-qualify if they transfer to another unit?
Must re-qualify if transferring to another district
5. List the 5 main sections of a tower.
Structure, Support, Lighting, Lightning
protection, Mounted equipment
6. What are the two types of lights found on towers?
Fixed Obstruction Lights, Flashing Beacons
7. Antenna support towers are isolated/grounded and Lightning protection is provided by the ground system.
Grounded
8. The most effective way to maintain CG towers is by
regular inspections
9. A major tower inspection should be conducted every
Year
10. Define Birdcaging.
When the outer wires or strands of a cable expand outward from the core.
11. Define Spalling.
A spontaneous separation of a surface layer from a metal.
12. How often should a visual inspection of CG towers be conducted? Why?
Daily, to ensure lights are working properly.
13. On radiating antennas, ground straps are part of the grounding and _____________ system.
lightning protection
14. All towers over _______ ft shall be equipped with a rigid rail safety climbing device.
20
Tower Manual
COMDTINST
M11000.4 ch. 2
15. Define Guys.
Cables used to support an antenna structure upright
16. The purpose of the turnbuckle safety wire is to
Prevent the turnbuckle from loosening
17. Conduits and cables should be secured at a maximum interval of _______ feet.
6
18. Explain the procedure for determining the distance between the lightning protection ball gaps.
a). Secure power
b) Ground tower w/grounding stick.
c) Wipe down spheres.
d) Preset gap between spheres to 1 inch.
e) Un-ground tower and energize.
f) If no arc-over is detected, repeat previous steps and reduce gap by 1/8 inch.
g) Continue decreasing gap by 1/8 inch until arc-over is detected.
h) Increase gap by 1/8 inch to compensate for future contamination on the sphere.
19. Transmission and Feed lines should be inspected for what conditions?
Proper connections, condition of insulation, proper weatherproofing of exposed transmission lines, proper banding, and condition of banding.
20. List the two levels of tower maintenance.
Minor and Major
21. Who is responsible for scheduling major maintenance on CG towers?
Major Field Commanders
1. Define configuration management.
A system of management which ensures that electronic equipment and procedures are done according to Coast Guard established standards.
2. Who is responsible for CG wide configuration management?
SMEF
Naval Engineering Manual, COMDTINST M13020.1
4. Current field change listings can be found in what pubs (Instructions magazines)?
a. COMDTINST M4410.5,
b. CGPMS Work Schedule Book
c. System Times (Formerly T-Magazine)
d. Electronic Installation Maintenance Books
5. What type of information is contained in system block drawings?
a. Block labels for each piece of equipment in a system.
b. Major signal flow.
c. Power distribution lines.
6. What is the color of an Out Of Calibration tag?
orange
Equipment Tag-Out
Procedures,
COMDTINST
9077.1 (series)
7. Completed Inactive Record Sheets should be kept For__________ months as per
(Instruction) __________.
6 months, COMDINST 9077.1B
Equipment Tag-Out
Procedures,
COMDTINST
9077.1 (series)
8. In order to insure the accuracy of all tag-out logs, an audit of existing tagged-out
equipment should be conducted every
two weeks
Equipment Tag-Out
Procedures,
COMDTINST
9077.1 (series)
9. The minimum size (length and diameter) of any driven electrode (ground rods)
to be used in any CG installation is
10 ft, ¾ inch in diameter
COMDTINST
M10550.25,
10. The maximum impedance allowed between earth ground and a facilities ground
system is
less than 10 ohms
11. The maximum acceptable resistance between the ground safety (green) lead and
the AC neutral lead is
less than .5 ohms
1. A (V)6 configuration of the 64 Radar system is used onboard
270’S
2. Why are Antenna Junction Boxes necessary in some 64 Radar configurations?
They are necessary because in some systems, the same antenna must be shared by two MTR’s
3. The loss of _________ _________ (major signal) would cause the loss of the transmitted pulse in the MTR and the loss of antenna rotation.
