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326 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is physical rehabilitation? ***
- a goal-oriented treatment process that is intended to maximize independence in (not “cure”) individuals with compromised function due to primary pathological processes and resultant impairments

- includes pt and/or family
What are the goals of physical rehabilitation? ***
- to optimize patient function at home, in the community, and at work

- focused on the patient's own goals
What is a physiatrist? What is their role in rehabilitation? ***
- physicians who specialize in physical medicine and rehabilitation

- often oversee the care of patients requiring rehabilitation, typically in in-patient rehab hospitals
What is the role of a physical therapist with respect to rehabilitation? ***
according to the Guide, they:

- “diagnose and manage movement dysfunction and enhance physical and functional abilities”

- “restore, maintain, and promote not only optimal physical function but optimal wellness and fitness and optimal quality of life as it relates to movement and health”

- “prevent the onset, symptoms and progression of impairments, functional limitations, and disabilities that may result from diseases, disorders, conditions, or injuries”
What is the role of an occupational therapist with respect to rehabilitation? ***
according to the American Occupational Therapy Association, they

“prevent the onset, symptoms, and progression of impairments, functional limitations, and disabilities that may result from diseases, disorders, conditions, or injuries”
Besides physiatrists, physical therapists, and occupational therapists, who else plays a role in providing physical rehabilitation? ***
- physical therapIST assistants
- certified occupational THERAPY assistants
- nurses
- speech language pathologists
- neuropsychologists
- others, to include social workers, case managers, other physicians, etc.
What are the four aspects in the Nagi model of disablement? ***
- pathology
- impairment
- functional limitation
- disability
Give an example of each aspect of the Nagi disablement model for the musculoskeletal system. ***
- pathology - total knee joint replacement
- impairment - knee extension limited to -10 degrees
- functional limitation - unable to walk downstairs without a cane
- disability - unable to carry laundry down stairs at home
Give an example of each aspect of the Nagi disablement model for the neuromuscular system. ***
- pathology - stroke
- impairment - right upper and lower extremity weakness
- functional limitation - unable to lift arm above head
- disability - unable to wash and style own hair
Give an example of each aspect of the Nagi disablement model for the cardiopulmonary system. ***
- pathology - heart failure
- impairment - left ventricular ejection fraction 30%
- functional limitation - walking limited to 1/2 block
- disability - unable to complete grocery shopping on foot, uses electrically powered cart
Give an example of each aspect of the Nagi disablement model for the integumentary system. ***
- pathology - pressure ulcer
- impairment - 2 cm X 3 cm, 0.5 cm deep stage IV wound over left heel
- functional limitation - unable to bear weight on left lower extremity
- disability - unable to live at home because assistance required to transfer from bed to chair or toilet
Define "pathology" with respect to the Nagi and World Health Organization disablement models. ***
disease or injury
(e.g., left CVA)

(The book has, "...alteration of anatomy or physiology that is due to disease or injury and describes a specific disease process or diagnosis."

The Guide defines pathology as "an abnormality characterized by a particular cluster of signs and symptoms and recognized by either the patient or practitioner as abnormal.")
Define "impairment" with respect to the Nagi and World Health Organization disablement models. ***
abnormality of structure or function
(e.g., right hemiplegia and severe weakness of right upper and lower extremities--expressed in the Objective section of the SOAP note)

(The Nagi model defines impairment as "disruptions in anatomical, physiological, or psychological structures or functions as the result of some underlying pathology."

The Guide defines it as "a loss or abnormality of anatomical, physiological, mental, or psychological structure or function.")
Define "functional limitation" with respect to the Nagi and World Health Organization disablement models. ***
restrictions in the ability to perform components of daily life
(e.g., unable to sit or stand without supervision, can not lift a fork with right hand)

(The Nagi model defines functional limitation as "a restriction in the ability to perform an activity in an efficient, typically expected, or competent manner."

The Guide defines it as "the restriction of the ability to perform, at the level of the whole person, a physical action, task, or activity in an efficient, typically expected, or competent manner.")
Define "disability" with respect to the Nagi and World Health Organization disablement models. ***
inability to perform typical activities of daily living
(e.g., unable to walk to the kitchen table or feed self using right hand)

(The Nagi model defines disability as the inability to perform activities required for self-care, home, work, or community roles, taking into account the barriers presented by society to performing expected roles in the face of functional limitations."

The Guide defines disability as "the inability to perform or a limitation in the performance of actions, tasks, and activities usually expected in specific social roles that are customary for the individual or expected for the person's status or role in a specific sociocultural context and physical environment.)
What is the role of the Guide to Physical Therapist/Physical Therapist Assistant Practice? ***
- “to encourage a uniform approach to physical therapist practice and to explain to the world the nature of that practice”

- forms a framework for describing the scope and content of PT practice using standardized terms and a standardized practice model.
How is the Guide to Physical Therapist/Physical Therapist Assistant Practice organized? ***
- divided into two parts:

Part 1 – delineates the PT’s scope of practice & describes patient management by PT’s

Part 2 – describes each of the diagnostic preferred practice patterns of patients typically treated by PT’s. (see page 6)
According to the Guide to Physical Therapist/Physical Therapist Assistant Practice, patient management by PT’s involves... ***
- examination
- evaluation
- diagnosis
- prognosis
- intervention
What is skeletal demineralization? ***
refers to a loss of mass and calcium content from the bones
Name two types of skeletal demineralization. ***
- osteopenia (less severe)

- osteoporosis (more severe)
Describe secondary osteoporosis. ***
a sequela to another disease or disorder such as:
- osteomalacia (osteoid, the new organic matrix of bone does not mineralize correctly) or

- hyperparathyroidism (too much PTH released)
Skeletal demineralization of any etiology is caused by an imbalance between.... ***
bone formation and bone resorption
List some common causes of skeletal demineralization. ***
- genetics
- lack of proper nutrition
- hormonal imbalances
- inadequate physical activity
- life choices
- disease and health challenges
- socioeconomic circumstances
- environment
What bones comprise the axial skeleton? ***
- cranium
- vertebral column
- ribs
- sternum
- pelvis
What bones comprise the appendicular skeleton? ***
bones of the upper and lower limbs
Another term for compact bone ***
cortical bone
Other terms for spongy bone ***
- cancellous

- trabecular
What is contained in the medullary canal? ***
- bone marrow

- fat
Where in the skeleton is trabecular bone commonly located? ***
- axial skeleton
- pelvis
- other flat bones
- ends of long bones of the appendicular skeleton
are composed primarily of trabecular bone
How much of the axial skeleton is comprised of cancellous bone? ***
- 70% of the volume

