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143 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Psychiatrists and Psychologists label behavior as disordered when it is: A) aggressive, persistent, and intentional B) selfish, habitual, and avoidable C) deviant, distressful, and dysfunctional D) biologically influenced, unconsciously motivated, and difficult to change |
C) Deviant, distressful, and dysfunctional |
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Alexis is socially withdrawn and has few close fiends. This behavior is most likely to be diagnosed as a symptom of psychological disorder if it is: A) also noticeable in other members of her family B) preventing her from functioning effectively C) not caused by a biological disorder D) difficult for her to change |
B) Preventing her from functioning effectively |
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DSM-IV-TR focuses on clinicians' reports of observable behavior in order to: A) facilitate the reliability of the diagnosis B) shorten the time it takes to make a diagnosis C) avoid invading the clients' psychological privacy D) reduce the need for medical terminology in psychological assessments |
A) facilitate the reliability of the diagnosis |
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A major depressive disorder is most likely to be characterized by: A) delusions of persecution B) alternations between extreme hopelessness and unrealistic optimism C) a persistent irrational fear of other people D) feelings of personal worthlessness |
D) Feelings of personal worthlessness |
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During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, individuals are most likely to: A) be overactive B) experience delusions of persecution C) feel uncontrollable grief or despair D) experience visual or auditory hallucinations |
A) Be overactive |
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Mr. Hunt believes that he is the presdent of the United States and that he will soon become the "King of the Universe". Mr. Hunt is most clearly suffering from: A) delusions B) obsessions C) hallucinations D) dissociation |
A) Delusions |
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Wilma is extremely agitated because she hears voices that tell her to sexually seduce the male nurses in her hospital ward. Wilma is most clearly suffering from:
A) flat effect B) catatonia C) delusions D) hallucinations |
D) hallucinations
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Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are the ____ of inappropriate behaviors, and the negative symptoms are the ____ of appropriate behaviors.
A) absence; absence B) presence; presence C) absence; presence D) presence; absence |
D) presence; absence
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Jabar, a 25-year-old auto mechanic, thinks he is Napoleon. He further believes he is being imprisoned against his will in the psychiatric hospital where his relatives have brought him for treatment. Jabar is most likely suffering from _____ schizophrenia
A) catatonic B) paranoid C) disorganized D) residual |
B) Paranoid
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Although Mrs. Petrides usually sits passively in a motionless stupor, she sometimes repetitiously shakes her head or waves her arms. She most likely suffers from ____ schizophrenia. A) paranoid B) undifferentiated C) residual D) catatonic |
D) Catatonic
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Maladaptive behaviors that reduce worry and fear are most indicative of: A) somatoform disorder B) an anxiety disorder C) a dissociative disorder D) antisocial personality |
B) An anxiety disorder |
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Rishi, a college student, complains that he feels apprehensive and fearful most of the time, but doesn't know why. Without warning, his heart begins to pound, his hands get icy, and he breaks out in a cold sweat. Rishi most likely suffers from: A) post-traumatic stress disorder B) obsessive-compulsive disorder C) generalized anxiety disorder D) a phobia |
C) generalized anxiety disorder |
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An incapacitating and highly distressing fear about being embarrassed in the presence of others is most characteristic of:
A) panic disorder B) social phobia C) antisocial personality disorder D) obsessive-compulsive disorder |
B) Social phobia |
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Cecil is preoccupied with thoughts of jumping out the window of his tenth-floor apartment. To reduce his anxiety, he frequently counts his heartbeats aloud. Cecil would most likely be diagnosed as experiencing
A) panic disorder B) hypochondriasis C) generalized anxiety disorder D) obsessive-compulsive disorder |
D) Obsessive-compulsive disorder |
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Mrs. Swift is alarmed by her own intrusive and irrational thought that her house is contaminated by germs. Her experience best illustrates the agitating effects of: A) a specific phobia B) an obsession C) agoraphobia D) panic disorder |
B) An obsession |
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Repeatedly thinking about your own death is to _____ as repeatedly washing your hands is to _____.
