Pumping And Aerial Apparatus Driver/operator Handbook

Front 1

When shall a firefighter ride on the outside of a moving apparatus?

Back 1

Never

Front 2

The standard specifies for minimum pump capacity of what with how large of a tank?

Back 2

750 GPM

300 gallons

Front 3

Pump capacities larger than 750 GPMs increase in increments of what?

Back 3

250 GPM

Front 4

Most municipal fire departments have pumpers capable of what?

Back 4

2,000 GPMs or less

Front 5

Large onboard tank of foam concentrate often contains how many gallons of foam concentrate?

Back 5

500 gallons or more

Front 6

Both municipal or industrial foam pumpers may be equipped between what flow capacity?

Back 6

750-3,000 GPM

Front 7

Most municipal fire departments have foam tanks ranging between what?

Back 7

20-100 gallons

Front 8

The articulating or telescoping devices most commonly combined with pumpers range in height between what?

Back 8

50-75 feet

Front 9

Mobile water supply apparatus are equipped with a tank capacity of at least how many gallons?

Back 9

1,000 gallons

Front 10

Specially designed woodland apparatus are often mounted on how big of chassis?

Back 10

One ton or larger

Front 11

Brush trucks, brush breakers, booster apparatus vehicles often have water tank capacities of how many gallons?

Back 11

500 gallons

Front 12

Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program

Back 12

NFPA 1500

Front 13

What is used to extinguish small fires and hot spots as the vehicle advances through short vegetation?

Back 13

Ground sweep nozzles

Front 14

What is used to extinguish small fires and hot spots as the vehicle advances through short vegetation?

Back 14

Ground sweep nozzles

Front 15

Wildland Fire Fighting for Structural Firefighters

Back 15

NFPA 1906

Front 16

Some fire boats have capacities as high as how many GPMs?

Back 16

50,000 GPM

Front 17

Some fire boats have capacities as high as how many GPMs?

Back 17

50,000 GPM

Front 18

Individual master streams on fire boats have the capacity of discharging how many GPMs?

Back 18

10,000 GPMs

Front 19

A Quint vehicle must be equipped with a capacity of what with what size tank?

Back 19

1,000 GPMs

300 gallons

Front 20

A Quint vehicle must be equipped with a capacity of what with what size tank?

Back 20

1,000 GPMs

300 gallons

Front 21

Long term pumping operations involving fires at petroleum storage facilities or landfills may be suitable for what kind of pump?

Back 21

Trailer mounted fire pumps

Front 22

What is used to convert a vehicles 12 or 24 volt DC current into 110-220 Volt AC current?

Back 22

Inverter

Front 23

Inverters are usually used to power vehicle mounted what?

Back 23

Flood lights

Front 24

What is used to convert a vehicles 12 or 24 volt DC current into 110-220 Volt AC current?

Back 24

Inverter

Front 25

Inverters are usually used to power vehicle mounted what?

Back 25

Flood lights

Front 26

Portable generators have up to how much capacity?

Back 26

5,000 Watts

Front 27

What is used to convert a vehicles 12 or 24 volt DC current into 110-220 Volt AC current?

Back 27

Inverter

Front 28

Inverters are usually used to power vehicle mounted what?

Back 28

Flood lights

Front 29

Portable generators have up to how much capacity?

Back 29

5,000 Watts

Front 30

Vehicle mounted generators have up to how much capacity?

Back 30

12,000 watts

Front 31

Inverters are usually used to power vehicle mounted what?

Back 31

Flood lights

Front 32

Vehicle mounted generators have up to how much capacity?

Back 32

12,000 watts

Front 33

Rescue apparatus or other specialized units may feature a fixed generator system with capacities of how much?

Back 33

50,000 watts or greater

Front 34

The lighting equipment carried on apparatus may be portable or fixed and have capacities between what?

Back 34

300-1,000 watts

Front 35

Some apparatus have banks of lights mounted on booms that are powered by electric, pneumatic, or hydraulic systems, where these installations have a capacity between what per light?

Back 35

500-1,500 watts per light

Front 36

A new vehicle should be washed frequently using cold water to harden the paint and keep it from spotting for the first how many months?

Back 36

6 months

Front 37

To clean automotive glass, what should you use?

Back 37

Warm soapy water or commercial glass cleaner

Front 38

How long should you wait to apply wax and polish to a new apparatus?

Back 38

6 months

Front 39

The driver/operator begins the walk around inspection beginning on what side of the apparatus?

Back 39

Driver’s door then clockwise

Front 40

Tire selections for fire apparatus are based on what?

Back 40

GAWR

Gross Axle Weight Ratings

Front 41

NFPA 1911 requires that all tires be replaced every how many years regardless of condition?

Back 41

7 years

Front 42

This turns on various lights at specific intervals so that the startup electrical load for all devices does not occur at the same time.

Back 42

Load Sequencer

Front 43

This monitors the electrical system for any added electrical loads that threaten to overload the system.

Back 43

Load monitor

Front 44

This monitors the electrical system for any added electrical loads that threaten to overload the system.

Back 44

Load monitor

Front 45

If an overload condition occurs, the load monitor will shut down less important electrical equipment in order to prevent overload. What is this called?

Back 45

Load shedding

Front 46

What causes harsh shifting, gear clashing, and damage to the gear teeth?

Back 46

Excessive free play in the clutch causing the clutch not to fully release

Front 47

A steering wheel should be no more than approximately how many degrees in either direction?

Back 47

10 degrees

Front 48

On a 20 inch diameter steering wheel, the play may be about how many inches in either direction?

Back 48

2 inches

Front 49

Who determines the GVWR as the maximum weight at which a vehicle can safely be operated?

Back 49

The manufacturer

Front 50

NFPA 1911 states that a side to side variance in weight should not exceed how much in percentage?

Back 50

7%

Front 51

Federal, state, and provincial laws may dictate how and when what is tested?

Back 51

Brakes

Front 52

Apparatus with air brakes are to be equipped with an air pressure protection valve that prevents air horns or other things from being operated when the pressure in the air reservoir drops below what pressure?

Back 52

80 psi

Front 53

Apparatus brakes should be thoroughly tested how often?

Back 53

Annually

Front 54

Most engine compartment checks should not be done when the vehicle is?

Back 54

Running

Front 55

DEF is stored in a tank downstream of the DPF and is injected into the gas in order to reduce what emissions from the Diesel engines?

Back 55

Nitrogen Oxide

Front 56

Most modern truck batteries are?

Back 56

Maintenance free

Front 57

Older apparatus may still have batteries that require additional what to replenish the cell’s fluid as it evaporates over time?

Back 57

Distilled water

Front 58

Most automotive batteries contain what?

Back 58

Lead

Sulfuric acid

Front 59

Batteries can also give off what type of gas that is flammable?

Back 59

Hydrogen gas

Front 60

Standard for Fire Apparatus Driver/Operator Professional Qualifications

Back 60

NFPA 1002

Front 61

Most driving regulations pertain not what type of conditions?

Back 61

Dry, clear roads during daylight conditions

Front 62

Driving under the influence of alcohol is considered?

Back 62

Gross negligence

Front 63

Driving under the influence of alcohol is considered?

Back 63

Gross negligence

Front 64

What is the loss of braking function which occurs due to excessive use of the brakes?

Back 64

Brake fade

Front 65

According to SAE, it was determined what percentage of all collisions the operator was not aware of a problem until it was too late?

Back 65

42%

Front 66

For safety reasons, many manufacturers of apparatuses recommend that the pump tanks be what during driving operations?

Back 66

Full or empty

Front 67

What type of apparatus has been built by embers of the fire department or locals mechanics, overloaded vehicles and most likely to have design problems? These vehicles are often built on government surplus or other used chassis that may be well worn even before conversion and usually top heavy after being retrofitted.

Back 67

Homebuilt apparatus

Front 68

Per NFPA1500 you must don fire gear before entering an apparatus with the exception of what?

Back 68

Helmets

Front 69

Per NFPA1500 you must don fire gear before entering an apparatus with the exception of what?

Back 69

Helmets

Front 70

When loading hose, drive apparatus in forward direction, straddling or to one side of the hose at a speed no greater than what?

Back 70

5 mph

Front 71

A tiller operator and/or instructor must wear what if not in an enclosed area?

Back 71

Helmet

Eye protection

Front 72

What action wastes fuel and may lead to the buildup of carbon injectors, valves, pistons and many cause damages to internal engine components and emission systems?

Back 72

Allowing Diesel engine to idle

Front 73

What year did the start equipping engines with DPF?

Back 73

2007

Front 74

Can park regeneration be used during pumping operations?

Back 74

No

Front 75

What can cause a debate to the apparatus engine, or limit the vehicle speed of approximately only 5 mph?

Back 75

Failure to fill the DEF tank

Front 76

A driver should never shut down an engine immediately after a full load operation or when the temperature gauge indicates that the engine is overheated. A hot engine should cool to normal operating temperature in idling time in how many minutes?

Back 76

3-5 minutes

Front 77

What action will cut off fuel flow from the injectors and create fuel pressure that can build up behind the shutoff valve and prevent the valve from opening?

Back 77

Shutting down the engine while it is in motion

Front 78

Some jurisdictions recommend to manually shift an apparatus with an automatic transmission in order to do what?

Back 78

Extend brake life

Front 79

Angle formed by level ground and a line form the point where the front tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the front of apparatus?

Back 79

Angle of approach

Front 80

Angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the rear of apparatus?

Back 80

Angle of departure

Front 81

Angle formed by level ground and a line form the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the bottom of the frame at the wheelbase midpoint?

Back 81

Breakover angle

Front 82

Weight of the apparatus after loading it with all the equipment and personnel must have an axle loading balance percentage of what from side to side and writhing axel wight rating front to back?

Back 82

7%

Front 83

To prevent engine damage, limit the downhill speed to lower than maximum what?

Back 83

RPMs

Front 84

Process of injecting or supplying the Diesel engine with more fuel that can be burned is what?

Back 84

Overthrottling

Front 85

What occurs when the throttle is applied when a main yak transmission is in too high of a gear for the demand on the engine?

Back 85

Engine lugging

Front 86

How many times greater distance does it take a vehicle to come to a stop on snow and ice than on dry pavement?

Back 86

3-15 times greater distance

Front 87

At what speeds does an emergency vehicle outrun the effective range of its audible warning device?

Back 87

50 mph

Front 88

Increasing the speed of a vehicle by 200 mph can decrease the audible distance by how many feet?

Back 88

250 feet or more

Front 89

When more than one emergency vehicle are responding on the same route, they should travel at least how many feet apart?

Back 89

300 - 500 feet

Front 90

Some jurisdictions equipped apparatus with what color warning lights to illuminate the trim worn by firefighters?

Back 90

Yellow warning lights

Front 91

In strobe light preemptive devices, what color light mounted on traffic pole indicates that the signal has been received and a green light is forth coming?

Back 91

White light

Front 92

In strobe light preemptive devices, what color light mounted on traffic pole indicates that the signal has been received and a green light is forth coming?

Back 92

White light

Front 93

Traffic signal preemption devices, the sound of an oncoming siren can activate the preemptive devices from how far away?

