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478 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Defense Mechanism: "I don't want to think about it"
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suppression
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Defense Mechanism: "I want my mommy"
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regression
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Defense Mechanism: "I can't have cancer, not me"
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denial
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Defense Mechanism: "My boss is a jerk, but I can't yell at him so I'll take it out on my wife"
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displacement
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Defense Mechanism: "I hate you, but I act like I love you because haters are bad people"
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reaction formation
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Defense mechanism: a hypersexual person becomes a priest
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sublimation
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Defense mechanism: I impose what I believe on you
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introjection
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Defense mechanism: "I'm lousy at sports, but great at math"
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compensation
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Defense mechanism: man hits wife then brings her flowers the next day
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undoing
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Defense mechanism: "I want to be just like my favorite singer:
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identification
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Defense mechanism: Woman describes her mania in terms of chemical imbalance
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intellectualization
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Defense mechanism: "The devil made me do it"
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projection
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Defense mechanism: "I only drink 2 beers every day, I am not an alcoholic"
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minimization
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Defense mechanism: " I stole the money from a rich man who has plenty more"
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rationalization
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Defense mechanism: painful memories deep in unconscious
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suppression
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trust v mistrust
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Erikson's Psychosocial Stage of 0-1 years old
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industry v inferiority
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Erikson's 6-12 yo
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initiative v guilt
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Erikson's 3-5 yo
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intimacy v isolation
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Erikson's young adulthood
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autonomy v shame and doubt
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Erikson's 1-3 years old
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generativity v stagnation
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Erikson's middle age
virtue is caring |
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identity v role confusion
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Erikson's 12-18 yo
virtue is fidelity |
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ego integrity v despair
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Erikson's old age
virtue is wisdom |
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what is the zone of interest in Freud's oral stage
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mouth
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what may result from poor resolution of the oral stage
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over-eater, smoker, substance abuser
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what is the zone of interest in Freud's phallic stage
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genitals, 3-5 years old
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when does Freud's latency period occur?
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6- 12 years old
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What occurs in the Oedipal/Elektra stages according to Freud
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Boys attracted to women like mom and girls attracted to men like dad; resolution achieved when child can relate to parent of same sex
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what may result from poor resolution of Freud's anal stage
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obsessive, rigid behaviors, problems with authority figures
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what is the function of the ego
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to mediate between id and superego; functions on reality principle as the "traffic cop"
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at what age is the id present
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at birth
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what 2 elements are present in the superego
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conscience and ego ideal (motivates to perform @ higher levels)
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If a patient feels negatively about a therapist and compares him 'to his older, bossy brother', the patient may be experiencing__________
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transference
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If a nurse finds herself becoming overly protective of a client who reminds her of her younger sister, the nurse may be experiencing________
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countertransference
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when a client disrupts the progression of therapy and refuses to reveal info about his past he is using____
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resistance
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when a child transfers breastfeeding ability to sucking from a bottle, according to Piaget, this is _____________
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assimilation
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when schematas need to be altered to fit into a new skill, such as sucking from a bottle to drinking from a cup this is________________
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accomodation
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the natural process by which a child learns to organize info into interconnected structures is called_________
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organization
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How does a person manage anxiety according to Henry S Sullivan
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selective inattention
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What is a parataxic distortion according to Sullivan
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a person's fantasy perception of another's attributes
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What are the personifications humans develop according to Sullivan
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"good me"
"bad me" (causes anxiety) and "not me" (so anxiety provoking person doesn't consider part of self) |
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Who developed classical conditioning
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Ivan Pavlov
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Who is considered the father of behaviorism
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B F Skinner
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What is the major focus of operant conditioning
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learning occurs through rewards and punishments
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What are some techniques used in Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
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cognitive restructuring, thought stopping, homework assignments, socratic questions, role-play
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According to Peplau, which level of anxiety has a significantly narrowed perceptual field with the victim having difficulty problem solving
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severe anxiety
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at which level of anxiety can the person problem solve, experience increased awareness and be motivated
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mild
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unable to process stimuli, irrational thinking and potential for self harm are symptoms of what level of anxiety
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panic
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vocal cues, tone, inflection and pace of words are components of____-
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paralingustics
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what is the distance for the personal zone
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18 inches to four feet
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what are attending behaviors
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nodding, eye contact, leaning forward, using facial expressions
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what is the purpose of using silence as a communication tool
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allows for reflection, let's the client collect thoughts
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differentiate between reflecting and paraphrasing
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reflecting focuses on the feeling, rather than the content of what was said; paraphrasing recaps the core content of the patient's message
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"Can you tell me what that felt like?"
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`broad opening
|
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"uh-huh"
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minimum encouragers
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"so what you're saying is..."
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restating
|
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"can you give me an example?"
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clarifying
|
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"you are trembling"
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sharing observations
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"group is at 1pm"
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giving information
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according to Peplau the therapeutic relationship is conceptualized as that of __________________
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participant observer
|
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Peplau defines the roles of the nurse in the therapeutic relationship as
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stranger, counselor, resource person, teacher, leader
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What are the 3 phases of the therapeutic relationship according to Peplau
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orientation
working and termination |
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what occurs in the termination phase of the therapeutic relationship
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recap goals and review progess, discuss aftercare plans, move towards closure
|
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what types of feelings/behaviors may the client demonstrate during termination
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anger, sadness, regression
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what is accomplished during the orientation phase
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develop trust, set up boundaries, define contract, assess needs, strengths, ID nursing diagnoses, plan treatment outcomes
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how should self-disclosure be used
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brief, focused, and relevant to goals of relationship; it builds up a bond and reassures client that their problems aren't unique
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what is splitting
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commonly used by borderline clients; positive transference for one staff member and demeaning competence of others
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what is a clinical pathway
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used by entire treatment team, it identifies key clinical processes with corresponding timelines; linked to quality improvement outcomes
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what are the components of the clinical pathway
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1. ID a target population
2. describe expected outcomes 3. specify treatment strategies 4. document pt care activities, variances and goal achievement |
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what is the MSE
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mental status exam, a subjective report of patients current mental status including appearance, behavior, affect, mood, thought processes, processing deficits and eval of thought content, perception, cognition, judgment and insight
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what is the MMSE
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a objective tool for measuring cognition with a possible score of 30
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who is at greatest risk to commit suicide
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a schizophrenic with command hallucinations
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when assessing for suicidality what factors must be considered
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ideation, gestures, previous attempts, ownership of gun and lethality of plan
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what is the CAGE screening tool used for
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it is a questionnaire to assess for alcohol problems- a person scoring 1 should be further assessed; 2 or > suggests the presence of a substance disorder
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what is the significance of a GAF of 30 or less
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behavior is influenced by delusions and hallucinations with inability to function in all areas....needs hospitalization
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what disorders are listed in Axis I of DSM-I V
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clinical disorders such as schizophrenia, bipolar, major depression, OCD and substance abuse
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what disorders are listed under Axis II
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personality disorders and MR
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what is listed under Axis III
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medical conditions
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what is described under Axis IV
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psychosocial and environmental problems such as unemployment and homelessness
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differentiate between disorganized, paranoid schizophrenia and schizophreniform
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most serious type is disorganized which causes severe impairment of functioning and bizarre behaviors; paranoid schizophrenia least serious- may be able to function moderately well; schizophreniform is symptoms for less than 6 months but for atleast 1 month
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what is cyclothymic and dysthymic disorders
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cyclothmia is chronic fluctuating periods of hypomania and depression for atleast 2 years on and off;
dysthymia is "feeling depressed for as long as I can remember" also chronic, for atleast 2 years on and off |
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differentiate between Bipolar I and Bipolar II
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Bipolar I Disorder is diagnosed when a person has had at least one manic or mixed episode, often along with a major depressive episode.
