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478 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Defense Mechanism: "I don't want to think about it"
suppression
Defense Mechanism: "I want my mommy"
regression
Defense Mechanism: "I can't have cancer, not me"
denial
Defense Mechanism: "My boss is a jerk, but I can't yell at him so I'll take it out on my wife"
displacement
Defense Mechanism: "I hate you, but I act like I love you because haters are bad people"
reaction formation
Defense mechanism: a hypersexual person becomes a priest
sublimation
Defense mechanism: I impose what I believe on you
introjection
Defense mechanism: "I'm lousy at sports, but great at math"
compensation
Defense mechanism: man hits wife then brings her flowers the next day
undoing
Defense mechanism: "I want to be just like my favorite singer:
identification
Defense mechanism: Woman describes her mania in terms of chemical imbalance
intellectualization
Defense mechanism: "The devil made me do it"
projection
Defense mechanism: "I only drink 2 beers every day, I am not an alcoholic"
minimization
Defense mechanism: " I stole the money from a rich man who has plenty more"
rationalization
Defense mechanism: painful memories deep in unconscious
suppression
trust v mistrust
Erikson's Psychosocial Stage of 0-1 years old
industry v inferiority
Erikson's 6-12 yo
initiative v guilt
Erikson's 3-5 yo
intimacy v isolation
Erikson's young adulthood
autonomy v shame and doubt
Erikson's 1-3 years old
generativity v stagnation
Erikson's middle age
virtue is caring
identity v role confusion
Erikson's 12-18 yo
virtue is fidelity
ego integrity v despair
Erikson's old age
virtue is wisdom
what is the zone of interest in Freud's oral stage
mouth
what may result from poor resolution of the oral stage
over-eater, smoker, substance abuser
what is the zone of interest in Freud's phallic stage
genitals, 3-5 years old
when does Freud's latency period occur?
6- 12 years old
What occurs in the Oedipal/Elektra stages according to Freud
Boys attracted to women like mom and girls attracted to men like dad; resolution achieved when child can relate to parent of same sex
what may result from poor resolution of Freud's anal stage
obsessive, rigid behaviors, problems with authority figures
what is the function of the ego
to mediate between id and superego; functions on reality principle as the "traffic cop"
at what age is the id present
at birth
what 2 elements are present in the superego
conscience and ego ideal (motivates to perform @ higher levels)
If a patient feels negatively about a therapist and compares him 'to his older, bossy brother', the patient may be experiencing__________
transference
If a nurse finds herself becoming overly protective of a client who reminds her of her younger sister, the nurse may be experiencing________
countertransference
when a client disrupts the progression of therapy and refuses to reveal info about his past he is using____
resistance
when a child transfers breastfeeding ability to sucking from a bottle, according to Piaget, this is _____________
assimilation
when schematas need to be altered to fit into a new skill, such as sucking from a bottle to drinking from a cup this is________________
accomodation
the natural process by which a child learns to organize info into interconnected structures is called_________
organization
How does a person manage anxiety according to Henry S Sullivan
selective inattention
What is a parataxic distortion according to Sullivan
a person's fantasy perception of another's attributes
What are the personifications humans develop according to Sullivan
"good me"
"bad me" (causes anxiety) and
"not me" (so anxiety provoking person doesn't consider part of self)
Who developed classical conditioning
Ivan Pavlov
Who is considered the father of behaviorism
B F Skinner
What is the major focus of operant conditioning
learning occurs through rewards and punishments
What are some techniques used in Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
cognitive restructuring, thought stopping, homework assignments, socratic questions, role-play
According to Peplau, which level of anxiety has a significantly narrowed perceptual field with the victim having difficulty problem solving
severe anxiety
at which level of anxiety can the person problem solve, experience increased awareness and be motivated
mild
unable to process stimuli, irrational thinking and potential for self harm are symptoms of what level of anxiety
panic
vocal cues, tone, inflection and pace of words are components of____-
paralingustics
what is the distance for the personal zone
18 inches to four feet
what are attending behaviors
nodding, eye contact, leaning forward, using facial expressions
what is the purpose of using silence as a communication tool
allows for reflection, let's the client collect thoughts
differentiate between reflecting and paraphrasing
reflecting focuses on the feeling, rather than the content of what was said; paraphrasing recaps the core content of the patient's message
"Can you tell me what that felt like?"
`broad opening
"uh-huh"
minimum encouragers
"so what you're saying is..."
restating
"can you give me an example?"
clarifying
"you are trembling"
sharing observations
"group is at 1pm"
giving information
according to Peplau the therapeutic relationship is conceptualized as that of __________________
participant observer
Peplau defines the roles of the nurse in the therapeutic relationship as
stranger, counselor, resource person, teacher, leader
What are the 3 phases of the therapeutic relationship according to Peplau
orientation
working and
termination
what occurs in the termination phase of the therapeutic relationship
recap goals and review progess, discuss aftercare plans, move towards closure
what types of feelings/behaviors may the client demonstrate during termination
anger, sadness, regression
what is accomplished during the orientation phase
develop trust, set up boundaries, define contract, assess needs, strengths, ID nursing diagnoses, plan treatment outcomes
how should self-disclosure be used
brief, focused, and relevant to goals of relationship; it builds up a bond and reassures client that their problems aren't unique
what is splitting
commonly used by borderline clients; positive transference for one staff member and demeaning competence of others
what is a clinical pathway
used by entire treatment team, it identifies key clinical processes with corresponding timelines; linked to quality improvement outcomes
what are the components of the clinical pathway
1. ID a target population
2. describe expected outcomes
3. specify treatment strategies
4. document pt care activities, variances and goal achievement
what is the MSE
mental status exam, a subjective report of patients current mental status including appearance, behavior, affect, mood, thought processes, processing deficits and eval of thought content, perception, cognition, judgment and insight
what is the MMSE
a objective tool for measuring cognition with a possible score of 30
who is at greatest risk to commit suicide
a schizophrenic with command hallucinations
when assessing for suicidality what factors must be considered
ideation, gestures, previous attempts, ownership of gun and lethality of plan
what is the CAGE screening tool used for
it is a questionnaire to assess for alcohol problems- a person scoring 1 should be further assessed; 2 or > suggests the presence of a substance disorder
what is the significance of a GAF of 30 or less
behavior is influenced by delusions and hallucinations with inability to function in all areas....needs hospitalization
what disorders are listed in Axis I of DSM-I V
clinical disorders such as schizophrenia, bipolar, major depression, OCD and substance abuse
what disorders are listed under Axis II
personality disorders and MR
what is listed under Axis III
medical conditions
what is described under Axis IV
psychosocial and environmental problems such as unemployment and homelessness
differentiate between disorganized, paranoid schizophrenia and schizophreniform
most serious type is disorganized which causes severe impairment of functioning and bizarre behaviors; paranoid schizophrenia least serious- may be able to function moderately well; schizophreniform is symptoms for less than 6 months but for atleast 1 month
what is cyclothymic and dysthymic disorders
cyclothmia is chronic fluctuating periods of hypomania and depression for atleast 2 years on and off;
dysthymia is "feeling depressed for as long as I can remember" also chronic, for atleast 2 years on and off
differentiate between Bipolar I and Bipolar II
Bipolar I Disorder is diagnosed when a person has had at least one manic or mixed episode, often along with a major depressive episode.

