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373 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Success of walking depends upon what three critical functional tasks? ***
- weight acceptance
- single-limb support
- swing-limb advancement
What is “weight acceptance” with respect to the gait cycle? ***
- the stance phase limb must rapidly accept the body’s weight

- occurs during Initial contact and loading response
What is “single-limb support” with respect to the gait cycle? ***
- maintaining forward momentum and stability while body’s weight is balanced on one limb

- occurs during midstance and terminal stance
What is “swing-limb advancement” with respect to the gait cycle? ***
- unloading and moving the reference limb forward
- preparing for the next functional phase
- clearing the foot and limb advancement

- occurs during preswing, initial swing, midswing, and terminal swing
What is stance phase? How much of the gait cycle does it comprise? ***
- the portion of gait during which the reference extremity is in contact with the ground

- 60% of the gait cycle
What is swing phase? How much of the gait cycle does it comprise? ***
- the phase of gait during which the reference limb is not in contact with the supporting surface and is moving forward

- 40% of the gait cycle
How is the normal gait cycle divided between stance phase and swing phase? ***
- 60% stance phase

- 40% swing phase
What are the components of stance phase? ***
- initial contact
- loading response
- midstance
- terminal stance
- preswing
What is initial contact in stance phase? ***
when the heel or another part of the foot contacts the ground
What is loading response in stance phase? ***
portion of the first double support phase from initial contact until the contralateral extremity leaves the ground
What is midstance in stance phase? ***
begins when the contralateral extremity leaves the ground and ends when the body is directly over the supporting limb. (ankles are aligned)
What is terminal stance in stance phase? ***
begins with heel off & continues until the contralateral extremity contacts the ground
What is preswing in stance phase? ***
begins the second double support period from initial contact of the contralateral extremity to lift off of the reference extremity
What is initial swing in swing phase? ***
reference extremity leaves the ground to maximum knee flexion of the same
What is midswing in swing phase? ***
from maximum knee flexion to vertical tibial position
What is terminal swing in swing phase? ***
(deceleration) vertical tibial position of the reference extremity to just prior to initial contact
What is a gait cycle? ***
- a right step and a left step

- a.k.a. as one stride
What is a stride length? ***
distance between the point of initial contact of one extremity and the next point of initial contact of the same extremity
What is the adult norm for a stride length? ***
70-82 cm

(28 – 32.8 inches)
What is a stride width? ***
(base of support) the distance between the two heels
What is the adult norm for a stride width? ***
1-3 inches
What is cadence? ***
number of steps per unit of time, usually steps/minute
What is the normal cadence for a nondisabled adult? ***
average is 100-117 steps/min for nondisabled adults
In what direction(s) does the body’s COG move during the gait cycle? ***
both vertically and laterally
What is the average vertical displacement of the COG during the gait cycle? ***
5 cm (2 inches)
What is the normal lateral displacement of the COG during the gait cycle? ***
2.3 cm (1 inch)
At what point in the gait cycle is the lateral displacement of the COG the greatest? ***
during midstance
How does weakness and/or pain affect single-support time during the gait cycle? ***
decreases
What effects does increased gait velocity have on ambulation? Decreased gait velocity? ***
- step, swing, and stride times decrease

- swing time increases (which increases single-limb support time and often contributes to LOB)
How would post-CVA difficulty with WB on involved limb affect gait? ***
- post-CVA , individuals often have difficulty putting weight on the involved limb
- this reduces corresponding single-support time and step length of opposite extremity
- also increases double-support time
Which portions of the stance phase are single-limb support? ***
- midstance
- terminal swing
- preswing
What is the (ideal) position of the trunk throughout the gait cycle? (Table 32-2/3, page 511) ***
0 degrees at all times

stance phase—double-limb support
- initial contact – 0 degrees flexion/extension
- loading response – 0 degrees flexion/extension

stance phase—single-limb support
- midstance – 0 degrees flexion/extension
- terminal stance – 0 degrees flexion/extension
- preswing – 0 degrees flexion/extension

swing phase
- initial swing – 0 degrees flexion/extension
- midswing – 0 degrees flexion/extension
- terminal swing – 0 degrees flexion/extension
What is the (ideal) position of the pelvis throughout the gait cycle? (Table 32-2/3, page 511) ***
stance phase—double-limb support
- initial contact – 5 degrees forward rotation
- loading response – 5 degrees forward rotation

stance phase—single-limb support
- midstance – 0 degrees rotation
- terminal stance – 5 degrees backward rotation
- preswing – 5 degrees backward rotation

swing phase
- initial swing – 5 degrees backward rotation
- midswing – 0 degrees rotation
- terminal swing – 5 degrees backward rotation (shouldn’t this be forward?)
What is the (ideal) position of the hip throughout the gait cycle? (Table 32-2/3, page 511; Table 32-4/5, page 512) ***
stance phase—double-limb support
- initial contact – 30 degrees flexion; gluteus max/med, HSs, adductors, DFs active
- loading response – 30 decreasing to 25 degrees flexion; gluteus max/med, HSs, PFs active

stance phase—single-limb support
- midstance – 25 decreasing to 0 degrees flexion; gluteus max/med, PFs active
- terminal stance – 0 increasing to 10 degrees extension; PFs active (mostly momentum, however)
- preswing – 20 decreasing to 0 degrees extension; iliopsoas, adductors, DFs active

swing phase
- initial swing – 0 increasing to 15 degrees flexion; iliopsoas, DFs active
- midswing – 15 increasing to 25 degrees flexion; HSs and DFs active
- terminal swing – 25 decreasing to 20 degrees flexion; gluteus max/med, quad femoris, HSs, DFs active
What is the (ideal) position of the knee throughout the gait cycle? (Table 32-2/3, page 511; Table 32-4/5, page 512) ***
stance phase—double-limb support
- initial contact – 0 degrees extension; gluteus max/med, quadriceps, HSs, adductors, DFs active
- loading response – 0 increasing to 15 degrees flexion; gluteus max/med, quadriceps, HSs, PFs active

stance phase—single-limb support
- midstance – 15 decreasing to 5 degrees flexion; gluteus max/med, quadriceps, PFs active
- terminal stance – 5 decreasing to 0 degrees flexion; PFs active (mostly momentum, however)
- preswing – 0 increasing to 30 degrees flexion; iliopsoas, adductors, DFs active, (PFs too per 32-2?)

swing phase
- initial swing – 30 increasing to 60 degrees flexion; iliopsoas, DFs, HSs, sartorius, gracilis active
- midswing – 60 decreasing to 25 degrees flexion; HSs and DFs active
- terminal swing – 20 decreasing to 5 degrees flexion; gluteus max/med, quad femoris, HSs, DFs active
What is the (ideal) position of the ankle throughout the gait cycle? (Table 32-2/3, page 511; Table 32-4/5, page 512) ***
stance phase—double-limb support
- initial contact – 0 degrees DF/PF; gluteus max/med, HSs, adductors, DFs active
- loading response – 0 increasing to 15 degrees PF; gluteus max/med, quadriceps, HSs, PFs active, (DFs too per 32-2?)

stance phase—single-limb support
- midstance – 15 degrees PF to 10 degrees DF; gluteus max/med, PFs active
- terminal stance – 5 decreasing to 0 degrees DF; PFs active (mostly momentum, however)
- preswing – 0 increasing to 20 degrees PF; adductors, DFs active, (PFs too per 32-2?)

swing phase
- initial swing – 20 decreasing to 5 degrees PF; DFs active
- midswing – 0 degrees PF/DF; HSs and DFs active
- terminal swing – 0 degrees PF/DF; gluteus max/med, quad femoris, HSs, DFs active
What are the weight acceptance positions in the Stance Phase of gait? ***
- initial contact

- loading response
What are the single-limb support positions in the Stance Phase of gait? ***
- midstance
- terminal stance
- preswing
What muscles are active during the initial contact subphase of gait? ***
(The muscles given are from tables 32-4/32-5; the muscles in parentheses are those given in tables 32-2/32-3 over and above the first two tables.)
- gluteus maximus
- gluteus medius
- adductors
(- quadriceps – knee)
- hamstrings
- dorsiflexors – tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus
What muscles are active during the loading response subphase of gait? ***
(The muscles given are from tables 32-4/32-5; the muscles in parentheses are those given in tables 32-2/32-3 over and above the first two tables.)
- gluteus maximus
- gluteus medius
(- quadriceps – knee)
- hamstrings
- plantar flexors – gastroc/soleus, tibialis posterior, flexor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus
(- dorsiflexors – ankle – tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus)
What muscles are active during the midstance subphase of gait? ***
(The muscles given are from tables 32-4/32-5; the muscles in parentheses are those given in tables 32-2/32-3 over and above the first two tables.)
- gluteus maximus
- gluteus medius
(- quadriceps – knee)
- plantar flexors – gastroc/soleus, tibialis posterior, flexor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus
What muscles are active during the terminal stance subphase of gait? ***
- plantar flexors – gastroc/soleus, tibialis posterior, flexor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus
(but mostly gravity)
What muscles are active during the preswing subphase of gait? ***
(The muscles given are from tables 32-4/32-5; the muscles in parentheses are those given in tables 32-2/32-3 over and above the first two tables.)
(- iliopsoas – hip)
- adductors
- dorsiflexors – tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus
(- plantar flexors – ankle – gastroc/soleus, tibialis posterior, flexor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus)
What muscles are active during the initial swing subphase of gait? ***
(The muscles given are from tables 32-4/32-5; the muscles in parentheses are those given in tables 32-2/32-3 over and above the first two tables.)
(- iliopsoas – hip)
(- hamstrings – knee)
(- sartorius – knee)
(- gracilis – knee)
- dorsiflexors – tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus
What muscles are active during the midswing subphase of gait? ***
- hamstrings