Bipolar II Disorder is diagnosed when a person has had a major depressive episode along with at least one hypomanic episode. |
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what are behaviors seen in children with separation anxiety
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reluctance to go to school, excessive anxiety, nightmares, repeated somatic symptoms
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what are the impairments seen in children with autism
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impaired social interaction, communication and restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior, interests and activities
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describe the child with oppositional defiant disorder
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negativistic, hostile, loses temper, argues, blames, easily annoyed
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describe the child with conduct disorder
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breaks rules, aggression toward people and animals, steals, destroys property, violates basic rights of others
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what are signs/symptoms of anorexia
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amenorrhrea, hair loss, edema, enlarged abdomen, lanugo, cardiac arrhythmias, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension
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what are s/sx of bulimia
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scarred hands, electrolyte imbalances, loss of tooth enamel, esophageal tears
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describe pathophysiology of alzheimer's
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amyloid deposits and neurofibrillary tangles that interfere with neuronal cells; dexrease in ACh levels; excitoxicity related to glutamate overactivity
|
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what is a characteristic difference in Lewy body dementia and AD
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Lewy body dementia causes visual hallucinations
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How does vascular dementia progress
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stair step fashion as opposed to progressive following a stroke
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what are 3 culturally specific mental illnesses
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amok- malaysia
brain fag- west africa evil eye0 mediterranean |
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what are the 3 illnesses of cluster A personality disorders
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paranoid, schizoid and schizotypal
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what are the 4 illnesses of cluster B personality disorders
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borderline personality, antisocial personality, histrionic and narcissistic personality
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what are the 3 illnesses of cluster C personality disorders
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obsessive compulsive personality
avoidant personality dependent personality |
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how do pts with a paranoid personality cope
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with projection
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how do pts with schizoid personality cope
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intellectualizing
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how do pts with schizotypal personality disorder cope
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by undoing
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how does a person with an anti-social personality cope
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acting out
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how does a person with obsessive compulsive personality cope
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isolation, reaction-formation and undoing
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how does a person with dependent personality cope
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by introjection
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what are side effects of LICO3,
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polyuria and polydipsia, fine tremors, GI upset (take with food), wt gain
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what are s/sx of LICO3 toxicity
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ataxia, slurred speech, coarse tremors, decreased urine output
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what is the purpose of the AIMS scale
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determine presence of EPS and TD- should be done every 3-6 months
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how is a CIWA test conducted
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done every 30 minutes until scores are reduced to <10 for 3 consecutive assessments or for 4 hours- determines presence of ETOH withdrawal and need for medication
|
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how many items on a BPRS
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18, measuring positive symptoms, affective symptoms and general psychopathology
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what is utilitarianism
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making choices based on the consequences of an action- the end justifying the means, what is best for the greater good and risk benefit analysis
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what is deontology
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actions based on what is intrinsically right or wrong, absolute moral rules and principles that are unchangeable
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what are the key concepts of ethical decision making
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justice, beneficence, nonmaleficence, veracity, fidelity and autonomy
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what are Joint Commission guidelines for restraint use
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patient must be seen by LIP within 1 hours of restraint application, must be reordered every 4 hours and patient face-to-face contact while restrained
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what should be documented on the note of a restrained client
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vital signs, circulation and any injuries related to restraints, hygiene, toileting, food and fluids, readiness to be released and mental/physical state of client
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what are the guidelines for treating minors
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parents or legal guardians must consent to treatment and make decisions and can read chart unless therapist feels a crime or abuse has taken place
|
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how can a minor be emancipated
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marriage, military service or living and working on own
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when can a child 12 and over receive treatment without parental consent
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if deemed mature, and can present reason not to involve parents, can receive outpatient care for substance abuse, prevention and treatment of pregnancy or child is alleged victim of incest or would be in serious threat without treatment
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what kind of cases does common law involve
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negligence and malpractice
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what rights are denied a client who is involuntary committed
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right to leave
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what are grounds for civil commitment
|
serious mental illness that creates lack of insight into need for treatment; immediate danger to self or others; unable to care for self rt mental illness
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how long can an initial commitment last
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72 hours, but can certify for an additional 14 days with a court hearing to keep any longer
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what are two insanity pleas used in court
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McNaughten Rule- lacked mental capacity to understand that actions were legally wrong
Irresistible Impulse Test- impulsively driven to commit crime and couldn't control actions even if he knew it was wrong |
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what is acculturation
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taking on language and behavior patterns of dominant culture as result of firsthand contact
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what is assimilation
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adopting behavior patterns of dominant culture such that original ethnic identification disappears (occurs over several generations)
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what is WRAP
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wellness recovery action plan- road map for recovery- includes development of a wellness tool box, a daily maintenance plan, ID'g triggers and an action plan; ID'g early warning signs and planning for a crisis
|
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what are allowable HIPAA disclosures
|
for judicial proceedings
in response to a subpoena; to avert serious harm to others (info must be given to someone in law enforcement) |
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what is a carve out
|
having patients use a separate provider for mental health care; most have separate, lower annual lifetime limits on care
|