Back 93

Several hundred feet to about half a mile

Front 94

In strobe light preemptive devices, what color light mounted on traffic pole indicates that the signal has been received and a green light is forth coming?

Back 94

White light

Front 95

Traffic signal preemption devices, the sound of an oncoming siren can activate the preemptive devices from how far away?

Back 95

Several hundred feet to about half a mile

Front 96

Intersection equipped with traffic signal preemptive devices will have a 3 inch light in what colors? What do they mean?

Back 96

White - a green light is coming for emergency vehicle

Blue - an emergency vehicle is approaching and a red light is coming

Front 97

The time needed to stop the apparatus or perform an evasive maneuver at the current rate of speed is what?

Back 97

Visual lead time

Front 98

The time needed to stop the apparatus or perform an evasive maneuver at the current rate of speed is what?

Back 98

Visual lead time

Front 99

The distance the vehicle travels from the time the brakes are applied until the apparatus comes to a complete stop?

Back 99

Braking distance

Front 100

The time needed to stop the apparatus or perform an evasive maneuver at the current rate of speed is what?

Back 100

Visual lead time

Front 101

The distance the vehicle travels from the time the brakes are applied until the apparatus comes to a complete stop?

Back 101

Braking distance

Front 102

The sum of the driver’s reaction distance and the vehicle braking distance?

Back 102

Total stopping distance

Front 103

The time needed to stop the apparatus or perform an evasive maneuver at the current rate of speed is what?

Back 103

Visual lead time

Front 104

The distance the vehicle travels from the time the brakes are applied until the apparatus comes to a complete stop?

Back 104

Braking distance

Front 105

The sum of the driver’s reaction distance and the vehicle braking distance?

Back 105

Total stopping distance

Front 106

After perceiving the need to stop, the distance the apparatus travels while the operator transfers his foot from the accelerator to the brake pedal?

Back 106

Reaction distance

Front 107

NFPA 1901 requires that all apparatus with a GVWR or how many pounds or greater be equipped with an auxiliary braking system?

Back 107

36,000 lbs

Front 108

NFPA 1901 requires that all apparatus with a GVWR or how many pounds or greater be equipped with an auxiliary braking system?

Back 108

36,000 lbs

Front 109

Brake torque will increase as the transmission does what?

Back 109

Downshifts

Front 110

This brake uses a valve to restrict the flow of the exhaust, which creates bake pressure that adds to the engine’s inherent braking ability?

Back 110

Exhaust brake

Front 111

This brake is an electronically-activated system added to valve train that converts the mechanical energy of the vehicle into heat by compressing the engine intake air and then discharging the pressure to the atmosphere through the exhaust?

Back 111

Engine compression brake

Front 112

This auxiliary brake is either mounted in the driveline, or supplied as part of rear axle. An electromagnetic field is created by supplying electrical power to a series of coils in the retarder which inhibits the rotation of the rotor and creates a braking torque at the rear wheels?

Back 112

Electromagnetic retarder

Front 113

Chains in auxiliary traction control system may be ineffective in snow deeper than how many inches?

Back 113

3-6 inches

Front 114

Which feature automatically reduces engine torque and applies the brakes to wheels that have lost traction and being to spin?

Back 114

ATC automatic traction control

Front 115

What may be heard when driver controlled differential lock is engaged while turning?

Back 115

Scrubbing

Front 116

Manufacturers recommend turning the driver controlled differential lock off when traveling in what scenario?

Back 116

Turning on a downhill

Front 117

What features are designed to help prevent roll-overs and tipping caused by cornering or sudden changes of direction?

Back 117

Stability control systems

Front 118

A spotter must stand how many feet behind an apparatus?

Back 118

8-10 feet

Front 119

A spotter must stand how many feet behind an apparatus?

Back 119

8-10 feet

Front 120

How many short blasts of the vehicle’s horn immediately before backing the apparatus?

Back 120

Two

Front 121

At 5mph how many feet of hose is laid out each second?

Back 121

7 feet

Front 122

At 5mph how many feet of hose is laid out each second?

Back 122

7 feet

Front 123

The bracket or cabinet in an apparatus must be capable of restraining the equipment against a force of up to how any times the equipment’s weight?

Back 123

10 times the weight

Front 124

At what pressure can hydraulic fluid penetrate skin?

Back 124

100 psi

Front 125

At what pressure can hydraulic fluid penetrate skin?

Back 125

100 psi

Front 126

Who determines the best placement for the first arriving apparatus?

Back 126

Driver or company officer

Front 127

At what pressure can hydraulic fluid penetrate skin?

Back 127

100 psi

Front 128

Who determines the best placement for the first arriving apparatus?

Back 128

Driver or company officer

Front 129

When arriving at an incident and no fire is evident, how should the first arriving apparatus pull up?

Back 129

Pass the building the view three sides of building

Front 130

Collapse zone for vehicles is what?

Back 130

One and a half times the height of a building

Front 131

Collapse zone for vehicles is what?

Back 131

One and a half times the height of a building

Front 132

If a collapse is imminent, where is the safest location?

Back 132

Corners of building

Front 133

During a high rise fire, how many feet from the structure should you taste precautions from falling debris?

Back 133

200 feet from the base of building

Front 134

During a high rise fire, how many feet from the structure should you taste precautions from falling debris?

Back 134

200 feet from the base of building

Front 135

Shorter sections of LDH come in what sizes other than 100’?

Back 135

10 to 50feet

Front 136

During a high rise fire, how many feet from the structure should you taste precautions from falling debris?

Back 136

200 feet from the base of building

Front 137

Shorter sections of LDH come in what sizes other than 100’?

Back 137

10 to 50feet

Front 138

A good way to minimize the chance of intake hose kinking is to put a what directional twist in the hose making the connection between a hydrant and a pumper?

Back 138

Counterclockwise

Front 139

What type kind of pumping can be used when one strong hydrant is used?

Back 139

Dual pumping

Front 140

What type of pumping can be used when pressure needed is greater than the capabilities of the apparatus?

Back 140

Tandem pumping

Front 141

In tandem pumping operations apparatus may be located up to how many feet apart?

Back 141

300 feet

Front 142

What type of pumping can be used to increase the volume of water for an incident?

Back 142

Relay pumping

Front 143

The boundary between wildland and structural development is what?

Back 143

Wildland/urban interface

Front 144

What is a natural man made barrier that will prevent the fire from encircling the vehicle and crew?

Back 144

Anchor point

Front 145

This type of staging is used on any multi unit response of two or more units?

Back 145

Level 1

Front 146

This type of staging is used on any multi unit response of two or more units?

Back 146

Level 1

Front 147

During Level 1 staging, units must stop and stage how far from an incident?

Back 147

One block

Front 148

This type of staging is used on any multi unit response of two or more units?

Back 148

Level 1

Front 149

During Level 1 staging, units must stop and stage how far from an incident?

Back 149

One block

Front 150

This level of staging is implemented when numerous units are responding to operate at the same incident, including mutual aid or a result of multiple alarms?

Back 150

Level 2 staging

Front 151

This type of staging is used on any multi unit response of two or more units?

Back 151

Level 1

Front 152

During Level 1 staging, units must stop and stage how far from an incident?

Back 152

One block

Front 153

This level of staging is implemented when numerous units are responding to operate at the same incident, including mutual aid or a result of multiple alarms?

Back 153

Level 2 staging

Front 154

On highways, apparatus should never travel on opposite direction of travel unless?

Back 154

Police have closed the road traffic

Front 155

Personnel can enter briefly in this control zone without PPE

Back 155

Warm zone

Front 156

Trains may require how much distance to come to a complete stop?

Back 156

1-2 miles

Front 157

How much does one gallon of water weigh?

Back 157

8.3 lbs

Front 158

How much does one gallon of water weigh?

Back 158

8.3 lbs

Front 159

How much does water weigh per cubic foot?

Back 159

62.4 lb/ft3

Front 160

Water has a high surface tensions that makes it difficult to do what?

Back 160

Soak into dense materials

Front 161

How any principles of pressure are there?

Back 161

6 principles

Front 162

Fluid pressure is perpendicular to any surface on which it act

Back 162

First principle

Front 163

Fluid pressure is perpendicular to any surface on which it act

Back 163

First principle

Front 164

Fluid pressure as a point in fluid at rest is the same intensity in all directions

Back 164

Second prinicple

Front 165

Fluid pressure is perpendicular to any surface on which it act

Back 165

First principle

Front 166

Fluid pressure as a point in fluid at rest is the same intensity in all directions

Back 166

Second prinicple

Front 167

Pressure applied to a confined fluid transmitted equally in all directions

Back 167

Third principle

Front 168

The pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to its depth

Back 168

Fourth principle

Front 169

The pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to its depth

Back 169

Fourth principle

Front 170

The pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to the density of the liquid

Back 170

Fifth prinicple

Front 171

Is mercury heavier than water?

Back 171

Yes

Front 172

Is mercury heavier than water?

Back 172

Yes

Front 173

The pressure of a liquid at the bottom of a vessel is independent of the shape of the vessel

Back 173

Sixth principle

Front 174

Atmospheric pressure at sea level is?

Back 174

14.7 psi

Front 175

In a vertical cylinder, a pressure of 1 psi makes the column of mercury about how many inches tall?

Back 175

2.04 inches

Front 176

In a vertical cylinder, a pressure of 1 psi makes the column of mercury about how many inches tall?

Back 176

2.04 inches

Front 177

An absolute zero pressure is considered what?

Back 177

Perfect vacuum

Front 178

In a vertical cylinder, a pressure of 1 psi makes the column of mercury about how many inches tall?

Back 178

2.04 inches

Front 179

An absolute zero pressure is considered what?

Back 179

Perfect vacuum

Front 180

Any pressure less than atmospheric pressure is called?

Back 180

Vacuum

Front 181

What is referred to as the height of water supply above that discharge orifice?

Back 181

Head

Front 182

For every one foot increase in elevation, how much psi is gained?

Back 182

0.434 psi

Front 183

When measuring the forward velocity of flow pressure using a nozzle, a smooth bore nozzle must be used with what two items?

Back 183

Pitot tube

Gauge

Front 184

What refers to the center line of the pump or the bottom of a static water supply source above or below ground level?

Back 184

Elevation

Front 185

What refers to the center line of the pump or the bottom of a static water supply source above or below ground level?

Back 185

Elevation

Front 186

What is the position of an object in relation to sea level?

Back 186

Altitude

Front 187

Above sea level, atmospheric pressure decreases 0.5 psi for every how many feet?

Back 187

1,000 feet

Front 188

The friction loss in older hose may be as much as what percent compared to new hose?

Back 188

50 % or greater

Front 189

How many principles are there for friction loss?