A) paranoia; dissociation B) narcissism; agoraphobia C) delusion; phobia D) obsession; compulsion |
D) Obsession; compulsion |
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The social withdrawal and haunting nightmares of battle-scarred war veterans best illustrate symptoms of: A) DID B) GAD C) OCD D) PTSD |
D) PTSD |
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Exhibiting two or ore distinct and alternating personalities is a symptom of a(n):
A) conversion disorder B) dissociative disorder C) obsessive-compulsive disorder D) anti-social disorder |
B) Dissociative disorder |
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Psychological disorders characterized by inflexible, enduring, and socially maladaptive behavior patterns are called _____ disorders.
A) acute B) free-floating C) reactive D) personality |
D) Personality |
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The term psychopath has been used to refer to an individual with: A) somatoform disorder B) hypochondriasis C) dissociative identity disorder D) anti-social disorder |
D) Anti-social personality disorder |
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Consciousness is: A) the ability to solve problems, reason, and remember B) the process of organizing and interpreting sensory information C) effortless encoding of incidental information into memory D) our awareness of ourselves and our environment |
D) Our awareness of ourselves and our environment |
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Our inability to consciously process all the sensory information available to us at any single point in time best illustrates the necessity of: A) circadian rhythm B) selective attention C) REM rebound D) hypnagogic sensations |
B) Selective attention |
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Our inability to fall asleep early, as we had planned, is most likely a reflection of:
A) selective attention B) narcolepsy C) the circadian rhythm D) sleep apnea |
C) The circadian rhythm |
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Sensory experiences that occur without a sensory stimulus are called:
A) night terrors B) sleep spindles C) insomnia D) hallucinations |
D) Hallucinations
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During a heated argument with his teenage daughter, Mr. Reid suddenly lapsed into a state of REM sleep. Mr. Reid apparently suffers from:
A) narcolepsy B) insomnia C) sleep apnea D) REM rebound |
A) Narcolepsy |
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Mr. Oates always sleeps restlessly, snorting and gasping throughout the night. It is most likely that Mr. Oates suffers from:
A) sleep apnea B) narcolepsy C) night terrors D) insomnia |
A) Sleep apnea |
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As Inge recalled her dreams, she was dancing with a tall, dark, and handsome gentleman when suddenly the music shifted to loud rock music and the man disappeared. According to Freud, Inge's account represent the _____ content of her dream. A) paradoxical B) manifest C) latent D) hypnagogic |
B) Manifest |
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According to Freud, the latent content of a dream refers to: A) its accompanying brain-wave pattern B) the previous day's events that prompted the dream C) the sensory stimuli in the sleeping environment that are incorporated into the dream D) its underlying but censored meaning |
D) Its underlying but censored meaning |
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Greg remembered a recent dream in which his girlfriend suddenly grabbed the wheel of his speeding car. Greg's therapist suggest that the dream might be a representation of the girlfriend's efforts to avoind sexual intimacy. According to Freud, the therapist was attempting to reveal the _____ of Greg's dream. A) activation-synthesis B) circadian rhythm C) latent content D) manifest content |
C) Latent content |
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The text defines stress as: A) the experience of conflicting motives that produce anxiety and tension B) the process by which we perceive and respond to environmental threats and challenges C) the blocking of an attempt to reach some important goal D) physical, emotional, or mental exhaustion |
B) The process by which we perceive and respond to environmental threats and challenges |
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Rush hour traffic is to upset stomach as _____ is to ______. A) fight; flight B) Type B; Type A C) lymphocyte; microphage D) stressor; stress reaction |
D) Stressor; stress reaction |
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The three successive phases of the general adaptation syndrome are: A) attention, comprehension, and resistance B) alarm reaction, resistance, and exhaustion C) adrenal release, cognitive appraisal, and stomach ulceration D) reactive frustration, sympathetic arousal, and parasympathetic inhibition |
B) Alarm reaction, resistance, and exhaustion |
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Cameron, a 50-year-old electrician, opens up his pay envelope and, to his surprise, finds a pink slip inside indicating that he had been fired from his job. Which phase of the general adaptation syndrome is Cameron most likely experiencing? A) resistance B) alarm reaction C) adjustment D) exhaustion |
B) Alarm reaction |
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Resistance to stress is greatest during _____ of the GAS. A) Phase 1 B) Phase 2 C) Phase 3 D) Phase 4 |
B) Phase 2 |