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what are some means of accessing mental health care for the poor and those without Medicaid
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wraparound services, block grant funds, head start programs, church affiliated programs
|
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what are functions of the frontal lobe of the brain
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executive functions, working memory, personality (prefrontal cortex)
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where is Broca's area and what is it's function
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located in the frontal lobe for production of speech
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what is a function of the temporal lobe
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understanding speech (Wernicke's area)
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what is the function of the hippocampus and amygdala
|
the hippocampus functions in learning and memory (consolidating long-term explicit memories for facts/events)
the amygdala senses the threat of danger and helps to recognize negative emotions and recalling the emotional aspects of specific life events |
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how does an elevated cortisol level affect the hippocampus
|
cortisol causes atrophy of the hippocampus and alters ability to learn and remember; however is capable of generating new neurons
|
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what is apraxia
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unable to complete purposeful actions like buttoning a shirt
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what is agnosia
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unable to perceive and recognize common objects
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what are functions of the parietal lobe
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ability to sense temp, pressure, pain, vibration, proprioception
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where are the basal ganglia located and what is their function
|
outside of corticospinal pathway; referred to as extrapyramidal; function in motor skills
|
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what causes Parkinson's disease
|
destruction of dopaminergic neurons in the basal gangia
|
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what causes Parkinsonism
|
blockage of dopaminergic neurons by antipsychotic meds
|
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what is the function of the hypothalamus
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master regulatory center of the brain- regulates food and fluid intake, temp, and the pituitary gland in the HPA axis
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what is the function of the limbic system
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regulation of emotion and memory
|
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where are dopamine, NE and 5HT produced
|
in the brainstem
dopamine-substantia nigra NE-locus coerulus 5HT-raphe nucei |
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describe ANS activation during stress
|
activation of ANS stimulates release of epinephrine which stimulates elevation in HR, BP and prepares for fight or flight
|
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what are the 3 stages of the general adaptation syndrome according to Hans Selye
|
alarm, resistance, exhaustion
|
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describe the HPA axis during stress
|
hypothalamus releases CRH which causes pituitary gland to release ACh which causes adrenal glands to release cortisol
|
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what is allostatic load
|
McEwen's description of the wear and tear of the stress response as body continues to secrete cortisol leading to increased glucose, insulinemia, increased cholesterol, elevated BP
|
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what is the ratio of glia cells to neurons
|
10:1
|
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what is the function of glia cells
|
some form myelin sheath (white matter) around axons of neurons and provide support for migration of neurons during development
|
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which neurotransmitters are inhibitory and which are excitatory
|
D, NE, GABA are inhibitory
5HT and Glutamate are excitatory |
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what are functions of 5HT (serotonin)
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mood, appetite, sleep and eating behaviors
|
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what is a major function of acetylcholine
|
skeletal muscle contraction
|
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what is excitotoxicity
|
a process of destruction of the neurons resulting in from too much glutamate and excitatory neuronal activity
|
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describe the brain of a person with schizophrenia
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enlarged 3rd ventricle, too much ventricular fluid and atrophy of brain tissues
|
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what is given as proof that schizophrenia may be be present in early childhood
|
child has language delays and asymmetrical use of major muscle groups
|
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describe relationship of neurotransmitters and schizophrenia
|
elevated dopamine in limbic system leading to positive symptoms; lower levels of dopamine in the prefrontal cortex (leading to negative sx and impaired cognition)
|
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differentiate between depression and bipolar disorder in relation to neurotransmitters
|
in depression there is a decrease in the monoamines and in bipolar there is an elevation
|
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what illnesses that overlap with OCD suggest basal ganglia dysfunction
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tics and ADHD are commonly seen with OCD
|
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which neurotransmitters are implicated in anxiety
|
too little GABA can lead to anxiety and too much NE or glutamate may also lead to anxiety
|
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what are s/sx of metabolic syndrome commonly seen with neuroleptics
|
obese abdomen, dyslipidemia, glucose intolerance, insulin resistance, prothrombotic state and proinflammatory state
|
|
what are the 3 characteristics of ADHD
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impulsiveness
hyperactivity inattentiveness |
|
what meds are used to treat ADHD
|
stimulants such as Ritalin, Cyclert,
Dexedrine and Adderall |
|
how should stimulants be given to children to decrease wt loss and insomnia
|
30 minutes before meals and not near bedtime
|
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what are common side effects of ritalin
|
loss of weight and height
headaches stomaches insomnia |
|
what OTC is contraindicated with LICO3
|
NSAIDS- may increase serum concentrations of drug leading to toxicity
|
|
what causes the anticholinergic effects of some drugs
|
blockade of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
|
|
differentiate between depression and bipolar disorder in relation to neurotransmitters
|
in depression there is a decrease in the monoamines and in bipolar there is an elevation
|
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what illness that overlap with OCD suggest basal ganglia dysfunction
|
tics and ADHD are commonly seen with OCD
|
|
which neurotransmitters are implicated in anxiety
|
too little GABA can lead to anxiety and too much NE or glutamate may also lead to anxiety
|
|
what are s/sx of metabolic syndrome commonly seen with neuroleptics
|
obese abdomen, dyslipidemia, glucose intolerance, insulin resistance, prothrombotic state and proinflammatory state
|
|
what are the 3 characteristics of ADHD
|
impulsiveness
hyperactivity inattentiveness |
|
what meds are used to treat ADHD
|
stimulants such as Ritalin, Cyclert,
Dexedrine and Adderall |
|
how should stimulants be given to children to decrease wt loss and insomnia
|
30 minutes before meals and not near bedtime
|
|
what are common side effects of ritalin
|
loss of weight and height
headaches stomaches insomnia |
|
what OTC is contraindicated with LICO3
|
NSAIDS- may increase serum concentrations of drug leading to toxicity
|
|
what causes the anticholinergic effects of some drugs
|
blockade of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
|
|
what causes EPS side effect
|
antagonism of D2 receptors
|
|
what causes sedation
|
blockade of histamine receptors
|
|
what causes orthostatic hypotension
|
blockade of adrenergic receptors
|
|
what causes sexual dysfunction, anxiety, akathisia, insomnia, GI upset and diarrhea
|
activation of serotonergic receptors
|
|
what are the phases of treatment for most mental illnesses
|
acute phase- prevent harm, control behavior and reduce positive symptoms
stabilization-focus on interventions to minimize stress and adjust med maintenance-goal is recovery |
|
what med is used to treat Tourette's
|
haldol
|
|
what is the risks and benefits of using high potency conventional antipsychotics
|
more EPS, but less anticholinergic side effects and sedation
|
|
which high potency antipsychotics can be given as an injection
|
haldol and prolixin
|
|
what are anticholinergic side effects of conventional antipsychotics
|
dry mouth, urinary retention, blurred vision, nasal congestion, constipation
|
|
what EPS symptoms are seen with conventional antipsychotics
|
dystonia
TD oculogyric crisis blepharospasm glossopharyngeal dystonias |
|
what meds are used to treat EPS
|
cogentin, benadryl, symmetrel, tenex
|
|
describe s/sx of NMS and treatment
|
high temp
autonomic instability (labile BP) sweating muscular rigidity (check CPK) treated with bromocriptine or dantrolene |
|
what are s/sx of acetylcholine toxicity
|
M-U-D-D-L-E-S: miosis, urination, diarrhea, diaphoresis, lacrimation, excitation of the central nervous system, and salivation.
