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37 Cards in this Set

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Describe the curb-65=0-1 (outpatient treatments)
I. Previously healthy and no risk for drug resistance
1. macrolide (covers both M. pneumonia and S. pneumonia) 2. doxycycline (if problem w/ macrolide)
II. Presence of co-morbidities
1. B-lactom (targets drug resistant S. pneumonia) + macrolide or doxycycline
2. respiratory flouroquinilones (RFQ)
Describe the curb-65=2 (medical ward treatment)
1. B-lactam + macrolide
2. RFQ (reserve for B-lactam allergic patients)
note-patients should be hospitalized and drugs given IV
Describe the curb-65=3 or more (severe pneumonia/ICU treatment) at no risk for P. aeruginosa of MRSA
1. Potent antipneumococcal β-lactam (cefotaxime, ceftriaxone, or ampicillin-sulbactam) + azithromycin
2. RFQ
Describe the treatment for P. aeruginosa
Initial treatment with antibiotic combination (should cover, P. aeruginosa, S. pneumonia, and M. pneumonia), then adjusted once susceptibilities are known:
Antipneumococcal, antipseudomonal β-lactam (piperacillin-tazobactam cefepime, carbapenem) +
a. RFQ (ciprofloxacin or levofloxacin)
b. aminoglycoside + azithromycin
c. aminoglycoside + RFQ
note-aztreonam may substitute for β-lactam in allergic patients
If patient has recurrent S. pneumonia infections, what should be suspected?
Think antibody problem (immune deficiency)-can give IV immunoglobulin
potential asplenia (associated w/ sickle-cell anemia-Howell Jolly bodies)
What are the 5 principles of antibiotic resistance?
1. Given sufficient time and drug use, antibiotic resistance will emerge
2. Resistance is progressive, evolving from low levels through intermediate to high levels (small increases in MIC, unless acquired as transferred genetic element)
3. Organisms resistant to one drug are likely to become resistant to others
4. Once resistance appears, it doesn't decline (or does so very slowly)
5. use of antibiotics by any one person affects others
Differentiate extracellular from intracellular markers of the lung
extracellular-epithelial lining fluid (measured by bronchalveolar lavage)
intracellular-alveolar macrophages
describe the blood-alveolar space
blood-alveolar barrier composed of 2 membranes, capillary wall and alveolar wall that are separated by fluid-filled interstitial space
Antibiotics need to diffuse across alveolar capillary wall, interstitial fluid, and alveolar epithelial cells to reach epithelial lining fluid (ELF)
What is the drug of choice for most respiratory treatments?
B-lactams (use unless there's a good reason not to)
Describe the lung penetration of different drug classes
A. β-lactams: <50% of serum concentration in lung parenchyma
B. Fluoroquinolones, macrolides, and linezolid: ≥100% serum concentrations in lung, bronchial secretions, and alveolar macrophages
C. Doxycycline-good penetration into lung tissue/bronchial secretions; poor into pleural fluid
D. Vancomycin-poor penetration into macrophages and lung parenchyma
E. Aminoglycosides-poor penetration into lung and respiratory secretions
Describe the treatment principles for treating lung infections intracellularly vs extracellularly
B-lactams-used for infections outside cells (not concerned about tissue penetration); great for pneumococcal infections
In lung, 2 types of macrophages-alveolar macrophages, interstitial macrophages
MRSA-can cause intracellular parasitism; need a drug that has good penetration
What are the potent anti-pneumococcal β-lactam agents
cefotaxime
ceftriaxone
ampicillin–sulbactam
ampicillin-good despite PCN resistance; S. pneumonia doesn’t produce PCNase, rather alters binding site for PCN (ampicillin still has affinity)
note-treat based on assumption of PCN resistance
list the antipneumoccal respiratory flouroquinolones
Levofloxacin
Moxifloxacin
note-FQs are 2nd choice of treatment; ciprofloxacin isn't RFQ
What is the drug of choice for M. pneumonia?
azithromycin (based on pharmacokinetics and minimal collateral damage)
What is the drug of choice for Legionella?
1. Macrolide-targets Legionella
2. FQs-cover Legionella as well as S. pneumonia
What are the specific drug treatments for P. aeruginosa?