Back 189

Four

Front 190

If all other conditions are the same, friction loss varies directly with the length of the hose or pipe

Back 190

First Principle of friction loss

Front 191

If all other conditions are the same, friction loss varies directly with the length of the hose or pipe

Back 191

First Principle of friction loss

Front 192

When hoses are the same size, friction loss varies approximately with the square of the increase in the velocity of the flow

Back 192

Second Prinicple of friction loss

Front 193

If all other conditions are the same, friction loss varies directly with the length of the hose or pipe

Back 193

First Principle of friction loss

Front 194

When hoses are the same size, friction loss varies approximately with the square of the increase in the velocity of the flow

Back 194

Second Prinicple of friction loss

Front 195

For the same discharge, friction loss varies inversely as the fifth power of the diameter of the hose

Back 195

Third principle

Front 196

If all other conditions are the same, friction loss varies directly with the length of the hose or pipe

Back 196

First Principle of friction loss

Front 197

When hoses are the same size, friction loss varies approximately with the square of the increase in the velocity of the flow

Back 197

Second Prinicple of friction loss

Front 198

For the same discharge, friction loss varies inversely as the fifth power of the diameter of the hose

Back 198

Third principle

Front 199

For a given velocity, friction loss is approximately the same, regardless of the pressure of the water

Back 199

Fourth principle of friction loss

Front 200

With water being virtually incompressible, a pressure of 30,000 psi is required to reduce its volume by what percent?

Back 200

1 %

Front 201

There are practical limits to the velocity at which a stream can travel. If the velocity is increased beyond this point, the friction will become so great that the entire system is agitated by the resistance creating what?

Back 201

Critical velocity

Front 202

What two things may be added to the water to remove particles from the drinking water?

Back 202

Fluoride and ozone

Front 203

What two things may be added to the water to remove particles from the drinking water?

Back 203

Fluoride and ozone

Front 204

When a fire hydrant receives water from two or more directions, it is said to have what?

Back 204

Circulating feed or looped line

Front 205

Large pipes with relatively widespread spacing, that convert large quantities of water to various points of the system for local distribution to the smaller mains

Back 205

Primary Feeders

Front 206

Large pipes with relatively widespread spacing, that convert large quantities of water to various points of the system for local distribution to the smaller mains

Back 206

Primary Feeders

Front 207

Network of intermediate-sized pipes that reinforce the grid within the various loops of the primary feeder system and aid the concentration of the required fire flow at any point

Back 207

Secondary feeders

Front 208

Large pipes with relatively widespread spacing, that convert large quantities of water to various points of the system for local distribution to the smaller mains

Back 208

Primary Feeders

Front 209

Network of intermediate-sized pipes that reinforce the grid within the various loops of the primary feeder system and aid the concentration of the required fire flow at any point

Back 209

Secondary feeders

Front 210

Grid arrangement of smaller mains serving individual fire hydrants and blocks of consumers

Back 210

Distributors

Front 211

Average amount of water used per day based on the total amount of water used in a water distribution system over the period of one year

Back 211

Average Daily Consumption

Front 212

Average amount of water used per day based on the total amount of water used in a water distribution system over the period of one year

Back 212

Average Daily Consumption

Front 213

Maximum total amount of water that was used during any 24 hour interval within a 3 year period.

Back 213

Maximum daily consumption

Front 214

Average amount of water used per day based on the total amount of water used in a water distribution system over the period of one year

Back 214

Average Daily Consumption

Front 215

Maximum total amount of water that was used during any 24 hour interval within a 3 year period.

Back 215

Maximum daily consumption

Front 216

The maximum amount of water used in any 1 hour interval over the course of a day.

Back 216

Peak hourly consumption

Front 217

Degrees of a narrow fog are between what?

Back 217

15-45

Front 218

Degrees of a narrow fog are between what?

Back 218

15-45

Front 219

Degrees of a wide fog are between what?

Back 219

45-80

Front 220

These type of streams are created by deflecting water around an inside circular stem in the nozzle and the water is then deflected by the exterior barrel of the nozzle.

Back 220

Periphery-deflected streams

Front 221

This type of stream breaks water into fine, evenly divided particles by driving several jets of water together at an angle and provide mostly a wide angle.

Back 221

Impinging stream

Front 222

Most fog nozzles are designed to operate at what psi? They can also operate at these lower psi?

Back 222

100psi

50 and 75 psi

Front 223

High pressure fog nozzles can operate at psi of what? How much GPMs?

Back 223

800 psi

8-15 GPM

Front 224

High pressure fog nozzles can operate at psi of what? How much GPMs?

Back 224

800 psi

8-15 GPM

Front 225

What is the general maximum flow for a handline?

Back 225

350 GPM

Front 226

How long is the piercing nozzle? How use is it?

Back 226

3-6 feet

1.5 inches in diameter

Front 227

How long is the piercing nozzle? How use is it?

Back 227

3-6 feet

1.5 inches in diameter

Front 228

In piercing nozzles, the impinging jet nozzle is capable of flowing how many GPMs at what psi?

Back 228

125 GPM

100 psi

Front 229

What does a chimney nozzle flow at and at what psi?

Back 229

1.5-3 GPM

100 psi

Front 230

What does a chimney nozzle flow at and at what psi?

Back 230

1.5-3 GPM

100 psi

Front 231

Formula for nozzle reaction in solid stream?

Back 231

NR = 1.57 X d2 X NP

Front 232

What does a chimney nozzle flow at and at what psi?

Back 232

1.5-3 GPM

100 psi

Front 233

Formula for nozzle reaction in solid stream?

Back 233

NR = 1.57 X d2 X NP

Front 234

Formula for nozzle reaction in a fog stream?

Back 234

NR = 0.0505 X Q X Square root NP

Front 235

Flowmeters display in increments of?

Back 235

10 GPM or less

Front 236

This type of flow meter is mounted at the top of a straight section of the discharge pipe so that only a small portion of the device extends in the waterway. A sensor measures the speed at which the flow meter spins and translates the information into a flow measurement

Back 236

Paddlewheel

Front 237

This type of flow meter is mounted at the top of a straight section of the discharge pipe so that only a small portion of the device extends in the waterway. A sensor measures the speed at which the flow meter spins and translates the information into a flow measurement

Back 237

Paddlewheel

Front 238

This type of flowmeter employs a stainless steel spring probe to detect water movement in the discharge piping. The greater the flow, the more the spring is bent. An electrical charge is transmitted from the spring to the display for the operator

Back 238

Spring probe

Front 239

This type of flow meter is mounted at the top of a straight section of the discharge pipe so that only a small portion of the device extends in the waterway. A sensor measures the speed at which the flow meter spins and translates the information into a flow measurement

Back 239

Paddlewheel

Front 240

This type of flowmeter employs a stainless steel spring probe to detect water movement in the discharge piping. The greater the flow, the more the spring is bent. An electrical charge is transmitted from the spring to the display for the operator

Back 240

Spring probe

Front 241

A flowmeter in good working order should be accurate to a tolerance of plus or minus how much percentage?

Back 241

3 %

Front 242

Each discharge equipped with a flowmeter must have a digital readout display mounted within how many inches of the control valve for that discharge?

Back 242

6 inches

Front 243

Each discharge equipped with a flowmeter must have a digital readout display mounted within how many inches of the control valve for that discharge?

Back 243

6 inches

Front 244

If a pressure gauge is mounted at the 6 inch location where the digital readout must be, then the flowmeter digital readout must be mounted within how many inches adjacent to the pressure gauge?

Back 244

2 inches

Front 245

In relay pumping, an intake readout cannot be allowed to drop below what psi?

Back 245

20 psi

Front 246

In relay pumping, an intake readout cannot be allowed to drop below what psi?

Back 246

20 psi

Front 247

A pressure governor will not automatically compensate when a hose line is shut down in which mode?

Back 247

RPM mode

Front 248

Condensed formula for 3 inch hose

Back 248

FL = Qsquared

Front 249

Condensed Q formula for 4 inch

Back 249

FL = Q2/5

Front 250

Condensed Q formula for 4 inch

Back 250

FL = Q2/5

Front 251

Condensed Q formula for 5 inch hose

Back 251

FL = Q2/15

Front 252

What type of pump is self priming?

Back 252

Positive displacement pump

Front 253

Posing pumps can provide pressures of up to?

Back 253

1,000 psi

Front 254

What are the simplest type of pump?

Back 254

Rotary pump

Front 255

Total amount of water that can be pumped by a rotary gear pump depends on what?

Back 255

Size of the pockets in the gears and speed of rotation

Front 256

To prevent damage to the casings of pumps, most gear pumps feature gears made of what?

Back 256

Bronze or another soft metal

Front 257

What are pump casings made of?

Back 257

Strong alloy such as cast iron

Front 258

What is the most common type of pump used to prime a centrifugal pump?

Back 258

Rotary Vane pump

Front 259

In a centrifugal pump the volume capacity of the pump is dictated by the size of?

Back 259

Impeller

Front 260

Three main factors that influence a centrifugal fire pump’s discharge pressure :

Back 260

1. Amount of water being discharged

2. Speed at which the impeller is turning

3. Pressure of water when it enters the pump from a pressurized source

Front 261

What type of pump is unable to pump air and is more self priming?

Back 261

Centrifugal pump

Front 262

Single stage centrifugal pumps have the ability to flow how many GPMs?

Back 262

2,250 GPM

Front 263

Newton’s Third Law of Physics?

Back 263

For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction

Front 264

The process of switching between pressure and volume is referred to as?

Back 264

Changeover

Front 265

In parallel (volume) mode the pump will supply 100% of its rated capacity at 150 psi at feet of lift with how many feet of suction hose while drafting?

Back 265

20 feet

Front 266

In parallel (volume) mode the pump will supply 100% of its rated capacity at 150 psi at feet of lift with how many feet of suction hose while drafting?

Back 266

20 feet

Front 267

Many power-operated transfer valves operate at pressures as high as?

Back 267

200 psi

Front 268

In parallel (volume) mode the pump will supply 100% of its rated capacity at 150 psi at feet of lift with how many feet of suction hose while drafting?

Back 268

20 feet

Front 269

Many power-operated transfer valves operate at pressures as high as?

Back 269

200 psi

Front 270

Switching from volume to pressure can result in the immediate doubling of what?

Back 270

Doubling of the previous discharge pressure

Front 271

Some fire pumps have been constructed using up to four impellers connected in series to develop pressure up to?

Back 271

1,000 psi

Front 272

What type of valves are essential for a multistage pump?

Back 272

Clapper valves

Front 273

A very close opening must be maintained between the pump casing and the hub of the impeller, the opening is usually limited to how wide?

Back 273

.01 inch or less

Front 274

What can be replaced to maintain the preferred spacing between the hub of the impeller and pump casing?

Back 274

Wear rings or clearance rings

Front 275

Newer model centrifugal pumps may be equipped with what to circulate overheated water between the pump and the main water tank or the atmosphere?

Back 275

Thermal relief valve

Front 276

How can a driver manually check for excessive pump temperatures?

Back 276

Placing hand on intake pipe to see how warm it is

Front 277

Heat develops by friction where the packing rings come into contact with the shaft in the pump. In order to overcome this wear and tear what is supplied with the packing rings to provide cooling?

Back 277

Lantern or slinger rings

Front 278

What happens if packing is too loose in a pump?

Back 278

Excessive water loss

Inability to draft from static source

Front 279

Most manufacturers recommend the pump to be what after fire calls in cold weather conditions?

Back 279

Drained

Front 280

What types of pump seals are offered that are superior in resistance to warping, stretching, and corrosion

Back 280

Ceramic seals

Front 281

Auxiliary engine pumps generally have the pump capacity of what?

Back 281

500 GPMs

Front 282

Auxiliary engine pumps generally have the pump capacity of what?