|
|
what is drug of choice for hypertensive crisis
|
regitine
|
|
what are s/sx of tyramine crisis
|
Symptoms include severe headache, rapid heart rate, chest pain, neck stiffness, nausea, vomiting, sweating [may include a fever or cold, clammy skin], dilated pupils, and eye sensitivity to light
|
|
what drug(s) are never taken with MAOIs
|
ephedrine, TCAs or SSRIs
|
|
which atypical antipsychotic is linked to increasing the seizure threshold
|
clozaril
|
|
what should be done if a patient is being treated with geodon
|
monitor ECG- causes prolonged QTc
|
|
Which atypical is most sedating
|
seroquel
|
|
what meds are used to treat EPS
|
cogentin, benadryl, symmetrel, tenex
|
|
describe s/sx of NMS and treatment
|
high temp
autonomic instability (labile BP) sweating muscular rigidity (check CPK) treated with bromocriptine or dantrolene |
|
what are s/sx of acetylcholine toxicity
|
M-U-D-D-L-E-S: miosis, urination, diarrhea, diaphoresis, lacrimation, excitation of the central nervous system, and salivation.
|
|
what is drug of choice for hypertensive crisis
|
regitine
|
|
what are s/sx of tyramine crisis
|
Symptoms include severe headache, rapid heart rate, chest pain, neck stiffness, nausea, vomiting, sweating [may include a fever or cold, clammy skin], dilated pupils, and eye sensitivity to light.)
|
|
what drug(s) are never taken with MAOIs
|
ephedrine, TCAs or SSRIs
|
|
besides agranulocytosis, what is another concern when using clozaril
|
seizures
|
|
what two meds have been linked to stevens-johnson syndrome
|
lamictal and tegretol
|
|
what should be done if a patient is being treated with geodon
|
monitor ECG- causes prolonged QTc
|
|
Which atypical is most sedating
|
seroquel
|
|
why are TCAs never used with a suicidal patient
|
risk for OD and death secondary to cardiotoxicity
|
|
what is benefit to using wellbutrin
|
low sexual side effects
|
|
when is use of wellbutrin contraindicated
|
seizures, eating disorders
|
|
what are s/sx of stevens-johnson syndrome
|
sores on mucous membranes
cough FUO rashes |
|
when using depakote what must be monitored
|
liver function studies- it is hepatotoxic
|
|
what is therapeutic depakote level
|
50-100
|
|
when using prolixin what teaching should be given to the patient
|
wear sunscreen, long sleeves- it is photosensitive
|
|
what could result with LICO3 is given with Haldol
|
toxic encephalopathy
|
|
what should be monitored when LICO3 is used
|
therapeutic blood levels (kept between 0.6-1.2 for maintenance)
and thyoid studies- med causes hypothyroidism |
|
what are s/sx of LICO3 toxicity
|
diarrhea, ataxia, slurred speech
|
|
what is a benefit of remeron for depressed clients who don't eat
|
it increases appetite and causes wt gain
|
|
what is a side effect of trazadone
|
priapism
|
|
how long should the washout be between MAOIs and Prozac
|
5 weeks
|
|
which atypicals cause the most wt gain
|
zyprexa and seroquel
|
|
what should be monitored closely with effexor use
|
blood pressure for hypertension
|
|
for what illnesses would anticholinergics be contraindicated in
|
addison's, narrow angle glaucoma, and myasthenia gravis
|
|
what meds cannot be combined with MAOIs
|
decongestants, demerol, epinephrine, L-dopa, herbals
|
|
what is a predisposing factor to the development of NMS
|
dehydration
|
|
what are s/sx of serotonin syndrome
|
elevated BP, diarrhea, lethargy, myoclonus, restless, flushing, change in mental status
|
|
what is a therapeutic tegretol level
|
4-12
|
|
what are early s/sx of LICO3 toxicity
|
nystagmus, tremors, drowsiness, diarrhea
|
|
what are two long-acting benzodiazepines
|
valium (20-80 hours)
klonopin (18-50 hours) |
|
what is given to dry up respiratory and oral secretions during ECT
|
anticholinergic
|
|
why is a muscle relaxant given with ECT
|
prevent fractures
|
|
what are two side effects of EXT
|
memory loss and confusion
|
|
what techniques are used in solution focused therapy
|
miracle questions
scaling exception finding questions |
|
what is an example of primary gain
|
not having to face a superior at work by calling out sick
|
|
what is an example of secondary gain
|
having someone send you flowers or make you chicken noodle soup
|
|
what are early s/sx of LICO3 toxicity
|
nystagmus, tremors, drowsiness, diarrhea
|
|
what are two long-acting benzodiazepines
|
valium (20-80 hours)
klonopin (18-50 hours) |
|
what is given to dry up respiratory and oral secretions during ECT
|
anticholinergic
|
|
why is a muscle relaxant given with ECT
|
prevent fractures
|
|
what are two side effects of ECT
|
memory loss and confusion
|
|
what techniques are used in solution focused therapy
|
miracle questions
scaling exception finding questions |
|
what is an example of primary gain
|
not having to face a superior at work by calling out sick
|
|
what is an example of secondary gain
|
having someone send you flowers or make you chicken noodle soup
|
|
what is a cause of pseudodementia
|
depression
|
|
what is accomplished in the intervention phase of crisis
|
establish relationship, understand and explore feelings, find alternative coping strategies
|
|
why would a person with borderline personality cut herself
|
stress reduction; many say they don't even feel the pain
|
|
how might a person with conversion disorder react to their paralysis or blindness
|
la belle indifference- without concern
|
|
what is the first stage of the victim abuse cycle
|
tension building
|
|
what happens after the acute battering in the abuse cycle
|
honeymoon phase- calm, loving, fear of victim leaving
|
|
what is complicated grief
|
excessive in duration (>3 mos) with disabling symptoms, suicidality
|
|
what is uncomplicated grief
|
self-esteem remains intact and distress resolved in approx. 12 weeks
|
|
what instruction are given to the client on lithium
|
drink 2-3L of fluid, take usually amount of salt in (don't restrict), no NSAIDs
|
|
what skin and hair disorders are seen with lithium
|
acne, psoriasis and alopecia
|
|
what is the best type of reinforcement schedule to use in behavior modification
|
variable ratio- initially can be given frequently and then decreased as performance improves
|
|
is punishment used as a behavior modification technique
|
yes. it can inhibit an undesirable behavior by making negative consequences contingent upon it such as grounding a teen
|
|
what is the best evidence in a research study
|
random controlled trials- can answer cause and effect using a placebo versus actual treatment
|
|
what are Bowen's 8 interconnected concepts in family systems
|
1. triangles
2. differentiation of self 3. nuclear family 4. projection process 5. multigenerational transmission 6. emotional cutoff 7. sibling position 8. societal emotion process |
|
what are the 4 relationship patters identified by Bowen
|
1. marital conflict
2. dysfunction in one spouse 3. impairment in 1 or > children 4. emotional distance between members |
|
what boundaries were identified by Salvador Minunchin
|
invisible, enmeshed, disengaged
|
|
what do structural therapist believe the therapist needs to do to assist a troubled family
|
"join" with the family using mimesis- imitating their way of communicting
|
|
which theorist based their therapy on the premise that symptoms serve a function in the family
|
Haley and Madanes- strategic family systems
|
|
what is a double-bind strategy
|
provide conflicting messages to the family so that the message they choose to respond to negates the contradictory message
|
|
who would benefit from multi-systemic therapy (MST)
|
adolescent involved in the juvenile justice system- usually 4 months or 60 contact hours
|
|
what is the best type of reinforcement schedule to use in behavior modification
|
variable ratio- initially can be given frequently and then decreased as performance improves