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Who is the best example of a Type A personality? A) Valentin, a self-confident, intelligent journalist B) Kane, a relaxed, easy-going mail carrier C) Philip, a competitive, hot-tempered corporation president D) Thomas, an introverted, inhibited mental patient |
C) Philip, a competitive, hot-tempered corporation president |
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Who is the best example of a Type B personality? A) George, a self-confident, time-conscious mail carrier B) Wang Lung, a relaxed, easy-going dentist C) Henry, an irritable, impatient college professor D) Stasio, a fun-loving, hard-driving corporation president |
B) Wang Lung, a relaxed, easy-going dentist |
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Chronic anger _____ the risk of heart disease, and chronic depression _____ the risk of heart disease. A) increases; decreases B) increases; increases C) has no effect on; increases D) increases; has no effect on |
B) Increases; increases |
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To alleviate the stress of losing her job, Alicia enrolled in a work retaining program that led to full-tie employment. Alicia's behavior best illustrates: A) learned helplessness B) a fight-or-flight reaction C) problem-focused coping D) a Type A profile |
C) Problem-focused coping |
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To alleviate the stress he feels after failing a college course, Jeremy seek social support from his friends and family. Jeremy's behavior best illustrates: A) a Type A personality B) a Type B personality C) problem-focused coping D) emotion-focused coping |
D) Emotion-focused coping |
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Aerobic exercise has been most closely linked to a decrease in: A) lymphocyte production B) depression C) problem-focused coping D) the production of endorphins |
B) depression |
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The personality theorist, Sigmund Freud, was an Austrian: A) chemist B) physician C) theologian D) politician |
B) physician |
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Humanistic psychologists focused attention on the importance of people's: A) childhood memories B) genetic predispositions C) unconscious though processes D) potential for healthy growth |
D) Potential for healthy growth |
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Contemporary psychology is best defined as the science of: A) conscious and unconscious mental activity B) observable responses to the environment C) behavior and mental processes D) maladaptive and adaptive behaviors |
C) Behavior and mental processes |
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Efforts to discover whether the intelligence of children is more influenced by their biology or by their home environments are most directly relevant to the debate regarding: A) basic and applied research B) conscious and unconscious thought C) observation and introspection D) nature and nurture |
D) Nature and nurture |
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The cognitive perspective in psychology focuses on how: A) feeling are influenced by blood chemistry B) people try to understand their own unconscious motives C) behavior is influenced by environmental conditions D) people encode, process, store, and retrieve information |
D) People encode, process, store, and retrieve information |
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To understand the unusual behavior of an adult client, a clinical psychologist carefully investigate the client's current life situation and his physical, social-cultural, and educational history. Which research method had the psychologist used? A) the survey B) the case study C) experimentation D) naturalistic observation |
B) Case study |
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To assess reaction to a proposed tuition hike at her school, Ariana sent a questionnaire to every fifteenth person in the registrar's alphabetical listing of all currently enrolled students. Ariana is ensuring that her survey results are accurate by using: A) random assignment B) naturalistic observation C) replication D) random sampling |
D) Random sampling |
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Professor Ober carefully observes and records the behaviors of children in their classrooms in order to track the development of their social and intellectual skill. Professor Ober is most clearly engaged in: A) survey research B) naturalistic observation C) experimentation D) replication |
B) Naturalistic observation |
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To determine whether the strength of people's self-esteem is related to their income levels, researchers would most likely make use of: A) case studies B) correlational research C) experimentation D) naturalistic observation |
B) Correlational research |
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The group exposed to a newly created drug that is being tested in an experiment is called the _____ group. A) control B) standardized C) baseline D) experimental |
D) Experimental group |
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To study the potential effects of social interaction on problem solving, some research participants were instructed to solve problems working together; other participants were told to solve problems working alone. Those who worked alone were assigned to the _____ group. A) experimental B) survey C) control D) correlational |
C) Control |