Back 282

500 GPMs

Front 283

A mechanism that allows a vehicle engine to power equipment such as a pump, winch, or portable tool; it is typically attached to the transmission

Back 283

PTO

Front 284

The PTO unit is powered by what in the vehicle’s transmission?

Back 284

Idler gear

Front 285

The PTO unit is powered by what in the vehicle’s transmission?

Back 285

Idler gear

Front 286

In a pump and tool operation which gear would be beneficial to maintain a balance between speed and pressure?

Back 286

Lowest gear

Front 287

Full torque PTOs that allow the installation of pumps as large as 1,250 GPM are commonly used with automatic transmissions where what mechanism of the engine drive the PTO unit?

Back 287

Flywheel

Front 288

Front mount pumps is typically driven through a gear box and a clutch connected by a drive shaft to the front of what?

Back 288

Crankshaft

Front 289

Front mount pumps is typically driven through a gear box and a clutch connected by a drive shaft to the front of what?

Back 289

Crankshaft

Front 290

In front mount pumps, what causes the impeller of the pump to turn faster than the engine?

Back 290

Step up gear ratio

Front 291

Midship mounted pump where power is supplied to the pump through the use of a “what” located in the drive line between the transmission and the rear axle?

Back 291

Split shaft gear case (transfer case)

Front 292

In midship mounted pumps, the gear ratio is set to match the engine torque curve to the speed of the rotation required for the impeller to deliver the rated capacity of the pump. The ratio is configured to turn faster than the engine by how many times as fast?

Back 292

1.5-2.5 times as fast

Front 293

Some midship mounted pumps are rated for flows between?

Back 293

500-2,250 GPM

Front 294

With he engine in idle and the pump engaged, most speedometers will indicate between what?

Back 294

10-15 mph

Front 295

What type of pumps are used for auxiliary systems, including compressed air foam system and generators on some apparatus?

Back 295

Hydrostatic pumps

Front 296

Rear-mount pumps offer an advantage which include?

Back 296

Even weight distribution on chassis

More usable compartment space

Front 297

The piping system and the fire pump itself must be capable of withstanding a hydrostatic test of?

Back 297

500 psi

Front 298

According to the NFPA, pumpers with the capacity of 500 GPM or less should have piping capable of flowing what?

Back 298

250 GPM

Front 299

According to the NFPA, pumpers with the capacity of 500 GPM or less should have piping capable of flowing what?

Back 299

250 GPM

Front 300

According to the NFPA, pumpers with the capacity greater than 500 GPM should be able to flow at least?

Back 300

500 GPM

Front 301

Many pumpers are equipped with tank-to-pump piping as large as?

Back 301

4 inches

Front 302

Modern pumps are equipped with what type of valve to prevent damage to the tank if the tank-to-pump opens inadvertently while water is being supplied to the pump under pressure, such as during a relay?

Back 302

Check valve

Front 303

As piping nears the pump itself, what type of shape does the piping taper off, to prevent a vortex that may introduce air into the pump?

Back 303

Square

Front 304

Pumps rated greater than what flow may need more than one large intake connection at each location?

Back 304

1,500 GPM

Front 305

As a minimum, all fire apparatus with a rated pump capacity of 750 GPM or greater must be equipped with at least how many 2.5 inch discharges?

Back 305

2

Front 306

As a minimum, all fire apparatus with a rated pump capacity of 750 GPM or greater must be equipped with at least how many 2.5 inch discharges?

Back 306

2

Front 307

Pumps rated less than 750 GPM are to have how many 2.5 inch discharges?

Back 307

1

Front 308

As a minimum, all fire apparatus with a rated pump capacity of 750 GPM or greater must be equipped with at least how many 2.5 inch discharges?

Back 308

2

Front 309

Pumps rated less than 750 GPM are to have how many 2.5 inch discharges?

Back 309

1

Front 310

Discharges greater than “what” are not to be located on the pump operator’s panel?

Back 310

2.5 inches

Front 311

According to the NFPA apparatus equipped with tanks of less than 1,000 gallons must have a tank fill line of a least?

Back 311

1 inch in diameter

Front 312

According to the NFPA apparatus equipped with tanks of less than 1,000 gallons must have a tank fill line of a least?

Back 312

1 inch in diameter

Front 313

According to the NFPA tanks greater than 1,000 gallons must be provided with at least how large of a tank fill line?

Back 313

2 inch

Front 314

Valve life may be extended by doing this.

Back 314

Flushing the pump of debris

Front 315

Which valve permits the full flow of water through a line with a minimum friction loss?

Back 315

Ball valve

Front 316

Circulator and booster line cooling valves are piped with what type of tubing?

Back 316

Small diameter copper tubing with very limited flow capability

Front 317

What type of valves are normally used on large diameter intakes and discharges?

Back 317

Gate or butterfly valves

Front 318

What type of valves are normally used on large diameter intakes and discharges?

Back 318

Gate or butterfly valves

Front 319

Butterfly valves are most commonly operated by what type of handles?

Back 319

Quarter-turn handles

Front 320

NFPA states that all intakes or discharges that are 3 inches or greater to be equipped with what type of acting valve controls? How long to open or close the valve?

Back 320

Slow acting

3 seconds or more

Front 321

Failure to close all of the drains on the fire pump may?

Back 321

Result in inability to prime during drafting

Front 322

A pressure control device on a fire apparatus pumping system must operate within 3-10 seconds after the discharge pressure rises and restricts the pressure from exceeding how much pressure above the set level?

Back 322

30 psi

Front 323

In relief valves, when the pump discharge pressure rises higher than allowed by the pilot valve setting, the spring in the pilot valve compresses. This action allows the needle valve to move in which direction? Causing water to dump back into the pump intake.

Back 323

To the left

Front 324

The most common relief valve uses what?

Back 324

Spring-controlled pilot valve

Front 325

The most common relief valve uses what?

Back 325

Spring-controlled pilot valve

Front 326

It is generally recommended that the intake relief valves be set to open when the intake pressure rises more than what psi above the necessary operating pressure?

Back 326

10 psi

Front 327

Newer pumpers with electronic governors use a pressure sensing element that is connected to the discharge manifold:

Back 327

Pressure transducer

Front 328

The electronic governor features cavitation protection by returning the engine to idle when intake pressure drops below what psi?

Back 328

30 psi

Front 329

Oil reservoir for the priming pump is often mounted higher than the pump itself, a vent hole is provided to break the siphon action as the tank drains. This vent must be checked frequently for?

Back 329

Dirt and debris

Front 330

Oil reservoir for the priming pump is often mounted higher than the pump itself, a vent hole is provided to break the siphon action as the tank drains. This vent must be checked frequently for?

Back 330

Dirt and debris

Front 331

The preferred engine speed for priming is in the range of?

Back 331

1,000-1,200 RPMs

Front 332

Exhaust primers are found on what type of pumpers?

Back 332

Skid-mounted pumps

Older fire apparatus

Front 333

With vacuum primers, what type of valve must be installed to prevent water from a primed pump from being drawn into the engine manifold?

Back 333

Float valve

Front 334

With vacuum primers, what type of valve must be installed to prevent water from a primed pump from being drawn into the engine manifold?

Back 334

Float valve

Front 335

This type of primer works best at idle speed and low engine RPM

Back 335

Vacuum primer

Front 336

With vacuum primers, what type of valve must be installed to prevent water from a primed pump from being drawn into the engine manifold?

Back 336

Float valve

Front 337

This type of primer works best at idle speed and low engine RPM

Back 337

Vacuum primer

Front 338

This type of primer to create a vacuum works at high RPMs

Back 338

Exhaust primer

Front 339

This type of primer uses a compressor to supply an airline to a jet pump that creates a Venturi Effect that primes the pump using no moving parts or lubricants

Back 339

Air primer

Front 340

This type of primer uses a compressor to supply an airline to a jet pump that creates a Venturi Effect that primes the pump using no moving parts or lubricants

Back 340

Air primer

Front 341

The master intake is calibrated from between what psi of positive pressure?

Back 341

0-600 psi

Front 342

This type of primer uses a compressor to supply an airline to a jet pump that creates a Venturi Effect that primes the pump using no moving parts or lubricants

Back 342

Air primer

Front 343

The master intake is calibrated from between what psi of positive pressure?

Back 343

0-600 psi

Front 344

The master intake is measured between what inches of mercury on the negative side?

Back 344

0-30 inches of mercury (vacuum)

Front 345

When vacuum reading reaches how many inches of mercury indicating the pump is nearing its capacity and is not able to supply additional lines?

Back 345

20 inches

Front 346

What is the tachometer?

Back 346

Displays engine speed in revolutions per minute

Front 347

This meter display indicates the battery condition and measures the drops in voltage when electrical accessories are used

Back 347

Voltmeter

Front 348

What is another name for a throttle knob?

Back 348

Vernier

Front 349

What are the two types of auxiliary cooling devices?

Back 349

Marine type

Immersion type

Front 350

IFSTA recommends chocking the wheels of truck every time the driver does what?

Back 350

Exits the cab

Front 351

IFSTA recommends chocking the wheels of truck every time the driver does what?

Back 351

Exits the cab

Front 352

What three type of valves are used to circulate water back into the tank to prevent pump from overheating

Back 352

Booster cooling valve

Bypass valve

Circulator valve

Front 353

During pumping operations, what pressure must be maintained at all times at the master intake?

Back 353

20 psi

Front 354

Executing a reverse lay is a common method for setting up water supply using what size hose as a supply line?

Back 354

Medium diameter hose

Front 355

Use what type of adapters at the hydrant and the pump panel to execute a reverse lay using hose with threaded couplings if the hose bed has been set up for a forward lay?

Back 355

Double female at hydrant

Double male at pump panel

Front 356

Use what type of adapters at the hydrant and the pump panel to execute a reverse lay using hose with threaded couplings if the hose bed has been set up for a forward lay?

Back 356

Double female at hydrant

Double male at pump panel

Front 357

These type of valves prevent water from entering the tank under pressure from the pump intake.

Back 357

Check valves

Front 358

After transitioning to an external water supply, the driver must then do what?

Back 358

Close the tank-to-pump valve

Front 359

When the pumper is discharging water, the intake is displaying what type of pressure?

Back 359

Residual pressure

Front 360

When a pump is connected to a hydrant and is not discharging water, the pressure shown on the gauge is what type of pressure?

Back 360

Static pressure

Front 361

With an atmospheric pressure at sea level of 14.7 psi, a partial vacuum of -2 psi is measured on the intake pressure gauge as 4 inches of mercury. This causes the water to rise how many feet into the intake hose from the surface of the water?

Back 361

4.6 feet

Front 362

In a city located 5,000 feet above sea level, the atmospheric pressure is?

Back 362

12.2 psi

Front 363

Most pumps are able to develop a vacuum capacity of how many inches of mercury?

Back 363

22 inches

Front 364

What are three indications of cavitation?

Back 364

Lack of reaction on the pressure gauge to increase in the throttle

Noise like gravel passing through pump

Pressure gauge fluctuates and streams pulsate

Front 365

How many inches of water must be all around the strainer for deployment?

Back 365

24 inches

Front 366

In a floating strainer, that strainer only take in water through how many sides?

Back 366

One side

Front 367

Low level strainers can draft down to a depth of how many inches?