Transmit Enable
4. What is the power out of an S-Band high power MTR?
60 kW
5. The radar is not displaying a heading flash in any of its indicators. What unit is most likely at fault?
Antenna Array
6. Magnetron electron tubes, which are utilized in the 64 Radar, systems can produce an ________ hazard when operated with voltages in excess of 6 KV?
X-Ray Radiation
7. Compute the average power out of a radar system if the peak power is 18 kW,
PRF is 3600 Hz, and PW is 140 nanoseconds.
9.07 watts…. Pavg = Ppk times PRF times. PW
8. How long (measured in seconds) is a radar mile?
.0000123 seconds or 12.3 microseconds
9. Define bearing resolution.
The ability to separate adjacent targets the same distance away.
10. What is the function of a duplexer?
Connects the antenna to the transmitter during transmit time, and connects the antenna to the receiver during receive time.
11. What three inputs are required by any Collision Avoidance System (CAS)?
Radar, Gyro, Speed log
12. State the transmit frequency, peak power out, and range for both the X and
S-Band 73 Radar.
X: 9410 MHz, 25 kW minimum, 96 Nautical Miles.
S: 3050 MHz, 30kW minimum, 96 Nautical Miles.
13. The purpose of the Junction Box in a 73 Radar is to
Used in configurations with two antennas, it connects the X and S-Band antennas to the SAOP’s.
14. What units or assemblies are considered part of the “Radar Set”?
The antenna, pedestal, and R/T units.
15. What type of R/T does a WAGB class of cutter utilize?
Down R/T
1. CG HF Communication Systems operate in the frequency range of ________ to
___________ MHz.
2 - 30 MHz
2. The MF NAVTEX broadcast is transmitted at a frequency of _____________
518 kHz
3. What does FEC (pertaining to data communications) stand for?
Forward Error Correction
4. The output of a transmitting encryption device would be connected to a red/black patch panel.
Black
5. A CONVERTER (when part of a Keyer/Converter combination) performs what function in a data communications system?
A CONVERTER performs the Demodulation function (audio to digital) in a data communications system.
6. Using a C-11609(P) GRC-901 control head, how is the tune cycle initiated?
By selecting a valid (programmed) channel and keying the microphone.
7. What classes of Coast Guard cutters utilize the HFDL system?
110’s, 140’s, 180’s, 225’s and Polar Ice
Breakers
8. An HFDL system uses a __________ as it’s encryption device?
KG-84C
9. The NAVTEX broadcast uses both the ________________________ and
_______________transmitters for their broadcasts.
Nautel ND250T/6, Nautel NX2500TT/6.
1. List the four types of CASREP messages.
INITIAL, UPDATE, CORRECT, AND
CANCEL
2. What is the criteria for submitting an initial CASREP message?
Must be sent within 24 hours of the failure when an equipment malfunction or deficiency reduces a units ability to complete any mission and cannot be corrected within 48 hours or requires outside assistance to correct.
3. True/False
A “CASREP Correct message” is required whenever failed equipment is replaced with new equipment.:
False, this would require an CANCEL CASREP
4. When should a “CASREP Cancel message” be generated?
In case of equipment replacement by different or newer system or whenever maintenance will be performed during a yard period.
5. List the three parts of a CASREP message.
Header, Body, Footer
6. State the four types of message precedence used for drafting CASREPs.
Routine (R), Priority (P), Immediate (O), Flash (Z)
7. The minimum precedence required of a deployed unit is
Priority
8. Generally, to whom must all CASERP messages be sent?
a. Your operational commander (OPCON) who is usually your group, district or whoever your unit works for.
b. Any unit providing assistance.
9. Where can a complete listing of all unit addresses for CASREPs be found?
Standard Distribution List, COMDTNOTE 5605, Enclosure 5
10. __________must be informed of all electronic CASREPs.
COGARD SUPCEN BALTIMORE
11. State the two parts of a data set.
Data set identifier, Data fields
12. What is the maximum number of data fields possible in a data set?
7
13. What marker is used to signal the end of a data set?
//
14. List the three types of data sets?
Mandatory, Conditional, Optional
15. True/False Message Serial Numbers begin with 001 when the first casualty occurs, and are numbered sequentially until the end of the calendar year. At which time the number resets to 001.