A. Cephalosporins-Cefepime, Ceftazidime
B. Carbapenems-Imipenem; Meropenem
C. β-lactam/β-lactamase inhibitor: Piperacillin-tazobactam (give high dose IV)
D. Aminoglycosides-Gentamicin, Tobramycin, Amikacin
E. Fluoroquinolones-Ciprofloxacin, Levofloxacin
note-if diagnosis hasn't been made, but P. aeruginosa is suspected, treatment should cover both P. aeruginosa and S. pneumonia
What B-lactams cover both P. aeruginosa and S. pneumonia?
piperacillin-tazobactam
cefepime
carbapenem
note-if B-lactam allergic, use aztreonam; doesn’t cover S. pneumonia, so add vancomycin
Describe how to treat MRSA infection in the lungs
Vancomycin and linezolid-2 approved treatments for MRSA lung infection treatments; neither works very well (low rate of reaching target, high rate of nephrotoxicity)
By reforming vancomycin (making exterior capsule lipophilic), significantly increases lung penetration and killing of MRSA (PEGylated liposomal vancomycin works best)
Describe the 5 axioms of treating active TB
1. Treatment requires at least 2 effective drugs
2. Resistance develops commonly during monotherapy
3. Resistance less common with combination therapy
4. Development of resistance associated with worse prognosis and more severe disease
5. Never add single drug to failing regimen; re-treatment requires 2 drugs patient never had
What are the treatment options for M. pneumonia?
Since mycoplasmas lack proper cell wall, antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis (B-lactams) are ineffective; DOCs include macrolides (azithromycin) or tetracyclines (doxycycline)
Describe the MOA and pharmacokinetics of azithromycin
MOA: bacteriostatic; inhibit protein synthesis by binding reversibly to 50S ribosomal subunits of sensitive microorganisms
Pharmacokinetics: Rapidly absorbed orally; widely distributed, except brain/CSF
≥100% serum concentrations in lung, bronchial secretions, and macrophages
Elimination: hepatically metabolized to inactive metabolites and excreted in bile; 12% unchanged in urine
Describe MOA and pharmacokinetics of doxycycline
MOA: bacteriostatic; inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 30S bacterial ribosome and preventing access of aminoacyl tRNA to acceptor site on mRNA-ribosome complex
Pharmacokinetics:
95% absorbed from empty stomach and proximal small bowel
Widely distributed to tissues and secretions; accumulate in reticuloendothelial cells
good penetration into lung tissue/bronchial secretions, but poor into pleural fluid
Elimination: hepatobiliary (feces); no accumulation in renal failure
Describe the MOA of ampicillin and amoxicillin
bactericidal against actively growing bacteria; bind and inhibit PCN-binding proteins to inhibit cell wall synthesis
Active against penicillin-resistant S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae and E. coli
Frequently administered w/ β-lactamase inhibitor
Describe the pharmacokinetics of ampicillin and amoxicillin
Ampicillin-stable in acid and well absorbed
Amoxicillin-absorbed more rapidly; excreted unchanged in urine
both-20% protein bound
Describe the MOA and pharmacokinetics of moxifloxacin
MOA: rapid concentration-dependent killing by inhibiting DNA gyrase of GNRs
Pharmacokinetics: ≥100% serum concentrations in lung, bronchial secretions, and macrophages
Elimination: 52% hepatically metabolized via glucuronidation and sulfate conjugation; 22% urinary excretion
Describe the MOA and pharmacokinetics of Ceftriaxone
MOA: bactericidal against actively growing bacteria; bind and inhibit PCN-binding proteins to inhibit cell wall synthesis
Pharmacokinetics:
Widely distributed, highly protein-boud
<50% of serum concentration in lung parenchyma
Elimination: primarily liver and biliary system; 50% recovered in urine
Describe the MOA and pharmacokinetics of Tigecycline
MOA: similar to tetracycline but avoids efflux pumps of Enterobacteriaceae, staphylococci (MRSA), and Acinetobacter
Pharmacokinetics:
highly protein-bound (70-90%)
Elimination: 59% in feces; 33% in urine
Describe the MOA and pharmacokinetics of Piperacillin-Tazobactam