Back 367

2 inches

Front 368

Low level strainers can draft down to a depth of how many inches?

Back 368

2 inches

Front 369

What water temperatures may adversely impact the ability of the pump to reach capacity?

Back 369

Below 35

Above 90

Front 370

All fire pumps are rated to pump their capacity at how many feet of lift?

Back 370

10 feet

Front 371

A pump in good working order can lift how many feet of water max?

Back 371

25 feet

Front 372

To create an effective fire stream, a lift of no grater than how many feet must be created?

Back 372

20 feet

Front 373

At a lift of 20 feet, what percent capacity is the pump working at?

Back 373

60%

Front 374

It is desirable to lay out an extra how many feet of supply line to set up at a draft location. Where the lift will be lower and more water can be supplied?

Back 374

100 feet

Front 375

During drafting, any deviation from the normal engine temperature is a sign for what?

Back 375

Another pumper may need to be brought in to continue the drafting operation

Front 376

When supporting a sprinkler system, multistage pumps should be operated in what transfer valve position?

Back 376

Parallel (volume)

Front 377

For standpipes, do not use pump discharge in excess of how much psi? Unless the standpipe system, hose, and appliances have been designed to function under high pressures

Back 377

185 psi

Front 378

What is the difference in elevation. Between the surface of the static water supply and the center of the pump intake?

Back 378

Lift

Front 379

What type of vacuum is the pressure in the intake hose and in the pump drops lower than the atmosphere pressure resulting in water being forced into the pump?

Back 379

Partial vacuum

Front 380

For every 1,000 feet of altitude, the atmospheric pressure decreases by how much?

Back 380

0.5 psi

Front 381

A valve installed at the standpipe connection that is designed to reduce the amount of water pressure at the discharge usually at 100 psi

Back 381

Pressure-reducing valve

Front 382

At sea level what is the height theoretical lift?

Back 382

33.9 feet

Front 383

At sea level what is the height theoretical lift?

Back 383

33.9 feet

Front 384

What is the height of maximum lift?

Back 384

25 feet

Front 385

Dependable lift is the height of what?

Back 385

14.7 feet

Front 386

All fire department pumpers are rated for a minimum lift of 10 feet from the center of the pump to the surface of the water through how many feet of hard suction?

Back 386

20 feet of hard intake

Front 387

All fire department pumpers are rated for a minimum lift of 10 feet from the center of the pump to the surface of the water through how many feet of hard suction?

Back 387

20 feet of hard intake

Front 388

All fire department pumpers are rated when drafting the strainer is 2 feet submerged in a water depth of what?

Back 388

4 feet

Front 389

A pump may only deliver 70% of its capacity if lift is increased by how many feet?

Back 389

5 feet

Front 390

A pump may only deliver 70% of its capacity if lift is increased by how many feet?

Back 390

5 feet

Front 391

A pump may only deliver 60% of its capacity at how many feet of a lift?

Back 391

20 feet

Front 392

Floating pumps placed in an adequate water source can develop and maintain a flow of up to how many GPMs?

Back 392

500 GPM

Front 393

Low level strainers may be used for water as shallow as how many feet?

Back 393

1 foot

Front 394

Low level strainers may be used for water as shallow as how many feet?

Back 394

1 foot

Front 395

Low-level strainers are commonly used to draft from portable water tanks and may draw water as shallow as how many inches?

Back 395

1-2 inches

Front 396

If an adequate draft cannot be established due to clogging at the strainer, what can you do with tank water to dislodge the debris?

Back 396

Back flush

Front 397

This static water supply source is normally used for agricultural purposes or domestic, some are specifically constructed and placed for fire department use

Back 397

Cisterns

Front 398

This static water supply source is normally used for agricultural purposes or domestic, some are specifically constructed and placed for fire department use

Back 398

Cisterns

Front 399

Cisterns range in sizes from?

Back 399

10,000 - 100,000 gallons

Front 400

Water storage receptacle that is usually underground and may be supplied by a well or rainwater runoff

Back 400

Cistern

Front 401

Private water storage tanks can be stored in ground and can be elevated and range in from what sizes?

Back 401

Several hundred to tens of thousand of gallons of water

Front 402

Agricultural irrigation systems in some jurisdictions may flow in excess of how many GPMs?

Back 402

1,000 GPM

Front 403

Agricultural irrigation systems in some jurisdictions may flow in excess of how many GPMs?

Back 403

1,000 GPM

Front 404

These irrigation systems generally supply water via open canals and portable pipes

Back 404

Agricultural irrigation systems

Front 405

Agricultural irrigation systems in some jurisdictions may flow in excess of how many GPMs?

Back 405

1,000 GPM

Front 406

These irrigation systems generally supply water via open canals and portable pipes

Back 406

Agricultural irrigation systems

Front 407

Which type of apparatus can be involved in relay pumping?

Back 407

Any with an adequate pump

Front 408

Water supply pumpers in a relay should be the apparatus with the largest pumping capacity

Back 408

Source pumpers

Front 409

For relay, a hose tender may carry how much large diameter hose?

Back 409

A mile or more

Front 410

For relay, a hose tender may carry how much large diameter hose?

Back 410

A mile or more

Front 411

Large diameter hose can be what size to what in diameter?

Back 411

3.5 - 6 inches

Front 412

In a relay operation, the overall capacity of the system is determined by?

Back 412

Smallest pump

Smallest diameter hose used

Front 413

In a relay operation, the overall capacity of the system is determined by?

Back 413

Smallest pump

Smallest diameter hose used

Front 414

It is advisable for drivers to maintain an intake pressure of what as a relay pumper?

Back 414

20-30 psi

Front 415

In a relay operation, the overall capacity of the system is determined by?

Back 415

Smallest pump

Smallest diameter hose used

Front 416

It is advisable for drivers to maintain an intake pressure of what as a relay pumper?

Back 416

20-30 psi

Front 417

In a relay, apparatuses in relay and attack should be operating in which mode if they have pressure governors?

Back 417

Pressure RPM mode

Front 418

For relay pumpers equipped with an adjustable intake relief valve, they should be set to what?

Back 418

10 psi above static and discharge pressure to which they are attached to

Front 419

Attack pumpers in a relay operation with an adjustable intake relief valve should be set between what pressure?

Back 419

50-75 psi

Front 420

Most water shuttles require at least how many pumpers for water supply?

Back 420

2 pumpers

Front 421

Most water shuttles require at least how many pumpers for water supply?

Back 421

2 pumpers

Front 422

For water shuttle operators Marion’s, water tenders must be designed to be filled at a rate of at least what?

Back 422

1,000 GPMs

Front 423

For water tenders, vehicle weight restrictions generally limit single rear axle apparatus to a maximum capacity of how many gallons?

Back 423

2,000 gallons

Front 424

For apparatus greater than how many gallons, tandem rear axles, tri-axles, or semi-trailers are required

Back 424

2,000 gallons or more

Front 425

A vacuum tender is able to self fill from a static water source at a rate of up to 2,000 GPM with a lift of up to how many feet?

Back 425

22 feet

Front 426

A vacuum tender is able to self fill from a static water source at a rate of up to 2,000 GPM with a lift of up to how many feet?

Back 426

22 feet

Front 427

A vacuum tender is capable of discharging its water tank at a rate of how many GPMs?

Back 427

1,750 GPM

Front 428

NFPA 1901 requires that water be capable of being dumped from what sides of apparatus in water shuttle operations?

Back 428

Left, right and rear

Front 429

NFPA 1901 requires that water be capable of being dumped from what sides of apparatus in water shuttle operations?

Back 429

Left, right and rear

Front 430

Some apparatus equipped with front dump valve for water shuttle operations do not meet what GPM flow requirement?

Back 430

1,000 GPM

Front 431

In water shuttles, the use of gravity dump uses a how many inches piping ?

Back 431

8 inches or larger

Front 432

In water shuttles, the use of gravity dump uses a how many inches piping ?

Back 432

8 inches or larger

Front 433

In water shuttle ops, there are two large tank discharges in use on water tenders?

Back 433

Gravity dump

Jet-assisted dump

Front 434

Onboard tank of water tenders must avoid a sudden pressure failure of the tank during quick-filling operations by having what?

Back 434

Vents

Front 435

This allows free movement of water at the bottom of the tank and movement of air at the top during rapid filling or unloading

Back 435

Baffles

Front 436

This allows free movement of water at the bottom of the tank and movement of air at the top during rapid filling or unloading

Back 436

Baffles

Front 437

NFPA requires all tenders to have the capability to dump at minimum average flow rate of 1,000 GPM for the first what percent of it’s tank capacity?

Back 437

90 %

Front 438

Any portable tank used for water shuttle ops should be set up on a surface that is as level as possible and have capacity of at least how many gallons larger than the water tank on the apparatus that will supply it?

Back 438

500 gallons

Front 439

In water shuttle ops, incidents that require a flow rate of how many GPM are best served by multiple tank operation?

Back 439

300 GPM

Front 440

In water shuttle ops, incidents that require a flow rate of how many GPM are best served by multiple tank operation?

Back 440

300 GPM

Front 441

In water shuttle ops, most multi-tank operations use how many portable tanks?

Back 441

2-5 portable tanks

Front 442

In water shuttle ops, the jet siphon hose line is typically what size?

Back 442

1.5 inch

Front 443

In water shuttle ops, operations that require more than three tanks and jet siphons and flows over 500 GPM, what should be used to transfer water to the tank supplying the attack pumper?

Back 443

Parallel jet siphons

Front 444

During water shuttle ops, when does the timer start and end?

Back 444

Starts when dump valve is opened

Ends when tender is back in position at portable tank

Front 445

Most water tenders dump how much percent of their load before leaving the dump site?

Back 445

90%

Front 446

Most water tenders dump how much percent of their load before leaving the dump site?

Back 446

90%

Front 447

Shuttle operations are divided into two time elements:

Back 447

Travel time

Handling time

Front 448

Most water tenders dump how much percent of their load before leaving the dump site?

Back 448

90%

Front 449

Shuttle operations are divided into two time elements:

Back 449

Travel time

Handling time

Front 450

Class B fuels are divided in two categories:

Back 450

Hydrocarbons - crude oil, fuel oil, gasoline

Polar solvents - alcohol, acetone, ketones, and esters

Front 451

Most water tenders dump how much percent of their load before leaving the dump site?

Back 451

90%

Front 452

Shuttle operations are divided into two time elements:

Back 452

Travel time

Handling time

Front 453

Class B fuels are divided in two categories:

Back 453

Hydrocarbons - crude oil, fuel oil, gasoline

Polar solvents - alcohol, acetone, ketones, and esters

Front 454

Hydrocarbons have a specific gravity of?

Back 454

Less than one and will float on water

Front 455

Many modern fuels, including gasoline are blended with up to what percent of solvent additives and should be treated as polar solvents?

Back 455

15 %

Front 456

Most fire fighting foam concentrates are formulated to mix with what percentage of water?

Back 456

94 - 99.9%

Front 457

Most fire fighting foam concentrates are formulated to mix with what percentage of water?