False, Message serial numbers run from 001 to 999
16. True/False A CASREP serial number sequence is only reset when the serial numbers reach 999. Why?
False, CASREP serial numbers are reset whenever the serial numbers reach 999 or at the start of the new calendar year.
17. The check sum for a position of 18 degrees, 55 min South (latitude) is
9
18. The purpose of Casualty categories is to
To identify the degree of impact to mission attainability. In other words, how much this casualty affects a unit’s ability to perform its mission(s).
19. What are “Casualty Category 1’s” used for?
They are reserved for Naval Training
Commands
20. When you have no information to include in a mandatory data set, you should
Type in dashes (-) in the required data fields
21. You are stationed at a Group ESMT and receive an INITIAL CASREP about a failed radar system on a small boat. You repair the radar by swapping out the indicator. The station OOD wants to know what you did to repair the radar and what they should do now. You tell the OOD that you swapped out the radar indicator and they should send a/an _________ CASREP.
Correct
22. How many hours do you have to send an INITIAL CASREP after a failure has occurred?
24
23. You are stationed at a Small Boat Station. Your Group Engineering Officer tells you she wants to know about all of the CASREPS you send out. The group would be a/an ______ addressee.
INFO
24. You are drafting an INITIAL CASREP for a failed SG-1279 Cue Generator. To which SMEF would you send the message ?
COGARD COMDAC SUPRTFAC
PORSMOUTH VA (CSF)
25. Calculate the checksum digit for the following information
a) Speed 13 KT _______
b) Course 081T _______
a) 4, b) 9
26. You are stationed on board WPB 999, USCGC Jefferson. While deployed to a
remote South Pacific Island, THE ANTENNA ON YOUR SMALL BOAT HAS
BROKEN. You don't have a replacement. You send a CASREP message to your supporting Group ESMT to request one. You would send this as a
casualty category _____
3
27. After sending out the third UPDATE CASREP for a failed system, you notice there was an error in the message format. You should
Send another CASREP UPDATE
1. Where should you install rubber mating on board ships and at shore installations?
A. Behind electronic equipment in hard to reach areas.
B. In open spaces around electronic or electrical equipment.
C. In areas where maintenance personnel will be working on electronic equipment.
D. In open areas where there are concrete floors or steel decks.
A COMDTINST M10550.25
2. Your are checking the resistance between the ground buss on your newly installed workbench and the fault protection subsystem. What should your meter read?
A. 0.1 ohms
B. 0.5 ohms
C. 10 ohms
D. 25 ohms
A COMDTINST M10550.25
3. You are measuring the required impedance between the neutral conductor and the green wire ground conductor in the fault protection subsystem using a ground impedance tester. What should the meter read?
A. 0.1 ohms
B. 0.5 ohms
C. 10 ohms
D. 25 ohms
B COMDTINST M10550.25
4. You see a co-worker being electrocuted. What is the first step in rescuing the victim?
A. Begin CPR.
B. Determine if the victim is conscious.
C. Pull the victim off the electrical source.
D. Turn off the power to the circuit.
D COMDTINST M10550.25
5. You are working in freezing cold weather. What safety precautions should you take to avoid hypothermia or other injuries?
A. Wear layers of loose clothing, avoid overheating, and wear sunglasses or goggles with tinted lens.
B. Wear tight clothing and foot gear, and don’t use gloves when working with bare metals.
C. Don’t take many breaks, drink cold drinks and wear tight clothing.
D. Don’t eat any food, wear dark colored clothing, and try not to move around too much.
A COMDTINST M10550.25
MAINTENANCE MANAGEMENT
6. You are doing training on an AN/SPS-64 Radar system but you don’t have one at your unit. How can you get a set of CGPMS MRCs for use in your training?
