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37 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Describe the curb-65=0-1 (outpatient treatments)
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I. Previously healthy and no risk for drug resistance
1. macrolide (covers both M. pneumonia and S. pneumonia) 2. doxycycline (if problem w/ macrolide) II. Presence of co-morbidities 1. B-lactom (targets drug resistant S. pneumonia) + macrolide or doxycycline 2. respiratory flouroquinilones (RFQ) |
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Describe the curb-65=2 (medical ward treatment)
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1. B-lactam + macrolide
2. RFQ (reserve for B-lactam allergic patients) note-patients should be hospitalized and drugs given IV |
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Describe the curb-65=3 or more (severe pneumonia/ICU treatment) at no risk for P. aeruginosa of MRSA
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1. Potent antipneumococcal β-lactam (cefotaxime, ceftriaxone, or ampicillin-sulbactam) + azithromycin
2. RFQ |
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Describe the treatment for P. aeruginosa
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Initial treatment with antibiotic combination (should cover, P. aeruginosa, S. pneumonia, and M. pneumonia), then adjusted once susceptibilities are known:
Antipneumococcal, antipseudomonal β-lactam (piperacillin-tazobactam cefepime, carbapenem) + a. RFQ (ciprofloxacin or levofloxacin) b. aminoglycoside + azithromycin c. aminoglycoside + RFQ note-aztreonam may substitute for β-lactam in allergic patients |
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If patient has recurrent S. pneumonia infections, what should be suspected?
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Think antibody problem (immune deficiency)-can give IV immunoglobulin
potential asplenia (associated w/ sickle-cell anemia-Howell Jolly bodies) |
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What are the 5 principles of antibiotic resistance?
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1. Given sufficient time and drug use, antibiotic resistance will emerge
2. Resistance is progressive, evolving from low levels through intermediate to high levels (small increases in MIC, unless acquired as transferred genetic element) 3. Organisms resistant to one drug are likely to become resistant to others 4. Once resistance appears, it doesn't decline (or does so very slowly) 5. use of antibiotics by any one person affects others |
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Differentiate extracellular from intracellular markers of the lung
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extracellular-epithelial lining fluid (measured by bronchalveolar lavage)
intracellular-alveolar macrophages |
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describe the blood-alveolar space
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blood-alveolar barrier composed of 2 membranes, capillary wall and alveolar wall that are separated by fluid-filled interstitial space
Antibiotics need to diffuse across alveolar capillary wall, interstitial fluid, and alveolar epithelial cells to reach epithelial lining fluid (ELF) |
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What is the drug of choice for most respiratory treatments?
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B-lactams (use unless there's a good reason not to)
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Describe the lung penetration of different drug classes
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A. β-lactams: <50% of serum concentration in lung parenchyma
B. Fluoroquinolones, macrolides, and linezolid: ≥100% serum concentrations in lung, bronchial secretions, and alveolar macrophages C. Doxycycline-good penetration into lung tissue/bronchial secretions; poor into pleural fluid D. Vancomycin-poor penetration into macrophages and lung parenchyma E. Aminoglycosides-poor penetration into lung and respiratory secretions |
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Describe the treatment principles for treating lung infections intracellularly vs extracellularly
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B-lactams-used for infections outside cells (not concerned about tissue penetration); great for pneumococcal infections
In lung, 2 types of macrophages-alveolar macrophages, interstitial macrophages MRSA-can cause intracellular parasitism; need a drug that has good penetration |
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What are the potent anti-pneumococcal β-lactam agents
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cefotaxime
ceftriaxone ampicillin–sulbactam ampicillin-good despite PCN resistance; S. pneumonia doesn’t produce PCNase, rather alters binding site for PCN (ampicillin still has affinity) note-treat based on assumption of PCN resistance |
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list the antipneumoccal respiratory flouroquinolones
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Levofloxacin
Moxifloxacin note-FQs are 2nd choice of treatment; ciprofloxacin isn't RFQ |
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What is the drug of choice for M. pneumonia?
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azithromycin (based on pharmacokinetics and minimal collateral damage)
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What is the drug of choice for Legionella?
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1. Macrolide-targets Legionella
2. FQs-cover Legionella as well as S. pneumonia |
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What are the specific drug treatments for P. aeruginosa?
