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107 Cards in this Set

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aircraft having right-of-way over all other aircraft is

A balloon
aircraft in distress
aircraft in final approach
aircraft in distress
action required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?

faster aircraft gives way
aircraft on the left shall give way
each aircraft shall give way to the right
aircraft on the left shall give way
aircraft on this list has highest priority in right of way...

glider
airship
refueling aircraft
glider
airplane and an airship are converging, airship on the left of airplane... who has right-of-way?

airship
airplane
each pilot should go to thier respective right
Airship
What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course?

airplane should give way to the left...
" right...
both pilots should give way to the right
both should fly to the right...
When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to:

that has the other to its right

least manuverable

at the lower altitude without skipping
lower altitude
except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate on aircraft anywhere?

an altitude allowing a safe landing without hazard to those on the ground

an altitude of 500 feet above the surface/ 50 feet away from any solid object

an altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle/ horizontal radius of 1000 feet
an altitude allowing a safe landing without hazard to those on the ground
except landing and during takeoff, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?
1,000 feet above the highest obstacle/ 2000 feet horizontal radius
except landing and during takeoff, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft not over congested areas?
500 feet AGL [ except over sparsely pooulated area/ over water which requires 500 feet away from you rule.
closeness limit to a solid object expect for takeoff/landing

500 feet
700
1000
500
when taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron position should be used?

down on the downwind side

neutral

down on the side from which the wind is blowing
down on the side from which the wind is blowing
when taxiing with strong quartering headwinds, which aileron position should be used?

up the side from which the wind is blowing

down on the side from which the wind is blowing

neutral
up the side from which the wind is blowing
most critical wind condition when taxiing a nosewheel equipped high-wing airplane...

quartering tailwind

direct crosswind

quartering headwind
quartering tailwind
flight control config when taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane into a left quaretering headwind:

left aileron up, elevator neutral

left aileron down, elevator neutral

left aileron up, elevator down
left aileron up, elevator neutral
flight control config when taxiing a tailwheel airplane into a right quatering tailwind...

right aileron up, elevator up

right aileron dwn, elevator neutral

right aileron up, elevator down
right aileron up, elevator up
up x2
flight config when taxiing a tailwheel airplane with a left quatering tailwind...

left aileron up, elevator neutral
left aileron down, elevator neutral
left aileron down, elevator down
left aileron down, elevator down
How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane with a left quartering tailwind?

Left aileron up, elevator neutral
left aileron down, elevator down
left aileron up, elevator down
left aileron down, elevator down
prior to starting each manuever, pilots should...

check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications.
visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.
announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF.
visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.
What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?

Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace.
Advise the nearest FSS of the altitude changes.
Fly away from the centerline of the airway before changing altitude.
Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace.
What effect does haze have ont he ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight.

haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity.
the eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily.
All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.
All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.
The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft foe collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use

regularly spaced concentration on the 3-.9- and 12-0' clock positions.
a series of short regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree-sector.
peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing
a series of short regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree-sector.
Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left suring straight and level flight?

Systematically focus on different segments of the sky in short intervals.
concentrate oon relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area.
Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left.
Systematically focus on different segments of the sky in short intervals.
How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?

The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate.
The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space.
There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
Most midair collision accidents occur during

hazy days.
clear days.
cloudy nights.
clear days.
In class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual appraoch slope indicator (VASI) shall

maintain a 3° glide until approsimately 1/2 mile to the runway before going below the VASI.
maintain an alititude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe alnding.
stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing.
maintain an alititude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe alnding.
When approaching to land on a runway served by a VASI, the pilot shall

maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope at least 2 miles downwind from the runway threshold.
maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
remain on the glide slope and land between the two-light bar.
maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by

white directional lights.
blue omnidirectional lights.
alternate red/green lights.
blue omnidirectional lights.
a slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is

four white lgihts
three white lights and one red light.
two white and two red.
three white lights and one red light.
A below glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is a

red light signal.
pink light signal.
green lgiht signal.
red light signal.
An above glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is

a white light signal.
a green light signal.
an amber light signal.
an amber light signal.
An on glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is

a white light signal.
a green light signal.
an amber light signal.
a green light signal.
An on glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a

pulsating white light.
steady white light.
pulsating red light.
pulsating red light
VASI lights[set of 2 vertically adjacent lights]:
ABOVE: red BELOW: white

where is the aircraft?