A. Send a Non-Technical FBR to
CGPMS/ELC on CGSWII or
CGPMS@ELC. on CGSWIII
B. Send a MILSTRIP request to
Supply Center Baltimore
C. You can’t, your unit is not
authorized to receive CGPMS
for a system it does not have
D. Send a SURFREQ to you local
Supply Department
A. Send a Non-Technical FBR to
CGPMS/ELC on CGSWII or
CGPMS@ELC. on CGSWIII COMDTINST M10550.25
7. While maintaining your unit’s Technical Library you find that you are missing two copies of a newly installed electronics system’s technical manuals. Where should you submit the DOD-1348 (2-PT) to requisition the manuals?
A. Supply Center Baltimore
B. ELC
C. MLC
D. SMEF
B. ELC
COMDTINST M10550.25
8. You are ordering publications for your technical library. Where do you find a listing of all DOD approved documents that could be valuable to your shop?
A. DODISS
B. NSAVSUP 2002
C. COMDTINST M10550.25
D. COMDTNOT 5600 (Series)
A. DODISS
COMDTINST M10550.25
9. You have just completed a physical inventory of your units ERPAL inventory. Your next inventory should be done within a year or ___________.
A. upon the return from an
extended underway period
B. upon receipt of a new ERPAL
Revision package
C. upon the assignment of new
technicians to your unit
D. after a Change of Command
B. upon receipt of a new ERPAL
Revision package COMDTINST M10550.25
10. You are doing maintenance on a Handheld VHF radio and you need to check for Frequency Deviation. What piece of test equipment would you use?
A. Time Domain Reflectometer
B. Transmission Test set
C. Comms Analyzer
D. Voltmeter
C
11. You are conducting a SINAD test on an FM receiver. What is the Comms Analyzer’s SINAD connector hooked up to?
A. The receiver squelch circuits
B. The receiver antenna jack
C. The Comms Analyzers T/R
connector
D. The receiver’s speaker
Terminals
D
12. You are conducting a Squelch Sensitivity test on an FM receiver. What should the RF level on the Comms Analyzer read?
A. 0.1 microvolts or less
B. 0.3 microvolts or less
C. 1.0 microvolt or less
D. 2.5 microvolts or less
B
3. Before you use any test equipment to perform corrective or preventative maintenance you should check the calibration label for ____________.
A. the test equipment
nomenclature
B. date last calibrated
C. special use instructions
D. equipment cost
B
4. You are conducting a -20 Db Quieting test on a receiver. What should the Comms Analyzer read?
A. 0.1 microvolts or less
B. 0.2 microvolts or less
C. 0.3 microvolts or less
D. 0.5 microvolts or less
D
15. When you are conducting a SINAD test on an RF receiver, what signal level is the Comms Analyzer injecting into the antenna jack of the receiver?
A. No signal is injected
B. 1 kHz tone
C. 3 kHz tone
D. 5 kHz tone
B
16. When you are banding conductors the tie wraps should be spaced 2.5 times the diameter of the bundle or ________, which ever is less.
A. 2 inches
B. 4 inches
C. 8 inches
D. 10 inches
D
17. When you are routing a cable across hinges always try to route the cable __________ the hinge to lesson the effects of continuous flexing.
A. parallel to
B. directly across
C. diagonal across
D. in series with
C
18. You are installing conductors to a terminal board. What will you label the three conductors on the terminal board that are not being used?
A. Extra
B. Blank
C. Not in use
D. Spare
D
19. When testing the insulation resistance of coaxial cable, the positive lead should be connected to the center conductor, and the negative lead should be connected to the _____.
A. foam insulation core
B. cable shield
C. center conductor
D. cable tag
B
20. You are installing a Military (MS) type connector, before you start connecting the wires to the pins in a connector what should you install first?
A. Cable clamp, back shell, and insulating sleeves.
B. Insulating sleeves and self-vulcanizing tape.
C. Saddles, bushing, and solder coating.
D. Cable clamps, rubber strain relief, and back shell.
D
21. You are installing connectors on transmission lines going to mast mounted antennas. How long after installing the connectors do you have to complete the weatherproofing?