- dorsiflexors – tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus
What muscles are active during the terminal swing subphase of gait? ***
- gluteus maximus
- gluteus medius
- quadriceps femoris
- hamstrings
- dorsiflexors – tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus
What is the ROM of the pelvis in stance phase? In swing phase? ***
- 0-5 degrees forward and backward rotation

- 0-5 degrees forward and backward rotation
What is the ROM of the hip in stance phase? In swing phase? ***
- 0-30 degrees flexion

- 20-30 degrees flexion
What is the ROM of the knee in stance phase? In swing phase? ***
- 0-40 degrees flexion

- 0-60 degrees flexion
What is the ROM of the ankle in stance phase? In swing phase? ***
- 0-10 degrees dorsiflexion and 0-20 degrees plantar flexion

- 0 degrees dorsiflexion and plantar flexion
What is the ROM of the subtalar joint in stance phase? In swing phase? ***
- 0-5 degrees eversion

- neutral to slight inversion
Describe an antalgic gait. During what phase of the gait cycle does it occur? What causes it? ***
- difficulty or decrease in weight bearing on a limb during stance phase due to the presence of pain

- stance phase

- pain caused by the compression of a joint or soft tissue structure when bearing weight
Describe a crouch-knee gait. During what phase of the gait cycle does it occur? What causes it? ***
- pattern of gait characterized by excessive flexion affecting both knees

- stance

- tonal increases associated with CNS involvement; contracture involving either the joint and/or soft tissue structure crossing the joint
Describe an early/premature heel rise. During what phase of the gait cycle does it occur? What causes it? ***
- premature rise of the heel during the stance phase of gait

- stance

- ankle joint or soft tissue structure contracture; hyperactivity of the plantarflexors
Describe a gluteus maximus lurch. During what phase of the gait cycle does it occur? What causes it? ***
- posterior inclination of the trunk during the stance phase of gait as a compensation for weakness

- stance

- gluteus maximus weakness (e.g., in post-polio syndrome pt leans back and BOS shifts to point behind hips)
Describe a quadriceps avoidance pattern. During what phase of the gait cycle does it occur? What causes it? ***
- a decrease in the typical amount of flexion seen during stance to prevent excessive anterior tibial translation

- stance

- ACL injury
Describe a Trendelenburg/gluteus medius gait. During what phase of the gait cycle does it occur? What causes it? ***
- lateral inclination of the trunk during stance phase (this is compensated; uncompensated would result in a hip drop)
--- compensated – really standing on hip (a.k.a. hip winking)
--- uncompensated – hip drops; weakness on opposite side of dropped hip (because patient is unable to perform closed-chain hip abduction)

- stance

- weakness of the hip abductors
Describe circumduction. During what phase of the gait cycle does it occur? What causes it? ***
- circular movement of the lower extremity into increased abduction

- swing

- leg-length discrepancy arising from a hip, knee, or ankle joint or soft tissue structure contracture; osseous shortening or lengthening
Describe a hip-hiking gait. During what phase of the gait cycle does it occur? What causes it? ***
- increased vertical translation of the pelvis

- swing

- compensation for a leg-length discrepancy
Describe a scissoring gait. During what phase of the gait cycle does it occur? What causes it? ***
- a gait pattern characterized by excessive hip adduction

- swing

- increased adductor tone or recruitment; synergistic pattern of recruitment (e.g., Parkinson’s or CP)
Describe a steppage gait. During what phase of the gait cycle does it occur? What causes it? ***
- excessive hip and knee flexion during the swing phase to allow increased clearance

- swing

- excessive plantar flexion at the ankle because of a lack of recruitment or excessive tone
Describe a toe drag gait. During what phase of the gait cycle does it occur? What causes it? ***
- contact of the foot with the supporting surface throughout swing

- swing

- impaired dorsiflexor force production; plantar flexor hypertonicity; ankle joint contracture; loss of sensation
Describe an ataxic gait. During what phase of the gait cycle does it occur? What causes it? ***
- an uncoordinated pattern of gait that can be characterized by difficulty with stability of the trunk or achieving a smooth trajectory with the limb during swing

- stance and swing

- CNS dysfunction (esp. cerebellar); impaired lower extremity sensation
Describe a stiff-knee gait. During what phase of the gait cycle does it occur? What causes it? ***
- decreased knee flexion

- stance and swing

- compensation for weak knee extensors; pain; increased knee extensor tone; synergistic pattern of recruitment
Describe a vaulting gait. During what phase of the gait cycle does it occur? What causes it? ***
- increased vertical translation of the body’s center of gravity by plantar flexing at the ankle and increasing knee extension during stance

- stance and swing

- leg-length difference caused by osseous tissue structure changes; inadequate hip or knee flexion during swing
Describe a hemiplegic gait. During what phase of the gait cycle does it occur? What causes it? ***
- hip lags and never comes forward because if it did, the knee would unlock; accompanied by foot drop and circumduction

- stance (and swing)

- post CVA weakness
What is task-specific intervention to improve gait? ***
- emphasizes practicing the actual task of walking under variety of environmental conditions

- usually most successful and most meaningful
What is non-task-specific intervention to improve gait? ***
- having the patient perform activities that will strengthen or enhance recruitment of muscles contributing to gait or repetitively practicing the problematic elements of walking outside of the actual task
Which is generally more successful, task-specific interventions or non-task-specific interventions for improving gait? ***
task-specific
What are some elements of task-specific training to improve gait? ***
- practicing walking within the context that it must be performed (gait-specific therapy)

- combining activities such as walking on a variety of level surfaces, sit-to-stand transfer training, and lower extremity strengthening, for 1 hour, 3 times per week, has proven to work well

- body weight-supported training: involves partially supporting the patient’s body weight with a harness during walking; the harness can be supported by the ceiling or a mobile device with wheels

- evidence supports the task-specific approach to gait training
How is feedback provided to patient during body weight-supported training? ***
- feedback via tactile cues or physical assistance with LE placement provided by PT/PTA
For what is body weight-supported training helpful? ***
- increasing the strength of muscles used for standing and walking
- improving balance

- task specific practice to facilitate the relearning of movement patterns
- enhancing patterns of muscle activation or recruitment for standing and walking tasks
How is body weight-supported gait training progressed to improve gait performance? ***
gradually decrease the amount of support while controlling the speed of walking
What approaches are taken with non-task-specific gait training? ***
- strength training
- NDT approach

- motor relearning program
- balance training-
How is strength training used to improve gait? ***
LE strengthening with emphasis on hip and knee extension; hip flex/ext/abd/add, knee flex/ext, ankle PF/DF
How is NDT used to improve gait? ***
for pts with CNS impairments (e.g., CVA or CP); emphasizes use of verbal and tactile feedback in conjunction with functional retraining to improve motor skills
How is motor relearning used to improve gait? ***
involves practicing most difficult components of gait (e.g., pt has difficulty shifting weight onto paretic limb—would practice just weight shift onto that limb)
How is balance training used to improve gait? ***
work on balance in context of walking (not standing); walk on uneven surfaces, change directions, step up, step over/around objects, carry objects
What form of exercise has been reported to improve gait and reduce fall risk in elderly adults? ***
Tai Chi
Anatomy of the airway consists of: ***
- nose/mouth
- larynx
- trachea
- bronchi
- lungs
Describe the anatomy of the lungs. ***
- 5 lobes (3 right, 2 left)
- parenchyma
- primary/secondary/tertiary bronchi
- bronchioles
- alveolar sacs
Where does gas exchange occur in the lungs? ***
- in the alveoli
What is the O2 pressure in the alveoli? The CO2 pressure in the veins at the alveoli? ***
- 100 mm Hg

- 30 mm Hg
What are the primary muscles of respiration? ***
- diaphragm

- intercostals (external and internal)
What portion of the respiratory cycle occurs when the diaphragm contracts? When it relaxes? ***
- inspiration (diaphragm contracts and descends)

- expiration (diaphragm relaxes and ascends)
What are the accessory muscles of inspiration? ***
- scalenes
- SCM
- trapezius
- pectoralis major
What are the accessory muscles of expiration? ***
- rectus abdominis
- transverse abdominis
- internal obliques
- external obliques
What factors contribute to the autonomic control of respiration? ***
- PaCO2 – arterial carbon dioxide pressure
- PaO2 – arterial oxygen pressure

- chemoreceptors
- mechanoreceptors
Where are the peripheral chemoreceptors for respiration located? ***
- carotid bodies – located in right and left carotid arteries

- aortic bodies – located in aortic arch and right subclavian artery
How do the peripheral chemoreceptors help control respiration? ***
carotid bodies sense when PaO2 drops &/or H+ concentration increases then they signal brain to increase action of the diaphragm which increases the tidal volume (example: high altitude)
How do the central chemoreceptors help control respiration? ***
when medulla oblongata detects increase in PaCO2 or H+ it signals to increase respiration rate
Name the intrapulmonary receptors for respiratory regulation. ***
- Vagus nerve (CN X)

- stretch receptors (in airways) – prolong inspiration during periods of lung deflation & will prolong expiration during excessive lung inflation. (sigh, or yawn triggered)

- parenchymal receptors – in alveolar walls; respond to fluid changes associated with CHF.
Name the chest wall and muscle receptors for respiratory regulation. ***
- muscle spindles – reflex contraction of skeletal muscle when stretched

- golgi tendon organ – senses changes in force of contraction/may help coordinate muscle contractions