- 35% of the weight
Which type of bone is more metabolically active, cortical or cancellous? ***
cancellous/trabecular/spongy bone

it responds both more quickly and to a greater degree to changes in mineral homeostasis
What are the average rates of remodeling for both cortical and cancellous bone? ***
approximately
- 3% of cortical and
- 7% of cancellous bone
remodels each year
At what age does bone remodeling cease? ***
it doesn't

it continues throughout life
What balance must be maintained to ensure stable bone mineral density? ***
the balance between
- bone resorption and
- bone formation
What three types of cells are involved in bone remodeling? ***
- osteoclasts
- osteoblasts
- osteocytes
What do osteoclasts do? ***
resorb bone and form resorption cavities in areas of bone turnover
What do osteoblasts do? ***
synthesize new bone matrix and osteoid to fill the cavities created by the osteoclasts
What are osteocytes? ***
osteoblasts that have become surrounded by mineralized bone
What controls bone remodeling? ***
controlled by levels of circulating hormones, including:
- estrogen
- testosterone
- calcitonin
- parathyroid hormone (PTH)
- 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D

and also by ongoing mechanical stresses from gravity, weight bearing, and the pull on the bones by contracting muscles
When does bone mass typically increase? Decrease? ***
generally, bone mass:
- increases until the third or fourth decade (epiphyses close around ages 13-25, but diameter increases until the 20s or 30s)
- stabilizes until age 45 to 50 years
- then starts to decline
What are the two types of involutional bone loss we discussed? ***
- Type I - postmenopausal osteoporosis

- Type II - senile osteoporosis
Describe Type I involutional bone loss. ***
- affects postmenopausal women (hormone-driven)
- high turnover state, especially of trabecular bone (up to 3X > normal)
- increases fracture risk of trabecular bones
- causes slight loss in cortical bone
What types of fractures are commonly seen with Type I involutional bone loss? ***
- vertebral compression fractures

- Colles' fractures
Describe Type II involutional bone loss. ***
- affects both genders after age 70 (age-related)
- low turnover state
- affects cortical and trabecular bone almost equally
- increase morbidity and mortality
What types of fractures are commonly seen with Type II involutional bone loss? ***
- hip fractures
- wedged vertebral fractures
- proximal humeral fractures
- pelvic fractures
- proximal tibial fractures

Tthe trabecular thinning also causes gradual vertebral collapse, anterior wedging of thoracic vertebrae, and gradual and usually painless spinal deformities in the elderly, such as "dowager's hump.")
List some modifiable risks for skeletal demineralization. ***
- low calcium intake
- low vitamin D (esp. in cold-weather areas)
- physical inactivity
- cigarette smoking
- excessive alcohol intake

- estrogen deficiency
- use of specific medications
- prolonged overuse of thyroid hormone
List some nonmodifiable risks for skeletal demineralization. ***
- gender (F:M = 5:1)
- age
- race (primarily European and Asian descent)
- body size (small, slender frames)
- early menopause
- family history
List some risk factors associated with low bone mass. ***
- old age
- residence in cold geographic area
- vitamin D deficiency

- gastrectomy
- intestinal malabsorption associated with:
---- diseases of small intestine
---- cholangiolitic disorders of the liver
---- biliary obstruction
---- chronic pancreatic insufficiency

- long-term use of:
---- anticonvulsants
---- tranquilizers
---- sedatives
---- muscle relaxants
---- diuretics
---- antacids containing aluminum hydroxide
---- corticosteroids

- history of:
---- hyperparathyroidism
---- chronic renal failure
---- renal tubular defects (decreased reabsorption of phosphate)
During the examination phase, what does the patient history include? ***
- age
- gender
- past medical/surgical history
- current and past medication use (including supplements)
- family history
- functional status
- present and past activity levels
- history of the present condition
- patient's goals
During the examination phase, what do the systems checks consist of? ***
- musculoskeletal testing (posture, anthropometric characteristics, ROM, muscle performance)
- neuromuscular testing (pain, esp dermatomal pain patterns on trunk)
- cardiopulmonary testing (SOB, reduced lung/chest volume)
During the examination phase, what do the tests and measures consist of? ***
- functional testing (balance and gait)

- medical testing of bone mineral density (finger densitometry, heel ultrasonography, DXA)
What types of testing are done on the musculoskeletal system for patients with potential skeletal demineralization? ***
postural screening
- very important in patients with osteoporosis, especially for kyphosis

height measurement
- height loss (esp. >1”) is suggestive of low bone mass; osteoporotic fractures often do not cause symptoms, but may result in increased/increasing thoracic kyphosis and loss of height

ROM testing
- decreased ROM in shoulder flexion and external rotation, hip extension (can't lift or rotate your arms very much if you're all bent over)
- knee flexion and ankle dorsiflexion are often noted to compensate for the kyphosis (so pt can walk more upright)
- decreased ROM of the cervical spine, shoulders, hips, knees, and ankles

muscle strength
- patients with skeletal demineralization often also have weak muscles
- muscles on constant stretch are weakened (shoulder depressors/retractors, hip and knee extensors, spinal extensors)
What types of testing are done on the neuromuscular system for patients with potential skeletal demineralization? ***
patients may complain of:
- chest pain
- rib pain
- shortness of breath
- scapular pain or
- visceral pain
- dermotomal pain around trunk

due to anterior collapse of vertebral body, alteration in the shape of the intervertebral foramen, and pressure on spinal nerves
What types of testing are done on the cardiopulmonary system for patients with potential skeletal demineralization? ***
aerobic capacity

(severe thoracic kyphosis can produce a decrease in aerobic capacity due to reduced lung/chest volume)
What types of testing are done on the functional status of patients with potential skeletal demineralization? ***
balance and gait testing

(patients with osteoporosis appear to have altered balance and decreased stability as a result of kyphosis and falls can easily result in fractures)
List three types of medical testing for bone mineral density. Which one is the "gold standard" test? ***
- finger densitometry
- heel ultrasonography

- dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA/DEXA) – gold standard
If examination of a patient reveals height loss of more than one inch, what is the evaluation/likely diagnosis within preferred practice pattern 4A? ***
- possible asymptomatic bone loss
- postural dysfunction
If examination of a patient reveals height loss of more than one inch, what is the prognosis (based on outcome research) within preferred practice pattern 4A? ***
- potential risk for bone loss and vertebral compression fractures

- improve with exercise and patient education
If examination of a patient reveals thoracic kyphosis, what is the evaluation/likely diagnosis within preferred practice pattern 4A? ***
- potential to compromise cardiorespiratory system
- decreased balance
- possible single or multiple vertebral compression fractures
If examination of a patient reveals thoracic kyphosis, what is the prognosis (based on outcome research) within preferred practice pattern 4A? ***
- can be improved or maintained with exercise, bracing, patient education

- at increased risk for possible additional fractures
If examination of a patient reveals acute pain, what is the evaluation/likely diagnosis within preferred practice pattern 4A? ***
- possible new fracture

- decreased physical performance and function
If examination of a patient reveals acute pain, what is the prognosis (based on outcome research) within preferred practice pattern 4A? ***
- self-limited over 6-8 weeks