A. 4 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. There is no limit if the weather is clear.
B
22. When inspecting Guy anchors, you check for the condition of the
____________ .
A. metal cables
B. concrete slabs
C. galvanized steel
D. horizontal and vertical steel
Pieces
B
23. The two types of light systems used on towers are ________.
A. neon beacons, fog lights
B. radiating lights, structure lights
C. fixed obstruction lights,
flashing beacons
D. foundation lights, guy lights
C
24. Some of the types of mounted
equipment that you’ll be inspecting
when climbing antenna support
towers are transmission feed lines,
MF/HF antennas and ___________.
A. microwave antennas
B. base insulators
C. ball-gaps
D. transceivers
A
25. To determine if a tower is an antenna tower, you would check to see if it is __________.
A. isolated to ground
B. connected to ground
C. supported by guys
D. isolated from ground
D
26. Since you know that the last time the tower was inspected was ______
, you conclude that the upcoming tower inspection is probably a major inspection. (assuming that the tower
is inspected on schedule)
A. six months ago
B. a year ago
C. at least 5 years ago
D. at least two years ago
B
27. At units with towers installed, a daily inspection routine will include checking the ___________.
A. “z” bends
B. lightning protection system
C. guy anchors
D. tower lights after sunset
D
28. As a result of unit tower inspections, you determine that the tower requires major maintenance. Therefore, you need to submit a/an __________.
A. SSMR, CG-4094
B. CSMP, CG-2920
C. ADC, CG-3698A
D. Electron ALT, CG-3439
A
29. After conducting an inspection of your unit’s tower you notice that several lights are extinguished and it will take some time to correct the problem. You must then notify the ______ to inform them of the situation.
A. Federal Aviation
Administration
B. CEU
C. District Commanders
D. Civilian Contractors
A
30. You have replaced a defective module in a Navy Owned IFF Transponder Set. What paper work do you need to submit?
A. Navy Form 4790-CK
B. NAVSHIP-531
C. OPNAV-4790/B
D. Technical FBR
A
31. You are checking a fault protection system. How much resistance can there be between the safety ground lead and the neutral lead in the AC power line? (stations only)
A. 0.5 ohms or less
B. 1 ohm
C. 1.5 ohms
D. 2.5 ohms
A
32. You have interference on some of the control lines between equipment in an HF Comms system. What can you install to reduce the interference?
A. EMI reduction gears
B. Signal Reference Subsystem
C. Facilities Ground System
D. Fault Protection Subsystem
B
33. You are updating a unit grounding plan and need to show where a new Lightning Protection Subsystem has been installed. What color ink should you use?
A. Yellow
B. Blue
C. Red
D. Black
C
34. You need to select a Signal Reference Subsystem for a newly installed HF Comms system. What type of Signal Reference Subsystem should be installed?
A. Multi-Point
B. Single Point
C. Floating
D. Exponential
A
35. What is another name for Air Terminal?
A. Down lead
B. Ground strap
C. Lightning rod
D. Air gap
C
36. You need to install lightning arrestors on power lines and telephone lines. Where should the lightning arrestors be located?
A. On the power lines and telephone lines interior to the building they enter.
B. At the base of telephone and power poles.
C. On the telephone lines and
power lines where they enter
CG property.
D. On the power lines and telephone lines exterior to the building that they enter.
D
37. You are updating the unit’s antenna plot plan and you need to include some explanations on a new earth ground rod system. What color ink should the explanations be in?
A. Yellow
B. Blue
C. Red
D. Black
B
38. You are inventorying a newly received Type 4 field change. What should be included?
A. Documentation only
B. Documentation, parts and special tools required to complete the field change.
C. Documentation and some of the parts and special tools required to complete the field change.
D. Information to make changes to equipment technical documentation.
A
39. You are performing PMS on an AN/SPS-64 (V) 2 Radar System and you need to change which Indicator is Master. What piece of equipment will allow you to make the change?
A. Inter-switch Unit
B. MTR
C. Waveguide switch
D. AN/SLA-10A Blanker
A
40. You are troubleshooting an AN/SPS-64 (V) 2 Radar System and you want to check the transmission line for MTR #2. Which piece of equipment will allow you to transmit into a dummy load during maintenance?