- proprioceptors – may affect timing of inspiration & expiration
Name the three categories of lung dysfunction problems. ***
- obstructive
- restrictive
- COPD
What three pathologies comprise COPD? ***
- chronic bronchitis
- emphysema
- chronic asthma
Describe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). ***
associated changes:
- airflow obstruction, narrowing of airways, generally progressive
- airway hyperreactivity usually due to inhaled cigarette smoke, progressing to chronic inflammation, which in turn produces excessive secretions
- may be partially reversible

types of COPD:
- chronic bronchitis
- emphysema
- chronic asthma

- chronic bronchitis and emphysema can coexist and their signs & symptoms overlap
- the term “COPD” usually refers to these two disease processes although chronic asthma is also a type of COPD
What is chronic bronchitis? ***
chronic cough and expectoration which persists for at least a three month period for at least two consecutive years
What is emphysema? ***
abnormal enlargement of the distal respiratory unit accompanied by destructive changes of the alveolar walls without obvious fibrosis (which would be restrictive)
Describe the pathophysiology of COPD. ***
- chronic inflammation leads to increased secretions
- secretions trap air during exhalation
- trapped air leads to hyperinflation

- reduced ciliary function leads to airway obstruction

- increased sensitivity to irritants leads to bronchial hyperreactivity

- reduced elastic recoil of lungs leads to collapse of airways during exhalation
- air remains trapped in lungs
What occurs in the advanced stages of COPD? ***
- destruction of alveolar capillary membrane leads to:
--- hypoxemia
--- hypercapnea (elevated carbon dioxide levels in arterial blood)
Describe Cystic Fibrosis. ***
- excessive thick and immobile secretions leading to:
--- partial airway obstruction and air trapping (the alveoli from left to right), and
--- total airway obstruction and alveoli collapse (upper right alveoli).”
Describe restrictive lung disease. ***
a group of diseases with different etiologies; they have in common:
- difficulty in expanding the lungs
- reduction in lung volume

- functional changes begin with
--- chronic inflammation and
--- thickening of the alveoli and interstitium

- distal air spaces become fibrosed increasing resistance to expansion
- lung volumes are reduced
(e.g., hypoxemia and cor pulmonale—right ventricle enlargement)
What are some causes of restrictive lung diseases? Which is the most common cause? ***
-radiation therapy
- inorganic dust
- noxious gases
- oxygen toxicity
- asbestos exposure, and
- tuberculosis.

most common cause:
- idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF)

(some other examples: CF, kyphosis, scoliosis, SCI, mesothelioma)
What are the signs and symptoms of restrictive lung disease? ***
- dyspnea
- nonproductive cough
- weakness and fatigue
-rapid, shallow breathing
- limited chest expansion
- crackles
- digital clubbing (Schamroth sign)
- cyanosis
What is the prognosis for restrictive lung disease? ***
- chronic and progressive
- 50% die within 5 years of diagnosis
Aerobic capacity ***
- another term for maximum oxygen uptake (VO2 max)
- the highest amount of oxygen consumed during maximal exercise
Alveolar ventilation ***
the volume of gas expired from the alveoli to the outside of the body per minute
Atelectasis ***
alveolar collapse because of poor lung expansion or complete obstruction of an airway
Auscultation ***
listening with a stethoscope
Bronchodilator ***
medication that reduces bronchial smooth muscle spasm and thereby causes an increase in caliber of a bronchial tube
Crackles ***
- nonmusical sounds (previously called rales) that may be mimicked by rolling several strands of hair near your ear or by listening to a bowl of cereal that crackles when milk is added
- crackles may represent the sudden opening of previously closed airways
- expiratory crackles may indicate the presence of fluid in the large airways
Dyspnea ***
- shortness of breath
- a subjective difficulty or distress in breathing
Hypercapnia ***
increased carbon dioxide level in the arterial blood
Hypoxemia ***
low or insufficient oxygen in the arterial blood
Mucolytic ***
- a medication capable of dissolving or decreasing the viscosity of mucus
Paradoxical breathing ***
moving the belly in during inspiration and out during expiration
Stertor ***
a snoring noise created when the tongue falls back into the lower palate
Stridor ***
a crowing sound during inspiration
Thoracic index ***
ratio of the AP diameter to the transverse diameter of the thorax
Tidal volume ***
volume of air inspired or expired in a single breath during regular breathing
Wheezes ***
whistling sounds probably produced by air flowing at high velocities through narrowed airwasy
What is a PFT? ***
- pulmonary function test

tests:
- lung volumes and capacities
- flow rates of gases through airways
- diffusing capacity of lung
What volumes are measured via PFT? ***
- tidal volume (normal breath in and out)
- inspiratory reserve volume (over and above a normal/tidal inspiration)
- expiratory reserve volume (over and above normal/tidal expiration)
- residual volume (amount of air in lungs after maximal exhalation)
What capacities are measured via PFT? ***
- total lung capacity (volume of air in lungs at maximal inflation)
- inspiratory capacity (sum of inspiratory reserve volume and tidal volume)
- vital capacity (total lung capacity less residual volume—big breath in, big breath out)
- functional residual capacity (volume of air in lungs at end of passive expiration—to ERV)
What is spirometry? What is its most common measure? ***
- measurement of PFT

- forced vital capacity is most common measure (ERV + IRV)
For what purposes is pulmonary testing used? ***
- allows clinician to identify the presence and degree of pulmonary impairment
- understand the type of disease
- determine treatment plan
What 5 facets comprise pulmonary rehabilitation? ***
- exercise training regimens
- breathing exercises
- respiratory muscle training

- education
- psychosocial support
What exercise training regimens are frequently conducted in pulmonary rehabilitation? ***
- treadmill walking
- cycle ergometry
- arm ergometry
A common misconception exists that respiratory diseases are primarily adult issues. What three general categories of respiratory interventions are common in children? ***
- removal of secretions
- breathing exercises
- physical re-conditioning
What types of breathing exercises are used in pulmonary rehabilitation? ***
- inspiratory muscle training
- expiratory muscle training
- incentive spirometry

- pursed lip breathing
- diaphragmatic breathing
- active expiration
- relaxation breathing
Inspiratory and expiratory muscle training are compatible with…. ***
any type of muscle training
Expiratory muscle training may help patients with COPD to…. ***
reduce lung hyperinflation
What are some specifics on the use of incentive spirometry? ***
- sit comfortably, hold spirometer level
- breathe only through mouth (use nose clip to ensure mouth breathing)
- inhale and exhale through spirometer
- inhale as deeply and forcefully as possible, and hold for 5-10 seconds
- exhale normally
- work hard, but not to point of exhaustion
- train 10-15 minutes per day for the first week; gradually increase to 20-30 minutes per session (or 2 15-minute sessions) daily
- try to train 3-5 times per week
- when above 30 minutes (or 2 15-minute) sessions are easily tolerated, move to next highest resistance setting and start cycle again
What is the purpose of pursed-lip breathing? ***
- helps to stabilize bronchiolar airways which reduces dynamic hyperinflation during acute attacks or periods of exercise
- causes a change in the breathing pattern
- recruits accessory muscles, which seems to protect the diaphragm from fatigue
- increases O2 saturation levels in patients with COPD
How is pursed-lip breathing conducted? ***
- breathe in slowly through nose or mouth; inhalation of about 2 seconds is enough (do not need full inspiration)
- pucker/purse lips as if you were going to whistle
- exhale slowly through lips for about 4 seconds; puckered lips should provide resistance to exhalation
- repeat

- it may be helpful to count to yourself when breathing—in, one, two; out, one, two, three, four.
- it is very important that your breathing is slow and exhalation is prolonged for at least 4 seconds
What is diaphragmatic breathing? What are its benefits? ***
- combines pursed-lip breathing with exhalation

- improves gas distribution and lowers energy costs of ventilation
- increases interthoracic lung volume
What are the instructions for diaphragmatic breathing/active expiration? ***
- lie down in bed with pillow under head and pillow under knees
- place one hand on stomach and another on chest

- inhale slowly through nose; only hand on stomach should rise, hand on chest should remain still
- exhale slowly through pursed lips; to assist exhalation, actively contract abdominal muscles
- repeat for 5-10 minutes 2-3 times daily
What are the instructions for active expiration? ***
- sit upright without using arms for support
- breathe in slowly through nose or mouth

- breathe out slowly with active abdominal contraction (it may be helpful to place a hand on the abdomen just below the xiphoid process to assist with abdominal contraction)
- repeat step one

(sitting in front of a mirror is sometimes helpful for proper technique)
What is relaxation breathing? What are its benefits? ***
- relaxation techniques
- yoga maneuvers
- relaxed shoulders, slow deep breaths

shown to:
- reduce respiratory rate
- decrease dyspnea scores
- reduce anxiety
What are some mechanisms used for airway clearance? ***
- positive expiratory therapy
--- acapella device
--- flutter valve

- ThAIRapy bronchial drainage system
- chest PT
- forced expiratory technique
What is positive expiratory (pressure) therapy (PEP therapy)? ***
indicated for patients with:
- COPD
- pneumonia
- atelectasis
- unproductive cough, & for
- post-operative patients
What are two types of PEP therapy devices? ***
- acapella device

- flutter valve
What is an acapella device? How does it work? ***
- type of PEP
- hand held
- exhaled air is forced through an occasionally blocked device which produces a vibratory effect

(basically the vibrations are to allow air to get past/behind the secretions and bring them up, as well as reduce collapsibility of airways and assists in increasing airflow to small airways)
Use of acapella device ***
- inhale through device, breathing larger than normal tidal volume
- exhale through device, not forcefully, but over 2-3 seconds
- if patient cannot exhale for 2-3 seconds, increase resistance

