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79 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Schizophrenia definition.
thought disorder dz characterized by episodes
5 episodes of schizophrenia.
1. bizarre and disorganized thoughts
2. distorted perceptions of reality
3. hallucinations (experience)
4. delusions (belief)
5. altered emotions
What is the most common type of hallucination?
hearing voices
What are the 2 types of delusions?
1. paranoid - conspiracy theory
2. grandeur - celebrity or famous person
Schizo exhibit ___ and ___ affect.
blunted or flat
Positive symptoms
delusions, hallucinations, inappropriate behavior or effect
Positive symptoms are most improved by what gen of antipsychotic?
1st gen - D2 antagonist
Negative symptoms
loss of emotions, inability to carry on a logical conversation (alogia), loss of sociability and ability to derive pleasure, lack of drive (avolition)
Which gen of antipsychotic work for negative symptoms?
2nd gen - 5HT2A >>D2
Cognitive symptoms
problems in attention, learning, memory, and executive functions.
disorganized thoughts
What are the 4 types of schizophrenia?
paranoid
disorganized
catatonic
undifferentiated
Age of onset for schizophrenia
late teens and early 20's
Most deterioration of schizophrenia occurs in the first ___ years.
5
Explain the stages in life from which neurodevelopmental model was hypothesized?
-unknown in utero or early developmental disturbances
-Early life insult --> altered distribution of neurons
-Late adolescence --> defective pruning --> abnormal connectivity
-late adol or early adult --> glu hypothesis --> excessive pruning --> genes controlling NMDA receptors
When do neurological abnormalities exist in schizophrenia? (neurodevelopmental model)
before onset of acute psychotic symptoms
If both parents have schizo, what is the % that the child will have it?
40%
What is the % of risk for schizo in the general pop.?
1%
Dopamine hypothesis
dopamine hyperactivity - blockade showed parkinsonism
Dopamine reuptake blockers (2)
cocaine and amphetamine
Dopamine receptor agonists
apomorphine
What is the correlation of the dissociation constant in schizo?
binding to D2 receptors and therapeutic concentration of drug
Where is the origin of dopamine?
ventral tegmentum of the brain stem (VTA)
Mesolimbic have a role in what type of symptoms?
positive and disorganized behavior
Mesocortical have a role in what type of symptoms?
negative: frontal dopaminergic hypofunctionality
When are positive effects of antipsychotic seen?
3-8 weeks; adaptive response
Acute antipsychotic drug effect
1. dec in postsynap receptor fxn
2. compensatory inc in DA firing due to blockade
3. net effect = no change in DA recep fxn
Chronic antipsychotic drug effect
1. continual post- blockade causes pre- to have depolarization blockade
2. cells become less responsive to other cells
3. net effect = presynap adaptation leads to downregulation of DA synapse
Which pathway causes increased prolactin and gynecomastia?
tuberoinfindibular
Which pathway causes EPS and Parkinsonian sx?
nigrostriatal
What is the serotonin hypothesis?
5HT2A agonist like LSD induces hallucination
-deficiency in recep results from inc 5HT activity
What is the glutamate hypothesis?
NMDA receptor antagonists like PCP and ketamine can induce psychosis
-defects in glu development can lead to schizo
What is the relationship btw glu and da system?
hypoactivity of glu can lead to hyperactivity of da