Back 457

94 - 99.9%

Front 458

Foam is proportioned in four ways :

Back 458

Batch mixing

Premixing

Induction

Injection

Front 459

Four ways foam is stored

Back 459

Pails

Barrels

Totes

Apparatus tanks

Front 460

Four ways foam is stored

Back 460

Pails

Barrels

Totes

Apparatus tanks

Front 461

Pails of foam

Back 461

5 gallons

Front 462

Four ways foam is stored

Back 462

Pails

Barrels

Totes

Apparatus tanks

Front 463

Pails of foam

Back 463

5 gallons

Front 464

Barrels of foam

Back 464

55-gallon barrel

Front 465

Four ways foam is stored

Back 465

Pails

Barrels

Totes

Apparatus tanks

Front 466

Pails of foam

Back 466

5 gallons

Front 467

Barrels of foam

Back 467

55-gallon barrel

Front 468

Totes of foam

Back 468

275 gallon container

Front 469

Apparatus tanks with foam

Back 469

20- 200 gallons

Foam pump or tender can carry 8,000 gallons

Front 470

Chemical that lowers the surface tension of a liquid; allows water to spread more rapidly over the surface of Class A fuels and penetrate organic fuels

Back 470

Surfactant

Front 471

Chemical that lowers the surface tension of a liquid; allows water to spread more rapidly over the surface of Class A fuels and penetrate organic fuels

Back 471

Surfactant

Front 472

The shelf life of properly stored Class A foam solution can be how long?

Back 472

20 years

Front 473

Class A foam concentrates may be mixed with what percentages?

Back 473

0.1 - 1 %

Front 474

Fire attack and overhaul with standard fog nozzle using foam percentage?

Back 474

0.2-0.5 percent concentrate

Front 475

Fire attack and overhaul with standard fog nozzle using foam percentage?

Back 475

0.2-0.5 percent concentrate

Front 476

Exposure protection with standard fog nozzle using Class A Foam

Back 476

0.5-1 percent concentrate

Front 477

Fire attack and overhaul with standard fog nozzle using foam percentage?

Back 477

0.2-0.5 percent concentrate

Front 478

Exposure protection with standard fog nozzle using Class A Foam

Back 478

0.5-1 percent concentrate

Front 479

Any application with air aspirating foam nozzles using Class A Foam percentage?

Back 479

0.3-0.7 percent concentrate

Front 480

Any application with compressed air foam systems (CAFS) Class A Foam percentage?

Back 480

0.2-0.5 percent concentrate

Front 481

Application rate refers to the minimum amount of foam solution applied to a fire is rated by?

Back 481

Per minute

Per square foot

Front 482

Class B Foam consists of what?

Back 482

Synthetic - fluorosurfactants

Proteins base

Front 483

Class B Foam should be stored in cool areas to max shelf life, what is shelf life for protein and synthetic foam?

Back 483

Protein - 10 years

Synthetic - 20-25 years

Front 484

AFFF and fluoroprotein can be mixed together? T/F?

Back 484

True

Front 485

Class B Foams are mixed in proportions from what to what percentage?

Back 485

1-6 %

Front 486

What are the percentage ranges for hydrocarbons and polar solvents fuels with Class B Foam?

Back 486

Hydrocarbons - 1-3%

Polar solvents - 3-6%

Front 487

Class B Low Foam expansion contains air/solution ratio of up to?

Back 487

20:1

Front 488

Class B Low Foam expansion contains air/solution ratio of up to?

Back 488

20:1

Front 489

Class B medium foam expansion has the air/solution ratio to what range?

Back 489

20:1 - 200:1

Front 490

Class B Low Foam expansion contains air/solution ratio of up to?

Back 490

20:1

Front 491

Class B medium foam expansion has the air/solution ratio to what range?

Back 491

20:1 - 200:1

Front 492

Class B high GPM expansion has air/solution ratio to what range?

Back 492

200:1 - 1000:1

Front 493

Fluoroprotein Foam is a combination of what?

Back 493

Protein based foam and synthetic foam

Front 494

Fluoroprotein Foam is a combination of what?

Back 494

Protein based foam and synthetic foam

Front 495

Fluoroprotein foam may be made alcohol resistant with the addition of what?

Back 495

Ammonia salts suspended in organic solvents

Front 496

Alcohol resistive properties added in the fluoroprotein foam will be effective for how many minutes offering high-water retention and resistance to heat?

Back 496

15 minutes

Front 497

Regular protein foams over good heat stability and?

Back 497

Burn back resistance

Front 498

AFFF should be applied how to the fuel product in order to allow the membrane to form?

Back 498

Gently

Front 499

The pressure at the discharge side of the eductor must not exceed what percent of the eductor inlet pressure?

Back 499

70%

Front 500

Eductors must be properly maintained after each use in order to ensure readiness, use a bucket of water to immerse foam pickup tube, letting it induct water for at least how long?

Back 500

1 minute

Front 501

The foam concentrate inlet to the eductor should be no more than how many feet above the liquid surface of the foam concentrate?

Back 501

No more than 6 feet

Front 502

Some master stream foam nozzles are capable of delivering how many GPMs?

Back 502

14,000 GPMs

Front 503

Some master stream foam nozzles are capable of delivering how many GPMs?

Back 503

14,000 GPMs

Front 504

Jet Ration controller is a type of inline eductor that may be used to supply foam concentrate to a self-educting master stream, it may be located at distances of up to how many feet from the nozzle and how much elevation?

Back 504

3,000 feet

50 feet elevation

Front 505

Jet ratio controllers proportions the concentrate at what percent solution? Which it is further proportioned with water resulting in a discharge of what?

Back 505

66.5%

3 % further discharged

Front 506

With around-the-pump proportioners, when in the open position, the valve allows approximately how many GPMs to flow through the piping?

Back 506

10-40 GPMs

Front 507

With around-the-pump proportioners, when in the open position, the valve allows approximately how many GPMs to flow through the piping?

Back 507

10-40 GPMs

Front 508

Class A Foam solutions do not retain their foaming properties when mixed in water for more than how many hours?

Back 508

24 hours

Front 509

With around-the-pump proportioners, when in the open position, the valve allows approximately how many GPMs to flow through the piping?

Back 509

10-40 GPMs

Front 510

Class A Foam solutions do not retain their foaming properties when mixed in water for more than how many hours?

Back 510

24 hours

Front 511

With CAFS, 2 cubic feet per minute of airflow per gallon per minute of foam solution produces a dry foam of up to how many GPM of foam solution? What expansion ratio is this?

Back 511

100 GPM

10:1 expansion ratio

Front 512

With around-the-pump proportioners, when in the open position, the valve allows approximately how many GPMs to flow through the piping?

Back 512

10-40 GPMs

Front 513

Class A Foam solutions do not retain their foaming properties when mixed in water for more than how many hours?

Back 513

24 hours

Front 514

With CAFS, 2 cubic feet per minute of airflow per gallon per minute of foam solution produces a dry foam of up to how many GPM of foam solution? What expansion ratio is this?

Back 514

100 GPM

10:1 expansion ratio

Front 515

Most structural and wildland suppression operations conducted with CAFS use airflow rate of what range cubic feet per minute?

Back 515

0.5-1 cubic feet of foam solution per minute

Front 516

What are the two basic types of medium and high expansion foam generators?

Back 516

Water aspirating

Mechanical blower

Front 517

The two basic categories of testing are grouped as?

Back 517

Preservice testing

Performance testing

Front 518

PRESERVICE testing includes which tests?

Back 518

Manufacturer test

Pump certification test

Acceptance test

Front 519

Which testing is available for fire department personnel to be present?

Back 519

Acceptance testing

Front 520

Manufacturer is required to perform two specific tests in addition to the pump certification test, which are they?

Back 520

Road test

Hydrostatic test

Front 521

The apparatus must accelerate to 35 mph from a standing start within how many seconds?

Back 521

25 seconds

Front 522

Apparatus must achieve at least a top speed of what?

Back 522

50 mph

Front 523

Apparatus must achieve at least a top speed of what?

Back 523

50 mph

Front 524

The apparatus must come to a full stop from 20 mph within how many feet?

Back 524

35 feet

Front 525

With the the exception of the tank to fill and tank to pump lines on the side of the valves, are subjected to a minimum hydrostatic test pressure of what psi for how many minutes?

Back 525

500 psi

10 minutes

Front 526

In jurisdictions that have an elevation higher than how many feet must perform an engine overload test as part of acceptance testing?

Back 526

2,000 feet

Front 527

When must a pumper go through a performance test?

Back 527

Annually

Pump repair

Power train repair

Front 528

The air temperature when pump performance test should be between what?

Back 528

0-110 degrees

Front 529

The air temperature when pump performance test should be between what?

Back 529

0-110 degrees

Front 530

The water temperature for pump performance test should be between what?

Back 530

35-90 degrees Fahrenheit

Front 531

With pumper performance tests , the barometer must be at least how many inches of mercury when corrected to sea level?

Back 531

29 inches

Front 532

With pumper performance tests , the barometer must be at least how many inches of mercury when corrected to sea level?

Back 532

29 inches

Front 533

During the pump performance test, the water level from static source must be how deep and the strainer must be submerged how deep?

Back 533

Static source must be 4 ft deep

Strainer must be submerged 2 ft

Front 534

During a pump performance test pumps rated at 1,500 GPMs or less must have a max distance from centerline of pump intake above the surface water of? How about for pumps rated for 2,000GPM?

Back 534

10 foot max lift

6 foot max lift

Front 535

During performance test, you must stop the test and replaced the hose if the couplings of the hose have moved away from the scribed mark more than how many inches?

Back 535

3/8 of an inch

Front 536

Performance tests are performed in four different pressures, what are they?

Back 536

150 psi

165 psi

200 psi

250 psi

Front 537

NFPA 1911 specifies that all gauges used for service testing must be calibrated within how many days of the testing?

Back 537

60 days

Front 538

During performance test, a gauge to determine pump discharge with what range?

Back 538

0-400 psi

Front 539

A flowmeter indicates flow in gallons per minute, within plus or minus how much percent of accuracy?

Back 539

3%

Front 540

During performance tests, were hearing protection if noise levels have the potential to reach or exceed how many decibels?

Back 540

90 decibels

Front 541

Pump apparatus needs to be removed from service if pump fails to reach how many inches of mercury?

Back 541

22 inches

Front 542

NFPA1911 states that fire pumps of 1,250 GPM capacity must achieve prime in how many seconds?

Back 542

30 seconds or less

Front 543

NFPA1911 states that fire pumps of 1,250 GPM capacity must achieve prime in how many seconds?

Back 543

30 seconds or less

Front 544

NFPA 1911 states pumps rated at 1,500 GPM must reach prime within how many seconds?

Back 544

45 seconds

Front 545

If a hand held pitot gauge is used for flow test, the tip of gauge must be how far from nozzle end?

Back 545

1.5 nozzle diameter

Front 546

The difference in readings between the flowmeter and the pitot gauge must not be more than what percent?

Back 546

10 percent

Front 547

Any apparatus that achieves less than what percent during performance testing may be placed out of service and tested again or given lower rating based on results?

Back 547

90 percent

Front 548

What are the four methods for testing a foam proportioning system for calibration accuracy?