Bipolar II Disorder is diagnosed when a person has had a major depressive episode along with at least one hypomanic episode.
what are behaviors seen in children with separation anxiety
reluctance to go to school, excessive anxiety, nightmares, repeated somatic symptoms
what are the impairments seen in children with autism
impaired social interaction, communication and restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior, interests and activities
describe the child with oppositional defiant disorder
negativistic, hostile, loses temper, argues, blames, easily annoyed
describe the child with conduct disorder
breaks rules, aggression toward people and animals, steals, destroys property, violates basic rights of others
what are signs/symptoms of anorexia
amenorrhrea, hair loss, edema, enlarged abdomen, lanugo, cardiac arrhythmias, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension
what are s/sx of bulimia
scarred hands, electrolyte imbalances, loss of tooth enamel, esophageal tears
describe pathophysiology of alzheimer's
amyloid deposits and neurofibrillary tangles that interfere with neuronal cells; dexrease in ACh levels; excitoxicity related to glutamate overactivity
what is a characteristic difference in Lewy body dementia and AD
Lewy body dementia causes visual hallucinations
How does vascular dementia progress
stair step fashion as opposed to progressive following a stroke
what are 3 culturally specific mental illnesses
amok- malaysia
brain fag- west africa
evil eye0 mediterranean
what are the 3 illnesses of cluster A personality disorders
paranoid, schizoid and schizotypal
what are the 4 illnesses of cluster B personality disorders
borderline personality, antisocial personality, histrionic and narcissistic personality
what are the 3 illnesses of cluster C personality disorders
obsessive compulsive personality
avoidant personality
dependent personality
how do pts with a paranoid personality cope
with projection
how do pts with schizoid personality cope
intellectualizing
how do pts with schizotypal personality disorder cope
by undoing
how does a person with an anti-social personality cope
acting out
how does a person with obsessive compulsive personality cope
isolation, reaction-formation and undoing
how does a person with dependent personality cope
by introjection
what are side effects of LICO3,
polyuria and polydipsia, fine tremors, GI upset (take with food), wt gain
what are s/sx of LICO3 toxicity
ataxia, slurred speech, coarse tremors, decreased urine output
what is the purpose of the AIMS scale
determine presence of EPS and TD- should be done every 3-6 months
how is a CIWA test conducted
done every 30 minutes until scores are reduced to <10 for 3 consecutive assessments or for 4 hours- determines presence of ETOH withdrawal and need for medication
how many items on a BPRS
18, measuring positive symptoms, affective symptoms and general psychopathology
what is utilitarianism
making choices based on the consequences of an action- the end justifying the means, what is best for the greater good and risk benefit analysis
what is deontology
actions based on what is intrinsically right or wrong, absolute moral rules and principles that are unchangeable
what are the key concepts of ethical decision making
justice, beneficence, nonmaleficence, veracity, fidelity and autonomy
what are Joint Commission guidelines for restraint use
patient must be seen by LIP within 1 hours of restraint application, must be reordered every 4 hours and patient face-to-face contact while restrained
what should be documented on the note of a restrained client
vital signs, circulation and any injuries related to restraints, hygiene, toileting, food and fluids, readiness to be released and mental/physical state of client
what are the guidelines for treating minors
parents or legal guardians must consent to treatment and make decisions and can read chart unless therapist feels a crime or abuse has taken place
how can a minor be emancipated
marriage, military service or living and working on own
when can a child 12 and over receive treatment without parental consent
if deemed mature, and can present reason not to involve parents, can receive outpatient care for substance abuse, prevention and treatment of pregnancy or child is alleged victim of incest or would be in serious threat without treatment
what kind of cases does common law involve
negligence and malpractice
what rights are denied a client who is involuntary committed
right to leave
what are grounds for civil commitment
serious mental illness that creates lack of insight into need for treatment; immediate danger to self or others; unable to care for self rt mental illness
how long can an initial commitment last
72 hours, but can certify for an additional 14 days with a court hearing to keep any longer
what are two insanity pleas used in court
McNaughten Rule- lacked mental capacity to understand that actions were legally wrong