below the glide slope.
on the glide slope.
above the glide slope.
on the glide slope.
VASI lights[set of 2 vertically adjacent lights]:
ABOVE:white BELOW:white

off course to the left.
above the glide slope.
below the glide slope.
above the glide slope.
VASI lights[set of 2 vertically adjacent lights]:
ABOVE:red BELOW:red

above the glide slope.
below the glide slope.
on the glide slope.
below the glide slope.
To set the high intensity runway lights, the pilot should click the microphone 7 times, then click it...

1 time.
3 times.
5 times.
5 times.
An airport's rotationg beacon operated during saylight hours indicates

ther are obstructions on the airport.
that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums.
the ATC tower is inoperable.
that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums.
A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits

white and green alternating flashes.
two quick, white flashes between green flashes.
green, yellow, and white flashes.
two quick, white flashes between green flashes.
A military air station can be identified at night when...

Alternate whie and green flashes.
Dual peaked(two quick) white flashes between green flashes.
white flashing lights with steady green at the same location.
Dual peaked(two quick) white flashes between green flashes.
portion of a runway identified with arrows at a runway extreme can be used for...
landing.
taxiing and takeoff.
taxiing and landing.
taxiing and takeoff.
[A]Arrows one end of a runway placed befor a threshold and [B]a blast pad at the other end signifies that.

[A]may be used for taxi and takeoff ;[B] may be used only as an overrun.
[A] may be used for all operations except heavy aircraft landings ;[B] may be used only as an overrun.
[A]may be used only for taxiing ;[B] may be used for all operations except landings.
[A]may be used for taxi and takeoff ;[B] may be used only as an overrun.
A runway with X's on it signifies a

stabilized area.
multiple heliport.
closed runway.
closed runway.
Arrows that appear before a threshold on a runway signify the respective area:

may be used only for taxiing.
is usable for taxiing, takeoff, and landing.
cannot be used, for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff.
cannot be used, for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff.
The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately

009 and 027 true
090 and 270 true
090 and 270 magnetic
090 and 270 magnetic.
If there is a southwest wind occurs and available runways are 18, 22, and 36... the pilot should use:

Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right.
Runway 22 directly into the wind.
Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right.
Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right.
segmented circles
suck
wind sock indicates [ not regarding where the wind is blowing]
area to avoid flying in terms terms of directional vicinity of the airport...
Who should not participate in the LAHSO [Land and Hold Short Operations] program?

Recreational pilots only.
Military pilots.
Student pilots.
Student pilots.
Who has final authority to accept or decline any LAHSO clearance?

Pilot in command
Owner/operator
Second-in-command
Pilot in command.
When should pilots decline a
LAHSO clearance?

When it will compromise safety.
Only when the tower operator concurs.
Pilots cant decline.
When it will compromise safety.
Where is the available landing distance (ALD)data published for an airport that utilizes LAHSO published?

Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD).
14 CFR PArt 91, General Operation and Flight Rules.
AIM.
Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD).
What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to recieve a LAHSO clearance?

3 nautical miles.
3 statute miles.
1 statute mile.
3 statute miles.
When approaching taxiwat holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot:

may continue taxiing.
should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.
should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines.
should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.
The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately...