- instruct patient to take 10-20 breaths through device, followed by 2-3 effective coughs
- patient should be able to expectorate secretions
- goal of treatment is duration of 10-20 minutes, 2-4 times daily
- nebulizer can be attached if bronchodilating medications are indicated
What is a flutter valve? ***
- another PEP therapy device
- hand held

performed in two stages:
- loosening secretions, then
- extracting secretions
Use of flutter valve ***
stage 1
- inhale slowly, to not quite a full breath
- hold breath for 2-3 seconds
- place flutter valve in mouth and create tight seal
- actively exhale with medium, steady-rate exhalation
- position flutter valve so vibrations can be felt on both back and chest of patient
- patient should complete 5-10 breaths and refrain from coughing

stage 2
- inhale maximally, hold for 2-3 seconds, then forcefully exhale to assist movement of secretions
- have patient cough 2-5 times
- repeat entire sequence 2-3 times if necessary
- treatment sessions should last 10-15 minutes and be repeated 2-4 times daily
Describe the ThAIRapy bronchial drainage system. ***
- also ABI vest (trademark American Biosystems)
- inflatable, oscillatory device used to aid secretion removal

- pt controls frequency and pressure
- provides patient self-therapy independence
- used for Cystic Fibrosis
What is Chest PT? ***
percussion and/or vibrations administered to patients needing
- improved ventilation
- mobilization of secretions
- re-expansion of collapsed portions of lungs
- vibration/percussion to assist postural drainage
What are the precautions for use of percussion? ***
circulatory
- hemoptysis – coughing up of blood/bloody sputum
- coagulation disorders (increased prothrombin time - clotting time; platelet count below 50,000)

musculoskeletal
- rib fractures
- flail chest – segment of rib cage breaks off and becomes detached from rest of chest wall
- degenerative bone disease

also, do not perform percussion
- on the spine
- below the diaphragm
- on the sternum
What are the precautions for postural drainage? ***
Trendelenberg position (head lower than feet in bed):
- circulatory – pulmonary edema, CHF, HTN
- abdominal – obesity, abdominal distension, hiatal hernia, nausea, recent meal
- shortness of breath made worse by the position

side-lying position:
- vascular – axillofemoral bypass graft
- musculoskeletal – arthritis, recent rib FX, shoulder bursitis, or tendonitis, any position that would make postural drainage uncomfortable.
Name two forced expiratory techniques. ***
- controlled cough
- huff cough

- use mid to low lung volume
- for patients with SCI, muscle dysfunction, airway instability, or pain with coughing

- huff coughing less likely to experience collapse of airway that typically occurs with full explosive cough
What are environmental barriers? ***
- physical impediments that keep people from functioning optimally in their surroundings

may include
- safety hazards
- difficult access and
poor home or office design

(e.g., stairs, gravel driveway, stone walkway, narrow doors/hallways, etc.)
What is the goal of assisting the therapist & patient through analysis of the patient’s home, community and workplace? ***
- goal of environmental analysis is to maximize functional independence by eliminating barriers & creating a plan for interventions that support preferred movement patterns & optimal function

- shortest distance, safest distance, family preference

- often you will be spending more time with the patient than the PT, so early on ask the patient & family questions about the predicted home environment – bath set-up, kitchen, access doors and walkways; then incorporate your findings into treatment
What tests and measures do therapists use to gather information about environmental barriers? ***
- observation – direct or by video/photo
- measurement of pt & environmental features

- patient report
- functional performance testing
- caregiver interview.
What are the reach norms from a wheelchair? ***
- horizontal and unobstructed forward reach – 24” is safe
- obstructed forward reach with leg space allowed – 17-19” (e.g.., reaching forward for faucet when wheeled under sink or counter; from axle of front wheel when wheelchair arms do not clear)
- obstructed forward reach when arm rests and legs are allowed to pass under objects (e.g., 30” counter/table height for wheelchair arms to clear) is 24 inches
- 9” above the floor to reach for shoes (use shoe trees or boxes)
- 54” maximum height reach
Describe the primary reach zone (at desk.) ***
- area closest to the body
- as if arms are windshield wipers
Describe the secondary reach zone (at desk.) ***
- elbows no further than anterior rib cage
- items used 4-10 times per hour
Describe the tertiary reach zone (at desk.) ***
- objects can be reached without exceeding full elbow extension or 90 degrees of shoulder flexion
What is the most useful means of assessing muscle performance? ***
- functional manual muscle testing is most useful
Why should muscle performance testing/functional manual muscle testing be used? ***
- to assess if there is adequate strength to handle tools, operate levers, and lift, carry, push, & pull objects as required by patient’s expected roles

- to watch for muscle substitutions that may lead to increased risk of injury!
(e.g., quads/HS weak, will bend over instead of squatting to lift)
What types of results should the therapist be watching for in response to cardiovascular testing? ***
- patient’s endurance and response to exertion
- time it takes & the response to climbing stairs (SOB &/or HR)
- how many rests were taken - standing or sitting.
What types of results should the therapist be watching for in response to gait, locomotion, and balance testing? ***
- observe patient’s movement patterns and balance throughout the environmental assessment
- even though it’s their house, stay within arm’s reach and use a gait belt! (you are still responsible if they fall!!)

- assess how patient does on uneven surfaces, getting in/out of car, bed, bath, on/off toilet

- assess balance recovery strategies – what do they grab onto? AGAIN, USE GAIT BELT!!
How do assistive, adaptive, orthotic, protective, and prosthetic devices figure into the assessment process? ***
- patient should use their recommended devices
(e.g., walker, AFO, slings, TED hose, bath bench, hearing aid, glasses)

- PT/PTA will assess whether any of the devices pose a safety risk
Where should the environmental assessment begin? For what types of issues is the assessor looking? ***
- start with exterior routes and progress to interior

exterior barriers:
- what mode of transportation will be used & can patient use it?
- what is the situation with parking? lighting?
- is there a safe path to the entrance? (gravel, cement, grass, slope & its condition)
- are there curbs, gates, electronic doors, security alarms?
What should be noted with regards to stairs? ***
- note height, width, and depth
- general condition, whether handrails present

- should be maximum height 7 inches
- depth of at least 11 inches
- and should not have tread lip projections
What should be noted with regards to ramps? ***
- if patient cannot manage stairs, measure for ramp

- if ramp is present:
--- what is the surface condition?
--- are there handrails?
--- is there edge protection?
--- can patient ascend & descend safely?

- is there a slope of 1:12?
- there should be 1 foot length for each inch of step height
(e.g., 6 inch step requires a 6 foot long ramp
- should never be more than 1:8
What should be noted with regards to handrails? ***
- are they present on stairs and ramps
- what is the condition? (e.g., splinters, slippery when wet, etc.)
What should be noted with regards to elevators? ***
- can the patient use it?
- does it come in a timely manner?
- can the patient reach the buttons?
What is the minimum clear floor space necessary for a stationary wheelchair? ***
- 30 inches wide by
- 48 inches long
What is the minimum path width for a standard wheelchair or for ambulating with an assistive device? ***
- 36 inches, to allow for passing space
How narrow can a corridor be (briefly) to allow a wheelchair to pass? ***
- a corridor can narrow to widths of 32 inches for distances less than 24 inches in length (e.g., to pass through doorways)
What is the most frequent obstacle preventing full wheelchair access in a residence? ***
- narrow width of doorways
How wide must a doorway be for a standard wheelchair to pass for poor access? Fair access? Good access? ***
- 32-inch doorway off a 36-inch hallway
- 32-inch doorway off a 46-inch hallway
- 36-inch doorway off a 36-inch hallway
What are the spacing requirements when pulling a door open while seated in a wheelchair? ***
- 60 inches perpendicular to the door
- 18 inches lateral to the latch
What are the spacing requirements when pushing a door open while seated in a wheelchair? ***
- 48 inches perpendicular to the door
How much room is required for a patient to turn a wheelchair 180 degrees using both hands? Using only one hand? ***
- 60 x 60 inches

- 60 x 72 inches
When inspecting the environment for seating, what should the therapist be checking for? ***
- height, width, & depth of all seats used and compare measurements to the patient

- check condition of padding, seat, & support provided (ensure neutral spine)
What are the requirements for a task chair? ***
- 5 point pedestal
- casters
- adequate seat cushion to avoid pressure points
- forward seat tilt to assist with neutral spine posture
- depth to support 2/3 of thigh
- adjustable backrest/armrests
When inspecting countertops, tables, and work surfaces in the environment, what should the therapist be checking for? ***
- measure both from floor to bottom of surface and to top, height & depth

- assess whether patient’s legs (need 24-inch depth) & armrests (need 30-inch height) will fit under counter

- average horizontal/lateral reach from WC is 24 inchesfrom the patient’s shoulder
- functional reach over counter top is 17 – 19 inches
When inspecting sinks in the environment, what should the therapist be checking for? ***
are faucets
- accessible (no more than 22” from edge of counter)?
- easy to use (no higher than 34” from floor)?

- does WC fit under?
What barriers should the therapist be looking for in the kitchen? ***
- if patient will cook, have them lift glasses, pots & pans, open and remove items from refrigerator, oven, & cabinets

- check for fire risks (grease, towels)

- can patient use fire extinguisher?
- is there a smoke detector in area? does it have batteries?
What general barriers should the therapist be looking for in the bathroom? ***
- door width

safety & accessibility of the
- sink
- toilet and
- bath/shower
What specific barriers should the therapist be looking for with regards to the toilet? ***
- seat height ideally 17” – 19”
- are there grab bars? is their location appropriate?