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In a study of the effects of drinking alcohol, some participants drank a nonalcoholic beverage that actually smelled and tasted like alcohol. This nonalcoholic drink was a: A) dependent variable B) replication C) placebo D) double blind |
C) Placebo |
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The function of dendrites is to: A) receive incoming signals from other neurons B) release neurotransmitters into the spatial junctions between neurons C) coordinate the activation of the parasympathetic nervous systems D) control pain through the release of opiatelike chemicals into the brain |
A) Receive incoming signals from other neurons |
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A slap on the back is more painful than a pat on the back because a slap triggers: A) the release of endorphins B) more intense neural impulses C) the release of serotonin D) more neurons to fire, and to fire more often |
D) More neurons to fire, and to fire more often |
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Jose had just played a long, bruising game of football, but feels little fatigue or discomfort. His lack of pain is most likely caused by the release of: A) curare B) dopamine C) acetylcholine D) endorphins |
D) Endorphins |
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The somatic nervous system is a component of the _____ nervous system. A) peripheral B) central C) sympathetic D) parasympathetic |
A) Peripheral |
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The part of the peripheral nervous system that controls the glands and the muscles of the internal organs is called the: A) somatic nervous system B) endocrine system C) skeletal nervous system D) autonomic nervous system |
D) Autonomic nervous system |
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After discovering that the shadows outside his window were only the trees in the yard, Ralph's blood pressure decreased and his heartbeat slowed. These physical reactions were most directly regulated by his: A) parasympathetic nervous system B) sympathetic nervous system C) somatic nervous system D) central nervous system |
A) Parasympathetic nervous system |
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In a tragic driving accident, Andrew damaged his spinal cord. As a result, his legs were paralyzed. Andrew's injury was located in his: A) somatic nervous system B) skeletal nervous system C) sympathetic nervous system D) central nervous system |
D) Central nervous system |
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Auditory stimulation is forst process in the _____ lobes. A) occipital B) temporal C) frontal D) parietal |
B) Temporal |
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According to Piaget. accommodation refers to: A) developmental changes in a child's behavior that facilitates social acceptance by family and peers B) adjusting current schemas to make sense of new experiences C) incorporating new experiences into existing schemas D) parental efforts to include new children in the existing family structure |
B) Adjusting current schemas to make sense of new experiences |
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The first time that 4-year-old Sarah saw her older brother play a flute, she thought it was simply a large whistle. Sarah's initial understanding of the flute best illustrates the process of: A) conservation B) maturation C) assimilation D) accommodation |
C) Assimilation |
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According to Erikson, trust is to infancy as identity is to: A) childhood B) adulthood C) adolescence D) infancy |
C) Adolescence |
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Infants develop a fear of strangers at about 8 months of age because they can't assimilate unfamiliar faces into their: A) attachments B) theory of mind C) self-concept D) schemas |
D) Schemas |
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Mrs. Pearson cut Judy's hot dog into eight pieces and Sylvia's into six pieces. Sylvia cried because she felt she wasn't getting as much hot dog as Judy. Piaget would say that Sylvia doesn't understand the principle of: A) conservation B) accommodation C) object permanence D) egocentrism |
A) Conservation |
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The egocentrism of preschoolers was most strongly emphasized by: A) Lorenz's imprinting B) Piaget's cognitive development theory C) Erikson's psychological development theory D) the Harlows' attachment theory |
B) Piaget's cognitive development theory |
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The powerful survival impulse that leads infants to seek closeness to their caregivers is called: A) accommodation B) conservation C) attachment D) assimilation |
C) Attachment |
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According to Piaget, schemas are: A) people's conceptual frameworks for understanding their experiences B) problem-solving strategies that are typically not developed until the formal operational stage C) optimal periods for forming secure attachments D) fixed sequences of cognitive developmental stages |
A) People's conceptual frameworks for understanding their experiences |
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Adolescence is typically a time of: A) diminishing parental influence and growing peer influence B) growing parental influence and diminishing peer influence C) growing parental influence and growing peer influence D) diminishing parental influence and diminishing peer influence |
A) Diminishing parental influence and growing peer influence |