- can be decreased by intermittent bed rest, modalities, positioning, bracing
If examination of a patient reveals chronic pain, what is the evaluation/likely diagnosis within preferred practice pattern 4A? ***
changes in soft tissues; tightness, weakness
If examination of a patient reveals chronic pain, what is the prognosis (based on outcome research) within preferred practice pattern 4A? ***
can decrease with compliance to appropriate education, exercise program, bracing
If examination of a patient reveals decreased ROM, what is the evaluation/likely diagnosis within preferred practice pattern 4A? ***
chronically shortened soft tissue
If examination of a patient reveals decreased ROM, what is the prognosis (based on outcome research) within preferred practice pattern 4A? ***
can be modified with exercise
If examination of a patient reveals muscle weakness, what is the evaluation/likely diagnosis within preferred practice pattern 4A? ***
chronically lengthened and/or atrophied soft tissues
If examination of a patient reveals muscle weakness, what is the prognosis (based on outcome research) within preferred practice pattern 4A? ***
can be modified with exercise
If examination of a patient reveals decreased balance, what is the evaluation/likely diagnosis within preferred practice pattern 4A? ***
increased potential for fracture from falls
If examination of a patient reveals decreased balance, what is the prognosis (based on outcome research) within preferred practice pattern 4A? ***
can be improved with balance training
If examination of a patient reveals decreased endurance, what is the evaluation/likely diagnosis within preferred practice pattern 4A? ***
- compromised cardiopulmonary function

- decreased mobility
If examination of a patient reveals decreased endurance, what is the prognosis (based on outcome research) within preferred practice pattern 4A? ***
can be improved with endurance training
What is preferred practice pattern 4A? ***
primary prevention/risk reduction for skeletal demineralization
List some interventions for skeletal demineralization. ***
- aerobic exercise
- resistance training
- weight-bearing exercise
- body mechanics training
- medications
- diet optimization
How does aerobic exercise function as an intervention for skeletal demineralization? ***
when coupled with weight bearing, it can improve function and increase BMD in patients with osteoporosis
How does resistance training function as an intervention for skeletal demineralization? ***
- can help maintain bone density
- can help improve postural control and stability to decrease the risk of falls
- the increase in muscle mass produced by muscle strengthening may also reduce fracture risk by providing additional protection should a fall occur (padding)
How does weight-bearing exercise function as an intervention for skeletal demineralization? ***
- especially effective when coupled with aerobic exercise
- should be used through both the upper and lower extremities (e.g., quadruped)
- should begin early in life, during the normal growth period
Which type(s) of spinal exercise have the best results in lowering the incidence of new fractures in patients with spinal osteoporosis? ***
spinal extension

(incidence of new fractures was only 16%)
Which type(s) of spinal exercise have the worst results in lowering the incidence of new fractures in patients with spinal osteoporosis? ***
spinal flexion

(incidence of new fractures was 89%--even more than no exercise at all, which was 67%; combining flexion and extension produced an incidence of 53%)
How did progressive resisted back extension affect the risk of vertebral fractures, and for how long? ***
lowered the risk of vertebral fractures for up to 8 years after termination of the exercise program
In what position should patients with skeletal demineralization be encouraged to hold their spines? ***
in a neutral position; keeping a neutral spine
What should be encouraged/avoided when educating patients with skeletal demineralization on body mechanics? ***
- exercises that put patients into flexed postures should be modified or avoided

- maintaining good posture in sitting and standing requires constant self-monitoring (pictures help--photograph the patient and show them their own posture; many do not realize how poor their posture actually is)

- patients should be taught to maintain excellent body mechanics and posture while performing daily activities (e.g., brushing teeth with knees flexed instead of bending over at the sink)
What types of medications are most commonly prescribed for people with skeletal demineralization? ***
- most medications prescribed for people with skeletal demineralization are antiresorptive agents [bisphosphonates, selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs), calcitonin, and more recently parathyroid hormone]

- although estrogen does decrease bone loss, because of its associated risk its use is generally not recommended
What is likely the most important modifiable factor for preventing osteoporosis? ***
sufficient calcium and vitamin D intake
What are some conservative intervention measures taken for osteoporotic spinal fractures? ***
- bed rest and narcotic analgesics are generally recommended for pain control

- because of adverse effects, though, bracing is used to decrease pain while patient stays mobile (however, patient compliance with a bulky, uncomfortable brace is often an issue)
What are some invasive intervention measures taken for osteoporotic spinal fractures? ***
- vertebroplasty is injection of bone cement into the area

- kyphoplasty involves inflating a collapsed area of bone and elevating the endplates, then injecting bone cement
In which of the following would you expect to find shortness or tightness in a patient with long-standing osteoporosis?

a. gluteals
b. hip flexors
c. scapular retractors
d. pectorals
e. a and c
f. b and d
f. b and d
Thoracic kyphosis is best measured with which of the following?

a. inclinometer
b. goniometer
c. dynamometer
d. flexicurve
d. flexicurve
Which of the following exercise regimes is least effective for preventing excessive bone loss?

a. resistance training
b. stair climbing
c. swimming
d. soccer
c. swimming
Which of the following is probably the most influential risk factor for osteoporosis?

a. race
b. genetics
c. body build
d. diet
b. genetics
Without sufficient vitamin D, calcium would be excreted rather than resorbed by the kidneys. What other critical role does vitamin D play in the prevention of osteoporosis?

a. it causes calcium to be released from the intestine and enter the bloodstream
b. it causes an excretion of calcium from the teeth into the bone
c. it increases the action of melanocytes
d. it decreases the anabolic effects of glucocorticoids
a. it causes calcium to be released from the intestine and enter the bloodstream
Which impairment should cause the greatest concern for the patient with osteoporosis?

a. decreased scapular strength
b. increased deformity
c. decreased balance
d. decreased endurance
c. decreased balance
Which of the following would NOT be part of an immediate plan to manage a patient with an acute vertebral compression fracture?

a. postural training
b. log rolling in bed
c. resistive exercise
d. TENS
c. resistive exercise
What is posture? ***
- the relative alignment of body parts
- includes the relationship of the body parts to each other and to the body’s base of support.

- start at BOS
- posture may be assessed statically or dynamically
In what states may posture be assessed? ***
- statically
- dynamically
What is static posture? ***
- body at rest

- posture seen in standing, sitting, lying, task performing position
What is dynamic posture? ***
- body in motion

- posture during activities such as walking, running, moving from one position to another, etc.
What is "ideal posture"? ***
- ideal body part alignment, also known as "good posture," "ideal posture," "ideal alignment," or "neutral posture," is the position in which:
- the center of mass is centered over the base of support.
- this is a position of muscular and skeletal balance.

- there is no universally agreed-upon "ideal posture"
(in fact, there is little research supporting a relationship between musculoskeletal pain and postural alignment)
Ideal posture is a position of muscular and skeletal _____. ***
balance
Ideal posture requires ______ energy expenditure to maintain balanced alignment. ***
minimal

(it requires minimal, but not the least possible energy expenditure--that would be a slumped posture in which ligaments, rather than muscles stabilize weight-bearing joints)
Ideal posture should permit efficient mechanical joint action and limit...
wear and tear on the joints
What anatomical features should be aligned when observing "ideal posture" from a lateral view? ***
- earlobe/external auditory meatus
- bodies of cervical vertebrae
- shoulder joint/acromion midline
- midline of trunk
- bodies of lumbar vertebrae
- greater trochanter
- slightly anterior to midline of knee
- slightly anterior to lateral malleolus
What is postural sway? ***
even when one appears to be completely still, one will actually constantly sway:
- forward and back (up to 16 degrees) and
- side to side (up to 12 degrees)

- this may vary with body morphology and gender
- it has been hypothesized that it may act as a pump to aid venous return
How far (in degrees) forward and back, and side to side, is normal postural sway? ***
- up to 16 degrees forward and back (8 each way I take it?)