Irresistible Impulse Test- impulsively driven to commit crime and couldn't control actions even if he knew it was wrong
what is acculturation
taking on language and behavior patterns of dominant culture as result of firsthand contact
what is assimilation
adopting behavior patterns of dominant culture such that original ethnic identification disappears (occurs over several generations)
what is WRAP
wellness recovery action plan- road map for recovery- includes development of a wellness tool box, a daily maintenance plan, ID'g triggers and an action plan; ID'g early warning signs and planning for a crisis
what are allowable HIPAA disclosures
for judicial proceedings
in response to a subpoena; to avert serious harm to others (info must be given to someone in law enforcement)
what is a carve out
having patients use a separate provider for mental health care; most have separate, lower annual lifetime limits on care
what are some means of accessing mental health care for the poor and those without Medicaid
wraparound services, block grant funds, head start programs, church affiliated programs
what are functions of the frontal lobe of the brain
executive functions, working memory, personality (prefrontal cortex)
where is Broca's area and what is it's function
located in the frontal lobe for production of speech
what is a function of the temporal lobe
understanding speech (Wernicke's area)
what is the function of the hippocampus and amygdala
the hippocampus functions in learning and memory (consolidating long-term explicit memories for facts/events)

the amygdala senses the threat of danger and helps to recognize negative emotions and recalling the emotional aspects of specific life events
how does an elevated cortisol level affect the hippocampus
cortisol causes atrophy of the hippocampus and alters ability to learn and remember; however is capable of generating new neurons
what is apraxia
unable to complete purposeful actions like buttoning a shirt
what is agnosia
unable to perceive and recognize common objects
what are functions of the parietal lobe
ability to sense temp, pressure, pain, vibration, proprioception
where are the basal ganglia located and what is their function
outside of corticospinal pathway; referred to as extrapyramidal; function in motor skills
what causes Parkinson's disease
destruction of dopaminergic neurons in the basal gangia
what causes Parkinsonism
blockage of dopaminergic neurons by antipsychotic meds
what is the function of the hypothalamus
master regulatory center of the brain- regulates food and fluid intake, temp, and the pituitary gland in the HPA axis
what is the function of the limbic system
regulation of emotion and memory
where are dopamine, NE and 5HT produced
in the brainstem
dopamine-substantia nigra
NE-locus coerulus
5HT-raphe nucei
describe ANS activation during stress
activation of ANS stimulates release of epinephrine which stimulates elevation in HR, BP and prepares for fight or flight
what are the 3 stages of the general adaptation syndrome according to Hans Selye
alarm, resistance, exhaustion
describe the HPA axis during stress
hypothalamus releases CRH which causes pituitary gland to release ACh which causes adrenal glands to release cortisol
what is allostatic load
McEwen's description of the wear and tear of the stress response as body continues to secrete cortisol leading to increased glucose, insulinemia, increased cholesterol, elevated BP
what is the ratio of glia cells to neurons
10:1
what is the function of glia cells
some form myelin sheath (white matter) around axons of neurons and provide support for migration of neurons during development
which neurotransmitters are inhibitory and which are excitatory
D, NE, GABA are inhibitory
5HT and Glutamate are excitatory
what are functions of 5HT (serotonin)
mood, appetite, sleep and eating behaviors
what is a major function of acetylcholine
skeletal muscle contraction
what is excitotoxicity
a process of destruction of the neurons resulting in from too much glutamate and excitatory neuronal activity
describe the brain of a person with schizophrenia
enlarged 3rd ventricle, too much ventricular fluid and atrophy of brain tissues
what is given as proof that schizophrenia may be be present in early childhood
child has language delays and asymmetrical use of major muscle groups
describe relationship of neurotransmitters and schizophrenia
elevated dopamine in limbic system leading to positive symptoms; lower levels of dopamine in the prefrontal cortex (leading to negative sx and impaired cognition)
differentiate between depression and bipolar disorder in relation to neurotransmitters
in depression there is a decrease in the monoamines and in bipolar there is an elevation
what illnesses that overlap with OCD suggest basal ganglia dysfunction
tics and ADHD are commonly seen with OCD
which neurotransmitters are implicated in anxiety
too little GABA can lead to anxiety and too much NE or glutamate may also lead to anxiety
what are s/sx of metabolic syndrome commonly seen with neuroleptics
obese abdomen, dyslipidemia, glucose intolerance, insulin resistance, prothrombotic state and proinflammatory state
what are the 3 characteristics of ADHD
impulsiveness
hyperactivity
inattentiveness
what meds are used to treat ADHD
stimulants such as Ritalin, Cyclert,
Dexedrine and Adderall
how should stimulants be given to children to decrease wt loss and insomnia
30 minutes before meals and not near bedtime
what are common side effects of ritalin
loss of weight and height
headaches
stomaches
insomnia
what OTC is contraindicated with LICO3
NSAIDS- may increase serum concentrations of drug leading to toxicity
what causes the anticholinergic effects of some drugs
blockade of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
differentiate between depression and bipolar disorder in relation to neurotransmitters
in depression there is a decrease in the monoamines and in bipolar there is an elevation
what illness that overlap with OCD suggest basal ganglia dysfunction
tics and ADHD are commonly seen with OCD
which neurotransmitters are implicated in anxiety
too little GABA can lead to anxiety and too much NE or glutamate may also lead to anxiety
what are s/sx of metabolic syndrome commonly seen with neuroleptics
obese abdomen, dyslipidemia, glucose intolerance, insulin resistance, prothrombotic state and proinflammatory state
what are the 3 characteristics of ADHD
impulsiveness
hyperactivity
inattentiveness
what meds are used to treat ADHD
stimulants such as Ritalin, Cyclert,
Dexedrine and Adderall
how should stimulants be given to children to decrease wt loss and insomnia
30 minutes before meals and not near bedtime
what are common side effects of ritalin
loss of weight and height
headaches
stomaches
insomnia
what OTC is contraindicated with LICO3
NSAIDS- may increase serum concentrations of drug leading to toxicity
what causes the anticholinergic effects of some drugs
blockade of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
what causes EPS side effect
antagonism of D2 receptors
what causes sedation
blockade of histamine receptors
what causes orthostatic hypotension
blockade of adrenergic receptors
what causes sexual dysfunction, anxiety, akathisia, insomnia, GI upset and diarrhea
activation of serotonergic receptors
what are the phases of treatment for most mental illnesses
acute phase- prevent harm, control behavior and reduce positive symptoms