- can the patient use an assistive device or WC to approach toilet?
- is there space for caregiver?
What specific barriers should the therapist be looking for with regards to the shower/bath? ***
- check for accessibility of the faucet
- check for presence of a bath or shower seat and grab bars

- can the patient safely transfer in and out of shower/bath?
- soap dishes, towel bars & shower rods should never be used for support
What are the required dimensions for a shower stall for a wheelchair user? ***
- at least 36” x 60” with a 36” door opening for a WC user
What specific barriers should the therapist be looking for with regards to the bedroom? ***
- check width of the door opening
- check lighting, flooring, and accessibility to bed and clothing
- can patient safely maneuver in room and when reaching clothing from dresser and closet

- measure bed height, ideally when patient is seated at edge of bed, the knees are slightly below the hips & feet flat on floor
What specific barriers should the therapist be looking for with regards to the telephone? ***
- check type of phone
- can they hold it, dial numbers, access emergency contacts, and connect with 911?
- can the patient see & hear the phone?
- can they pick it up in a timely manner?
What is the ADA? ***
- Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
- enacted in 1990 as a national mandate for elimination of discrimination against individuals with disabilities and to provide guidance for reasonable accommodations

- prohibits discrimination against people with disabilities in
--- employment (Title I)
--- public services (Title II)
--- places of public and commercial facilities (Title III)
--- telecommunications (Title IV)
How are the therapist’s interventions documented? ***
- interventions for environmental barriers are generally recommendations
- given by the PT for modifying the environment

- a PTA can discuss their observations and report them to the PT
What should the therapist’s interventions do? ***
they should
- improve safety
- maximize functional independence
- be acceptable to the patient
How may interventions help postural issues? ***
posture can be optimized by selection of furniture that allows the patient to
- maintain a neutral spine and to
- optimize mechanical advantage for power & balance

(e.g., counter, chair height & lighting changes)
How may interventions help overcome limited ROM issues? ***
- objects may be moved closer
- extended handles utilized, and
- reachers may be helpful
How may interventions help overcome muscle performance issues? ***
reduce force demands from the environment
- use of lighter weight dishes
- use of lever door knobs
- use of powered tools such as can/jar openers, carving knives, and door openers
- voice recognition software when writing is challenging

- installing smooth flooring or low pile carpeting if patient uses a WC or assistive device
How may interventions help overcome cognition issues? ***
- if patient has cognitive impairments the environment should be simplified for safe participation in activities

- single number dialing for emergency access
- limit access to dangerous items such as power tools, guns, cooking surfaces and give simple picture instructions
How may interventions help overcome pain issues? ***
- if caused by pressure, add padding, change height of a surface, or change the patient’s posture

- if LE or LBP, consider a cushioned floor mat or change position
How may interventions help overcome coordination issues? ***
for dexterity problems
- simplify task or power the activity
- keyless controlled door entry &
- voice recognition software for writing
How may interventions help overcome sensory integrity issues? ***
- textured surfaces

- for patients with temperature discrimination loss hot water should not be more than 130 degrees
- purchase a temperature regulator or have family member test before showering
- turn water heater to warm, not hot, setting
How may interventions help overcome cardiopulmonary issues? ***
- place commonly used items close by & at waist level

- use a motorized WC or scooter
Recommendations for overcoming environmental barriers range from _____ to _____. ***
- simple changes of habits, routines and behaviors

- complex structural changes requiring skilled contractors
How may environmental accesses be made safe for patient navigation? ***
- use handicap parking closest to entrance
- access routes should be at least 36” wide, esp. for WC
- smooth, non-slip surface, maximum 8% grade

- good lighting
- clear of obstacles, cracks, and gaps
- curb cutouts/accessible curbs
How may stairs be made safe for a patient to navigate? ***
- repair steps as needed
- remove tread lips

- good lighting; especially if visually impaired patient
- place tape at edge of each stair – especially red, orange, or yellow (those with visual impairments can see these colors best)

- wide or abrasive tape at top & bottom step, also around railing.
- stairs for walker 30 inches wide x 22 inches deep
How may ramps be made safe for a patient to navigate? ***
- incline between 1:8 – 1:12
- non-skid surface

- level landing at top & bottom
- 5 feet x 3 feet or 5 feet x 5 feet if turning corner

- when ramp is straight, the landing must be at least 60 inches long and at least as wide as the ramp run
- when ramp changes direction, the landing must be at least 60 inches in length and width
What are the requirements for edge protection and handrails? ***
- handrail should be placed parallel to the slope of the ramp and 34-38 inches above it

- ramp edging is required to prevent 4-inch objects (walker wheel) from rolling off the edge

- edge protection at least 2” in height and placed no higher than 4” from the top of the ramp.
How may access routes be improved in the home? ***
- rearrange furniture, clearing a path at least 36” wide

- remove obstacles such as cords, wires, throw rugs & clutter
What may have to be done to flooring to create a safer environment? ***
- walking & WC easier on low pile carpet, tile, cement
- visually impaired – light floor color to contrast darker furniture
- remove any runners, mats that slide, flooring with holes
What adjustments may have to be made to doors in the environment? ***
for patient in WC that is 32 – 36 inches wide, door width can be increased by:
- installing offset hinges
- removing door stop
- removing door & installing curtain

if patient has limited space &/or difficulty passing through doorway:
- install double action hinge
- reverse hinge toward the larger room
- add lever style handles, pull handles to pull door shut
- remove or lower thresholds
- add kick plate 10 – 16 inches from floor
-outside shelf near door; keyless entry
What adjustments may have to be made to lighting in the environment? ***
- older eye needs 3 times more light than the younger eye
- avoid having patient move quickly when going from light to/from dark

- light switches and lamps placed for easy access
- emergency, and night lights
What adjustments may have to be made to seating in the environment? ***
- firm seating required, may need plywood added for support

- remove casters, rockers, and swivel-bases for improved stability
- add 3- 5 inch leg extenders to chairs & sofas

ensure
- knees level with (or a little lower than) hips
- 2/3rds of thigh supported
- arm rests
What adjustments may have to be made to countertops, tables, and/or work surfaces in the environment? ***
- raising or replacing tables that are too low
- leg extenders to raise table 3 – 5 inches

- platform to elevate pedestal-type tables
- most work surfaces are 29 inches but need to be 30-inch height so that WC armrests can fit under and allow the patient to reach forward up to 24 inches
What adjustments may have to be made to reach zones in the environment? ***
- move objects around to fit in reach zones
- use a lazy Susan or a rotating book caddy
- long-handled reacher to avoid strain
What adjustments may have to be made to work area triangles in the environment? ***
- rearrange space according to frequency of use

- create most efficient design for the patient (U-shaped, L-shaped, corridor, or wall layout)
What adjustments may have to be made to sinks in the environment? ***
- single-lever handles

for WC users:
- no higher than 34 inches (30-34 inches) from floor
- allow for knee clearance by removing cabinet doors, central rail, and toe board
- pad sharp edges
- insulate hot water pipes.

- space open under sink should be at least 27 inches high, 30 inches wide, & 19 inches deep
What adjustments may have to be made in the kitchen environment? ***
- electric stove with controls in front
- mirror tilted over the stove
- eye level oven
- side by side refrigerator with slide out drawers & water/ice dispenser

- rolling cart, stool if ambulatory
- lazy Susan-type trays on counter & inside cabinets
- heavy items moved to waist level
What adjustments may have to be made to toilets in the environment? ***
- ideal seat height is 17 – 19 inches for adults
- but patients with weakness or ROM restrictions may do better if higher
- commode or raised toilet seat added

- if balance problems, add grab bar 42 inches long, 33 inches from floor at the side of the toilet
- one behind the toilet can be useful also
What are the ADA requirements for grab bars around toilets? ***
- side wall – 33-36 inches from floor, max 12 inches from back wall, min 42 inches long

- rear wall – 33-36 inches from floor, min 12 inches on one side and 24 inches on other side of toilet, min 36 inches long
What adjustments may have to be made to baths/showers in the environment? ***
- hand-held shower hose
- shower chair or bath bench
- non-slip flooring in both
- remove glass doors & replace with curtain
- install grab bars
What adjustments may have to be made to bedrooms in the environment? ***
- raise bed to improve transfers, use bed raisers of 3 – 5 inches, boards, concrete blocks, or add box spring or mattress
- lower bed by removing casters, cutting legs off of frame
- add bed rails, bedside commode if needed

if pt in WC
- remove closet doors
- lower rod to 36 – 46 inches
- shelves no higher than 54 inches & no lower than 9 inches from floor
What adjustments may have to be made to laundry rooms in the environment? ***
-front-loading washer and dryer
- side hinge doors, smaller loads, wheeled cart

- shelves within patient’s reach
- ironing: wall mounted board & light weight iron
What adjustments may have to be made to telephones in the environment? ***
- emergency numbers programmed for neighbor, police & fire
- programmable phone, to be carried in fanny pack
- may need large buttons, lighted keypads, speaker or larger visual display
What adjustments may have to be made to writing surfaces in the environment? ***
- writing surface 2 inches higher than elbow
- tilt surface angle with binder/book
- large grip pens
What adjustments may have to be made for computer use in the environment? ***
- elbows flexed between 70 and 135 degrees
- shoulders abducted less than 20 degrees and flexed less than 25 degrees
- wrists between 30 degrees of flexion and 10 degrees of extension
- torso-thigh angle at least 90 degrees

- adjustable keyboard a few inches lower than desk and about 1 inch lower than elbow
- chair adjusted so patient is sitting with a neutral spine and feet supported
- monitor at eye level & far enough to see clearly with corrective lenses while maintaining neutral spine
What are the controllable coronary artery disease risk factors? ***
- tobacco
- lipids (cholesterol)
- excess body weight

- physical inactivity
- blood pressure
- diabetes
- stress
What are the uncontrollable coronary artery disease risk factors? ***
- age
- gender
- heredity
Which patients live longer after heart attack? Why? ***
- those who undergo cardiac rehabilitation (26-46% improved per her lecture)

- reduced HR and SBP with exercise
- less angina
- reduction of risk factors
--- lower serum cholesterol, triglycerides, & LDLs
--- higher HDLs
What is cardiac rehabilitation? ***
- coordinated, multifaceted interventions

