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79 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Schizophrenia definition.
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thought disorder dz characterized by episodes
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5 episodes of schizophrenia.
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1. bizarre and disorganized thoughts
2. distorted perceptions of reality 3. hallucinations (experience) 4. delusions (belief) 5. altered emotions |
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What is the most common type of hallucination?
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hearing voices
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What are the 2 types of delusions?
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1. paranoid - conspiracy theory
2. grandeur - celebrity or famous person |
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Schizo exhibit ___ and ___ affect.
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blunted or flat
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Positive symptoms
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delusions, hallucinations, inappropriate behavior or effect
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Positive symptoms are most improved by what gen of antipsychotic?
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1st gen - D2 antagonist
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Negative symptoms
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loss of emotions, inability to carry on a logical conversation (alogia), loss of sociability and ability to derive pleasure, lack of drive (avolition)
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Which gen of antipsychotic work for negative symptoms?
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2nd gen - 5HT2A >>D2
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Cognitive symptoms
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problems in attention, learning, memory, and executive functions.
disorganized thoughts |
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What are the 4 types of schizophrenia?
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paranoid
disorganized catatonic undifferentiated |
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Age of onset for schizophrenia
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late teens and early 20's
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Most deterioration of schizophrenia occurs in the first ___ years.
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5
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Explain the stages in life from which neurodevelopmental model was hypothesized?
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-unknown in utero or early developmental disturbances
-Early life insult --> altered distribution of neurons -Late adolescence --> defective pruning --> abnormal connectivity -late adol or early adult --> glu hypothesis --> excessive pruning --> genes controlling NMDA receptors |
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When do neurological abnormalities exist in schizophrenia? (neurodevelopmental model)
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before onset of acute psychotic symptoms
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If both parents have schizo, what is the % that the child will have it?
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40%
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What is the % of risk for schizo in the general pop.?
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1%
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Dopamine hypothesis
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dopamine hyperactivity - blockade showed parkinsonism
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Dopamine reuptake blockers (2)
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cocaine and amphetamine
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Dopamine receptor agonists
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apomorphine
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What is the correlation of the dissociation constant in schizo?
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binding to D2 receptors and therapeutic concentration of drug
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Where is the origin of dopamine?
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ventral tegmentum of the brain stem (VTA)
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Mesolimbic have a role in what type of symptoms?
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positive and disorganized behavior
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Mesocortical have a role in what type of symptoms?
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negative: frontal dopaminergic hypofunctionality
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When are positive effects of antipsychotic seen?
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3-8 weeks; adaptive response
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Acute antipsychotic drug effect
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1. dec in postsynap receptor fxn
2. compensatory inc in DA firing due to blockade 3. net effect = no change in DA recep fxn |
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Chronic antipsychotic drug effect
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1. continual post- blockade causes pre- to have depolarization blockade
2. cells become less responsive to other cells 3. net effect = presynap adaptation leads to downregulation of DA synapse |
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Which pathway causes increased prolactin and gynecomastia?
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tuberoinfindibular
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Which pathway causes EPS and Parkinsonian sx?
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nigrostriatal
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What is the serotonin hypothesis?
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5HT2A agonist like LSD induces hallucination
-deficiency in recep results from inc 5HT activity |
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What is the glutamate hypothesis?
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NMDA receptor antagonists like PCP and ketamine can induce psychosis
-defects in glu development can lead to schizo |
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What is the relationship btw glu and da system?
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hypoactivity of glu can lead to hyperactivity of da
-normally, glu inhibits da activity in limbic system |
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Which FGA has the aliphatic side chain?
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chlorpromazine & thioridazine
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Which FGA has the piperazine side chain?
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fluphenazine
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T/F. Chlorpromazine has higher potency.
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False - fluphenazine & thiothixene has higher potency
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Chlorpromazine and fluphenazine are ___ derivatives.
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phenothiazine
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Which has higher sedative properties? Chlorpromazine vs. fluphenazine.
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Chlorpromazine
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Why do you give chlorpromazine (and thioridazine) in high doses?
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high 1st pass metab = low bioavailability
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Thioridazine blocks ___ channels thus leading to what side effects?
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K; arrhythmias, cardiac death, QT prolongation
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Which FGA is dosed lower? Why?
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thiothixene; higher potency
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Phenothiazines w/ piperazine side chains have reduced ___, ___, and ___ side effects.