stabilization-focus on interventions to minimize stress and adjust med

maintenance-goal is recovery
what med is used to treat Tourette's
haldol
what is the risks and benefits of using high potency conventional antipsychotics
more EPS, but less anticholinergic side effects and sedation
which high potency antipsychotics can be given as an injection
haldol and prolixin
what are anticholinergic side effects of conventional antipsychotics
dry mouth, urinary retention, blurred vision, nasal congestion, constipation
what EPS symptoms are seen with conventional antipsychotics
dystonia
TD
oculogyric crisis
blepharospasm
glossopharyngeal dystonias
what meds are used to treat EPS
cogentin, benadryl, symmetrel, tenex
describe s/sx of NMS and treatment
high temp
autonomic instability (labile BP)
sweating
muscular rigidity (check CPK)

treated with bromocriptine or dantrolene
what are s/sx of acetylcholine toxicity
M-U-D-D-L-E-S: miosis, urination, diarrhea, diaphoresis, lacrimation, excitation of the central nervous system, and salivation.
what is drug of choice for hypertensive crisis
regitine
what are s/sx of tyramine crisis
Symptoms include severe headache, rapid heart rate, chest pain, neck stiffness, nausea, vomiting, sweating [may include a fever or cold, clammy skin], dilated pupils, and eye sensitivity to light
what drug(s) are never taken with MAOIs
ephedrine, TCAs or SSRIs
which atypical antipsychotic is linked to increasing the seizure threshold
clozaril
what should be done if a patient is being treated with geodon
monitor ECG- causes prolonged QTc
Which atypical is most sedating
seroquel
what meds are used to treat EPS
cogentin, benadryl, symmetrel, tenex
describe s/sx of NMS and treatment
high temp
autonomic instability (labile BP)
sweating
muscular rigidity (check CPK)

treated with bromocriptine or dantrolene
what are s/sx of acetylcholine toxicity
M-U-D-D-L-E-S: miosis, urination, diarrhea, diaphoresis, lacrimation, excitation of the central nervous system, and salivation.
what is drug of choice for hypertensive crisis
regitine
what are s/sx of tyramine crisis
Symptoms include severe headache, rapid heart rate, chest pain, neck stiffness, nausea, vomiting, sweating [may include a fever or cold, clammy skin], dilated pupils, and eye sensitivity to light.)
what drug(s) are never taken with MAOIs
ephedrine, TCAs or SSRIs
besides agranulocytosis, what is another concern when using clozaril
seizures
what two meds have been linked to stevens-johnson syndrome
lamictal and tegretol
what should be done if a patient is being treated with geodon
monitor ECG- causes prolonged QTc
Which atypical is most sedating
seroquel
why are TCAs never used with a suicidal patient
risk for OD and death secondary to cardiotoxicity
what is benefit to using wellbutrin
low sexual side effects
when is use of wellbutrin contraindicated
seizures, eating disorders
what are s/sx of stevens-johnson syndrome
sores on mucous membranes
cough
FUO
rashes
when using depakote what must be monitored
liver function studies- it is hepatotoxic
what is therapeutic depakote level
50-100
when using prolixin what teaching should be given to the patient
wear sunscreen, long sleeves- it is photosensitive
what could result with LICO3 is given with Haldol
toxic encephalopathy
what should be monitored when LICO3 is used
therapeutic blood levels (kept between 0.6-1.2 for maintenance)