- designed to optimize a cardiac patient’s physical, psychological, and social functioning
- stabilizing, slowing, or even reversing the progression of the underlying atherosclerotic processes
What is included in cardiac rehabilitation? ***
- baseline patient assessment
- nutritional counseling
- exercise training

- aggressive risk factor management (e.g., lipids, HTN, weight loss, diabetes, & smoking)
- psychosocial and vocational counseling & physical activity counseling
What is the role of the PTA in cardiac rehabilitation? ***
- provides direct patient care:
--- acute: hospital
--- outpatient rehabilitation
What are the four phases of the traditional model of cardiac rehabilitation? ***
- Phase I: inpatient program, telemetry
- Phase II: 12-week clinically supervised program, ECG monitored

- Phase III: outpatient with supervision
- Phase IV: some supervision
What is the current model of cardiac rehabilitation? ***
- Phase I: inpatient program, telemetry
- Phase II: 12-week clinically supervised program, ECG monitored
What occurs in Phase I of cardiac rehabilitation? ***
- Phase I: inpatient program, telemetry

- within 48 hours of admission
- critical care unit
- close nursing and telemetric supervision
What are the clinical indications for inpatient and outpatient cardiac rehabilitation? (Table 12-11, p. 281) ***
INDICATIONS
- medically stable post MI
- stable angina
- CABG surgery
- percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty or other transcatheter procedure
- compensated CHF
- cardiomyopathy
- heart or other organ transplantation
- other cardiac surgery including valvular and pacemaker insertion (including implantable cardioverter defibrillator)
- PAD
- high-risk cardiovascular disease ineligible for surgical intervention
- sudden cardiac death syndrome
- end-stage renal disease
- at risk for CAD with diagnoses of DM, dyslipidemia, HTN, etc.
- other patients who may benefit from structured exercise and/or patient education (based on physician referral and consensus of rehab team)
What are the clinical contraindications for inpatient and outpatient cardiac rehabilitation? (Table 12-11, p. 281) ***
CONTRAINDICATIONS
- unstable angina
- resting SBP of > 200 mm Hg or resting diastolic BP of > 112 mm Hg should be evaluated on a case-by-case basis
- orthostatic BP drop of > 20 mm Hg with symptoms
- critical aortic stenosis (peak systolic pressure gradient of > 50 mm Hg with aortic valve orifice area of < 0.75 cm sq in average-size adult)
- acute systemic illness or fever
- uncontrolled atrial or ventricular dysrhythmias
- uncontrolled sinus tachycardia (> 120 bpm)
- uncompensated CHF
- 3-degree AV block (without pacemaker)
- active pericarditis or myocarditis
- recent embolism
- thrombophlebitis
- resting ST segment displacement (> 2 mm)
- uncontrolled diabetes (resting glucose of >200 mg/dL or > 250 mg/dL with ketones present)
- severe orthopedic conditions that would prohibit exercise
- other metabolic conditions such as acute thyroiditis, hypokalemia/hyperkalemia, hypovolemia, etc.
What are the components of pretreatment assessment for inpatient cardiac rehabilitation? ***
See P. 284, Table 12 – 14 “Pretreatment Assessment for Inpatient Cardiac Rehabilitation”
PT/PTA should check/recheck patient chart for:
- medical referral
- physician’s orders
- hematology values, including RBC count, hematocrit, hemoglobin, WBC count
- medications (watch for nitrates, beta blockers, calcium channel blockers)
- determining need for portable, supplemental oxygen
- determining need for pushcart/wheelchair

PTA should communicate with:
- patient’s nurse – is it safe to exercise the patient?
- telemetry technician – you will be treating patient
- PT or physician as needed
- patient/family—discuss goals and agree on plan

At the bedside, the PTA should:
- question patient’s recent activity tolerance/history
- record resting HR, BP, O2 saturation, angina, dyspnea, arrhythmia
- count resting respiratory rate
- affix telemetry transmitter (if ambulation will occur)
- affix finger-pulse oximeter/HR monitor
- select mode on wrist chronograph


During activity, the PTA should monitor vital signs:
- HR – if above threshold, decrease or stop activity
- oxygen saturation – if below threshold, stop activity
- diastolic BP > 112 mm Hg, stop activity
- systolic BP decrease > 12 mm Hg or does not increase, stop activity
- stop activity with equipment malfunction


Monitor patient for signs and symptoms of intolerance:
- dyspnea (2-3/4), stop activity
- angina (3/4), stop activity
- claudication (3/4), stop activity
- ataxia, dizziness, or near syncope, stop activity
- pallor or cyanosis, stop activity
- RPE (> or = 13), stop activity

Telemetry technician/nurse should monitor:
- significant ventricular or atrial dysrhythmias, stop activity
- second- or third-degree heart block, stop activity
- ischemic changes, stop activity
- record elapsed time, distance, and compute velocity

Following activity, the PTA should:
- return patient to bed or bedside chair
- disconnect telemetry transmitter, and any portable devices (pulse oximeter, portable BP cuff, supplemental oxygen) after taking a final vitals reading
- reconnect patient to bedside monitors
- check with nursing/telemetry for EKG responses
- record findings in chart
- personally notify nurse, PT, and/or physician of worrisome findings
What is the recommended intensity for Phase I cardiac rehabilitation? (Table 12-16, P. 285) ***
- RPE < 13 (on 6-20 scale)

- post-MI HR: < 120 bpm or resting HR + 20 bpm
- post-surgical HR: resting HR + 30 bpm

- to tolerance if asymptomatic
What is the recommended duration for Phase I cardiac rehabilitation? (Table 12-16, P. 285) ***
- begin with intermittent bouts lasting 3-5 minutes, as tolerated
- rest periods can be slower walking or complete rest at patient’s discretion; shorter than exercise bout duration
- attempt to achieve 2:1 exercise/rest ratio
- attempt to work up to 15 minutes
What is the recommended frequency for Phase I cardiac rehabilitation? (Table 12-16, P. 285) ***
- early mobilization: 3-4 times per day (days 1-3)

- later mobilization: 2 times per day (beginning on day 4) with increased duration of exercise bouts
What is the recommended progression for Phase I cardiac rehabilitation? (Table 12-16, P. 285) ***
when continuous exercise duration reaches 12-15 minutes, increase intensity as tolerated
What is the recommended mode of exercise for Phase I cardiac rehabilitation? ***
- UE AROM (no arms overhead while upright, at least right away—blood rush to chest)
- LE AROM

- progress to trunk twists
- walking in room
RPE scale (P. 268) ***
6 –
7 – very, very light
8 –
9 – very light
10 –
11 – fairly light
12 –
13 – somewhat hard ***
14 –
15 – hard
16 –
17 – very hard
18 –
19 – very, very hard
20 –
To what activities are patients restricted during Phase I cardiac rehabilitation? ***
- self care
- postural changes
- use of bedside commode

- arm & leg ROM
- walking in the room

- these activities are equivalent to twice the resting energy expenditure level, or 2 METs
(1 MET is sitting up in bed doing nothing)
What are the options for discharge following Phase I cardiac rehabilitation? ***
- skilled nursing facility (SNF)
- rehabilitation hospital
- home

- all with a walking program!!
What are the specifications for Phase II cardiac rehabilitation? (Table 12-20, p. 289) ***
- outpatient cardiac rehabilitation

- 12 weeks, 3X per week

entry-level exercise should be:
- resting HR + 20 (post-MI)
- resting HR + 30 (post-surgical patient—CABG/percutaneous transluminal coronary intervention)
-RPE 11-13 (on 6-20 scale)


ischemia or angina – > or = 12 bpm below symptoms
CHF – 40% to 75% of VO2 max
fixed-rate pacemaker – training SBP = (SBP max – SBP rest) (50% to 80%) + SBP rest
rate-responsive pacemaker – 50% to 85% of HR reserve + > or = 12 BPM below symptoms
antitacycardia pacemakerws and implanted cardioverter defibrillators – below threshold for defibrillation
cardiac transplant – 50% to 75% VO2 peak, RPE 11-15, ventilatory threshold, dyspnea


- discharge to home

- encourage lifelong commitment to exercise
(evidence exists to suggest that to maintain or demonstrate regression in coronary atherosclerosis lesions, one must expend 1,500 to 2,000 kcal/week)
How should an exercise program for Phase II cardiac rehabilitation be conducted? (Table 12-18, p. 287) ***
- safe exercise
- emphasize fun

- supervision
--- monitor HR, BP, and RPE
--- watch for signs/symptoms of exercise intolerance
- may be monitored with telemetry

- secondary prevention is taught
What are the indications for terminating exercise for a cardiac rehabilitation patient? (Table 12-18, p. 287) ***
ABSOLUTE INDICATIONS
- drop in SBP of > 12 mm Hg from baseline BP despite an increase in workload when accompanied by other evidence of ischemia
- moderately severe angina (defined as 3 on standard 4-point scale)
- increasing nervous system sx (e.g., ataxia, dizziness, near syncope)
- signs of poor perfusion (cyanosis or pallor)
- technical difficulties monitoring EKG or SBP
- subjects desire to stop
- sustained ventricular tachycardia
- ST elevation (+1.0 mm) in leads without diagnostic Q-waves (other than V1 or aVR)