|
|
is punishment used as a behavior modification technmique
|
yes. it can inhibit an undesirable behavior by making negative consequences contingent upon it such as grounding a teen
|
|
what is the best evidence in a research study
|
random controlled trials- can answer cause and effect using a placebo versus actual treatment
|
|
what are Bowen's 8 interconnected concepts in family systems
|
1. triangles
2. differentiation of self 3. nuclear family 4. projection process 5. multigenerational transmission 6. emotional cutoff 7. sibling position 8. societal emotion process |
|
what are the 4 relationship patters identified by Bowen
|
1. marital conflict
2. dysfunction in one spouse 3. impairment in 1 or > children 4. emotional distance between members |
|
what boundaries were identified by Salvador Minunchin
|
invisible, enmeshed, disengaged
|
|
what do structural therapist believe the therapist needs to do to assist a troubled family
|
"join" with the family using mimesis- imitating their way of communicating
|
|
which theorist based their therapy on the premise that symptoms serve a function in the family
|
Haley and Madanes- strategic family systems
|
|
what is a double-bind strategy
|
provide conflicting messages to the family so that the message they choose to respond to negates the contradictory message
|
|
who would benefit from multi-systemic therapy (MST)
|
adolescent involved in the juvenile justice system- usually 4 months or 60 contact hours
|
|
what is an ideal number of members for group therapy to foster communication and growth
|
6 to 8
|
|
what is a heterogenous group
|
mix of people, different diagnosis
|
|
what is a homogenous group
|
same age, or gender, or problems
|
|
are most out-patient groups open or closed
|
closed- members are identified before and stays relatively constant
|
|
according to Tuckman what are the 5 stages of the group process
|
1. forming-orientation, trust developed, rules addressed, leader most active
2. storming-control/power issues emerge, acting-out behaviors seen 3. norming- group develops group specific standards such as disapproval of late arrivals 4. performing- work and growth done, team productivity and effectiveness 5. adjourning- closure- review goal achievements, explore feeling related to ending |
|
what are Yalom's 11 group components
|
1. hope
2. universality 3. altruism 4. existential factors 5. catharsis 6. cohesiveness 7. corrective opportunity torework earlier family issues 8. imitating behaviors 9. socialization 10. information 11. interpersonal learning |
|
what is meant by self-functions in relation to group members
|
behaviors which are disruptive to the group such as blocking discussion, power seeking, clowning, and dominating (done by members with own agenda)
|
|
what is the most important relationship for young people
|
support from peers
|
|
describe group therapy for young people and children
|
should be structured but with flexible rules with clear expectations for participating
|
|
describe milieu therapy
|
staff and client work jointly to plan activities and make unit decisions, communication is open and direct, close ties to larger community with reality testing enhanced
|
|
what does Jones call the therapeutic community- a component of milieu therapy
|
a "living-learning situation"
it is a microcosm of larger society supported by peer influence |
|
what is a drawback to hypnosis
|
can provoke presentation of falsememories
|
|
how do the Chinese perceive stress
|
as both danger and opportunity with constructive resolution leading to stronger coping ability
|
|
What are the characteristics of the crisis state
|
somatic complaints
perceptual changes and intense feeling impaired impulse control limited capacity to ask for/draw support |
|
what are 3 types of crises
|
maturational (childbirth)
situational (unemployment) adventitious (earthquake) |
|
what are balancing factors in resolving a would-be crisis
|
ability to form a realistic perception of the event, obtain adequate support, resolve the problem and avert crisis state
|
|
how long should a crisis last
|
4-6 weeks
|
|
what is the goal of crisis intervention
|
return to pre-crisis adaptive level of functioning and prevent negative effects of stressors
|
|
what are the stages of crisis intervention
|
1. assessment & stabilization (medical attention and safety)
2. collect comprehensive data (what just happened, circumstances, etc) 3. problem solving (ID past coping mechanisms, strengths, set goals 4. resolution |
|
what is the profile of an abuser
|
low self esteem
dependent personality poor impulse control |
|
what are the steps to follow when caring for an abuse victim
|
1. interview alone, validate feelings, believe the victim
2. document signs of abuse, protect chain of evidence 3. if an child- remove from home 4. educate 5. develop a safety plan 6. referrals |
|
what is bereavement
|
time after a loss during which grief is expressed
|
|
what are the 4 stages of bereavement
|
a. shock & numbness
b. yearning & searching c. disorganization & despair d. reorganization |
|
how do toddlers, preschoolers and school-age children react to death
|
infants and toddlers will look for dead person, may not eat, lose wt and are lethargic;
preschoolers will see death as reversible and may blame self, have magical thinking school-age may ask questions and are curious about life after death |
|
what are symptoms of complicated grief
|
abnormal grieving or delayed grieving;
unable to develop new relationsips; avoid reminders of loss anxiety, agorophobia sleeplessness bittern depressed |
|
according to Nola Pender individuals will engage in health teaching based on what 3 factors
|
susceptibility to the disease
the severity of the disease the potential benefit of their actions |
|
according to Bandura, what 3 factors motivate a person to learn
|
physical- do they have current symptoms or have they experienced them in the past
social incentives- will are they get praise and encouragement cognitive- perceived self-efficacy- can they learn |
|
according to Prochaska and Velicer what are the stages for assessing a client's readiness to change
|
1. precontemplation (doesn't see problem, not considering change)
2. contemplation (willing to discuss pros and cons) 3. preparation (ready to change within 30 days) 4. action (taking steps to change) 5. maintenance (persevering, may relapse) |
|
what is the PRECEDE-PROCEED model
|
community based teaching model - 9 phases, the first 5 involving assessment needs of community and developing a teaching model
|
|
what is an example of primary prevention
|
parenting classes, stress management program- done before a problem presents to decrease incidence
|
|
what is the focus of primary prevention
|
to help clients develop skills and knowledge related to controlling risk factors and healthy living; to decrease the INCIDENCE
|
|
what is an example of secondary prevention
|
screening for BP
CAGE or SADPERSON screens |
|
what is the focus of secondary prevention
|
to promote early diagnosis near the beginning of illness and decrease the number of current cases or PREVALENCE
|
|
what is the best leadership style
|
transformational
|
|
what type of staff may benefit from laissez-faire leadership
|
highly motivated
|
|
what type of staff would function with a
democratic leader |
a mature staff
|
|
when is autocratic leadership effective
|
during a crisis
|
|
what are 5 types of power leaders may possess
|
expert, referent, legitimate, reward, coercive and informational
|
|
what are the 5 steps to evidence-based practice
|
1. ask an answerable question
2. collect data 3. critically appraise the data 4. synthesize & integrate data in making practice decisions or change 5. evaluate the change |