008 and 026 true.
080 and 260 true.
080 and 360 magnetic.
080 and 360 magnetic.
The recoomended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is:

45° to the base leg just below traffic pattern altitude.
to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.
to cross directly over the airport at traffic pattern altitude and join the downwind leg.
to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.
When approaching taxiway holding lines fromt he side with the continuous lines, the pilot

may continue taxiing.
should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.
should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines.
should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.
What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?

denotes entrance to a runway from a taxiway.
denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway.
dentoes intersecting runways.
denotes entrance to a runway from a taxiway.
what does the outbound destination sign identify?

identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway.
identifies direction to take-off runways.
identifies runway on which an aircraft is located.
identifies direction to take-off runways.
Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than

1000 feet AGL.
2000 feet AGL.
3000 feet AGL.
2000 feet AGL.
Which is true concerning the blue/magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?

Airports with control towers underlying Class A/B/C are shown in blue, while Class D/E airspace are magenta.
Airports with control towers underlying Class C/D/E airspace are shown in magenta.
Airports with control towers underlying Class B/C/D/E airspace are shown inblue .
Airports with control towers underlying Class B/C/D/E airspace are shown inblue .
Which staement about longitude and latitude is true?

Lines of longitude are parallel to the Equator.
Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles.
The 0° line of latitude passes through Greenwich, England.
Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles.
The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is

4 Nautical Miles
6NM
8 NM
4 Nautical Miles
Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from

700 ft above the surface up to and including 17,999 ft MSL.
1,200 ft above the surface up to and including 17,999 ft MSL.
the surface up to and including 18,000 ft MSL.
1,200 ft above the surface up to and including 17,999 ft MSL.
Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibiltiy to be at least

1,000 feet and 1 mile.
1,000 feet and 3 miles.
2,500 feet and 3 miles.
1,000 feet and 3 miles.
At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to be 29.93 when climbing to cruising flight level?

14,500 feet MSL.
18,000 feet MSL.
24,000 feet MSL.
18,000 feet MSL.
Airspace at an airport with a prt-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only

when the weather minimums are beowe basic VFR.
when the associated control tower is in operation.
when the associated FSS is on operation.
when the associated control tower is in operation.
Unless otherwise authorized, 2-way radio comm w/ ATC are required for landing/takeoffs:

at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions.
at all tower controlled airports only when weather conditions are less than VFR.
at all tower controlled airports within Class D only when weather conditionsare less than VFR.
at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions.
2-way comm. must be established with the ATC facility having jurisdintion over the area proir to entering which class airspace?

Class C.
Class E.
Class G.
Class C.
What minimum radio eqiupment is required for operation withing Class C airspace?

2-way comm. equipment and a 4096-code transponder.
2-way comm. equipment and a 4096-code transponder, with DME.
2-way comm. equipment, a 4096-code transponder and an encoding altimeter.
2-way comm. equipment, a 4096-code transponder and an encoding altimeter.
What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?

Recreational Pilot Certificate.
Private Pilot Certificate or Student pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.
Private Pilot Certificate or Student pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?

Private Pilot Certificate or Student pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
Commercial Pilot Certificate.
Private Pilot Certificate w/ instrument rating.
Private Pilot Certificate or Student pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
what minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?

2-way comm. equipment and a 4096-code transponder.
2-way comm. equipment, a 4096-code transponder and an encoding altimeter.
2-way comm. equipment, a 4096-code transponder, an encoding altimeter, and a VOR/TACAN reciever.

An operable 4096 transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in

Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport.
Class D airspace.
Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.
Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport.
In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?

Class A
Class B
Class C
Class A
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is

1,000 feet.
1,500 feet.
2,000 feet.
2,000 feet.
What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 ft AGl or below during daylgiht hours?

1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, and 2000 ft horizontal clearance from clouds.
3 miles visibility and clear fo clouds.
1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10000 ft MSL?