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In a pleasant but unfamilar setting, infants with secure maternal attachment are most likely to: A) use their mothers as a base from which to explore the new surroundings B) show hostility when their mother's approach them after a brief absence C) act as though their mother's are of little importance to them D) cling to their mother's and ignore the new surroundings |
A) Use their mothers as a base from which to explore the new surroundings |
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Aaron cried when his mother left in the infant nursery at church, and he was not reassured or comforted by her return a short while later. Aaron showed signs of: A) insecure attachment B) egocentrism C) infantile amnesia D) conservation |
A) Insecure attachment |
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Piaget was convinced that the mind of a child: A) is heavily dependent on the child's personality B) develops through a series of stages C) is like a blank slate at birth D) is not heavily influenced by maturation |
B) Develops through a series of stages |
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Providing children with a safe haven in times of stress contribute most directly to: A) object permanence B) conservation C) secure attachment D) stranger anxiety |
C) Secure attachment |
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At about 8 months, children become increasingly likely to react to newcomers with tears and distress. This best illustrates: A) stranger anxiety B) assimilation C) insecure attachment D) egocentrism |
A) Stranger anxiety |
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Instead of happily exploring the attractive toys located in the pediatrician's waiting room, little Sandra tenaciously clings to her mother's skirt. Sandra most clearly shows signs of: A) accommodation B) insecure attachment C) conservation D) egocentrism |
B) Insecure Attachment |
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According to Piaget, during the formal operational stage people begin to: A) distinguish between good and bad behaviors B) become aware of the positive and negative consequences of their own behaviors C) adhere to social norms D) reason abstractly |
D) Reason abstractly |
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According to Erikson, teens who suffer role confusion have not yet: A) achieved a sense of autonomy B) strived for a sense of competence C) solidified a sense of identity D) experienced a sense of basic trust |
C) Solidified a sense of identity |
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According to Kohlberg, post-conventional morality involves: A) strong concern for social approval B) unquestioning obedience to authority figures C) affirmation of self-defined ethical principles D) behavior based on self-interest |
C) Affirmation of self-defined ethical principles |
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When Tommy's mother hides his favorite toy under a blanket, he acts as though it no longer exists and makes no attempt to retrieve it. Tommy is clearly near the beginning of Piaget's _____ stage. A) formal operational B) concrete operational C) pre-operational D) sensorimotor |
D) Sensorimotor |
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Interpreting new experiences in terms of existing shemas is called: A) assimilation B) imprinting C) accommodation D) egocentrism |
A) Assimilation |
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Laurie's thumbsucking has become habitual because she feels less anxious when she sucks her thumb. This best illustrates the process of: A) latent learning B) operant conditioning C) classical conditioning D) generalization |
B) Operant conditioning |
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Children often learn to associate pushing a vending machine button with the delivery of a candy bar. This best illustrates the process underlying: A) spontaneous recovery B) operant conditioning C) respondent behavior D) observational learning |
B) Operant conditioning |
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Blake is a carpet installer who wants to be paid for each square foot of carpet he lays rather than with an hourly wage. Blake prefers working on a _____ schedule of reinforcement. A) fixed-interval B) variable-interval C) variable-ratio D) fixed-ratio |
D) fixed-ratio |
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The ability to distinguish between a conditioned stimulus and similar stimuli that do not signal an unconditioned stimulus is called: A) spontaneous recovery B) generalization C) acquisition D) discrimination |
D) Discrimination |
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Extinction occurs when a _____ is no longer paired with a _____. A) CS; US B) US; UR C) UR; CR D) CS; UR |
A) CS; US |
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Any stimulus that, when removed after a response, strengthens the response is called a(n): A) unconditioned stimulus B) negative reinforcer C) conditioned stimulus D) positive reinforcer |
B) Negative reinforcer |
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Any stimulus that, when presented after a response, strengthens the response is called a(n): A) positive reinforcer B) conditioned stimulus C) negative reinforcer D) unconditioned stimulus |
A) Positive reinforcer |
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A real estate agent showed Gavin several pictures of a lakeshore property while they were eating a delicious, mouth-watering meal. Later, when Gavin was given a tour of the property, he drooled with delight. For Gavin, the lakeshore property was a : A) CR B) UR C) US D) CS |