|
what types of research has the most strength
|
random controlled trials which can answer cause and effect using a placebo and treatment group
|
|
what is the focus of primary prevention
|
to help clients develop skills and knowledge related to controlling risk factors and healthy living; to decrease the INCIDENCE
|
|
what is an example of secondary prevention
|
screening for BP
CAGE or SADPERSON screens |
|
what is the focus of secondary prevention
|
to promote early diagnosis near the beginning of illness and decrease the number of current cases or PREVALENCE
|
|
what is the best leadership style
|
transformational
|
|
what type of staff may benefit from laissez-faire leadership
|
highly motivated
|
|
what type of staff would function with a
democratic leader |
a mature staff
|
|
when is autocratic leadership effective
|
during a crisis
|
|
what are 6 types of power leaders may possess
|
expert, referent, legitimate, reward, coercive and informational
|
|
what are the 5 steps to evidence-based practice
|
1. ask an answerable question
2. collect data 3. critically appraise the data 4. synthesize & integrate data in making practice decisions or change 5. evaluate the change |
|
what type of research has the most strength
|
random controlled trials which can answer cause and effect using a placebo and treatment group
|
|
what are 3 domains of learning
|
affective, cognitive and psychomotor
|
|
what are Bloom's 6 levels of cognitive learning
|
1. knowledge- recall the info
2. comprehension- interpret info 3. application- use the info 4. analysis-see patterns, make inferences from info 5. synthesis- generalize from old ideas to new, make plans based on info 6. evaluate - compare and discriminate |
|
describe kinesthetic learning
|
kinesthetic learners are active, want to be doing, moving
|
|
what are indications of health illiteracy
|
1. can't explain medical problems
2. poor follow-thru with meds, test, appointments 3. only asking basic questions or none at all 4. can't describe how to take meds or know when to get help |
|
what is a teach-back format for learning
|
have the client explain to you what has been taught
|
|
according to Malcom Knowles (father of adult learning) what do adult learners need to know to learn
|
why they need to learn something
|
|
when does formative evaluation of learning take place
|
it is ongoing, occurring as the teaching is taking place such as feedback; can serve to improve a course; it is goal directed and prospective
|
|
when does summative evaluation of learning take place
|
at the end of the course, often in the form of grades; it is outcome oriented and retrospective
|
|
in which part a research report would you read a brief summary, a few sentences describing each section
|
abstract
|
|
in which section of a research report are the methods, participants and instruments described
|
methods
|
|
where in a research report would you find interpretation of the findings described
|
discussion
|
|
what 4 factors give a research study the greatest strength
|
1. sufficient sample size (at least 30)
2. adequate control 3. definitive conclusions 4. consistent results and recommendations |
|
which type of research study exercises the most control over independent variables
|
RCTs
|
|
how long does mourning typically last
|
up to 1 year or more
|
|
which antidepressant has the most sexual dysfunction side effects
|
zoloft
|
|
which antidepressant can be prescribed for OCD
|
Luvox
|
|
what is a serous side effect of Effexor
|
hypertension
|
|
what is a cohort research study
|
PROSPECTIVE- to examine variables that might be relevant to the development of an illness
ex. studying offspring of moms with depression |
|
what is a case control study
|
RETROSPECTIVE-observational study to determine factors that may contribute to a condition by comparing those who have it with others who do not
ex. studying smokers with lung cancer and those who don't smoke |
|
what is a quasi-experimental study
|
comparing two naturally occuring groups of interest
|
|
what type of research is the poorest
|
qualitative
|
|
what are two types of statistics
|
descriptive- used to describe basic features of data (most nursing studies are this kind) using numerical values to summarize and organize
inferential- used to reach conclusions that extend beyond immediate data alone using probability |
|
what is the P value
|
<0.05 -considered statistically significantly
|
|
what are the levels of measurement in statistics
|
nominal- counts frequencies
ordinal-ranks order interval- equal differences between values ratio |
|
what are the 4 components of the nursing paradigm addressed in all theories
|
person
environment health nurse |
|
what is metacommunication
|
gestures, facial expressions
and body movements |
|
what are the parts of the Johari Window used to increase self-awareness
|
known only to self
known only to others known to self and others known to neither self and others |
|
what med should never be given with an SSRI
|
tramadol- it inhibits reuptake of 5HT causing SSRI syndrome
|
|
what are Sullivan's 3 modes of relating to the external world
|
prototaxic- used by infants who cannot differentiate from others
parataxic-by children and juveniles who see self as different but don't yet see how they fit into the world syntaxic- used by teens and adults who understand complex situations and use consensual validation |
|
what is consensual validation
|
mutual agreement about perceptions
|
|
describe the 4 principles of the existential model
|
1. alienation from self causes deviance
2. the self imposes behavioral restrictions that cause alienation 3. each person can make free choices about which behaviors to display 4. people submit to others' demands rather than be themselves |
|
what is the primary goal of gestalt therapy
|
self-growth. self-awareness and ability to engage in self-discovery
|
|
what are two therapeutic techniques of gestalt therapy
|
empty chair dialogue and dream discussion
|
|
mutation, obtundation, akinesia, dystonia, muscular rigidity, hyperpyrexia, sweating and elevated P and BP
|
NMS
|
|
dry as a bone, red as a beet, hot as a hare, blind as a bat, mad as a hatter
|
anticholinergic toxicity
|
|
antipsychotic: risk of QTc prolongation
|
seroquel
|
|
this SSRI may cause GI bleeding
|
Prozac
|
|
what are indications that an antidepressant is working
|
improvement in energy & sleept
|
|
what is selegiline
|
MAOI that can be given via a skin patch; also used for PD
|
|
severe occipital headache, elevated BP, tachycardia, sweating, fever and vomiting
|
hypertensive crisis (tyramine induced)
|
|
common side effects include akathisa, sexual dysfunction, anxiety, agitation, insomnia, diarrhea
|
SSRIs
|
|
confusion, extreme agitation, autonomic instability, muscle rigidity, gooseflesh, hyperthermia, hyperpyrexia, myoclonic jerking
|
Serotonin Syndrome
|
|
common side effects: thirst, nausea, increased urination, fine hand tremor, GI upset, hair loss, acne, sedation
|
Lithium
|
|
what instructions are given to the person on lithium in terms of toxicity
|
avoid excess salt and dehydration; see MD if diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, drowsiness, tremor, muscle weakness, nystagmus
|
|
what are symptoms of LICO3 toxicity
|
fever, decreased urine output, hypotension, irregular P, ECG changes and impaired consciousness
|
|
what are side effects of anticonvulsant therapy
|
GI upset, wt gain, tremor, hair loss, increased risk for thrombocytopenia, and liver disease with long term use
|
|
what is a serious long term side effect of tegretol
|
agranulocytosis
|
|
lamictal may cause what life threatening rash
|
steven-johnson syndrome or toxic necrolysis
|
|
what is the MOA for benzodiazepines