- up to 12 degrees side to side (6 each way?)
What are the three basic sitting postures (chair)? ***
- anterior/forward sitting
- middle/erect sitting
- posterior sitting
Describe anterior (or forward) sitting. ***
when either the anterior rotation of the pelvis or increased kyphosis of the spine result in more than 25% of the body’s weight being transmitted through the feet to the floor, and the COG is anterior to the ischial tuberosities
What are some other types of sitting that are recommended for persons who are more comfortable sitting with a lordosis? ***
besides anterior/forward sitting

- kneeling on a Balans chair
- perching/active sitting
Describe middle/erect sitting. ***
- sitting with the COG directly over the ischial tuberosities with approximately 25% of the body's weight transmitted through the feet to the floor.

- intradiscal pressure at middle sitting is less than anterior sitting but more than posterior sitting.
Which sitting posture creates the least amount of intradiscal pressure? The most? ***
- posterior sitting

- anterior sitting
Describe posterior sitting. ***
- COG is behind the ischial tuberosities (posterior pelvic tilt) and less than 25% of the body’s weight is transmitted through the feet to the floor

- seated position with the least amount of intradiscal pressure when supported

- this pressure is always higher in sitting rather than in standing postures
Is intradiscal pressure greater when sitting or standing? ***
sitting, regardless of position

(even the position that creates the least amount of intradiscal pressure--posterior sitting--creates more pressure than standing)
How does Cameron suggest reducing intradiscal pressure and low back pain when sitting? ***
providing support for lumbar spine when sitting to promote greater lordosis
How many anatomical positions are there? ***
- there is only one standard anatomical position

- it is the specific alignment of the body used as the position of reference for describing the anatomical planes and axes
Describe the position of body parts in optimal erect posture (anterior/posterior views.) ***
- eyes --- horizontally level
- shoulders --- horizontally level
- scapulae --- flat against the thorax, 30º anterior to the frontal plane, approximately 6” apart

- elbows --- neutral or slight carrying angle for males, females slight to moderate
- pelvis --- ASIS & PSIS horizontally level
- hips --- neutral rotation, abduction & adduction

- knees --- patellae face directly forward; popliteal crease faces directly forward; Q angle approximately 13º in males & 18º in females
- feet --- neither pronated nor supinated; toes relaxed without varus or valgus; calcaneus in mild valgus
Describe the position of body parts in optimal erect posture (lateral view.) ***
- cervical spine --- slight lordosis; supports head with minimal effort without upward, downward, or sideways tilt, rotation, or retraction
- humerus --- less than one third of humeral head anterior to anterior aspect of the acromion

- thoracic --- kyphosis 34º
- lumbar --- lordosis 64º

- pelvis --- ASIS on same vertical plane as pubic symphysis
- knee --- neutral, neither flexed nor hyperextended
List some modifiable causes of poor posture. ***
- changes in muscle length
- changes in muscle strength
- alterations in joint ROM
- muscle spasm
- protective positioning due to pain or habit
What are some possible causes of muscle strength and/or length impairments? ***
- lack of variety in movements and positions

- frequent performance of repetitive activities
List some nonmodifiable causes of poor posture. ***
- structural variations
- damage to basic components that maintain posture (bones, joints, muscles, nervous system)
What are some structural variations that could constitute nonmodifiable causes of impaired posture. ***
- leg length discrepancy
- fixed spinal scoliosis
- excessive femoral anteversion
What are some causes of damage to basic components that maintain posture that could constitute nonmodifiable causes of impaired posture? ***
- injury (e.g., vertebral compression fractures)
- disease (e.g., RA or OA)
- CNS disorders (e.g., TBI, CVA, cerebral palsy) which may impair posture by altering muscle tone, strength, control and/or sensation
What are the two broad categories of scoliosis? ***
- structural (idiopathic) scoliosis

- non-structural (functional), postural scoliosis
Describe structural (idiopathic) scoliosis. ***
irreversible lateral curve with fixed rotation of the vertebrae.
- vertebral bodies rotate toward convex side and spinous processes rotate away
- forward bending produces posterior rib hump on convex side
- can not be corrected by positioning or voluntary effort
Describe non-structural (functional) postural scoliosis. ***
reversible – can be changed with:
- forward/ side bending positional changes or correction of leg length discrepancy
- no rotational changes
- can be caused by unilateral paravertebral muscle spasm
What type of pelvic tilt is produced by a short/stiff rectus femoris? ***
anterior pelvic tilt
What type of pelvic tilt is produced by a short rectus abdominis? ***
posterior pelvic tilt
What postural abnormalities may be caused by a lengthened serratus anterior and why? ***
may allow adduction and/or downward tilt of the scapula because of the unopposed pull of the shorter rhomboids
What effect can the dominant hand have on posture? ***
on the side of the dominant hand, the shoulder tends to appear depressed, and the hip elevated
What is the difference between kyphosis-lordosis posture and swayback posture? ***
they both present with excessive kyphosis in the thoracic vertebrae, but the swayback posture has less lordosis in the lumbar vertebrae and the pelvis is tilted posteriorly; the kyphosis-lordosis posture has increased lumbar lordosis and an anterior pelvic tilt
What is kyphosis-lordosis posture? ***
- increased lumbar lordosis & thoracic kyphosis
- anterior pelvic tilt &
- forward head

may include:
- abducted scapulae
- forward shoulders &
- either knee flexion or hyperextension (genu recurvatum)
What is flatback posture? ***
- reduced lumbar lordosis
- posterior pelvic tilt &
- hip & knee hyperextension

common to find
- reduced kyphosis
- cervical lordodis &
- gluteal prominence
What is swayback posture? ***
- reduced lumbar lordosis &
- posterior pelvic tilt, but
- hips are anterior to the humeral heads and lateral malleoli

common to find
- genu recurvatum
- increased thoracic kyphosis &
- abducted scapulae.
What misalignment is common to all three postural faults (kyphosis-lordosis, flatback, and swayback)? ***
forward head
What types of interventions are used for postural correction? ***
- postural education, instruction and training
- stretching and mobilization
- stabilization
- exercise/strengthening
What types of stretching and mobilization techniques are used for postural correction? ***
if due to decreased ROM because of spasm, mm tension, scar tissue, or contracture, a combination of treatments may include:
- massage
- myofascial release
- specific stretching exercises &
- exercises to activate (contract or shorten) the mm’s opposing the restricted tissue
- PNF techniques (contract-relax, hold-relax)