-normally, glu inhibits da activity in limbic system
Which FGA has the aliphatic side chain?
chlorpromazine & thioridazine
Which FGA has the piperazine side chain?
fluphenazine
T/F. Chlorpromazine has higher potency.
False - fluphenazine & thiothixene has higher potency
Chlorpromazine and fluphenazine are ___ derivatives.
phenothiazine
Which has higher sedative properties? Chlorpromazine vs. fluphenazine.
Chlorpromazine
Why do you give chlorpromazine (and thioridazine) in high doses?
high 1st pass metab = low bioavailability
Thioridazine blocks ___ channels thus leading to what side effects?
K; arrhythmias, cardiac death, QT prolongation
Which FGA is dosed lower? Why?
thiothixene; higher potency
Phenothiazines w/ piperazine side chains have reduced ___, ___, and ___ side effects.
sedation, anticholinergic, and hypotensive
Phenothiazines w/ piperazine side chain drugs
fluphenazine, trifluperazine, perphenazine
FGA w/ piperazine side chains are metabolized by which P450?
2D6
FGA w/ piperazine side chains can be administered as ____. Why is this important?
decanoates; t1/2 of 14 days; used in chronic therapy
Which FGA are butyrophenone derivatives?
haloperidol & pimozide
Haloperidol has high potency for ___ and ___ side effects but low ___, ___, and ___ side effects.
-EPS & prolactin
-sedative, anticholinergic, & hypotensive
What is the half life of haloperidol vs. pimozide?
H: 12-36 hrs
P: 55 hrs
In acute antipsychotic effect, the DA neurotransmission is said to be ___.
blunted
In chronic antipsychotic effect, the DA neurotransmission is said to be ___.
decreased
EPS is a result of reduced ___.
GABA
Hypothalamic ___ inhibits release of ___ from pituitary. What are the side effects?
dopaminergic - hypothalamus
prolactin - pituitary
-ammenorrhea & galactorrhea
-male infertility & gynecomastia
DA excite the ___ ___ area which results in ___.
Area Postrema; emesis
-D2 recep antag has antiemesis effects
4 types of EPS sx.
1. pseudoparkinsonism
2. dystonia
3. akathesia
4. tardive dyskinesia
D2 receptor antag can develop ___ against ___ & ___.
tolerance; sedation & hypotension
T/F. Classical antipsychotic have a higher threshold for seizures.
False - lower (do not combine w/ similar drugs e.g. meperidine)
Classical antipsychotic are lipophilic agents that have high ___, ___, and ___ (i.e. readily crosses BBB).
first pass metab, plasma protein binding, uptake and binding in tissues
Classical antipsychotic elimination is usually by metabolism. What type of reactions?
hydroxylation & glucuronidation
Which P450 enzymes are affected by classical antipsychotics?
3A4, 2D6, 1A2

-smokers eliminate more rapidly
Which EPS sx is disabling and often irreversible?
tardive dyskinesia
Receptor occupancy % for antipsychotic effects? EPS effects?
A: 65-70
E: >80
SGA have no ___ or ___ side effects
EPS (&tardive dyskinesia) or hyperprolactinemia
Clozapine is effective against which dopamine receptors?
D2 & D4
What is a side effect that should be monitored w/ clozapine?
agranulocytosis
Which SGA is also useful for bipolar?
olanzapine
Olanzapine is similar to clonzapine except it has a lower incidence of what?
agranulocytosis
Which SGA has 10x affinity to D2 but no affinity for muscarinic recep?
Risperidone
What is the active metabolite of risperidone?
paliperidone
What P450 is risperidone metabolized by?
2D6 (polymorphism!)
Which SGA has high prolactin side effects unlike the others in its class?
risperidone
Which SGA has less weight gain potential?
quetiapine
Which SGA has a parenteral formulation available?
ziprasidone
Which SGAs have QT prolongation side effect?
olanzapine, risperidone, ziprasidone, and quetiapine
What are the main ADRs of olanz, risper, zipra, quetia?
sedation, inc appetite, wt gain, metabolic syndrome, QT prolongation
Aripiprazole is a partial agonist for ___ and ___ receptors; full antagonist for ___ receptor. Half life?
D2, 5HT1A; 5HT2A
-75 hrs
In schizo, what part of the brain have normal DA levels?
striatum & pituitary
What do D2 partial antag/agonist do in areas of the brain w/ D2 overstimulation vs. those that are normal?
OS: block overstimulation and stimulate same receptors (partial 40% vs. 100%)
N: block effects of DA and stimulate same receptors (40%)

Goal: reduce dopaminergic activity, not shut down
Half life of quetiapine, ziprasidone, and aripiprazole?
Q & Z: 5-10
A: 75-94 hrs
Which SGA comes in a SL tablet for schizo & bipolar for adults?
asenapine (Saphris)
Which drug has increased risk w/ elderly patients?
asenapine --> inc risk of death