and

thyoid studies- med causes hypothyroidism
what are s/sx of LICO3 toxicity
diarrhea, ataxia, slurred speech
what is a benefit of remeron for depressed clients who don't eat
it increases appetite and causes wt gain
what is a side effect of trazadone
priapism
how long should the washout be between MAOIs and Prozac
5 weeks
which atypicals cause the most wt gain
zyprexa and seroquel
what should be monitored closely with effexor use
blood pressure for hypertension
for what illnesses would anticholinergics be contraindicated in
addison's, narrow angle glaucoma, and myasthenia gravis
what meds cannot be combined with MAOIs
decongestants, demerol, epinephrine, L-dopa, herbals
what is a predisposing factor to the development of NMS
dehydration
what are s/sx of serotonin syndrome
elevated BP, diarrhea, lethargy, myoclonus, restless, flushing, change in mental status
what is a therapeutic tegretol level
4-12
what are early s/sx of LICO3 toxicity
nystagmus, tremors, drowsiness, diarrhea
what are two long-acting benzodiazepines
valium (20-80 hours)
klonopin (18-50 hours)
what is given to dry up respiratory and oral secretions during ECT
anticholinergic
why is a muscle relaxant given with ECT
prevent fractures
what are two side effects of EXT
memory loss and confusion
what techniques are used in solution focused therapy
miracle questions
scaling
exception finding questions
what is an example of primary gain
not having to face a superior at work by calling out sick
what is an example of secondary gain
having someone send you flowers or make you chicken noodle soup
what are early s/sx of LICO3 toxicity
nystagmus, tremors, drowsiness, diarrhea
what are two long-acting benzodiazepines
valium (20-80 hours)
klonopin (18-50 hours)
what is given to dry up respiratory and oral secretions during ECT
anticholinergic
why is a muscle relaxant given with ECT
prevent fractures
what are two side effects of ECT
memory loss and confusion
what techniques are used in solution focused therapy
miracle questions
scaling
exception finding questions
what is an example of primary gain
not having to face a superior at work by calling out sick
what is an example of secondary gain
having someone send you flowers or make you chicken noodle soup
what is a cause of pseudodementia
depression
what is accomplished in the intervention phase of crisis
establish relationship, understand and explore feelings, find alternative coping strategies
why would a person with borderline personality cut herself
stress reduction; many say they don't even feel the pain
how might a person with conversion disorder react to their paralysis or blindness
la belle indifference- without concern
what is the first stage of the victim abuse cycle
tension building
what happens after the acute battering in the abuse cycle
honeymoon phase- calm, loving, fear of victim leaving
what is complicated grief
excessive in duration (>3 mos) with disabling symptoms, suicidality
what is uncomplicated grief
self-esteem remains intact and distress resolved in approx. 12 weeks
what instruction are given to the client on lithium
drink 2-3L of fluid, take usually amount of salt in (don't restrict), no NSAIDs
what skin and hair disorders are seen with lithium
acne, psoriasis and alopecia
what is the best type of reinforcement schedule to use in behavior modification
variable ratio- initially can be given frequently and then decreased as performance improves
is punishment used as a behavior modification technique
yes. it can inhibit an undesirable behavior by making negative consequences contingent upon it such as grounding a teen
what is the best evidence in a research study
random controlled trials- can answer cause and effect using a placebo versus actual treatment
what are Bowen's 8 interconnected concepts in family systems
1. triangles
2. differentiation of self
3. nuclear family
4. projection process
5. multigenerational transmission
6. emotional cutoff
7. sibling position
8. societal emotion process
what are the 4 relationship patters identified by Bowen
1. marital conflict
2. dysfunction in one spouse
3. impairment in 1 or > children
4. emotional distance between members
what boundaries were identified by Salvador Minunchin
invisible, enmeshed, disengaged
what do structural therapist believe the therapist needs to do to assist a troubled family
"join" with the family using mimesis- imitating their way of communicting
which theorist based their therapy on the premise that symptoms serve a function in the family
Haley and Madanes- strategic family systems
what is a double-bind strategy
provide conflicting messages to the family so that the message they choose to respond to negates the contradictory message
who would benefit from multi-systemic therapy (MST)
adolescent involved in the juvenile justice system- usually 4 months or 60 contact hours
what is the best type of reinforcement schedule to use in behavior modification
variable ratio- initially can be given frequently and then decreased as performance improves
is punishment used as a behavior modification technmique
yes. it can inhibit an undesirable behavior by making negative consequences contingent upon it such as grounding a teen
what is the best evidence in a research study
random controlled trials- can answer cause and effect using a placebo versus actual treatment
what are Bowen's 8 interconnected concepts in family systems
1. triangles
2. differentiation of self
3. nuclear family
4. projection process
5. multigenerational transmission
6. emotional cutoff
7. sibling position
8. societal emotion process
what are the 4 relationship patters identified by Bowen
1. marital conflict
2. dysfunction in one spouse
3. impairment in 1 or > children
4. emotional distance between members
what boundaries were identified by Salvador Minunchin
invisible, enmeshed, disengaged
what do structural therapist believe the therapist needs to do to assist a troubled family
"join" with the family using mimesis- imitating their way of communicating
which theorist based their therapy on the premise that symptoms serve a function in the family
Haley and Madanes- strategic family systems
what is a double-bind strategy
provide conflicting messages to the family so that the message they choose to respond to negates the contradictory message
who would benefit from multi-systemic therapy (MST)
adolescent involved in the juvenile justice system- usually 4 months or 60 contact hours
what is an ideal number of members for group therapy to foster communication and growth
6 to 8
what is a heterogenous group
mix of people, different diagnosis
what is a homogenous group
same age, or gender, or problems
are most out-patient groups open or closed
closed- members are identified before and stays relatively constant
according to Tuckman what are the 5 stages of the group process
1. forming-orientation, trust developed, rules addressed, leader most active

2. storming-control/power issues emerge, acting-out behaviors seen

3. norming- group develops group specific standards such as disapproval of late arrivals

4. performing- work and growth done, team productivity and effectiveness

5. adjourning- closure- review goal achievements, explore feeling related to ending
what are Yalom's 11 group components
1. hope
2. universality
3. altruism
4. existential factors
5. catharsis
6. cohesiveness
7. corrective opportunity torework earlier family issues
8. imitating behaviors
9. socialization
10. information
11. interpersonal learning
what is meant by self-functions in relation to group members
behaviors which are disruptive to the group such as blocking discussion, power seeking, clowning, and dominating (done by members with own agenda)
what is the most important relationship for young people
support from peers
describe group therapy for young people and children
should be structured but with flexible rules with clear expectations for participating
describe milieu therapy
staff and client work jointly to plan activities and make unit decisions, communication is open and direct, close ties to larger community with reality testing enhanced
what does Jones call the therapeutic community- a component of milieu therapy
a "living-learning situation"
it is a microcosm of larger society supported by peer influence
what is a drawback to hypnosis
can provoke presentation of falsememories
how do the Chinese perceive stress
as both danger and opportunity with constructive resolution leading to stronger coping ability
What are the characteristics of the crisis state
somatic complaints
perceptual changes and intense feeling
impaired impulse control
limited capacity to ask for/draw support
what are 3 types of crises
maturational (childbirth)
situational (unemployment)
adventitious (earthquake)
what are balancing factors in resolving a would-be crisis
ability to form a realistic perception of the event, obtain adequate support, resolve the problem and avert crisis state
how long should a crisis last
4-6 weeks
what is the goal of crisis intervention
return to pre-crisis adaptive level of functioning and prevent negative effects of stressors
what are the stages of crisis intervention
1. assessment & stabilization (medical attention and safety)
2. collect comprehensive data (what just happened, circumstances, etc)
3. problem solving (ID past coping mechanisms, strengths, set goals
4. resolution
what is the profile of an abuser
low self esteem
dependent personality
poor impulse control
what are the steps to follow when caring for an abuse victim
1. interview alone, validate feelings, believe the victim
2. document signs of abuse, protect chain of evidence
3. if an child- remove from home
4. educate
5. develop a safety plan
6. referrals
what is bereavement
time after a loss during which grief is expressed
what are the 4 stages of bereavement
a. shock & numbness
b. yearning & searching
c. disorganization & despair
d. reorganization
how do toddlers, preschoolers and school-age children react to death
infants and toddlers will look for dead person, may not eat, lose wt and are lethargic;