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A. Cephalosporins-Cefepime, Ceftazidime
B. Carbapenems-Imipenem; Meropenem C. β-lactam/β-lactamase inhibitor: Piperacillin-tazobactam (give high dose IV) D. Aminoglycosides-Gentamicin, Tobramycin, Amikacin E. Fluoroquinolones-Ciprofloxacin, Levofloxacin note-if diagnosis hasn't been made, but P. aeruginosa is suspected, treatment should cover both P. aeruginosa and S. pneumonia |
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What B-lactams cover both P. aeruginosa and S. pneumonia?
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piperacillin-tazobactam
cefepime carbapenem note-if B-lactam allergic, use aztreonam; doesn’t cover S. pneumonia, so add vancomycin |
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Describe how to treat MRSA infection in the lungs
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Vancomycin and linezolid-2 approved treatments for MRSA lung infection treatments; neither works very well (low rate of reaching target, high rate of nephrotoxicity)
By reforming vancomycin (making exterior capsule lipophilic), significantly increases lung penetration and killing of MRSA (PEGylated liposomal vancomycin works best) |
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Describe the 5 axioms of treating active TB
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1. Treatment requires at least 2 effective drugs
2. Resistance develops commonly during monotherapy 3. Resistance less common with combination therapy 4. Development of resistance associated with worse prognosis and more severe disease 5. Never add single drug to failing regimen; re-treatment requires 2 drugs patient never had |
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What are the treatment options for M. pneumonia?
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Since mycoplasmas lack proper cell wall, antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis (B-lactams) are ineffective; DOCs include macrolides (azithromycin) or tetracyclines (doxycycline)
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Describe the MOA and pharmacokinetics of azithromycin
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MOA: bacteriostatic; inhibit protein synthesis by binding reversibly to 50S ribosomal subunits of sensitive microorganisms
Pharmacokinetics: Rapidly absorbed orally; widely distributed, except brain/CSF ≥100% serum concentrations in lung, bronchial secretions, and macrophages Elimination: hepatically metabolized to inactive metabolites and excreted in bile; 12% unchanged in urine |
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Describe MOA and pharmacokinetics of doxycycline
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MOA: bacteriostatic; inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 30S bacterial ribosome and preventing access of aminoacyl tRNA to acceptor site on mRNA-ribosome complex
Pharmacokinetics: 95% absorbed from empty stomach and proximal small bowel Widely distributed to tissues and secretions; accumulate in reticuloendothelial cells good penetration into lung tissue/bronchial secretions, but poor into pleural fluid Elimination: hepatobiliary (feces); no accumulation in renal failure |
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Describe the MOA of ampicillin and amoxicillin
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bactericidal against actively growing bacteria; bind and inhibit PCN-binding proteins to inhibit cell wall synthesis
Active against penicillin-resistant S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae and E. coli Frequently administered w/ β-lactamase inhibitor |
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Describe the pharmacokinetics of ampicillin and amoxicillin
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Ampicillin-stable in acid and well absorbed
Amoxicillin-absorbed more rapidly; excreted unchanged in urine both-20% protein bound |
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Describe the MOA and pharmacokinetics of moxifloxacin
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MOA: rapid concentration-dependent killing by inhibiting DNA gyrase of GNRs
Pharmacokinetics: ≥100% serum concentrations in lung, bronchial secretions, and macrophages Elimination: 52% hepatically metabolized via glucuronidation and sulfate conjugation; 22% urinary excretion |
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Describe the MOA and pharmacokinetics of Ceftriaxone
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MOA: bactericidal against actively growing bacteria; bind and inhibit PCN-binding proteins to inhibit cell wall synthesis
Pharmacokinetics: Widely distributed, highly protein-boud <50% of serum concentration in lung parenchyma Elimination: primarily liver and biliary system; 50% recovered in urine |
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Describe the MOA and pharmacokinetics of Tigecycline
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MOA: similar to tetracycline but avoids efflux pumps of Enterobacteriaceae, staphylococci (MRSA), and Acinetobacter
Pharmacokinetics: highly protein-bound (70-90%) Elimination: 59% in feces; 33% in urine |