- low-load stretch in a splint or cast can be helpful. (e.g., serial casting, Dynasplints)
- modalities that increase tissue temperature can be helpful before stretching.
- cryotherapy can be used before lengthening tissues that have pain, mm spasm, or inflammation, and after stretching to assist in limiting response (pain, spasm, inflammation)
- electrical stimulation may be used
- joint mobilizations may be helpful
What types of stabilization are used for postural correction? ***
if joint laxity, instability, or mm weakness then
- strengthening of surrounding muscles
- stabilization with splinting and
- education regarding proper positioning and avoidance of vulnerable positions

- it is important to know which mm require strengthening & which do not
- strengthen weak muscles, while avoiding further strengthening of mm that are stronger than other mm in the same region
(e.g., if patient has stooped, rounded shoulders from hunching over a desk/keyboard, the pectoral muscles are likely to be tight, while the rhomboids are overstretched and weak; you would not want to further strengthen the tight pectorals or stretch the already stretched rhomboids--in fact, you would do just the opposite--stretch the pectorals and strengthen the rhomboids)
How is exercise/strengthening used for postural correction? ***
- the weak, overstretched muscles need to be strengthened (as the tight ones need to be stretched)

Examples:
- increasing back extensor strength with back strengthening exercises was found to reduce excessive kyphosis in otherwise healthy women aged 49 to 65 years

- exercises that activate the thoracic and lumbar erector spinae & multifidi are not recommended for individuals with intervertebral disc compression injuries because they may exert excessive compressive forces on the spinal discs
Base of support is which of the following?

a. the type of surface one is standing on
b. the area, projected on the ground, of the broadest/widest part of the body
c. the area of the body in contact with the supporting surface
d. the feet
c. the area of the body in contact with the supporting surface
Static posture may be assessed during which activity?

a. sitting
b. walking
c. pushing
d. moving from sit to stand
a. sitting
Postural control and postural orientation are needed most for which of the following activities?

a. jumping
b. sliding into first base
c. moving from sit to stand
d. running
c. moving from sit to stand
Postural sway tends to increase with all of the following EXCEPT:

a. intention
b. alcohol consumption
c. lower back pain
d. fatigue
a. intention
The zero position for measuring joint ROM for most joints is based on which of the following?

a. ideal alignment
b. anatomical position
c. American Academy of Orthopedics standards
d. the sagittal plane
b. anatomical position
Sitting with a thigh-torso angle greater than 90 degrees is thought to do which of the following?

a. reduce the lumbar lordosis.
b. increase the likelihood of tilting the pelvis posteriorly.
c. be a bad idea for seated work at a computer.
d. produce a lumbar lordosis similar to that in standing.
d. produce a lumbar lordosis similar to that in standing.
Stability is increased by all of the following EXCEPT:

a. widening the base of support
b. lowering the center of mass
c. lowering the center of gravity
d. narrowing the base of support
d. narrowing the base of support
Carrying a backpack is likely to cause the body to compensate by which of the following?

a. pulling the shoulders back
b. extending the thoracic spine
c. flexing the hips
d. extending the lumbar spine
c. flexing the hips
Which of the following characterizes swayback posture?

a. anterior pelvic tilt and increased lumbar lordosis
b. posterior pelvic tilt and increased lumbar lordosis
c. anterior pelvic tilt and decreased lumbar lordosis
d. posterior pelvic tilt and decreased lumbar lordosis
d. posterior pelvic tilt and decreased lumbar lordosis
During postural assessment, all of the following should be in vertical alignment EXCEPT:

a. external auditory meatus and greater trochanter of the hip
b. external auditory meatus and acromion
c. occiput and sacrum
d. ASIS and greater trochanter of the hip
d. ASIS and greater trochanter of the hip
Rehabilitation generally addresses the ______ of pathology, rather than the ______ _____.
- sequelae

- pathology itself
Rehabilitation is not directed at ______ ______.
curing disease
Rehabilitation focuses particularly on sequelae that impact physical functioning and activity and uses interventions that are _____ and ______ in nature to promote progress toward functional goals.
- noninvasive

- physical
Physical rehabilitation focuses on ...
improving impairments and functional limitations, not on curing disease
What body systems are the (most common) focus of physical rehabilitation?
- neuromuscular
- musculoskeletal
- cardiopulmonary
- integumentary
How are outcomes in physical therapy typically measured? Where should the focus actually be? Why?
- outcomes are commonly measured in terms of impairments (e.g., Did we increase the ROM in the elbow?)

- focus should be on changes in functional limitations and disabilities, based on patient's own goals. We are not fixing an elbow, we are helping them live their lives in the manner in which they choose
What is the ICIDH?
- the International Classification of Impariments, Disabilities, and Handicaps

- the first classification scheme published by the WHO in 1980

- based on the work of Wood
What is the ICF?
- International Classification of Functioning, Disability, and Health-2

- the revised classification scheme published by the WHO in 2001
How has the focus of disablement models changed over the years?
they are increasingly focusing on abilities instead of restrictions and limitations
Upon which disablement model is the Guide to Physical Therapist Practice based?
the Nagi disablement model
At what body system level does pathology typically occur?
cellular level
At what body system level does impairment typically occur?
organ or organ system level
An impairment is equivalent to a ____ or an objective measure.
sign
Do impairments always cause functional limitations?
not necessarily, at least at first

(e.g., a patient who has reduced vital capacity, but never places enough of a demand on the respiratory system to experience functional limitation.)
How do the primary focuses of medical treatment and rehabilitation differ?
- medical treatment generally focuses on the underlying pathology or disease

- rehabilitation focuses primarily on reversing or minimizing associated impairments, functional limitations, and disabilities
When setting rehabilitation goals, where should the focus be?
not only on the impairment, but also at the level of functional limitation and disability as they relate to the patient's goals
How is "examination" defined by the Guide?
a comprehensive screening and specific testing process leading to diagnostic classification or, as appropriate, to a referral to another practitioner
What are the three components of examination?
- patient history
- systems review
- tests and measures
What types of information are included in the patient history?
- why patient is seeking care
- past and current functional status and activity level

may also include:
- patient's general demographics
- social history
- employment or work
- growth and development
- living environment
- general health status
- social and health habits
- family history
- medical and surgical history
- medications
- results of previously performed clinical tests
How is patient history gathered?
- interviewing the patient, caretakers or family members
- review of medical records
What is a systems review?
- the first "hands-on" component of the examination

- involves a brief or limited examination of the status of the cardiopulmonary, integumentary, musculoskeletal, and neuromuscular systems and the communication ability, affect, cognition, language, and learning style of the patient