D) CS |
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Positive reinforcers ____ the rate of operant responding, and negative reinforcers _____ the rate of operant responding. A) increase; increase B) have no effect on; decrease C) increase; decrease D) decrease; decrease |
A) Increase; increase |
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On the first day of class, Professor Wallace tells her geography students that pop quizzes will be given at unrpedictable times throughout the semester. Clearly, studying for Professor Wallace's surprise quizzes will be reinforced on a _____ schedule. A) fixed-ratio B) variable-interval C) variable-ratio D) fixed-interval |
B) Variable-interval |
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Pets who learn that the sound of an electric can opener signals the arrival of their food illustrate: A) classical conditioning B) observational learning C) spontaneous recovery D) discrimination |
A) Classical conditioning |
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An event that increases the frequency of the behavior that it follows is a(n): A) operant behavior B) reinforcer C) conditioned stimulus D) unconditioned stimulus |
B) Reinforcer |
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Receiving delicious food is to escaping electric shock as _____ is to _____. A) reinforcement; punishment B) positive reinforcer; negative reinforcer C) primary reinforcer; secondary reinforcer D) immediate reinforcer; delayed reinforcer |
B) Positive reinforcer; negative reinforcer |
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Spontaneous recovery refers to the: A) reappearance, after a pause, of an extinguished conditioned response B) return of a response after punishment has been terminated C) expression of learning that had occurred earlier but had not been expressed because of lack of incentive D) organism's tendency to respond spontaneously to stimuli similar to the CS as though they were the CS |
A) Reappearance, after a pause, of an extinguished conditioned response |
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After one chimpanzee sees a second chimp open a box that contains a food reward, the first animal opens a second box with great speed. This best illustrates: A) spontaneous recovery B) respondent behavior C) observational learning D) generalization |
C) Observational learning |
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According to the text, learning involves: A) the development of prosocial behavior B) the ability to think abstractly C) a reduction in spontaneous recovery D) a relatively permanent change in behavior due to experience |
D) A relatively permanent change in behavior due to experience |
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In which form of learning is behavior said to be influenced by its consequences? A) classical conditioning B) operant conditioning C) latent learning D) observational learning |
B) operant learning |
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Last year, Dr. Moritano cleaned Natacha's skin with rubbing alcohol prior to administering each of a series of painful rabies vaccination shots. Which of the following processes accounts for the fact that Natacha currently becomes fearful every time she smells rubbing alcohol? A) classical conditioning B) operant conditioning C) negative reinforcement D) latent learning |
A) Classical conditioning |
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Mason, a stockbroker, runs two miles every day after work because it reduces his level of stress. Mason's running habit is maintained by a _____ reinforcer. A) negative B) conditioned C) partial D) positive |
A) Negative |
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Which of the following is an unconditioned response? A) clapping after a thrilling concert performance B) playing jump rope C) running through a maze to get a food reward D) sweating in hot weather |
D) Sweating in hot weather |
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The minimum amount of stimulation a person needs to detect a stimulus 50 percent of the time is called the: A) difference threshold B) subliminal threshold C) absolute threshold D) adaption threshold |
C) Absolute threshold |
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The integration of new incoming information with knowledge retrieved from long-term memory involved the activity of: A) sensory memory B) implicit memory C) working memory D) iconic memory |
C) Working memory |
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Sensation is to _____ as perception is to _____. A) organization; accommodation B) interpretation; organization C) encoding; detection D) detection; interpretation |
D) Detection; interpretation |
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Bottom-up processing involves analysis that begins with the: A) sensory receptors B) feature detectors C) optic nerve D) cerebral cortex |
A) Sensory receptors |
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After losing his left hand in an accident, Jack continued to experience pain in his nonexistent hand. His experience illustrates: A) sensory interaction B) phantom limb sensations C) the vestibular sense D) bottom-up processing |
B) Phantom limb sensations |
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Memory of facts is to _____ as memory of skills is to _____. A) short-term memory; long-term memory B) autonomic processing; effortful processing C) brainstem; hippocampus D) explicit memory; implicit memory |