RELATIVE INDICATIONS
- drop in SBP of > 12 mm Hg from baseline BP despite increase in workload, in the absence of other evidence of ischemia
- ST or QRS changes such as excessive ST depression (> 2 mm horizontal or downsloping ST-segment depression) or marked axis shift
- arrhythmias other than sustained ventricular tachycardia, including multifocal preventricular contractions, triplets of preventricular contractions, supraventricular tachycardia, heart block, or bradyarrhythmias
- fatigue, SOB, wheezing, leg cramps, or claudication
- development of bundle-branch block or intraventricular conduction delay that cannot be distinguished from ventricular tachycardia
- increasing chest pain
- hypertensive response (SBP > 250 mm Hg and/or DBP > 115 mm Hg)
What types of activities should be conducted during Phase II cardiac rehabilitation? ***
- 5- to 10-minute warm-up
- 15- to 20-minute circuit training:
--- Treadmill
--- Arm ergometry
--- Stationary bike
--- Rowing ergometer
--- Stair climber
- 5- to 10-minute cool down
What are the advantages of a recumbent bicycle? ***
- seat is more comfortable than traditional bicycle
- back support provides a more upright spine posture
- relatively quiet to operate
- easy to monitor/measure vital signs during use
- safer than a traditional bicycle due to a wider base of support and ease of mounting and dismounting.
What are the disadvantages of a recumbent bicycle? ***
- local muscle fatigue in the lower extremities may limit performance
- difficult to elevate heart rate to target range due to the more supine position compared with a traditional bicycle or other modes of upright exercise
What is the optimum fit of a recumbent bicycle? ***
- seat position should be adjusted to allow 15 to 20 degrees of knee flexion when LE is in the most outstretched position on the pedal
- ankle is at 90 degrees of dorsiflexion
What are the advantages of a stationary bicycle? ***
- allows NWB exercise
- no impact
- relatively quiet to operate
- easy to monitor/measure vital signs during use
- requires little time/effort for habituation
What are the disadvantages of a stationary bicycle? ***
- local muscle fatigue in the lower extremities may limit performance
- difficult to elevate heart rate to target range due to muscle fatigue limitation
- not all clients are familiar with or experienced with bicycling
- no weight bearing achieved
What is the optimum fit of a stationary bicycle? ***
- seat position should be adjusted to allow 15 to 20 degrees of knee flexion when foot is in lowest position on the pedal and
- ankle is in 90 degrees of dorsiflexion.
What are the advantages of a stair climber? ***
- motion of stepping is familiar to most clients so habituation is minimal
- provides weight bearing
- provides a low-impact form of activity
- occupies less space than most other types of equipment
What are the disadvantages of a stair climber? ***
- may aggravate or cause knee problem due to stress on knee joints
- posture on the equipment should be carefully scrutinized due to tendency for users to adopt poor postures and rely too much on upper extremities for support
- somewhat difficult to mount
- requires good balance
What are the advantages of a treadmill? ***
- walking/running are familiar activities for most clients so habituation is minimal
- provides weight bearing
- uses large lower-extremity muscles that require less energy, enabling heart rate to be elevated and kept in target range without local muscle fatigue
- easy to adjust intensity (speed and/or elevation).
What are the disadvantages of a treadmill? ***
- weight-bearing exercise may be difficult for obese clients or for those with orthopedic limitations
- requires a lot of space
- expensive
- difficult to monitor/measure vital signs when clients walk fast or run
- tends to make significant noise when in use (making it difficult to hear blood pressure)

- ensure you have everything set up and in place beforehand, you don’t want to distract the pt
What are the advantages of an upper-body ergometer? ***
- eliminates lower extremities for those with significant lower-extremity impairments, while providing a mechanism to perform aerobic exercise
- easy to mount/dismount
- relatively quiet to operate.
What are the disadvantages of an upper-body ergometer? ***
- local muscle fatigue limits performance
- lower heart rates are achieved due to the use of smaller muscles
- unfamiliar for most clients so requires greater habituation time
- difficult to monitor/measure vital signs during activity
What is the optimum fit of an upper-body ergometer? ***
- seat should be adjusted to allow slight elbow flexion during maximum upper-extremity extension while back maintains contact with seat
- seat height should be adjusted so that client shoulder height is even with axis of arm crank
What is important to remember about the post-exercise HR response in heart transplant patients? ***
- not as sharp a plateau
- recovery dropoff in heart rate more gradual slope
Normal response to exercise includes increases in: ***
- HR
- stroke volume
- systolic BP
Training aerobically leads to what changes during exercise? ***
- decreased HR
- increased blood flow to muscle
- increases VO2 max
What elements comprise an exercise prescription? ***
- mode
- intensity
- frequency
- duration
Aerobic exercise ***
continuous, rhythmic exercise that involves large muscles and increases the rate of aerobic metabolism
Anaerobic threshold (AT) ***
- an indirect measure of endurance obtained from an exercise stress test

- the point at which the blood is unable to buffer lactic acid during exercise
Cardiac output ***
- amount of blood ejected from the heart, expressed in liters per minute

- cardiac output is equal to the product of heart rate multiplied by stroke volume
Cardiomyopathy ***
a disease of the heart muscle that can result in heart failure
Crackles ***
adventitious or abnormal breath sounds that can reflect acute fluid accumulation in the distal airways of the lungs
Diastole ***
period of the heart’s pumping cycle in which the heart muscle relaxes to allow the heart to fill with blood
Diastolic dysfunction ***
decreased ability of the heart to accept blood
Dilated cardiomyopathy ***
disease of the cardiac muscle with dilation of the ventricles
Dyspnea ***
shortness of breath
Echocardiography ***
diagnostic test that uses ultrasound to assess structures and function of the heart
Ejection fraction (EF) ***
- the percentage of end-diastolic volume ejected from the left ventricle with each heartbeat
End-diastolic volume ***
- the volume of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole
Heart catheterization ***
procedure performed under fluoroscopy in which a catheter is inserted into the left side or right side of the heart to measure pressures and/or assess the coronary arteries and heart valves
Heart failure ***
previously called congestive heart failure; inability of the heart to pump enough blood to meet the demands of the organs
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy ***
disease of the heart muscle that results in excessive thickening of the left ventricle
Ischemic heart failure ***
heart failure caused by an inadequate supply of blood to the heart muscle
Jugular venous distention ***
distention or stretching of the jugular veins because of fluid overload
Median sternotomy ***
surgical incision using a midline cut through the sternum
Metabolic equivalent ***
energy requirement while resting, which is the energy used to burn 3.5 ml of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute
New York Heart Association (NYHA) Classification system ***
system used to classify patients with heart failure according to subjective limitations in functional activities
Orthopnea ***
shortness of breath with lying supine
Oxygen consumption rate (VO2) ***
amount of oxygen consumed while performing an activity, measured by exercise testing
Pulmonary edema ***
excessive fluid accumulation in the lungs
Pulmonary hypertension ***
abnormal elevation of the pulmonary artery pressure
Rate of Perceived Exertion (RPE) ***
subjective rating of exercise intensity
Rate-pressure product ***
- heart rate multiplied by systolic blood pressure
- an index of myocardial oxygen requirement
Restrictive cardiomyopathy ***
disease of the heart muscle that is characterized by fibrosis of the ventricles and leads to diastolic dysfunction
Right atrial pressure ***
pressure of the blood in the right atrium
Stroke volume ***
the volume of blood ejected from the left ventricle with each heart beat
Systolic dysfunction ***
inability of the heart to eject blood
Alveolar perfusion ***
the amount of blood flow that comes in contact with the alveoli and participates in respiration
Alveolar ventilation ***
the amount of air flow that comes in contact with the alveoli and participates in respiration
Alveoli ***
the distal terminal air sacs in the lungs where gas exchange occurs
Arterial-alveolar oxygen difference (PaO2 – PaO2) ***
the difference between the partial pressure of O2 in the alveoli and the partial pressure of O2 in the arterial blood
Compliance ***
a measure of the ease of expansion of the lungs and chest wall
Conducting airways ***
- airways within the lungs that serve as a conduit for air to travel down to the alveoli

- because of the absence of alveoli, gas exchange does not occur in these airways
Dead space ***
air within the lungs that does not participate in respiration
Elasticity ***
the ability of an object to return to its original state after being deformed
Hemoptysis ***
expectoration of blood
Hypercapnia ***
an increased level of CO2 in the circulating blood
Hypoxia ***
a decreased level of O2 in the circulating blood
Maximal voluntary ventilation (MVV) ***
- the largest amount of air an individual can move in and out of the airways over one minute

- determined by the maximum respiratory rate and vital capacity
Minute ventilation (MV) ***
the amount of are moved into or out of the lungs over one minute
Pneumothorax ***
air in the pleural cavity
Pulmonary shunt ***
blood flow moving through the lungs that does not participate in respiration
Respiration ***
the process of gas exchange between the atmospheric air and the pulmonary capillary bed
Respiratory airways ***
the airways in the tracheobronchial tree in which gas exchange may occur because of the presence of alveoli
Surfactant ***
substance produced by the alveolar cells that reduces surface tension in the airways
Tracheostomy ***
surgical incision in the trachea through which an artificial airway may be placed
Ventilation ***
air flow through the airways
Work of breathing (WOB) ***
the energy cost of breathing
Base of support ***
distance between midpoint of the heel of one foot to the same point of the other foot
Cadence ***
number of steps taken in a minute
Double stance ***
period of time when both feet are in contact with the supporting surface
Foot flat ***
point in time during the stance phase when the whole plantar surface of the foot is in contact with the supporting surface
Gait cycle ***
- the events between initial contact of the reference limb or extremity and the successive contact of the same extremity
- a gait cycle consists of two successive steps—one right and one left
Heel off ***
point in time during the stance phase when the heel leaves the supporting surface in preparation for starting the swing phase of gait
Heel strike ***
traditional term referring to the moment of contact with the supporting surface at the beginning of the gait cycle
Initial contact ***
- the point in the gait cycle when the foot initially makes contact with the supporting surface
- this represents the start of the stance phase of the gait cycle
Initial swing ***
the period in the gait cycle that begins when the reference limb leaves the supporting surface and ends when the knee achieves maximal flexion
Midstance ***
- the portion of the gait cycle corresponding to the single stance phase of gait
- begins when the contralateral limb leaves the supporting surface to begin swing and neds when the stance phase limb is under the body
Midswing ***
the point during the swing phase of gait when the extremity passes directly beneath the body
Preswing ***
the period of the gait cycle involving the terminal period of double support before the foot is lifted from the supporting surface
Single support ***
period of time when only one foot is in contact with the supporting surface
Stance phase ***
- the period or phase of the gait cycle that begins when one extremity contacts the ground (heel strike/initial contact) and ends when the same limb leaves the supporting surface (toe off/heel off)