- used to identify information not presented in the patient history and to identify if other health problems should be considered in the diagnosis, prognosis and plan of care, or indicate the need for referral to another health provider
What is the purpose of the patient history?
the history, and particularly the pattern of symptoms will give the clinician an idea of the nature of the patient's problem and indicate the most efficient course for the rest of the examination
What is the purpose of the systems review?
it is used to target areas requiring further examination and define areas that may cause complications or indicate a need for precautions during the tests and measures and intervention processes
The patient history and systems review are used to generate _____ ______.
diagnostic hypotheses
Once the patient history and systems review are used to generate diagnostic hypotheses, what is the next step?
tests and measures
How are the specific tests and/or measures chosen?
once the patient history and systems review provide diagnostic hypotheses, tests and measures of the musculoskeletal, neuromuscular, cardiopulmonary, and integumentary systems, as well as tests of patient function are then selected to rule in or rule out causes of impairment and functional limitations
How are the results of tests and measures used?
to establish
- diagnosis
- prognosis
- and plan of care
What is an evaluation?
a clinical judgment based on the data gathered during the examination
What is involved in the evaluation process?
it involves synthesizing the findings from all the components of the examination to establish the patient's diagnosis and prognosis
According to the Guide, PTs use diagnostic labels that....
identify the impact of a condition on function at the level of the system (especially the movement system) and at the level of the whole person
How do PTs assign a diagnostic label?
by classifying patients/clients within a specified preferred practice pattern
What are preferred practice patterns?
the diagnostic labels used by PTs to identify the impact of a condition on function at the level of the system (especially the movement system) and at the level of the whole person
What is a prognosis?
- the determination of the predicted optimal level of improvement in function and the amount of time needed to reach that level

- it may also include a prediction of the improvement that may be reached at various intervals during the course of therapy (STGs)
Besides predicted optimal level of improvement in function and the amount of time to reach that level, what else should be included in the prognosis?
plan of care that outlines specific interventions to be used and proposed duration and frequency of the interventions that are required to reach the anticipated goals and expected outcomes
What are interventions?
the purposeful interaction of the physical therapist with the patient using various physical therapy procedures and techniques to produce changes in the condition that are consistent with the diagnosis and prognosis
What may be included in interventions?
- coordination
- communication
- documentation
- patient/client-related instruction
- procedural interventions such as therapeutic exercise and physical agents
Diagnosis
- a process and a label

- the diagnostic process includes integrating and evaluating the data obtained during the examination to describe the patient condition in terms that will guide the prognosis, the plan of care, and intervention strategies

- as a label, it denotes the disease or syndrome a person has or is believed to have and the use of scientific or clinical methods to establish the cause and nature of a person's illness
What are the categories of required roles used in the Guide?
- self-care
- home management
- work (job/school/play)
- community/leisure
Disease
a pathological condition or abnormal entity with a characteristic group of signs and symptoms affecting the body and with known or unknown etiology; a condition marked by subjective complaints, a specific history, and clinical signs, symptoms, and laboratory or radiological findings
Disorder
derangement or abnormality of function (anatomical or physiological); pathology
Dysfunction
disturbance, impairment, or abnormality of function of an organ
Function
those activities identified by an individual as essential to support physical, social, and psychological well-being and create a personal sense of meaningful living
Goals
- the intended results of patient management; goals indicate changes in impairment, functional limitation, and disability and changes in health, wellness, and fitness needs that are expected as a result of implementing the plan of care

- should be measurable and time-limited (if required may be expressed as short-term and long-term)
Rehabilitation
- a set of actions designed to restore, following disease or injury, the ability to function in a normal or near-normal manner

- a goal-oriented treatment process that is intended to maximize independence in individuals with compromised function due to primary pathological processes and resultant impairments
Screening
determining the need for further examination or consultation
Signs
objective evidence of physical abnormality
Symptoms
subjective evidence of physical abnormality
Treatment
the sum of all interventions provided by a clinician during an episode of care
When bone loss exceeds bone formation, the resultant net loss of bone mass causes skeletal fragility due to:
- trabecular thinning and discontinuity
- loss of horizontal bridges
- trabecular microfractures
What minerals are stored in the bones?
- calcium and
- phosphorus
primarily
Approximately ___% of the mass of he skeleton is cortical bone.
80
bone remodels in response to....
the demands placed upon it
Describe involutional bone loss.
- age-related bone loss that occurs in both cortical and trabecular bone

- it's a long, slow, continuous process that occurs in both men and women beginning at around age 35-40

- accelerates in women after menopause
List some causes of secondary osteoporosis.
- glucocorticoid use associated with RA and asthma (inhibits osteoblast function)
- hyperthyroidism
- hyperprolactinemia
- hyperparathyroidism
- malignancies
- renal failure
- diabetes mellitus
- Down syndrome
- drug use (alcohol, marijuana, heparin)
List some dietary causes of osteoporosis.
- poor availability of food
- eating disorders
- malabsorption syndromes

all can result in poor calcium uptake and osteoporosis due to loss of calcium from bones
Besides primary, secondary, and dietary causes of osteoporosis, what else may reduce BMD?
immobilization
How well does bone mineral content and total body calcium respond to reambulation after prolonged immobilization?
bone mineral content and total body calcium increase at a similar rate to their loss with reambulation
Recommended calcium intake
- for all men under age 65 and premenopausal women or postmenopausal women on HRT - 1,000 mg per day

- for postmenopausal women not on HRT, men over 65 and people with osteopenia/osteoporosis - 1,500 mg per day

- up to 2,000 mg per day appears safe, although higher intake is associated with increased risk of kidney stones
Recommended vitamin D intake
- children - 200 IU per day
- age 51-70 - 400 IU per day (assume all adults, 18 to 51 as well)
- healthy adults over 70 - 600 IU per day

(although the NIH recommends 400 IU for the first year, 600 IU from age 1 to age 70, and 800 IU over age 70)
How is spinal curvature measured?
-Debrunner's kyphometer or

- surveyor's flexicurve
What is the most common manifestation of osteoporosis?
vertebral compression fractures
What are the symptoms of vertebral compression fractures?
- 2/3 are asymptomatic
- often do not cause pain
- most will cause height loss
What can DXA/DEXA measure?
- hip bone density
- spine bone density
- total body bone density
How are DXA/DEXA scans scored?
- T-score - number of standard deviations the subject's score is away from that of a normal young female

- Z-score - number of standard deviations the subject's score is away from an age-, weight-, ethnicity-, and gender-matched patient
Rehabilitation intervention for patients with skeletal demineralization is intended to:
- increase bone mass
- slow bone loss and/or
- reduce fracture risk
Where should site-specific strengthening exercises be focused in patients with skeletal demineralization?
in muscles supporting
- trunk
- hips
- upper extremities

because these areas are at greatest risk for fracture
Is swimming recommended for patients trying to increase BMD?
- swimming's effects on BMD are controversial, but whether or not BMD is increased, water offers a relatively safe environment for exercise for those at risk of fracture