1 mile.
3 miles.
4 miles.
3 miles.
The mimimum distance from clouds required for VFR flight operations below 10000 ft MSL is:

clear of clouds.
500 feet below, 1000 feet above, and 2000 ft horizontal clearance.
500 feet above, 1000 feet below, and 2000 ft horizontal clearance.
500 feet below, 1000 feet above, and 2000 ft horizontal clearance.
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more that 1,200 AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clods requirement for VFR flight is

500 feet.
1,000 feet.
1,500 feet.
1,000 feet.
VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 AGL and below 10,000 MSL requires a minimum visbility and vertical cloud clearance of

3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.
5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds at all altitudes.
5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds only in Class A airspace.
3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 ft AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL the minimum fligh visibiltiy for VFR flight is

1 mile.
3 miles.
5 miles.
1 mile.
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more that 1,200 feet AGL but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is

500 feet.
1000 feet.
1500 feet.
500 feet.
The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is

1 mile.
3 miles.
5 miles.
5 miles.
for VFR operations above 10000 ft MSL and more than 1200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance form clouds required is

1,000 feet.
2,000 feet.
1 mile.
1 mile.
During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 ft MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is

500 ft.
1000 ft.
1500 ft.
1000 ft.
no person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the

flight visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.
ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.
ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.
ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.
The basic VFR wather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are

500-ft ceiling and 1 mile vis.
1000-ft ceiling and 3 mile vis.
clear of clouds and 2 mile vis.
1000-ft ceiling and 3 mile vis.
a special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an airspace to operate VFR while Class D airspace when the visibility is

less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1,000 ft.
at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
at least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special VFR in Class D airspace?

1 mile flight visibility.
1 mile flight visibility and 1000-foot ceiling.
3 miles flight visibility and 1000-foot ceiling.
1 mile flight visibility.
What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?

The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace.
The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder.
The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped.
The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped.
No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the

Flight can be conducted 500 feet below the clouds.
Airplane is equipped for instrument flight.
Flight visibility is at least 3 miles.
Airplane is equipped for instrument flight.
An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?

Class A/B/C
Class D and Class E
Class D and Class G
Class A/B/C
With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with

An operable VOR/TACAN receiver and an ADF receiver.
Instruments and equipment requird for IFR operations.
An operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability.
An operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability.
The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally

1,200 feet AGL
3,000 feet AGL
4,000 feet AGL
4,000 feet AGL
The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace

5 nautical miles
15 nautical miles
20 nautical miles
20 nautical miles
Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?
The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure.
The pilot must monitor ATC under clear of the Class C airspace.
The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.
The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.
Under the condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?

When flying on airways with an ATC clearance.
With the controlling agency’s authorization.
Regulations do not allow this.
With the controlling agency’s authorization
What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area?

Obtain a clearance fron the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA.
Operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA.
Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.
Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.
Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with

The controlling agency
All pilots
ATC
All pilots
The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on

The number of airports that lie within the Class D airspace.
Five statute miles from the geographical center of the primary airport.
The instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.
The instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.
A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the

Satellites airport’s UNICOM.
Associated FSS
Primary airport’s control tower.
Primary airport’s control tower.
Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?

Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency.
Contact the tower and request permission to enter.
Contact the FSS for traffic advisories.
Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency.
What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in class D airspace?

Automated FSS.
ATCT
ARTCC
ATCT
Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has

Filed an IFR flight plan.
Received prior authorization from the controlling agency.
Received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base.
Received prior authorization from the controlling agency.
When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?

The airspace designation normally will not change.
The airspace remains Class D airspace as long as a weather observer or automated weather system is available.
The airspace reverts to Class E of a combination of Class E/G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.
The airspace reverts to Class E of a combination of Class E/G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.
With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1200 feet AGL to but does not include

10000 feet MSL.
14500 feet MSL.
18000 feet MSL.
18000 feet MSL.
Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the

NOTAMs
Airport/Facility Directory.
Graphic Notices and Supplement Data.
Airport/Facility Directory.
No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding

6 Calendar months
12 Calendar months
24Calendar months
24 calender months.