preschoolers will see death as reversible and may blame self, have magical thinking

school-age may ask questions and are curious about life after death
what are symptoms of complicated grief
abnormal grieving or delayed grieving;
unable to develop new relationsips;
avoid reminders of loss
anxiety, agorophobia
sleeplessness
bittern depressed
according to Nola Pender individuals will engage in health teaching based on what 3 factors
susceptibility to the disease
the severity of the disease
the potential benefit of their actions
according to Bandura, what 3 factors motivate a person to learn
physical- do they have current symptoms or have they experienced them in the past

social incentives- will are they get praise and encouragement

cognitive- perceived self-efficacy- can they learn
according to Prochaska and Velicer what are the stages for assessing a client's readiness to change
1. precontemplation (doesn't see problem, not considering change)
2. contemplation (willing to discuss pros and cons)
3. preparation (ready to change within 30 days)
4. action (taking steps to change)
5. maintenance (persevering, may relapse)
what is the PRECEDE-PROCEED model
community based teaching model - 9 phases, the first 5 involving assessment needs of community and developing a teaching model
what is an example of primary prevention
parenting classes, stress management program- done before a problem presents to decrease incidence
what is the focus of primary prevention
to help clients develop skills and knowledge related to controlling risk factors and healthy living; to decrease the INCIDENCE
what is an example of secondary prevention
screening for BP
CAGE or SADPERSON screens
what is the focus of secondary prevention
to promote early diagnosis near the beginning of illness and decrease the number of current cases or PREVALENCE
what is the best leadership style
transformational
what type of staff may benefit from laissez-faire leadership
highly motivated
what type of staff would function with a
democratic leader
a mature staff
when is autocratic leadership effective
during a crisis
what are 5 types of power leaders may possess
expert, referent, legitimate, reward, coercive and informational
what are the 5 steps to evidence-based practice
1. ask an answerable question
2. collect data
3. critically appraise the data
4. synthesize & integrate data in making practice decisions or change
5. evaluate the change
what types of research has the most strength
random controlled trials which can answer cause and effect using a placebo and treatment group
what is the focus of primary prevention
to help clients develop skills and knowledge related to controlling risk factors and healthy living; to decrease the INCIDENCE
what is an example of secondary prevention
screening for BP
CAGE or SADPERSON screens
what is the focus of secondary prevention
to promote early diagnosis near the beginning of illness and decrease the number of current cases or PREVALENCE
what is the best leadership style
transformational
what type of staff may benefit from laissez-faire leadership
highly motivated
what type of staff would function with a
democratic leader
a mature staff
when is autocratic leadership effective
during a crisis
what are 6 types of power leaders may possess
expert, referent, legitimate, reward, coercive and informational
what are the 5 steps to evidence-based practice
1. ask an answerable question
2. collect data
3. critically appraise the data
4. synthesize & integrate data in making practice decisions or change
5. evaluate the change
what type of research has the most strength
random controlled trials which can answer cause and effect using a placebo and treatment group
what are 3 domains of learning
affective, cognitive and psychomotor
what are Bloom's 6 levels of cognitive learning
1. knowledge- recall the info
2. comprehension- interpret info
3. application- use the info
4. analysis-see patterns, make inferences from info
5. synthesis- generalize from old ideas to new, make plans based on info
6. evaluate - compare and discriminate
describe kinesthetic learning
kinesthetic learners are active, want to be doing, moving
what are indications of health illiteracy
1. can't explain medical problems
2. poor follow-thru with meds, test, appointments
3. only asking basic questions or none at all
4. can't describe how to take meds or know when to get help
what is a teach-back format for learning
have the client explain to you what has been taught
according to Malcom Knowles (father of adult learning) what do adult learners need to know to learn
why they need to learn something
when does formative evaluation of learning take place
it is ongoing, occurring as the teaching is taking place such as feedback; can serve to improve a course; it is goal directed and prospective
when does summative evaluation of learning take place
at the end of the course, often in the form of grades; it is outcome oriented and retrospective
in which part a research report would you read a brief summary, a few sentences describing each section
abstract
in which section of a research report are the methods, participants and instruments described
methods
where in a research report would you find interpretation of the findings described
discussion
what 4 factors give a research study the greatest strength
1. sufficient sample size (at least 30)
2. adequate control
3. definitive conclusions
4. consistent results and recommendations
which type of research study exercises the most control over independent variables
RCTs
how long does mourning typically last
up to 1 year or more
which antidepressant has the most sexual dysfunction side effects
zoloft
which antidepressant can be prescribed for OCD
Luvox
what is a serous side effect of Effexor
hypertension
what is a cohort research study
PROSPECTIVE- to examine variables that might be relevant to the development of an illness

ex. studying offspring of moms with depression
what is a case control study
RETROSPECTIVE-observational study to determine factors that may contribute to a condition by comparing those who have it with others who do not

ex. studying smokers with lung cancer and those who don't smoke
what is a quasi-experimental study
comparing two naturally occuring groups of interest
what type of research is the poorest
qualitative
what are two types of statistics
descriptive- used to describe basic features of data (most nursing studies are this kind) using numerical values to summarize and organize

inferential- used to reach conclusions that extend beyond immediate data alone using probability
what is the P value
<0.05 -considered statistically significantly
what are the levels of measurement in statistics
nominal- counts frequencies
ordinal-ranks order
interval- equal differences between values
ratio
what are the 4 components of the nursing paradigm addressed in all theories
person
environment
health
nurse
what is metacommunication
gestures, facial expressions
and body movements
what are the parts of the Johari Window used to increase self-awareness
known only to self
known only to others
known to self and others
known to neither self and others
what med should never be given with an SSRI
tramadol- it inhibits reuptake of 5HT causing SSRI syndrome
what are Sullivan's 3 modes of relating to the external world
prototaxic- used by infants who cannot differentiate from others

parataxic-by children and juveniles who see self as different but don't yet see how they fit into the world