MOA: bactericidal against actively growing bacteria; bind and inhibit PCN-binding proteins to inhibit cell wall synthesis
Pharmacokinetics:
Widely distributed; high biliary concentration
<50% of serum concentration in lung parenchyma
Elimination: renal; 60%-80% in 24 hours; 20%-30% biliary
Describe the MOA and pharmacokinetics of Cefepime
MOA: bactericidal against actively growing bacteria; bind and inhibit PCN-binding proteins to inhibit cell wall synthesis
Pharmacokinetics:
<20% protein-bound
<50% of serum concentration in lung parenchyma
Elimination: >80% in urine
Describe the MOA and pharmacokinetics of ciprofloxacin
MOA: rapid concentration-dependent killing by inhibiting DNA gyrase of GNRs; potent post-antibiotic effect
Pharmacokinetics:
Well-absorbed orally, widely distributed in body tissues
≥100% serum concentrations in lung, bronchial secretions, and macrophages/neutrophils
Elimination: renal
Describe the MOA and pharmacokinetics of gentamicin
MOA: rapidly bactericidal; concentration-dependent; inhibit protein synthesis and decrease ribosomal mRNA
Pharmacokinetics:
do not penetrate into most cells; low concentration in secretions and tissues
Poor penetration into lung and respiratory secretions
Elimination: excreted almost entirely by glomerular filtration; large fraction excreted unchanged during the first 24 hours; minor excretory route is active hepatic secretion
Describe the MOA and pharmacokinetics of aztreonam
MOA: interacts with PCN-binding proteins and induces formation of long filamentous bacterial structures; resistant to many B-lactamases; resembles aminoglycoside; has activity only against aerobic gram-negative bacteria
Pharmacokinetics:
Widely distributed
<50% of serum concentration in lung parenchyma
Elimination: unchanged in urine
Describe the MOA of carbapenems
Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to several of the PCN-binding proteins, which in turn inhibits the final transpeptidation step of peptidoglycan synthesis; bacteria eventually lyse due to ongoing activity of cell wall autolytic enzymes (autolysins and murein hydrolases) while cell wall assembly is arrested
Describe the pharmacokinetics of carbpenems
A. Imipenem-cilastatin:
Hydrolyzed rapidly by dipeptidase (cilastatin is inhibitor of dehydropeptidase)
Rapidly and widely distributed to most tissues and fluids (exception-low concentrations in CSF)
Elimination: 70% active drug recovered in urine
B. Meropenem-Resistant to renal dipeptidase
C. Ertapenem-longer serum half-life than imipenem/meropenem that allows once-daily dosing
D. Doripenem:
Non-CYP-mediated metabolism via dehydropeptidase-I to doripenem-M1 (inactive metabolite)
Excretion: Urine (70% as unchanged drug; 15% as doripenem-M1 metabolite)
Describe the MOA and pharmacokinetics of vancomycin
MOA: inhibits cell wall synthesis by high affinity binding to the D-alanyl-D-alanine terminus of cell wall precursor units
Pharmacokinetics:
30% bound to plasma protein
poor penetration into macrophages and lung parenchyma (aggressive dosing recommended)
90% excreted by glomerular filtration
Describe the MOA and pharmacokinetics of linezolid
MOA: inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the P site of the 50S ribosomal subunit and preventing formation of larger ribosomal-fMet-tRNA complex that initiates protein synthesis; bacteriostatic for staphylococci
Pharmacokinetics:
30% protein-bound and distributes widely to well-perfused tissues
≥100% serum concentrations in lung, bronchial secretions, and macrophages
Degraded by nonenzymatic oxidation to aminoethoxyacetic acid and hydroxyethyl glycine derivatives
80% appears in urine; 10% appears as oxidation products in feces
Describe the MOA and pharmacokinetics of metronidazole
MOA: electron acceptor results in toxic free radicals that damage anaerobic and microaerophilic microbial DNA and other vital biomolecules
Pharmacokinetics:
<20% protein-bound
Concentrates well in all tissues (especially pus and hepatic abscesses)
Elimination: metabolized in liver accounting for >50% of systemic clearance