Back 548

Foam concentrate displacement method

Foam concentrate pump discharge volume method

Foam solution refractivity testing

Foam solution conductivity testing

Front 549

This foam method checks the volume of foam concentrate that is drawn through the system to determine the accuracy of the proportioning equipment

Back 549

Foam concentrate displacement method

Front 550

Certain direct injection type proportioning systems may use this method to check the volume of foam concentrate that is proportioned into a fire stream:

Back 550

Foam concentrate pump discharge volume method

Front 551

Certain direct injection type proportioning systems may use this method to check the volume of foam concentrate that is proportioned into a fire stream:

Back 551

Foam concentrate pump discharge volume method

Front 552

Tests the quality of a foam solution after it has been created by a foam proportioning system.

Back 552

Foam solution refractivity testing

Front 553

Certain direct injection type proportioning systems may use this method to check the volume of foam concentrate that is proportioned into a fire stream:

Back 553

Foam concentrate pump discharge volume method

Front 554

Tests the quality of a foam solution after it has been created by a foam proportioning system.

Back 554

Foam solution refractivity testing

Front 555

A device used to measure the amount of foam concentrate in he solution by measuring the velocity of light that travels through the foam solution:

Back 555

Refractometer

Front 556

Certain direct injection type proportioning systems may use this method to check the volume of foam concentrate that is proportioned into a fire stream:

Back 556

Foam concentrate pump discharge volume method

Front 557

Tests the quality of a foam solution after it has been created by a foam proportioning system.

Back 557

Foam solution refractivity testing

Front 558

A device used to measure the amount of foam concentrate in he solution by measuring the velocity of light that travels through the foam solution:

Back 558

Refractometer

Front 559

Testing to ensure the quality of synthetic based foam produced by various foam proportioning systems and equipment:

Back 559

Foam solution conductivity testing

Front 560

Base rails on aerial are called?

Back 560

Beams

Front 561

Top rails on an aerial are called?

Back 561

Hand rails

Front 562

Aerials designed with what feature provide greater strength than older designs?

Back 562

K-bracing

Front 563

What are the four main components of a hydraulic system?

Back 563

Actuators

Hydraulic fluid

Hydraulic pump

Hydraulic reservoir

Front 564

What are the four main components of a hydraulic system?

Back 564

Actuators

Hydraulic fluid

Hydraulic pump

Hydraulic reservoir

Front 565

In hydraulic system, this transforms power into mechanical force:

Back 565

Actuator

Front 566

In hydraulic system, this is the medium by which the system transmits force:

Back 566

Hydraulic fluid

Front 567

Depending on the manufacturer of the aerial apparatus, hydraulic fluid may be under pressure of up to?

Back 567

3,500 psi or more

Front 568

The series of tubes and hoses that supply the hydraulic system are aircraft type, steel braided hose that can withstand how much pressure from normal operating pressure?

Back 568

Four times greater than normal operating pressure

Front 569

In a hydraulic system, this valve prevents unintentional or undesirable motion of the device from its established position:

Back 569

Counterbalance valves

Front 570

In a hydraulic system, this valve prevents unintentional or undesirable motion of the device from its established position:

Back 570

Counterbalance valves

Front 571

This is a three way valve that directs fluid to either the stabilizer control valves or the aerial device control valves

Back 571

Selector valve

Front 572

In a hydraulic system, this valve prevents unintentional or undesirable motion of the device from its established position:

Back 572

Counterbalance valves

Front 573

This is a three way valve that directs fluid to either the stabilizer control valves or the aerial device control valves

Back 573

Selector valve

Front 574

Hydraulic cylinders used for elevation and telescopic control of the aerial device and for opening stabilizers are what?

Back 574

Double acting cylinders capable of receiving oil under pressure from both sides of the piston

Front 575

How many rotary systems are on an aerial apparatus?

Back 575

2

Front 576

How many rotary systems are on an aerial apparatus?

Back 576

2

Front 577

What do each rotary devices on aerial do?

Back 577

Rotates aerial device through pinion drive and ring

Operates on a winch drive to extend and retract aerial device

Front 578

Hydraulic cylinders used to lift the aerial device from its bed to working position:

Back 578

Hoisting cylinders

Front 579

In a hydraulic cylinder, the pivoting end of the piston rod that is connected to the anchor ear by the heel pin

Back 579

Trunnion

Front 580

Normal hydraulic pressure on an aerial is between?

Back 580

850-3,000 psi

Front 581

To lower a ladder from an aerial manually, you can bleed the pressure from the cylinder through what?

Back 581

Bleed-down valve

Front 582

To lower a ladder from an aerial manually, you can bleed the pressure from the cylinder through what?

Back 582

Bleed-down valve

Front 583

Aerial ladders made in North America, the fully extended ranges from?

Back 583

50-137 ft

Front 584

Three distinct elevating platforms are?

Back 584

Aerial ladder platform

Telescoping aerial platform

Articulating aerial platform

Front 585

What is the required minimum floor area of a platform?

Back 585

14 square feet

Front 586

What is the required minimum floor area of a platform?

Back 586

14 square feet

Front 587

On a platform, they must have a rail completely enclosing the floor area with no opening under the railing greater than what?

Back 587

24 inches

Front 588

On a platform a kickplate is required at floor level and should be how high?

Back 588

4 inches

Front 589

NFPA requires nozzle below platform to flow at?

Back 589

75 GPMS

Front 590

NFPA requires nozzle below platform to flow at?

Back 590

75 GPMS

Front 591

All elevating platforms must have a minimum load capacity of? With water in piping system what is the load capacity?

Back 591

750 lbs dry

500 lbs full load

Front 592

Elevated platforms that are 110 feet or shorter should be able to rotate from the bedded position to max elevation and extension in how many seconds?

Back 592

150 seconds

Front 593

There is no time limit for full extension and rotation for what sized elevating platform?

Back 593

110feet or higher

Front 594

The working height for aerial ladders is measure from ?

Back 594

The ground to the highest ladder rung

Front 595

The working height for aerial ladders is measure from ?

Back 595

The ground to the highest ladder rung

Front 596

The working height of all platforms is measured from?

Back 596

Ground to the top surface of the highest platform handrail

Front 597

The working height for aerial ladders is measure from ?

Back 597

The ground to the highest ladder rung

Front 598

The working height of all platforms is measured from?

Back 598

Ground to the top surface of the highest platform handrail

Front 599

Aerial ladder platforms range in size between what?

Back 599

85-110 feet

Front 600

The working height for aerial ladders is measure from ?

Back 600

The ground to the highest ladder rung

Front 601

The working height of all platforms is measured from?

Back 601

Ground to the top surface of the highest platform handrail

Front 602

Aerial ladder platforms range in size between what?

Back 602

85-110 feet

Front 603

What configuration is the most common ladder platform in service today?

Back 603

Straight chassis, three axle, rear mounted aerial device

Front 604

What are aerial and telescoping platforms not intended for?

Back 604

Climbing

Front 605

In North America, telescoping aerial platforms range from?

Back 605

75 - 100 feet

Front 606

A mechanically applied rivet used in the construction of some aerial devices, they can only be removed by drilling

Back 606

Huck bolt

Front 607

Telescoping aerial platforms are made of what two constructions?

Back 607

Box-beam

Tubular truss beam

Front 608

Telescoping aerial platforms are made of what two constructions?

Back 608

Box-beam

Tubular truss beam

Front 609

Standard articulating aerial platforms range in height of?

Back 609

55 - 85 feet

Front 610

Telescoping aerial platforms are made of what two constructions?

Back 610

Box-beam

Tubular truss beam

Front 611

Standard articulating aerial platforms range in height of?

Back 611

55 - 85 feet

Front 612

Water towers are capable of flows ranging from?

Back 612

1,000-5,000 gpm

Front 613

Telescoping aerial platforms are made of what two constructions?

Back 613

Box-beam

Tubular truss beam

Front 614

Standard articulating aerial platforms range in height of?

Back 614

55 - 85 feet

Front 615

Water towers are capable of flows ranging from?

Back 615

1,000-5,000 gpm

Front 616

Common sizes for water towers range in height?

Back 616

50-130 feet

Front 617

On most aerial devices, the third, fourth, and fifth sections of the aerial devices are extended and retracted by a system of what?

Back 617

Cable and pulleys

Front 618

The cables and pulleys used to extend and retract sections of aerial are made of high strength steel called?

Back 618

Plow steel

Front 619

This does not allow aerial device to rotate over the side of the apparatus where the stabilizers are not fully extended:

Back 619

Rotation interlock (Short jack)

Front 620

This doesn’t allow cab to raise if the engine is running:

Back 620

Cab interlock

Front 621

This doesn’t allow cab to raise if the engine is running:

Back 621

Cab interlock

Front 622

What are the two types of pre-piped waterway systems on aerials.

Back 622

Bed ladder systems

Telescoping waterway systems

Front 623

What is the average diameter range of a bed ladder pipe?

Back 623

3-3.5 inches

Front 624

What is the minimum internal diameter of piping for a telescoping piping system?

Back 624

4 inches

Front 625

What is the minimum internal diameter of piping for a telescoping piping system?

Back 625

4 inches

Front 626

Most telescoping water systems are capable of flows of up to?

Back 626

1,000 GPMs

Front 627

Detachable ladder pipes are typically limited to flows of less than?

Back 627

750 GPM

Front 628

Hoses advanced up a ladder should be secured by hose straps a minimum of how many locations?

Back 628

2-3 locations

Front 629

Most ladders with detachable ladder pipe appliances restrict the sideways movement of the nozzle to about how any degrees either side of center?

Back 629

15 degrees

Front 630

The piercing nozzle at the end of an aerial device has the capabilities of flowing water of up to?

Back 630

300 GPM

Front 631

Portable generators typically have how many volt capabilities?

Back 631

110 volts

220 volts

Front 632

Inverters convert vehicle’s 12 or 24 volt DC current into what?

Back 632

110 or 220-volt AC

Front 633

Common recommended lengths of electrical power chords should not exceed?

Back 633

200 feet

Front 634

With hydraulic tools, hose distances of what may have a negative effect on tool operation?

Back 634

100 feet or more

Front 635

Extension ladders that are 40 feet in length or longer are called? What are they equipped with for stability?

Back 635

Called pole ladders

Staypoles or tormentors for stability

Front 636

Loss control on a fire starts when?

Back 636

The minute companies leave the station and continues throughout the incident

Front 637

NFPA 1901 requires aerial apparatus to be equipped with what items to assist with salvage and overhaul efforts?

Back 637

Multiple salvage covers

2 scoop shovels

Front 638

Tiller axle is a steering axle, steering wheel free play must not exceed how many inches on a 20 inch wheel?

Back 638

2 inches

Front 639

Tiller axle is a steering axle, steering wheel free play must not exceed how many inches on a 20 inch wheel?

Back 639

2 inches

Front 640

On tiller axle, steering wheel free play must not exceed how many degrees on steering wheel?

Back 640

10 degrees

Front 641

Hydraulic fluid level must be checked when the system is?

Back 641

Cold

Front 642

If truck begins to lean toward one side after stabilizers have been deployed, what may be the problem?

Back 642

Leak

Front 643

If truck begins to lean toward one side after stabilizers have been deployed, what may be the problem?