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Describe the MOA and pharmacokinetics of Piperacillin-Tazobactam
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MOA: bactericidal against actively growing bacteria; bind and inhibit PCN-binding proteins to inhibit cell wall synthesis
Pharmacokinetics: Widely distributed; high biliary concentration <50% of serum concentration in lung parenchyma Elimination: renal; 60%-80% in 24 hours; 20%-30% biliary |
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Describe the MOA and pharmacokinetics of Cefepime
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MOA: bactericidal against actively growing bacteria; bind and inhibit PCN-binding proteins to inhibit cell wall synthesis
Pharmacokinetics: <20% protein-bound <50% of serum concentration in lung parenchyma Elimination: >80% in urine |
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Describe the MOA and pharmacokinetics of ciprofloxacin
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MOA: rapid concentration-dependent killing by inhibiting DNA gyrase of GNRs; potent post-antibiotic effect
Pharmacokinetics: Well-absorbed orally, widely distributed in body tissues ≥100% serum concentrations in lung, bronchial secretions, and macrophages/neutrophils Elimination: renal |
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Describe the MOA and pharmacokinetics of gentamicin
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MOA: rapidly bactericidal; concentration-dependent; inhibit protein synthesis and decrease ribosomal mRNA
Pharmacokinetics: do not penetrate into most cells; low concentration in secretions and tissues Poor penetration into lung and respiratory secretions Elimination: excreted almost entirely by glomerular filtration; large fraction excreted unchanged during the first 24 hours; minor excretory route is active hepatic secretion |
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Describe the MOA and pharmacokinetics of aztreonam
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MOA: interacts with PCN-binding proteins and induces formation of long filamentous bacterial structures; resistant to many B-lactamases; resembles aminoglycoside; has activity only against aerobic gram-negative bacteria
Pharmacokinetics: Widely distributed <50% of serum concentration in lung parenchyma Elimination: unchanged in urine |
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Describe the MOA of carbapenems
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Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to several of the PCN-binding proteins, which in turn inhibits the final transpeptidation step of peptidoglycan synthesis; bacteria eventually lyse due to ongoing activity of cell wall autolytic enzymes (autolysins and murein hydrolases) while cell wall assembly is arrested
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Describe the pharmacokinetics of carbpenems
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A. Imipenem-cilastatin:
Hydrolyzed rapidly by dipeptidase (cilastatin is inhibitor of dehydropeptidase) Rapidly and widely distributed to most tissues and fluids (exception-low concentrations in CSF) Elimination: 70% active drug recovered in urine B. Meropenem-Resistant to renal dipeptidase C. Ertapenem-longer serum half-life than imipenem/meropenem that allows once-daily dosing D. Doripenem: Non-CYP-mediated metabolism via dehydropeptidase-I to doripenem-M1 (inactive metabolite) Excretion: Urine (70% as unchanged drug; 15% as doripenem-M1 metabolite) |
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Describe the MOA and pharmacokinetics of vancomycin
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MOA: inhibits cell wall synthesis by high affinity binding to the D-alanyl-D-alanine terminus of cell wall precursor units
Pharmacokinetics: 30% bound to plasma protein poor penetration into macrophages and lung parenchyma (aggressive dosing recommended) 90% excreted by glomerular filtration |
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Describe the MOA and pharmacokinetics of linezolid
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MOA: inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the P site of the 50S ribosomal subunit and preventing formation of larger ribosomal-fMet-tRNA complex that initiates protein synthesis; bacteriostatic for staphylococci
Pharmacokinetics: 30% protein-bound and distributes widely to well-perfused tissues ≥100% serum concentrations in lung, bronchial secretions, and macrophages Degraded by nonenzymatic oxidation to aminoethoxyacetic acid and hydroxyethyl glycine derivatives 80% appears in urine; 10% appears as oxidation products in feces |
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Describe the MOA and pharmacokinetics of metronidazole
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MOA: electron acceptor results in toxic free radicals that damage anaerobic and microaerophilic microbial DNA and other vital biomolecules
Pharmacokinetics: <20% protein-bound Concentrates well in all tissues (especially pus and hepatic abscesses) Elimination: metabolized in liver accounting for >50% of systemic clearance |