|
potentiation of GABA in the limbic system
|
|
what are the advantages of benzo's with a longer 1/2 life
|
less frequent dosing
less variation in plasma concentration and less severe withdrawal |
|
what are the disadvantages of prescribing a benzo with a longer 1/2 life
|
drug accumulation
daytime sedation and daytime psychomotor retardation |
|
which is the longest acting benzo
|
valium
|
|
what are cognitive disortions
|
automatic harmful thoughts that people can have in response to stressful situations
|
|
what is cognitive restructuring
|
challenging irrational beliefs and substituting with positive self-statements
|
|
reinforcement given after a fixed number of response and every nth response is reinforced is a --------------schedule
|
fixed ratio
|
|
reinforcement is given after a distinct time interval and a certain amount of time has lapsed before a reinforcer is given is a ________________schdule
|
fixed interval
|
|
reinforcement is provided for the first response after a variable amount of time has elapsed is a _________________schedule
|
variable interval
|
|
reinforcement after a variable number of responses is a ________________schedule
|
variable ratio
|
|
what is equifinality
|
family systems can achieve the same goals through different routes
|
|
what is circular causality
|
emotional problems can be best understood contextually as part of ongoing feedback loop that maintains a problem
|
|
what is morphostasis
|
all family systems seek stability in the midst of change
|
|
what is morphogenesis
|
all family systems are in constant state of change as they adapt to changing family needs
|
|
what are 3 types of crises
|
situational
adventitious maturational |
|
what does Aguilera state must be present when a person experiences an event that creates disequilibrium
|
balancing factors in the form of realistic perception of event, support and adequate coping mechansims to regain equilibrium and avert a crisis
|
|
what is the abuse cycle
|
tension building
acute battering honeymoon phase |
|
according to the Nat'l Cancer Institute what are the phases of grieving
|
shock and numbness
yearning and searching disorganization and despair organization |
|
Gail Stuart's stress adaptation model includes what specific components
|
1. predisposing factors (age, etc)
2. precipitating factors stressful life event) 3. appraisal of the stressor 4. coping resources 5. coping mechanism 6. continuum of coping response |
|
what type of medication should be avoided with MAOIs
a. antihistamine b. antihypertensive c. aspirin d. anticoagulant |
antihypertensive
|
|
differentiated practice roles are determined by what or who
|
levels are determined by education and expected skills
|
|
A teen is drinking, lying and stealing. Using Freud's personality development, he has a defect in his _____________
|
id
|
|
what is the main focus of therapeutic communication
|
to help patients clarify issues and develop different perspectives
|
|
if a client asks for a hug- what should you do
|
explain about boundaries and how they make a relationship safe
|
|
if a patient kisses you, what should you do
|
suggest an activity to redirect energy
|
|
what does Aguilera state must be present when a person experiences an event that creates disequilibrium
|
balancing factors in the form of realistic perception of event, support and adequate coping mechansims to regain equilibrium and avert a crisis
|
|
what is the abuse cycle
|
tension building
acute battering honeymoon phase |
|
according to the Nat'l Cancer Institute what are the phases of grieving
|
shock and numbness
yearning and searching disorganization and despair organization |
|
Gail Stuart's stress adaptation model includes what specific components
|
1. predisposing factors (age, etc)
2. precipitating factors stressful life event) 3. appraisal of the stressor 4. coping resources 5. coping mechanism 6. continuum of coping response |
|
what type of medication should be avoided with MAOIs
a. antihistamine b. antihypertensive c. aspirin d. anticoagulant |
antihypertensive
|
|
differentiated practice roles are determined by what or who
|
levels are determined by education and expected skills
|
|
A teen is drinking, lying and stealing. Using Freud's personality development, he has a defect in his _____________
|
id
|
|
what is the main focus of therapeutic communication
|
to help patients clarify issues and develop different perspectives
|
|
if a client asks for a hug- what should you do
|
explain about boundaries and how they make a relationship safe
|
|
if an acutely manic patient kisses you and asks you to marry him, what should you do
|
suggest an activity to redirect energy such as folding clothes
|
|
which organ engages the body's fight-or-flight response
|
the hypothalamus
|
|
movement disorders such as bradykinesia dn hyperkinesia suggest impairment where
|
in the basal ganglia
|
|
with stress what neurotransmitter is released
|
epinephrine
|
|
which 2 neurotransmitters are excitatory
|
glutamate and norepinephrine
|
|
what is the virtue of erikson's initiative vs guilt
|
purpose
|
|
what is the virtue of erikson's stage four, industry vs inferiority
|
competence
|
|
what is the virtue of erikson's identity v role confusion
|
fidelity
|
|
what is the viture of erikson's intimacy vs isolation
|
love
|
|
how is a CAGE scored
|
score of 1 suggests need for further assessment
score of 2 suggests alcohol abuse |
|
how does Peplau conceptualize the nurses role in a therapeutic relationship
|
participant observer
|
|
according to peplau what are the 5 roles of nurses
|
teacher
resource person leader stranger counselor |
|
what are the 5 stages of Prochaska's model of change
|
precontemplation
contemplation preparation action maintenance |
|
according to Bandura, what are 3 motivators to change
|
physical
social cognitive |
|
what is considered the personal zone om proxemics
|
18inches to 4feet
|
|
what is a common side effect of thorazine
|
photosensitivity
|
|
with opiod intoxication describe the pupils
|
pinpoint
(dilated with overdose) |
|
what is the benefit of play for pre-schoolers
|
helps child to develop introjection (taking on values, beliefs of others)
|
|
what would happen if a person with Lewy body dementia rec'd an antipsychotic
|
severe EPS
|
|
which antidepressant causes the most nausea
|
paxil
|
|
if a nurse becomes anxious during a session with a client what should she do
|
leave and provide continuity of care
|
|
which organ engages the body's fight-or-flight response
|
the hypothalamus
|
|
movement disorders such as bradykinesia and hyperkinesia suggest impairment where
|
in the basal ganglia
|
|
with stress what neurotransmitter is released
|
epinephrine
|
|
which 2 neurotransmitters are excitatory
|
glutamate and norepinephrine
|
|
what is the virtue of erikson's initiative vs guilt
|
purpose
|
|
what is the virtue of erikson's stage four, industry vs inferiortiy
|
competence
|
|
what is the virtue of erikson's identity v role confusion
|
fidelity
|
|
what is the viture of erikson's intimacy vs isolation
|
love
|
|
how is a CAGE scored
|
score of 1 suggests need for further assessment
score of 2 suggests alcohol abuse |
|
how does Peplau conceptualize the nurses role in a therapeutic relationship
|
participant observer
|
|
what should a nurse do if she becomes anxious while interacting with a client
|
leave and arrange for continuity of care
|
|
what would happen if a person with Lewy body dementia rec'd an antipsychotic
|
severe EPS
|
|
which conventional antipsychotic is photosensitive
|
thorazine
|
|
describe the pupils of a person who is intoxicated from an opiate
|
pinpoint
|
|
what defense mechanism do pre-schoolers learn from play
|
introjection
|
|