- comprises approximately 60% of the gait cycle
Step length ***
distance between the point of initial contact of one extremity and the point of initial contact of the opposite extremity
Step time ***
the amount of time needed to complete a single step
Stride length ***
distance between the point of initial contact of one extremity to the next point of initial contact of the same extremity
Stride time (stride/duration) ***
the amount of time required to complete one stride
Swing phase ***
- the period or phase of the gait cycle when the foot is not in contact with the supporting surface

- comprises approximately 40% of the gait cycle
Terminal swing ***
- period of the gait cycle that occurs just before contact of the foot with the supporting surface

- marked by movement of the reference limb from a vertical position under the body and ends before contact of the foot with the supporting surface
Toe off ***
final phase of stance marked by the toe being the only aspect of the foot in contact with the supporting surface
Toe out/toe in ***
outward or inward angulation of the foot relative to the line marking the forward progression of the body
Walking velocity ***
distance covered per unit of time
Weight acceptance ***
period of the gait cycle encompassing the initial contact and loading response phases
What is the phase of the gait cycle encompassing initial double support and involving approximation of the foot to the supporting surface? ***

a. initial contact
b. loading response
c. midstance
d. preswing
b. loading response
During normal gait, the period of double support encompasses what percentage of the gait cycle? ***

a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 40%
d. 60%
b. 20%
True or False: An increased period of double support is a likely finding when there is unilateral lower extremity weakness? ***

a. true
b. false
a. true
The left knee of a patient diagnosed with postpolio syndrome, resulting in progressive unilateral quadriceps weakness affecting the left lower extremity, has a tendency to buckle during stance and the patient has altered her pattern of gait to ensure stability. When observing the patient walk, which of the following gait changes may be seen? ***

a. decreased single stance time on the involved side.
b. decreased right lower extremity step length.
c. genu recurvatum during stance on the involved side.
d. all of the above.
d. all of the above.
True or False: A patient recovering from a stroke has become stable and independent in the physical therapy gym when walking on level surfaces and managing curbs, ramps, and elevations. Based on this performance, you can expect the patient will likely also be safe performing these activities at home and in the community. ***

a. true
b. false
b. false
The hamstrings do which of the following during gait? ***

a. stabilize the trunk at the initial contact phase of gait.
b. decelerate the tibia during the terminal swing phase of gait.
c. stabilize the knee during the stance phase of gait.
d. all of the above.
d. all of the above.
The typical time spent in swing phase and stance phase in a gait cycle are: ***

a. swing phase 60% and stance phase 40%
b. swing phase 40% and stance phase 60%
c. swing phase 50% and stance phase 50%
d. none of the above
b. swing phase 40% and stance phase 60%
A patient recently had surgery on her right lower extremity. The MD orders include non-weight-bearing on the right side. The treating therapist’s plan of care includes upper extremity strengthening. What specific upper body muscle strengthening will be most functional for this patient? ***

a. triceps and biceps
b. biceps and latissimus dorsi
c. triceps and latissimus dorsi
d. deltoid and triceps
c. triceps and latissimus dorsi
The normal inspiratory:expiratory ratio is approximately which of the following? ***

a. 1:1
b. 1:2
c. 1:4
d. 2:1
b. 1:2
The inspiratory to expiratory ratio you would expect to see in the patient with COPD is which of the following? ***

a. 1:1
b. 1:2
c. 1:4
d. 2:1
c. 1:4
The thoracic index (AP:lateral thoracic diameter ratio) in an individual with severe pulmonary emphysema would likely be which of the following? ***

a. 1:1
b. 1:2
c. 1:3
d. 2:1
d. 2:1
When you palpate thoracic expansion in the patient with severe pulmonary emphysema and COPD, you would expect which of the following physical findings? ***

a. asymmetrical chest expansion
b. increased lateral expansion of the thorax—“bucket handle”
c. pain on attempts to expand
d. reduced chest expansion in all planes
b. increased lateral expansion of the thorax—“bucket handle”
The correct position for bronchial drainage of anterior segments of both upper lobes is: ***

a. left sidelying
b. lying prone
c. lying supine
d. right sidelying
e. sitting upright
e. sitting upright
What is a major benefit of diaphragmatic breathing? ***

a. enhanced expansion and ventilation of the upper lobes
b. improved airway clearance
c. improvement in postural deficits of the thorax
d. reduced dyspnea
d. reduced dyspnea
Pursed-lip breathing: ***

a. enhances airway clearance
b. helps expand the alveoli
c. reduces the physical work of expiration
d. should be done with a forceful expiration
e. slows respiratory rate
e. slows respiratory rate
Which of the following is a common cause of airway clearance dysfunction? ***

a. chronic dust/smoke inhalation
b. infectious disorders
c. cystic fibrosis
d. operative procedures
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
Which of the following physical therapy interventions is most likely to help a patient with dyspnea? ***

a. an aerobic exercise program
b. postural drainage
c. a strength training program
d. training with an assistive device
a. an aerobic exercise program
The motor innervation of the diaphragm is via which of the following? ***

a. nerve roots of C3, C4, and C5
b. the phrenic nerve
c. the vagus nerve
d. both a and b
e. all of the above
d. both a and b
Air within the airways that does NOT participate in gas exchange is also known as: ***

a. dead space
b. shunt
c. minute ventilation
d. tidal volume
e. reserve volume
a. dead space
The most common cause of respiratory failure is which of the following? ***

a. hypoventilation
b. V:Q mismatch
c. diffusion abnormalities
d. none of the above
a. hypoventilation
Patients receiving mechanical ventilation are more likely to wean from a mechanical ventilator if they have which of the following? ***

a. a greater maximal inspiratory pressure
b. a lower maximal inspiratory pressure
c. biofeedback concerning their breathing efforts
d. poorer exercise abilities
e. a and c
e. a and c
Which of the following interventions are indicated for patients receiving mechanical ventilation? ***

a. supine body positioning
b. functional and exercise training
c. deep breathing exercises or other techniques to increase ventilation
d. stress/anxiety reduction techniques
e. b, c, and d
e. b, c, and d
What is COPD’s rank among the leading causes of death in the United States? ***

a. second
b. fourth
c. seventh
d. twelfth
b. fourth
Classification of acute versus chronic respiratory failure is primarily determined by which of the following? ***

a. length of time patient has had symptoms of respiratory failure
b. underlying conditions
c. necessity for mechanical ventilation
d. chest x-ray
a. length of time patient has had symptoms of respiratory failure
Which one of the following is true? ***

a. type I respiratory failure is also known as hypercapnic.
b. hypercapnic respiratory failure is characterized by elevated PaCO2.
c. type I respiratory failure is characterized by abnormally high PaO2.
d. hypercapnic respiratory failure is characterized by an increase in blood pH.
b. hypercapnic respiratory failure is characterized by elevated PaCO2.
Which of the following are criteria for postponing functional and exercise training with a patient with respiratory failure? ***

a. hypotension associated with diaphoresis
b. severe dyspnea
c. saturation less than 90% on supplemental O2
d. chest pain
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
Which of the following is true about systolic heart failure? ***

a. it is most prevalent in females.
b. it is difficult to diagnose.
c. it may have ischemic or nonischemic causes.
d. it is defined by an ejection fraction (EF) greater than 35%.
c. it may have ischemic or nonischemic causes.
A patient with heart failure classified as New York Heart Association (NYHA) Class III would typically have which of the following? ***

a. symptoms at rest
b. symptoms with heavy exercise
c. symptoms with less than ordinary exertion
d. symptoms with stair climbing
c. symptoms with less than ordinary exertion
Which of the following can progress to heart failure? ***

a. heart valve disease
b. coronary artery disease
c. hypertension
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
What type of cardiomyopathy is characterized by stretching of the muscle fibers and enlargement of the heart? ***

a. restrictive
b. dilated
c. hypertrophic
d. none of the above
b. dilated
In which of the following circumstances would you terminate an exercise session with a patient with heart failure? ***

a. dyspnea index rating of 3/4
b. Borg rating of perceived exertion of 12
c. angina scale rating of 1
d. none of the above
a. dyspnea index rating of 3/4
Which of the following are true for a patient with NYHA Class IV heart failure? ***

a. the Borg Scale of Perceived Exertion should be used to guide exercise intensity
b. interval training may be better tolerated than continuous exercise
c. a and b
d. none of the above
c. a and b
In a patient with heart failure, which of the following would NOT be a reason to terminate the session? ***

a. symptomatic hypotension
b. acute onset of crackles in the lungs
c. controlled atrial fibrillation
d. symptoms of dyspnea and fatigue at rest
c. controlled atrial fibrillation
Which of the following should be considered during exercise by a patient after heart transplantation? ***

a. the patient should perform an adequate warm-up and cool down.
b. adhere to sternal precautions.
c. weight-bearing exercises may reduce the bone loss caused by needed medication.
d. all of the above.
d. all of the above.
Short bouts of moderate intensity exercise are safe and effective for improving which of the following in patients with heart failure? ***

a. strength
b. quality of life
c. range of motion
d. power
b. quality of life
Which type of exercise should be avoided by patients with heart failure? ***

a. isometric
b. aerobic
c. isotonic
d. range of motion
a. isometric