- the patient can therefore achieve the other benefits of exercise safely
Where are the effects of weight-bearing exercise for patients with or at risk of skeletal demineralization primarily noted?
primarily, the effects of weight bearing exercise are noted in the spine, with some effect noted at hip and forearm BMD as well
When should weight-bearing impact exercise be used?
it should begin early in life during the normal growth period, because it can increase peak bone strength and mass by as much as 30%
Although exercise later in life has only a small impact on BMD, being physically active can affect bones by:
reducing the incidence of hip fracture by up to 50% in those over 65, likely due to improved balance and strength and therefore reduced incidence of falls
What is the best treatment for skeletal demineralization?
prevention (duh!) through appropriate physical activity and diet during early childhood to maximize bone accretion during growth
List some preventative measures for skeletal demineralization.
- weight-bearing activity (any activity that requires upright mobility against gravity)
- resistive exercise regimes (should be site-specific, progressive, and exceed normal daily loading)
Alendronate
Fosamax - a bisphosphonate delivered by tablet
Bisphosphonate
group of antiresorptive compounds used for the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women and in men, as well as those patients with Paget's disease or steroid-induced osteoporosis
Bone mineral density (BMD)
amount of bone mass present; typically measured in the lumbar spine and hip
Calcitonin
hormone (usually salmon) used for treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis and pain from vertebral compression fracture; Miacalcin is delivered by nasal spray
Debrunner's kyphometer
metal device, similar to an inclinometer, used to measure kyphosis
Flexicurve
a 48-cm strip of lead covered with synthetic rubber used to map the kypholordotic curve
Glucocorticoid
medication used to decrease inflammation in chronic conditions such as RA, and as an antirejection drug after organ transplant
Osteopenia
bone mass between 1.0 and 2.5 standard deviations below the mean for young normals
Osteoporosis
bone loss greater than 2.5 standard deviations below the mean for young normals; decreased bone mass with disruption of normal architecture resulting in increased fragility and increased risk of fracture
Risedronate
Actonel - a bisphosphoneate
Selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)
compounds that act like estrogen on bone without affecting breast or uterine tissue
Stadiometer
measurement device to examine height; can be mounted on the wall or be free-standing
What is impaired posture?
any postural abnormality that affects function
What is the base of support?
the area of the body in contact with the supporting surface
(in typical standing, the BOS is the area around the outer edges of the feet)
What controls posture?
the CNS, which integrates sensory information from the visual, proprioceptive and vestibular systems to direct the muscles to achieve balance
What is postural control?
control of the body for stability and orientation to the environment regardless of position or posture
What is postural orientation?
the ability to maintain the appropriate relationship between body parts and between the body and the environment during the performance of a task
What are the advantages and disadvantages of erect, bipedal stance?
- advantage - UEs free for fine and gross motor tasks

- disadvantages - small BOS, high COG, high pressures on the vertebral column, pelvis, and LEs
What is center of gravity?
a point about which gravity and the weight of a body act on one another to maintain equilibrium
Ideal posture is thought to minimize...
the risk of injury or progressive deformity to supporting structures in all functional positions
Ideal posture requires minimal energy expenditure to maintain alignment. What posture requires the least amount of energy expenditure?
a slumped posture in which ligaments, rather than muscles stabilize weight-bearing joints
What other conditions must be normal to support ideal posture?
- muscle tone
- flexibility
- neuromuscular control
- reflexes
What increases standing postural sway? What decreases it?
increases
- fatigue
- low back pain
- advanced age
- stroke
- osteoporosis
- alcohol consumption

decreases
- intention
- lightly touching stable object
- visual cues
Which postural sway is greater--when standing or when sitting unsupported?
sitting unsupported
How should eyes appear in ideal standing posture from an anterior view?
horizontally level
How should shoulders appear in ideal standing posture from an anterior or posterior view?
- horizontally level
- superior angle slightly below horizontal axis through T1
How should scapulae appear in ideal standing posture from a posterior view?
- flat against thorax
- 30 degrees anterior to the frontal plane
- approximately 6 inches apart (each approximately 3 inches from midline)
- medial border parallel to spine
How should elbows appear in ideal standing posture from an anterior or posterior view?
- neutral or slight carrying angle for males

- slight to moderate carrying angle for females
What is the carrying angle?
a valgus angle of the elbow that may be seen clearly when the arm is positioned with the shoulder in neutral flexion/extension and full external rotation with the elbow extended
How should wrists appear in ideal standing posture from an anterior or posterior view?
neutral, in neither flexion nor extension
How should hands appear in ideal standing posture from an anterior or posterior view?
face medially, toward the body
How should the ribs and sternum appear in ideal standing posture from an anterior view?
- ribs and the lateral contours of the rib cage symmetrical

- infrasternal angle is 90 degrees
How should the pelvis appear in ideal standing posture from an anterior or posterior view?
ASISs and PSISs horizontally level
How should the hips appear in ideal standing posture from an anterior or posterior view?
- neutral rotation
- neutral abduction
- neutral adduction
How should the knees appear in ideal standing posture from an anterior or posterior view?
- patellae face directly forward
- popliteal creases face directly directly forward
- Q-angle approximately 13 degrees in males, 18 degrees in females
What is the Q-angle?
the angle formed from the intersection of a line drawn from the ASIS through the center of the patella and a line drawn from the center of the tibial tubercle through the center of the patella
How should the feet appear in ideal standing posture from an anterior or posterior view?
- neither pronated nor supinated
- toes relaxed and without varus or valgus
- calcaneus in mild valgus
How should the spine appear in ideal standing posture from a posterior view?
vertically straight with the occiput directly over the sacrum
How should the cervical spine appear in ideal standing posture from a lateral view?
- slight lordosis
- supporting head with minimal muscular effort
- without upward, downward, or sideways tilt, rotation, or retraction
What is lordosis?
an anterior spinal curve or a curve that has an anterior convexity
What is retraction?
posterior movement of the clavicle, scapula, head, etc.
What is kyphosis?
a posterior spinal curve or a spinal curve with a posterior convexity
How should the humerus appear in ideal standing posture from a lateral view?
- less than 1/3 of humeral head anterior to anterior aspect of the acromion

- proximal and distal ends in the same (frontal) plane
How should the elbow appear in ideal standing posture from a lateral view?
- extension or slight flexion
- antecubital fossae face anteromedially
- olecranon faces posteriorly
How should the thoracic spine appear in ideal standing posture from a lateral view?
kyphosis of 34 degrees for adults and 38 degrees for adolescents (averages based on x-rays)
How should the ribs and sternum appear in ideal standing posture from a lateral view?
- contours of the ribcage symmetrical in the frontal plane

- no rotation of ribcage
How should the lumbar spine appear in ideal standing posture from a lateral view?
lordosis of 64 degrees for adults and adolescents (average based on x-rays)
How should the pelvis appear in ideal standing posture from a lateral view?
ASISs in same vertical plane as pubic symphysis
How should the knees appear in ideal standing posture from a lateral view?
neutral position, neither flexed nor hyperextended
How should the spine appear in ideal standing posture from a lateral view?
bodies of the cervical vertebrae are in vertical alignment with bodies of lumbar vertebrae

(I assume on x-ray?)
What factors can affect ideal sitting posture?
- where a person is sitting
- the person's habits
- the task being performed
Forward sitting
sitting in a posture with the lumbar lordosis diminished or reversed, or an increased kyphosis of the spine
In most sitting postures, the pelvis rotates _______ and the lumbar lordosis ______.
- posteriorly