describe the bodies reaction during fight or flight response
|
dilated pupils
dilated bronchioles elevated HR, elevated glucose peripheral vasoconstriction |
|
why is it important to monitor the client closely after administering narca for heroin OD
|
can experience return of narcotic effect after narcan metabolized
|
|
describe body response to fight or flight
|
dilated pupils
dilated bronchioles elevated glucose, elevated heart rate peripheral vasoconstriction |
|
why is it important to monitor closely after narcan given for heroin OD
|
return of narcotic effect possible after narcan metabolized
|
|
what is the effect of haldol on insulin
|
alters the effectiveness- may need more insulin
|
|
which TCA can lead to glaucoma
|
tofranil
|
|
what is the DOC for opiate withdrawal
|
catapres
|
|
what is used to treat opioid dependency
|
buprenex
|
|
what happens if a person on antabuse drinks alcohol
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flushing, severe headache, hypotension, tachycardia, nausea and vomiting and bloodshot eyes
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besides antabuse, what other med can be prescribed for treatment of alcohol
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ReVia
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what is Wernicke-Korsakoff's syndrome-
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form of amnesia with confabulation and inflammatory brain hemorrhage due to thiamine deficiency
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when does opiate withdrawal begin
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12-16 hours
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what is a long term goal of major depression
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to become more accepting of self and others
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yawning, lacrimation, rhinitis, gooseflesh, muscle aches, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, tremors, sneezing and fever are symptoms of
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opiate withdrawal
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when does ETOH withdrawal syndrome begin
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several hours to few days after last drink (8 hours)
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when do alcohol induced DTs begin
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24-72 hours after last drink
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what are indications of impending alcohol DTs
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elevated temp, pulse and BP
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hypervigilant, agitated, tremulous, hallucinations and illusions....
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DTs
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how many calories should the anorexic start out on
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1200-1500
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should the anorexia see her weight on the scale
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no
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what is done if the anorexic is losing weight during in-patient treatment
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bedrest until gaining evident then redo treatment plan
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what is used to treat OD from benzodiazepines
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romazicon
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where is dopamine produced
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in the brain stem
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where are NE and Epinephrine produced
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in the basal ganglia
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what happens if there is too much salt in the diet of a person on LICO3
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less than therapeutic amt of drug in system
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what happens if there is not enough salt in the diet of a person on LICO3
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lithium toxicity
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which antipyschotic may be prescribed for anorexics
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zyprexa
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salivation, lacrimation, abdominal pain, vomiting, diarrhea, violent muscle contractions, weakness of voluntary muscles and possible respiratory failure....
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acetylcholine toxcity
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how is acetylcholine toxicity treated
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atropine and activated charcoal
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what is the function of the hypothalamus
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activate stress response and serve as master regulatory center of brain
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what are s/sx of LICO3 tox >2.5
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blurred vision, anuria, hypotension
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what are 4 possible causes of LICO3 toxicity
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fever, diuretics, NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors
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what is malingering
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exaggerating symptoms with motivation to avoid something or someone
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what is an example of a factitious disorder
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Munchausens
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what are the ratings for mild to profound mental retardation
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mild 55-70
moderate 40-55 severe 25-39 profound <25 |
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how might primary caregivers feel towards clients with munchausen's
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angry
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what dietary instructions should be given to men using cialis or levitra
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no grapefruit juice
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what are s/sx of metabolic syndrome associated with antipsychotic
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obese abdomen, elevated BP, dyslipidemia, insulin resistance, proinflammatory state and prothrombotic state
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describe the family system of an anorexic
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enmeshed, over protective and minimal independence
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what is Russell's sign
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callus formation on fingers of bulimic from purging
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after medical attention, what is the primary focus for treating eating disorders
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devise an eating plan to give adequate nutrition
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when does postpartum depression appear
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approx 3 weeks post delivery
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what are the components of a research study
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* Abstract
* Introduction * Method * Results * Discussion * Conclusion Reference list |