A. Inter-switch Unit
B. Antenna Controller
C. Waveguide Switch
D. AN/SLA-10A Blanker
C
41. You are checking the transmit frequencies on an AN/SPS-73 SSR Radar, WHEC-378 configuration. What should the frequencies be?
A. X-Band is 9410 Mhz and SBand
is 3050 Mhz
B. X-Band is 9420 Mhz and SBand
is 3050 Mhz
C. X-Band is 9375 Mhz and SBand
is 3050 Mhz
D. X-Band is 3050 Mhz and SBand
is 9375
A
42. You are installing new magnetrons in both of the MTRs in your AN/SPS-73 SSR Radar system. Where are the MTRs located?
A. In the 21 inch SAOP on the bridge.
B. In the TBOP in CIC
C. In the antenna pedestals mounted on the mast.
D. On the bulkhead in the rear of the Pilot House.
C
43. You are troubleshooting the IFF
Transponder Set. Where are the most convenient controls available for you to use for testing the Transponder Set?
A. Control Indicator
B. Receiver/Transmitter
C. Test Set
D. Transponder Equipment
Cabinet
D
44. You are using the IFF Transponder Set’s self test controls. How are the indications of a faulty test displayed?
A. GO, NO-GO lights on the
Control Indicator.
B. GO, NO-GO lights on the test set.
C. Meters on the Suppression Gate
D. Meters and indicators on the Kit Computer
A
45. What unit in an AN/SPS-73 SSR
Radar system can you use to display
radar performance information on an
Operators Position?
A. Antenna Pedestal
B. TBOP
C. Junction Box
D. Performance Monitor
D
COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
46. You are checking the transmit
frequency of a CDWQ-ND 250TT/6 Nautel 2.5 MF Transmitter Set. What should the frequency be?
A. 550 kHz
B. 518 kHz
C. 500 kHz
D. 512 kHz
B
47. You are checking the RF power out of an AN/URT-41 (V) 2 Transmitter set in the high power mode. What should the output be?
A. 1 kW
B. 10 kW
C. 100 kW
D. 1000 W
B
48. You are troubleshooting an HF
Comms System which includes an
AN/URC-114 (V) 1kW HF Set.
Where do the audio inputs come from that are modulated into RF signals in the Receiver-Exciter?
A. Remote Control Unit
B. Operators stations
C. 1 kW Power Amplifier
D. Control Bus
B
49. You are checking the frequency modulation on an AN/URC-116 (V)4. What frequency range will you be checking in?
A. 2.0-29.99 Mhz
B. 118-175 Mhz
C. 225-400 Mhz
D. 300-3000 Mhz
A
50. You are troubleshooting the receive path of an HFDL system. What kind of signal will you see at the output of the modem?
A. Encrypted audio
B. Digital Data
C. Encrypted Data
D. Modulated Audio
C
51. You are testing the voice transmission path of an HF Communications system. How is voice signals entered into the Comms system?
A. Handsets/Microphones and
Telephone Instruments
B. Speakers and Audio Amplifiers
C. Computers
D. Modems and Data Converters
A
65. When you are completing data sets in a CASREP message what is the maximum number of data fields possible in the data set?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
C
66. You are completing data sets in a
CASREP message. What is used to end the data set?
A. /
B. //
C. \
D.
B
67. What is the check sum for a position of 18 degrees, 55 min South
(Latitude)?
A. 18
B. 1855
C. 9
D. 5
C
68. You are drafting a CASREP message, to establish the degree of impact on mission performance. You would use casualty _____.
A. types
B. categories
C. levels
D. precedence
B
69. You are drafting a CASREP message and you have no information to include in a mandatory data set. You should _____.
A. leave the field blank
B. leave one space of each
mandatory field
C. type in dashes (-) in the required data fields.
D. There are no mandatory data
Sets
C
70. When you send out an INITIAL
CASREP, what are the first two digits of the CASREP Serial Number?
A. YY, the last two digits of the current year.
B. NN, the last two digits of the message serial number.
C. //, field markers which mark the start of the data field.
D. YN, the last digit of the current year and the last digit of the message serial number.
A