- reduces
The _____ the thigh-torso angle, the more the lumbar lordosis decreases.
smaller (as in sitting with the knees higher than the hips)
What is the perceived benefit of sitting with a larger thigh-torso angle?
with the knees lower than the hips, the posture more closely approximates standing, and promotes maintenance of lumbar lordosis
What is perching?
sitting with an open thigh-torso angle by
- sitting at the forward edge of the seat,
- sitting on a seat that can tilt forward
- sitting on a tall stool, or
- sitting on a gym ball or specialized chair
What is active sitting?
involves sitting at the front of the chair with the torso leaning forward, placing the COG anterior to the ischial tuberosities with the lower extremity muscles actively supporting the sitting posture
What are the benefits of active sitting?
allows the spine to be in the ideal position found in standing and provides a wide BOS to stabilize the spine when static and during repetitive movement and loading
Scoliosis
a lateral deviation from the normally straight vertical line of the vertebral column
Anteversion
anterior tipping of an organ or part

in the femur, an angle of more than the normal 15-degree anterior angulation of the femoral neck to the long axis of the shaft
What conditions are commonly associated with increased thoracic kyphosis?
- osteoporosis
- aging
- ankylosing spondylitis
What pathology can cause a barrel chest?
COPD
Barrel chest
an increase in the anteroposterior diameter of the ribcage
Flatback
a posture of diminished lordosis of the lumbar spine
Active sitting
sitting with
- the ischial tuberosities at the forward edge of the seat,
- the pelvis and lumbar spine in a neutral position,
- the feet spread apart (either forward and back or side to side) and
- a slight forward lean at the hips
Calcaneal valgus
the calcaneus is angled with the inferior portion lateral to the superior portion; calcaneal eversion
Kyphosis-lordosis
a posture with excessive thoracic kyphosis and excessive lumbar lordosis
Center of mass
a point that is at the center of the total body mass
Line of gravity
a vertical line dropped form the body's COG
Patella alta
the patella is positioned more proximal than normal
Patella baja
the patella is positioned so that the distance between the inferior pole of the patella and the tibial tubercle is less than two-thirds of the length of the patella
Pectus carinatum/gallinatum
excessive prominence of the sternum
Pectus excavatum/recurvatum
excessive depression of the sternum
Retroversion
the tipping backward of an organ or part
Squinting (or convergent) patellae
patellae that appear tilted medially (toward one another)
Swayback
a posture with the pelvis in posterior tilt and the hips swayed forward in relation to the feet resulting in hip joint extension
Valgus
the distal bony segment is aligned laterally in comparison with the proximal segment
Varus
the distal bony segment is aligned medially in comparison with the proximal segment
What are some common variations from ideal alignment at the spine?
- forward head
- excessive kyphosis
- excessive lordosis
- kyphosis-lordosis
- swayback
- flat back
- scoliosis
What are some common variations from ideal alignment at the rib cage and sternum?
- asymmetry of the rib cage in the frontal or sagittal planes
- barrel chest
- pectus excavatum/recuvatum
- pectus carinatum/gallinatum
- increase or decreasein the infrasternal angle from 90 degrees
What are some common variations from ideal alignment at the scapulae?
- elevation
- depression
- upward tilt
- downward tilt
- abduction
- adduction
- winging
- anterior tilt
What are some common variations from ideal alignment at the shoulder?
- forward shoulder
- depressed shoulder
- abduction
- medial rotation
- lateral rotation
- flexion
- extension
- elevated humeral head
- subluxed humeral head
- humeral head more than 50% anterior to the anterior aspect of the acromion
What are some common variations from ideal alignment at the elbow?
- flexion
- hyperextension
- excessive carrying angle
What are some common variations from ideal alignment at the forearm?
- pronation

- supination
What are some common variations from ideal alignment at the wrist?
- flexion
- extension
- ulnar deviation
- radial deviation
What are some common variations from ideal alignment at the hand/fingers?
- ulnar drift
- boutonniere deformity
- swan-neck deformity
What are some common variations from ideal alignment at the hip/femur?
- femoral anteversion (ante-torsion)
- femoral retroversion (retrotorsion)
- coxa vara
- coxa valga
- femoral medial rotation
- femoral lateral rotation
What are some common variations from ideal alignment at the knee?
- flexion
- hyperextension
- Q-angle greater than 13 degrees for men and 18 degrees for women
- patella alta
- patella baja
- "squinting" patellae
What are some common variations from ideal alignment at the tibia?
- tibial medial torsion
- tibial lateral torsion
- tibial varum
What are some common variations from ideal alignment at the feet?
- pes planus
- pes cavus
- calcaneal varum
- excessive calcaneal valgus
What are some common variations from ideal alignment at the toes?
- hallux valgus
- hammer toes
- claw toes
- mallet toes
- overlapping toes
- Morton's toe
- bunions
Ideally, when should the clinician begin observing the patient's posture?
when the patient is unaware that the examination has begun, thus is likely to be in his/her "usual" posture
On observation of posture, what is the clinician looking for (in broad terms)?
- use of assistive device
- guarding
- limitation of movement
- compensatory movements
Posture is evaluated relative to ideal alignment and deviations from ideal are described....
in terms of how the body parts have moved away from that ideal posture to their current position
The point at which the three mid-planes intersect the body is the _____.
COG
The LOG is the vertical line formed by the intersection of...
the midsagittal and midfrontal (midcoronal) planes
Scoliosis always has both sidebending and rotational components because....
lateral flexion and rotation of the spine occur together as coupled movements
In ideal alignment (lateral view), the LOG passes anterior to the joint line at the ankle, and this causes a _____ moment.
dorsiflexion

(the gastrocnemius and soleus must work to prevent forward motion of the tibia when standing in ideal alignment)
In ideal alignment (lateral view), the LOG passes anterior to the joint line at the knee, and this causes an ______ moment.
extension

(the hamstrings must work to prevent hyperextension of the knee)
In ideal alignment (lateral view), the LOG passes slightly posterior to the joint line at the hip, and this causes an ______ moment.
extension

(the quadriceps and other hip flexors must work to prevent posterior rotation of the pelvis)
Opposing pulls of muscles on the ______ and _____ _____ help maintain ideal alignment of the pelvis.
- ASISs
- symphysis pubis

in ideal posture, both are in the same coronal plane
The diagnostic category for impaired posture is preferred practice pattern ___.
4B - impaired posture
What factor can increase postural sway while seated?
if the feet are unsupported
Should the patient choose anterior/forward sitting, middle/erect sitting, or posterior sitting?
- the patient needs to select whichever position is the most comfortable

- patients need to find their own individual neutral spine
According to her handout, which muscles are especially prone to tightness?
- sternocleidomastoid
- scalenes
- pectoralis major
- iliopsoas
- rectus femoris
- tensor fascia latae

- levator scapulae
- upper trapezius
- erector spinae
- quadratus lumborum

- piriformis
- hamstrings
- gastroc-soleus
According to her handout, which muscles are especially prone to weakness?
- short cervical flexors
- serratus anterior
- rectus abdominis
- vastus medialis and lateralis
- tibialis anterior

- extensors of upper limb (latissimus dorsi, teres major, posterior deltoid, pectoralis major, long head of triceps)
- lower trapezius
- gluteus maximus, medius, minimus
In which direction do the spinous processes deviate in a scoliotic spine?
toward the concave side
In which direction do the vertebral bodies deviate in a scoliotic spine?
toward the convex side