syntaxic- used by teens and adults who understand complex situations and use consensual validation
what is consensual validation
mutual agreement about perceptions
describe the 4 principles of the existential model
1. alienation from self causes deviance
2. the self imposes behavioral restrictions that cause alienation
3. each person can make free choices about which behaviors to display
4. people submit to others' demands rather than be themselves
what is the primary goal of gestalt therapy
self-growth. self-awareness and ability to engage in self-discovery
what are two therapeutic techniques of gestalt therapy
empty chair dialogue and dream discussion
mutation, obtundation, akinesia, dystonia, muscular rigidity, hyperpyrexia, sweating and elevated P and BP
NMS
dry as a bone, red as a beet, hot as a hare, blind as a bat, mad as a hatter
anticholinergic toxicity
antipsychotic: risk of QTc prolongation
seroquel
this SSRI may cause GI bleeding
Prozac
what are indications that an antidepressant is working
improvement in energy & sleept
what is selegiline
MAOI that can be given via a skin patch; also used for PD
severe occipital headache, elevated BP, tachycardia, sweating, fever and vomiting
hypertensive crisis (tyramine induced)
common side effects include akathisa, sexual dysfunction, anxiety, agitation, insomnia, diarrhea
SSRIs
confusion, extreme agitation, autonomic instability, muscle rigidity, gooseflesh, hyperthermia, hyperpyrexia, myoclonic jerking
Serotonin Syndrome
common side effects: thirst, nausea, increased urination, fine hand tremor, GI upset, hair loss, acne, sedation
Lithium
what instructions are given to the person on lithium in terms of toxicity
avoid excess salt and dehydration; see MD if diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, drowsiness, tremor, muscle weakness, nystagmus
what are symptoms of LICO3 toxicity
fever, decreased urine output, hypotension, irregular P, ECG changes and impaired consciousness
what are side effects of anticonvulsant therapy
GI upset, wt gain, tremor, hair loss, increased risk for thrombocytopenia, and liver disease with long term use
what is a serious long term side effect of tegretol
agranulocytosis
lamictal may cause what life threatening rash
steven-johnson syndrome or toxic necrolysis
what is the MOA for benzodiazepines
potentiation of GABA in the limbic system
what are the advantages of benzo's with a longer 1/2 life
less frequent dosing
less variation in plasma concentration
and less severe withdrawal
what are the disadvantages of prescribing a benzo with a longer 1/2 life
drug accumulation
daytime sedation
and daytime psychomotor retardation
which is the longest acting benzo
valium
what are cognitive disortions
automatic harmful thoughts that people can have in response to stressful situations
what is cognitive restructuring
challenging irrational beliefs and substituting with positive self-statements
reinforcement given after a fixed number of response and every nth response is reinforced is a --------------schedule
fixed ratio
reinforcement is given after a distinct time interval and a certain amount of time has lapsed before a reinforcer is given is a ________________schdule
fixed interval
reinforcement is provided for the first response after a variable amount of time has elapsed is a _________________schedule
variable interval
reinforcement after a variable number of responses is a ________________schedule
variable ratio
what is equifinality
family systems can achieve the same goals through different routes
what is circular causality
emotional problems can be best understood contextually as part of ongoing feedback loop that maintains a problem
what is morphostasis
all family systems seek stability in the midst of change
what is morphogenesis
all family systems are in constant state of change as they adapt to changing family needs
what are 3 types of crises
situational
adventitious
maturational
what does Aguilera state must be present when a person experiences an event that creates disequilibrium
balancing factors in the form of realistic perception of event, support and adequate coping mechansims to regain equilibrium and avert a crisis
what is the abuse cycle
tension building
acute battering
honeymoon phase
according to the Nat'l Cancer Institute what are the phases of grieving
shock and numbness
yearning and searching
disorganization and despair
organization
Gail Stuart's stress adaptation model includes what specific components
1. predisposing factors (age, etc)
2. precipitating factors stressful life event)
3. appraisal of the stressor
4. coping resources
5. coping mechanism
6. continuum of coping response
what type of medication should be avoided with MAOIs
a. antihistamine
b. antihypertensive
c. aspirin
d. anticoagulant
antihypertensive
differentiated practice roles are determined by what or who
levels are determined by education and expected skills
A teen is drinking, lying and stealing. Using Freud's personality development, he has a defect in his _____________
id
what is the main focus of therapeutic communication
to help patients clarify issues and develop different perspectives
if a client asks for a hug- what should you do
explain about boundaries and how they make a relationship safe
if a patient kisses you, what should you do
suggest an activity to redirect energy
what does Aguilera state must be present when a person experiences an event that creates disequilibrium
balancing factors in the form of realistic perception of event, support and adequate coping mechansims to regain equilibrium and avert a crisis
what is the abuse cycle
tension building
acute battering
honeymoon phase
according to the Nat'l Cancer Institute what are the phases of grieving
shock and numbness
yearning and searching
disorganization and despair
organization
Gail Stuart's stress adaptation model includes what specific components
1. predisposing factors (age, etc)
2. precipitating factors stressful life event)
3. appraisal of the stressor
4. coping resources
5. coping mechanism
6. continuum of coping response
what type of medication should be avoided with MAOIs
a. antihistamine
b. antihypertensive
c. aspirin
d. anticoagulant
antihypertensive
differentiated practice roles are determined by what or who
levels are determined by education and expected skills
A teen is drinking, lying and stealing. Using Freud's personality development, he has a defect in his _____________
id
what is the main focus of therapeutic communication
to help patients clarify issues and develop different perspectives
if a client asks for a hug- what should you do
explain about boundaries and how they make a relationship safe
if an acutely manic patient kisses you and asks you to marry him, what should you do
suggest an activity to redirect energy such as folding clothes
which organ engages the body's fight-or-flight response
the hypothalamus
movement disorders such as bradykinesia dn hyperkinesia suggest impairment where
in the basal ganglia
with stress what neurotransmitter is released
epinephrine
which 2 neurotransmitters are excitatory
glutamate and norepinephrine
what is the virtue of erikson's initiative vs guilt
purpose
what is the virtue of erikson's stage four, industry vs inferiority
competence
what is the virtue of erikson's identity v role confusion
fidelity
what is the viture of erikson's intimacy vs isolation
love
how is a CAGE scored
score of 1 suggests need for further assessment