Back 643

Leak

Front 644

What is operating a hydraulic pump without allowing flow through the system which can generate tremendous heat and pressure and can damage components :

Back 644

Deadheading

Front 645

If truck begins to lean toward one side after stabilizers have been deployed, what may be the problem?

Back 645

Leak

Front 646

What is operating a hydraulic pump without allowing flow through the system which can generate tremendous heat and pressure and can damage components :

Back 646

Deadheading

Front 647

Apparatus testing is grouped into two basic categories :

Back 647

Pre service test

Service test

Front 648

Method of testing metal objects that does not subject them to stress related damage :

Back 648

Nondestructive testing

Front 649

Method of testing metal objects that does not subject them to stress related damage :

Back 649

Nondestructive testing

Front 650

Nondestructive testing is conducted when? X4

Back 650

Every 5 years

Subjected to unusual stress or loads

Major repairs or overhauls

After accidents

Front 651

When 2 aerials respond to an incident, what are their locations to a building according to arrival order?

Back 651

1st takes front of building

2nd takes rear or side of building

Front 652

What are the two impacts of positioning aerial with the front of apparatus up-hill?

Back 652

Rear tires off ground, less resistance to sliding downhill

Rear compartments are difficult to reach after leveling

Front 653

What are the two impacts of positioning aerial with the front of apparatus up-hill?

Back 653

Rear tires off ground, less resistance to sliding downhill

Rear compartments are difficult to reach after leveling

Front 654

What are the two impacts of an aerial positioning with the rear of the apparatus up-hill?

Back 654

It will be easier to reach ground with a platform operating off rear

Front tires will be lifted off ground, causing frame rails to sag and making device difficult to stow properly

Front 655

Electricity will arc across a gap as large as how many feet?

Back 655

10 feet

Front 656

10 feet clearance between aerial device and overhead voltage lines energized from the range of?

Back 656

600-50,000 volts

Front 657

How many feet of clearance between an aerial device and high-voltage line over 50,000 volts?

Back 657

50 feet

Front 658

The new standard from OSHA between aerial and overhead voltage lines of less than 350 kilovolts is how many feet?

Back 658

20 feet

Front 659

The apparatus is most stable when the aerial device is operated where?

Back 659

Directly over front or rear of the vehicle

Front 660

The apparatus is most stable when the aerial device is operated where?

Back 660

Directly over front or rear of the vehicle

Front 661

Greatest stability occurs when jackknifing cab of tractor trailer aerial device to how many degrees from vehicle being in-line?

Back 661

60 degrees

Front 662

When approaching building from uphill side, the apparatus should stop where from building?

Back 662

Park past building and operate aerial device from the rear

Front 663

When approaching building from uphill side, the apparatus should stop where from building?

Back 663

Park past building and operate aerial device from the rear

Front 664

When approaching building from down-hill side, apparatus should stop where?

Back 664

Stop short of the building and operate aerial over the cab

Front 665

On highways consider parking additional apparatus range of how many feet behind the shielding apparatus to act as an additional barrier between firefighters and flow of traffic?

Back 665

150-200 feet

Front 666

Most railroad companies advise that vehicles be kept at least how many feet from track?

Back 666

25 feet

Front 667

Where do you position tip of ladder device on aircraft wing?

Back 667

Place tip of the device as if accessing a building roof

Front 668

Where do you position tip of ladder device on aircraft wing?

Back 668

Place tip of the device as if accessing a building roof

Front 669

Where do you position tip off ladder device in doorway of aircraft?

Back 669

Position tip as if accessing a building window

Front 670

Straight jacks that extend down from the chassis

Back 670

Post-type stabilizer

Front 671

Straight jacks that extend down from the chassis

Back 671

Post-type stabilizer

Front 672

Stabilizers that extend straight away from the truck and have jacks that extend straight down to the ground

Back 672

Box stabilizers

Front 673

Straight jacks that extend down from the chassis

Back 673

Post-type stabilizer

Front 674

Stabilizers that extend straight away from the truck and have jacks that extend straight down to the ground

Back 674

Box stabilizers

Front 675

Stabilizers that extend down and away from the chassis at an angle

Back 675

A-Frame, scissor, or X-style stabilizers

Front 676

Pneumatic systems require anywhere from home much pressure range for the PTO to be operated?

Back 676

50-140 psi

Front 677

Pneumatic systems require anywhere from home much pressure range for the PTO to be operated?

Back 677

50-140 psi

Front 678

Most new models of aerial apparatus are equipped where it is acceptable to engage the PTO system when the transmission is in neutral?

Back 678

Hot shift

Front 679

Chocks should be placed in front or behind a wheel and allowing how much space in between wheel and chock in case wheel moves?

Back 679

1 inch

Front 680

Stabilizer pads are usually how large?

Back 680

24X24

Front 681

Stabilizer pads are usually how large?

Back 681

24X24

Front 682

There are two ways that the truck can be uneven, laterally or longitudinally. Which of the two is easiest to correct?

Back 682

Lateral unevenness

Front 683

Stabilizer pads are usually how large?

Back 683

24X24

Front 684

There are two ways that the truck can be uneven, laterally or longitudinally. Which of the two is easiest to correct?

Back 684

Lateral unevenness

Front 685

Correction of lateral unevenness is possible of grades of up to what percent?

Back 685

5%

Front 686

Stabilizer pads are usually how large?

Back 686

24X24

Front 687

There are two ways that the truck can be uneven, laterally or longitudinally. Which of the two is easiest to correct?

Back 687

Lateral unevenness

Front 688

Correction of lateral unevenness is possible of grades of up to what percent?

Back 688

5%

Front 689

A slope of 5% means that their is a rise in terrain of how many feet per 100 feet?

Back 689

5 feet

Front 690

Aerial devices operating on grades will have restricted loads of up to how much the normal operating load on device?

Back 690

1/2 the normal load

Front 691

What prevents the flow of hydraulic fluid into or out of the stabilization system while the aerial device is in use?

Back 691

Interlock

Front 692

What prevents the flow of hydraulic fluid into or out of the stabilization system while the aerial device is in use?

Back 692

Interlock

Front 693

Which valves prevent the movement of hydraulic fluid within the stabilizing system?

Back 693

Holding valves

Front 694

Holding valves are activated on the stabilizing system once the selector switch is moved to where?

Back 694

Aerial position

Front 695

Driver should never position the vehicle with tractor and trailer at an angle greater than how many degrees?

Back 695

90 degrees

Front 696

Standard on Life Safety Rope and Equipment for Emergency Services

Back 696

NFPA 1983

Front 697

Because of forces being generated, all movements of an aerial device must be slow,smooth and controlled also know as?

Back 697

Feathering

Front 698

Because of forces being generated, all movements of an aerial device must be slow,smooth and controlled also know as?

Back 698

Feathering

Front 699

There are two type of articulating aerial apparatus :

Back 699

Water towers

Aerial platforms

Front 700

What is the quick guideline for a quick ladder pipe use?

Back 700

75-80-80

75 degree elevation

80% extended

80 psi

Front 701

What is the quick guideline for a quick ladder pipe use?

Back 701

75-80-80

75 degree elevation

80% extended

80 psi

Front 702

Newer ladder pipes offer a how many degree sweep of movement?

Back 702

180 degree

Front 703

The limit of ice build up allowed by NFPA 1901 on apparatus is how much?

Back 703

1/4 inch on all surfaces

Front 704

15-24 mph

Back 704

Small trees in motion; whitecaps visible on ponds and small lakes

Front 705

15-24 mph

Back 705

Small trees in motion; whitecaps visible on ponds and small lakes

Front 706

25-31 mph

Back 706

Large tree branches in motion; whistling heard in utility wires

Front 707

15-24 mph

Back 707

Small trees in motion; whitecaps visible on ponds and small lakes

Front 708

25-31 mph

Back 708

Large tree branches in motion; whistling heard in utility wires

Front 709

32-38 mph

Back 709

Whole trees in motion; inconvenience felt walking against wind

Front 710

15-24 mph

Back 710

Small trees in motion; whitecaps visible on ponds and small lakes

Front 711

25-31 mph

Back 711

Large tree branches in motion; whistling heard in utility wires

Front 712

32-38 mph

Back 712

Whole trees in motion; inconvenience felt walking against wind

Front 713

39-54 mph

Back 713

Twigs break off trees; walking against the wind is generally impeded: minor building damage

Front 714

In freezing wether, draining valves must be kept in what position to avoid damage?

Back 714

Open

Front 715

1 cubic inch of ice is how many pounds?

Back 715

0.03 lb

Front 716

Slowly extending and retracting the aerial device to remove accumulated ice is called?

Back 716

Ice shrugging

Front 717

Standard for the Inspection, Maintenance, Testing, and Retirement of In-Service Automotive Fire Apparatus

Back 717

NFPA 1911

Front 718

One type of aerial device suitable for below grade rescue operations is?

Back 718

Three boom articulating platform

Front 719

Successful communications for aerial operations include what three things?

Back 719

Pre-Arrival communication

On Scene communication

Tactical Communication

Front 720

What are the two advantages of positioning on a corner with aerial device?

Back 720

Safe from collapse

Access to two sides of building

Front 721

What are the two advantages of positioning on a corner with aerial device?

Back 721

Safe from collapse

Access to two sides of building

Front 722

Where should the tips of ladder be in a supported position?

Back 722

Ladder should be positioned so both rails are evenly in contact with the supporting object

Front 723

What are the two advantages of positioning on a corner with aerial device?

Back 723

Safe from collapse

Access to two sides of building

Front 724

Where should the tips of ladder be in a supported position?

Back 724

Ladder should be positioned so both rails are evenly in contact with the supporting object

Front 725

Where should the tips of ladder be in unsupported position?

Back 725

Tip should be placed above the target spot to keep it from contacting the building

Front 726

What is used to increase the overall strength of an extended device and greatly reduces the chance of failure?

Back 726

Extension locks

Front 727

Where should the ladder be placed at window sill when performing a rescue from window?

Back 727

First rung even with the widow sill

Front 728

Where should the ladder be placed at window sill when performing a rescue from window?

Back 728

First rung even with the widow sill

Front 729

When approaching a window with a platform, where should the platform be placed?

Back 729

Top rail of the platform even with the window sill

Front 730

When removing victims from a roof, the tip of the aerial ladder should be placed so at least how many feet extends above the edge of the roof?

Back 730

6 feet

Front 731

When removing victims from a roof, the tip of the aerial ladder should be placed so at least how many feet extends above the edge of the roof?

Back 731

6 feet

Front 732

When removing victims from a roof, the aerial platform should be placed where?

Back 732

Bottom of platform is just above and over the edge of the roof

Front 733

What is the best method used to carry a heavier person who is conscious down a ladder?

Back 733

Knee-sit method

Front 734

What is the best method used to carry a heavier person who is conscious down a ladder?

Back 734

Knee-sit method

Front 735

Water deflection performed with an aerial can be accomplished by positioning the aerial device so that the nozzle is about even with the bottom of the window. This position allows water to enter the area at what angle?

Back 735

30 degree angle

Front 736

Water adds weight to a structure at the rate of 2,000 pounds every how many GPMS?

Back 736

250 GPM

Front 737

When elevated master streams are used in a blitz attack, they should only be flowed long enough to do what?

Back 737

Darken down the fire