D) Explicit memory; implicit memory |
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The ability to simultaneously process the color, movement, form , and depth of an approaching car best illustrates: A) sensory adaptation B) feature detection C) parallel processing D) accommodation |
C) Parallel processing |
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You are most likely to automatically encode information about: A) friends' birthdays B) new phone numbers C) the sequence of your day's events D) politician's names |
C) The sequence of your day's events |
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After listening to your high-volume car stereo for 15 minutes, you fail to realize how loudly the music is blasting. This best illustrates: A) subliminal stimulation B) sensory adaptation C) Weber's law D) accommodation |
B) Sensory adaptation |
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A flashbulb memory would typically be stored in _____ memory. A) echoic B) long-term C) implicit D) iconic |
B) long-term |
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After having a stroke, Aaron had great difficulty recalling any of his subsequent life experiences. He is most likely suffering from: B) long-term potentiation C) spatial mnemonics D)mood-congruent memory |
A) Amnesia |
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Cocking your head would be most useful for detecting the _____ of a sound. A) loudness B) location C) amplitude D) pitch |
B) location |
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Our sense of taste was originally though to involve only the following four sensations of: A) salty, fatty, bitter, and sweet B) sour, bitter, sweet, and starchy C) bitter, sweet, sour, and salty D) sweet, salty, starch, and bitter |
C) Bitter, sweet, sour, and salty |
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Patients who have negative expectations about the outcome of a surgical procedure may experience increased postoperative pain. This best illustrates the importance of: A) sensory adaptation B) top-down processing C) accommodation D) difference thresholds |
B) Top-down processing |
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Which basic taste attracts us to protein-rich foods? A) umami B) sweet C) salty D) sour |
A) Umami |
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Sense perception cells that project antenna-like hairs are located within: A) nociceptors B) the olfactory bulb C) the eardrum D) the taste buds |
D) The taste buds |
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A subliminal message is one that is presented: A) with very soft background music B) repetitiously C) in a manner that is unconsciously persuasive D) below one's absolute threshold for conscious awareness |
D) Below one's absolute threshold for conscious awareness |
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Deja vu refers to the: A) tendency to remember experiences that are consistent with our current mood B) eerie sense of having previously experience a situation or event C) emotional arousal produced by events that prime us to recall associated events D) unconscious activation of particular associations in memory |
B) Eerie sense of having previously experienced a situation or event |
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Judy is embarrassed because she momentarily fails to remember a good friend's name. Judy's poor memory most likely results from a failure in: A) retrieval B) storage C) encoding D) rehearsal |
A) Retrieval |
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The persistence of learning over time most clearly depends on: A) imagery B) memory C) the serial position effect D) visual encoding |
B) Memory |
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The two-factor theory of emotion places more emphasis on the importance of _____ than does the James-Lange theory. A) physiological arousal B) cognitive activity C) neural activity D) subjective well-being |
B) Cognitive acivity |
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The term catharsis refer to emotional: A) adaptation B) disturbance C) inhibition D) release |
D) Release |
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An instinctive behavior is one that is: A) unlearned B) similar in all living organisms C) designed to reduce drives D) triggered by a sexual incentive |
A) Unlearned |
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About eight months ago, 14-year-old Shelley went on a drastic weight-loss diet that caused her to drop from 110 to 80 pounds. Although she is now dangerously underweight and under-nourished, she continues to think she looks fat. Her frustrated father recently forced her to eat a peanut butter sandwich, but Shelley immediately went to the bathroom and threw it all up. Shelley most clearly suffers from: A) anorexia nervosa B) neophobia C) an abnormally low set point D) a high basal metabolic rate |
A) Anorexia nervosa |
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A need refers to:
A) a rigidly patterned behavioral urge characteristic of all people B) a desire to perform a behavior in order to avoid punishment C) a physiological state that usually triggers motivational arousal D) anything that is perceived as having positive or negative value in motivating behavior |
C) A physiological state that usually triggers motivational arousal |