score of 2 suggests alcohol abuse
how does Peplau conceptualize the nurses role in a therapeutic relationship
participant observer
according to peplau what are the 5 roles of nurses
teacher
resource person
leader
stranger
counselor
what are the 5 stages of Prochaska's model of change
precontemplation
contemplation
preparation
action
maintenance
according to Bandura, what are 3 motivators to change
physical
social
cognitive
what is considered the personal zone om proxemics
18inches to 4feet
what is a common side effect of thorazine
photosensitivity
with opiod intoxication describe the pupils
pinpoint
(dilated with overdose)
what is the benefit of play for pre-schoolers
helps child to develop introjection (taking on values, beliefs of others)
what would happen if a person with Lewy body dementia rec'd an antipsychotic
severe EPS
which antidepressant causes the most nausea
paxil
if a nurse becomes anxious during a session with a client what should she do
leave and provide continuity of care
which organ engages the body's fight-or-flight response
the hypothalamus
movement disorders such as bradykinesia and hyperkinesia suggest impairment where
in the basal ganglia
with stress what neurotransmitter is released
epinephrine
which 2 neurotransmitters are excitatory
glutamate and norepinephrine
what is the virtue of erikson's initiative vs guilt
purpose
what is the virtue of erikson's stage four, industry vs inferiortiy
competence
what is the virtue of erikson's identity v role confusion
fidelity
what is the viture of erikson's intimacy vs isolation
love
how is a CAGE scored
score of 1 suggests need for further assessment

score of 2 suggests alcohol abuse
how does Peplau conceptualize the nurses role in a therapeutic relationship
participant observer
what should a nurse do if she becomes anxious while interacting with a client
leave and arrange for continuity of care
what would happen if a person with Lewy body dementia rec'd an antipsychotic
severe EPS
which conventional antipsychotic is photosensitive
thorazine
describe the pupils of a person who is intoxicated from an opiate
pinpoint
what defense mechanism do pre-schoolers learn from play
introjection
describe the bodies reaction during fight or flight response
dilated pupils
dilated bronchioles
elevated HR, elevated glucose
peripheral vasoconstriction
why is it important to monitor the client closely after administering narca for heroin OD
can experience return of narcotic effect after narcan metabolized
describe body response to fight or flight
dilated pupils
dilated bronchioles
elevated glucose, elevated heart rate
peripheral vasoconstriction
why is it important to monitor closely after narcan given for heroin OD
return of narcotic effect possible after narcan metabolized
what is the effect of haldol on insulin
alters the effectiveness- may need more insulin
which TCA can lead to glaucoma
tofranil
what is the DOC for opiate withdrawal
catapres
what is used to treat opioid dependency
buprenex
what happens if a person on antabuse drinks alcohol
flushing, severe headache, hypotension, tachycardia, nausea and vomiting and bloodshot eyes
besides antabuse, what other med can be prescribed for treatment of alcohol
ReVia
what is Wernicke-Korsakoff's syndrome-
form of amnesia with confabulation and inflammatory brain hemorrhage due to thiamine deficiency
when does opiate withdrawal begin
12-16 hours
what is a long term goal of major depression
to become more accepting of self and others
yawning, lacrimation, rhinitis, gooseflesh, muscle aches, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, tremors, sneezing and fever are symptoms of
opiate withdrawal
when does ETOH withdrawal syndrome begin
several hours to few days after last drink (8 hours)
when do alcohol induced DTs begin
24-72 hours after last drink
what are indications of impending alcohol DTs
elevated temp, pulse and BP
hypervigilant, agitated, tremulous, hallucinations and illusions....
DTs
how many calories should the anorexic start out on
1200-1500
should the anorexia see her weight on the scale
no
what is done if the anorexic is losing weight during in-patient treatment
bedrest until gaining evident then redo treatment plan
what is used to treat OD from benzodiazepines
romazicon
where is dopamine produced
in the brain stem
where are NE and Epinephrine produced
in the basal ganglia
what happens if there is too much salt in the diet of a person on LICO3
less than therapeutic amt of drug in system
what happens if there is not enough salt in the diet of a person on LICO3
lithium toxicity
which antipyschotic may be prescribed for anorexics
zyprexa
salivation, lacrimation, abdominal pain, vomiting, diarrhea, violent muscle contractions, weakness of voluntary muscles and possible respiratory failure....
acetylcholine toxcity
how is acetylcholine toxicity treated
atropine and activated charcoal
what is the function of the hypothalamus
activate stress response and serve as master regulatory center of brain
what are s/sx of LICO3 tox >2.5
blurred vision, anuria, hypotension
what are 4 possible causes of LICO3 toxicity
fever, diuretics, NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors
what is malingering
exaggerating symptoms with motivation to avoid something or someone
what is an example of a factitious disorder
Munchausens
what are the ratings for mild to profound mental retardation
mild 55-70
moderate 40-55
severe 25-39
profound <25
how might primary caregivers feel towards clients with munchausen's
angry
what dietary instructions should be given to men using cialis or levitra
no grapefruit juice
what are s/sx of metabolic syndrome associated with antipsychotic
obese abdomen, elevated BP, dyslipidemia, insulin resistance, proinflammatory state and prothrombotic state
describe the family system of an anorexic
enmeshed, over protective and minimal independence
what is Russell's sign
callus formation on fingers of bulimic from purging
after medical attention, what is the primary focus for treating eating disorders
devise an eating plan to give adequate nutrition
when does postpartum depression appear
approx 3 weeks post delivery
what are the components of a research study
* Abstract
* Introduction
* Method
* Results
* Discussion
* Conclusion
Reference list