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sedation, anticholinergic, and hypotensive
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Phenothiazines w/ piperazine side chain drugs
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fluphenazine, trifluperazine, perphenazine
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FGA w/ piperazine side chains are metabolized by which P450?
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2D6
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FGA w/ piperazine side chains can be administered as ____. Why is this important?
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decanoates; t1/2 of 14 days; used in chronic therapy
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Which FGA are butyrophenone derivatives?
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haloperidol & pimozide
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Haloperidol has high potency for ___ and ___ side effects but low ___, ___, and ___ side effects.
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-EPS & prolactin
-sedative, anticholinergic, & hypotensive |
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What is the half life of haloperidol vs. pimozide?
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H: 12-36 hrs
P: 55 hrs |
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In acute antipsychotic effect, the DA neurotransmission is said to be ___.
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blunted
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In chronic antipsychotic effect, the DA neurotransmission is said to be ___.
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decreased
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EPS is a result of reduced ___.
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GABA
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Hypothalamic ___ inhibits release of ___ from pituitary. What are the side effects?
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dopaminergic - hypothalamus
prolactin - pituitary -ammenorrhea & galactorrhea -male infertility & gynecomastia |
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DA excite the ___ ___ area which results in ___.
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Area Postrema; emesis
-D2 recep antag has antiemesis effects |
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4 types of EPS sx.
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1. pseudoparkinsonism
2. dystonia 3. akathesia 4. tardive dyskinesia |
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D2 receptor antag can develop ___ against ___ & ___.
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tolerance; sedation & hypotension
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T/F. Classical antipsychotic have a higher threshold for seizures.
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False - lower (do not combine w/ similar drugs e.g. meperidine)
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Classical antipsychotic are lipophilic agents that have high ___, ___, and ___ (i.e. readily crosses BBB).
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first pass metab, plasma protein binding, uptake and binding in tissues
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Classical antipsychotic elimination is usually by metabolism. What type of reactions?
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hydroxylation & glucuronidation
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Which P450 enzymes are affected by classical antipsychotics?
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3A4, 2D6, 1A2
-smokers eliminate more rapidly |
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Which EPS sx is disabling and often irreversible?
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tardive dyskinesia
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Receptor occupancy % for antipsychotic effects? EPS effects?
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A: 65-70
E: >80 |
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SGA have no ___ or ___ side effects
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EPS (&tardive dyskinesia) or hyperprolactinemia
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Clozapine is effective against which dopamine receptors?
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D2 & D4
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What is a side effect that should be monitored w/ clozapine?
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agranulocytosis
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Which SGA is also useful for bipolar?
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olanzapine
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Olanzapine is similar to clonzapine except it has a lower incidence of what?
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agranulocytosis
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Which SGA has 10x affinity to D2 but no affinity for muscarinic recep?
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Risperidone
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What is the active metabolite of risperidone?
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paliperidone
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What P450 is risperidone metabolized by?
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2D6 (polymorphism!)
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Which SGA has high prolactin side effects unlike the others in its class?
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risperidone
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Which SGA has less weight gain potential?
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quetiapine
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Which SGA has a parenteral formulation available?
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ziprasidone
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Which SGAs have QT prolongation side effect?
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olanzapine, risperidone, ziprasidone, and quetiapine
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What are the main ADRs of olanz, risper, zipra, quetia?
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sedation, inc appetite, wt gain, metabolic syndrome, QT prolongation
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Aripiprazole is a partial agonist for ___ and ___ receptors; full antagonist for ___ receptor. Half life?
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D2, 5HT1A; 5HT2A
-75 hrs |
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In schizo, what part of the brain have normal DA levels?
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striatum & pituitary
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What do D2 partial antag/agonist do in areas of the brain w/ D2 overstimulation vs. those that are normal?
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OS: block overstimulation and stimulate same receptors (partial 40% vs. 100%)
N: block effects of DA and stimulate same receptors (40%) Goal: reduce dopaminergic activity, not shut down |
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Half life of quetiapine, ziprasidone, and aripiprazole?
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Q & Z: 5-10
A: 75-94 hrs |
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Which SGA comes in a SL tablet for schizo & bipolar for adults?
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asenapine (Saphris)
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Which drug has increased risk w/ elderly patients?
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asenapine --> inc risk of death
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