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The basic components of emotion are: A) physical gestures, facial expressions, and psychological drives B) cognition, affect, and behavior C) sympathetic arousal, parasympathetic inhibition, and cognitive labeling D) expressive behaviors, physiological arousal, and conscious experience |
D) Expressive behaviors, physiological arousal, and conscious experience |
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Mr. Porter believes that aggression is an unlearned behavior characteristic of all children. He obviously believes that aggression is a(n) A) drive B) incentive C) homeostatic mechanism D) instinct |
D) Instinct |
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An aroused, motivated state that is often triggered by a physiological need is called a(n): A) set point B) instinct C) incentive D) drive |
D) Drive |
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Anorexia patients are most likely to have parents who: A) are unconcerned about physical appearance and body weight B) are unable to afford adequate food supplies C) have physically or sexually abused their children D) are high-achieving and protective |
D) Are high-achieving and protective |
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The idea that an emotion-arousing stimulus is simultaneously routed to the cortex and to the sympathetic nervous system is central to the: A) two-factor theory B) Cannon-Bard theory C) polygraph test D) James-Lange theory |
B) Cannon-Bard |
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Motivation is defined by psychologists as: A) the cause of behavior B) an impulse to accomplish something of significance C) rigidly patterned behavior characteristic of all people D) a need or desire that energizes and directs behavior toward a goal |
D) A need or desire that energizes and directs behavior toward a goal |
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The two-factor theory of emotion was proposed by: A) Robert Zajonc and Richard Lazarus B) William James and Carl Lange C) Stanley Schachter and Jerome Singer D) Walter Cannon and Phillip Bard |
C) Stanley Schachter and Jerome Singer |
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Unlike those with bulimia nervosa, those with bnge-eating disorders are NOT likely to _____ following eating. A) show increased glucose levels B) engage in excessive exercise C) experience remorse D) gain weight |
B) Engage in excessive exercise |
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Lake of body fluids is to the sigh to of cool drinking water as _____ is to _____. A) need; drive B) instinct; set point C) homeostasis; drive D) need; incentive |
D) need; incentive |
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Psychologists have used four perspectives in theory efforts to explain motivation. These include an emphasis on instincts, optimum arousal, a hierarchy of motives, and: A) basal metabolic rate B) drive reduction C) self-transcendence D) neuroscience |
B) Drive reduction |
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Twenty-two-year-old Tawana is slightly overweight and loves to eat, particularly snack foods and rich deserts. Fearful of c=becoming overweight, she frequently take a laxative following episodes of binge eating. Tawana most clearly suffers from: A) anorexia nervosa B) neophobia C) bulimia nervosa D) excess PYY |
C) Bulimia nervosa |
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Homeostasis, which is the goal of drive reduction is defined as: A) an aroused tension state which is often triggered by a physiological need B) a physical need that usually triggers motivational arousal C) a rigidly patterned behavior characteristic of an entire species D) the body's tendency to maintain a constant internal state |
D) The body's tendency to maintain a constant internal state. |
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What theory would be most helpful in explaining why people like to watch horror movies? A) arousal theory B) instinct theory C) drive-reduction theory D) hierarchy of needs theory |
A) Arousal theory |
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On some college football teams, players are rewarded for outstaning preformance with a gold star on their helmets. This practice bes illustrates the use of: A) self-transcendence B) incentives C) set points D) homeostasis |
B) Incentives |
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The fact that people from widely different cultures display and interpret facial expressions of emotion in a similar manner best illustrates the impact of: A) empathy B) human genetic similarities C) the adaptation-level phenomenon D) the catharsis hypothesis |
B) Human genetic similarities |
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Which of the following is clearly NOT an example of an incentive? A) smell of popcorn B) $1000 C) dehydration D) threat of punishment |
C) Dehydration |
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According o Freud, defense mechanisms are used by the: A) id, to defend against accusations and guilt feelings produced by the superego B) ego, to prevent threatening impulses from being consciously recognized C) superego, to prevent expression of sexual and aggressive drives D) id, ego, and superego in a repetitive sequence of internal conflicts |
B) Ego, to prevent threatening impulses from being consciously recognized |
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Alfred Adler was a neo-Freudian who coined the term: A) oral fixation B) collective unconscious C) inferiority complex D) unconditioned positive regard |
C) Inferiority complex |
