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78 Cards in this Set

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Define resolution, in terms of tissue repair, and identify the type of cells that can achieve this kind of restoration.
Resolution is when the repaired tissue may be close to normal structure if damage is minor no complications occur and destroyed tissues are capable of restoration is the **
2. Describe a major outcome of the complement activation.
Can destroy pathogens directly
Activates or collaborates with every other component of the inflammatory response
( Product have 4 functions: Opsonization, anaphylatoxic activity resultion in mast cell degranulation, leukocyte chemotaxis and cell lysis.
3. Describe the effect of chemotactic factor on the inflammatory process.
Is to diffuse from the site of inflammation forming a gradient and causing the directional movement (chemotaxis) of cells towards the inflammation
4. Identify the predominant immune cells in the later stages of an inflammatory response that are involved in the phagocytosis process.
Neutrophils or phagocytes
1. Identify the process during acute inflammatory response by which fever is produced.
Fever
Caused by exogenous and endogenous pyrogens
Act directly on the hypothalamus
Portion of brain that controls body thermostat
Leukocytosis
Increased numbers of circulating leukocytes
Increased plasma protein synthesis
Acute-phase reactants
C-reactive protein, fibrinogen, haptoglobin, amyloid, ceruloplasmin, etc.
2. Identify the plasma protein system that forms a fibrinous network at an inflamed site to prevent spread of infection to adjacent tissues and to keep microorganisms and foreign bodies at the site of greatest inflammatory activity.
Coagulation (clotting) system
Forms a fibrinous meshwork at an injured or inflamed site
Prevents the spread of infection
Keeps microorganisms and foreign bodies at the site of greatest inflammatory cell activity
Forms a clot that stops bleeding
Provides a framework for repair and healing
Main substance is an insoluble protein called fibrin
3. Describe the reason why many older adults have impaired inflammation and wound healing processes.
Impaired inflammation is likely a result of chronic illnesses:
Diabetes, cardiovascular disease, etc.
Chronic medication intake decreases the inflammatory response.
Healing response is diminished due to loss of the regenerative ability of the skin.
Infections are more common in the elderly
Describe the criteria for benign versus malignant tumors; and whether or not benign tumors can become malignant.
Benign grow slowly with low mitotic index, are differentiated, are not invasive and do not spread; named by their original tissue. Malignant grow rapidly and have high mitotic index, poorly differentiatied. Benign can some become malignant
. Predict the relationship of frequent infection with certain viral infection (due to increased number of sexual partners) and the incidence of cervical cancer.
With more partners, HPV’s are more likely to be transmitted and be high-risk for cancer
Describe oncogenes.
A gene that in certain circumstances can transform a cell into a tumor cell or (Mutant genes that in their normal non-mutant state, direct synthesis of proteins that positively regulate proliferation)
Identify the cancers that are known to be influenced by smoking.
Hepatocellular carcinoma, lung and pulmonary adenocarcinomas, cancer of the lower urinary tract, upper areodigestive tract, liver, kidney, pancreas, cervix uteri, and myeloid leukemia
. Identify the virus that, if infects the cervical region of the uterus, would result in cervical cancer.
Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)
. Describe the ability or functionality of cancer cells in terms of adhering to one another as compared with that cellular feature in normal cells.
Cancer cells decrease adhesion in normal cells
Identify the most common route for distant metastasis of cancer cells.
Lymph and blood or (The cancer cell detach from its primary location, survive a passage through the body, and then successfully attach, invade, multiple and simulate angiogenesis in a new location)
Identify the commonly known cause of hyperpituitarism
Decrease in TH lowers metabolism, and heat production, low BMR, Cold intolerance, lethargy, tiredness, and slightly lowered temperature. Decreased TH can lead to excessive TSH production and goiter. The characteristic sign of severe or long-standing hypothyroidism is myxedema
2. Describe the reason why visual disturbances are caused by a pituitary adenoma.
Local expansion of the adenoma may impinge on the optic chiasma and cause various visual distubances, depending on the portion of the nerve compressed.
3. Predict the outcome of the hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults.
Giantism
4. Describe the clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism.
Decrease in TH lowers metabolism, and heat production, low BMR, Cold intolerance, lethargy, tiredness, and slightly lowered temperature. Decreased TH can lead to excessive TSH production and goiter. The characteristic sign of severe or long-standing hypothyroidism is myxedema
Describe the clinical signs of thyroid crisis that commonly seen in Graves’ disease.
Graves’ disease is the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis and is the result of stimulation of the thyroid with antibodies against the TSH receptor. The antibodies stimulate the thyroid cells to produce high concentrations of T3 and T4. The combined action of the antibodies and increased serum levels of TH produce the symptoms of Graves’ disease
1. Explain the reason why polyuria occurs in patients with diabetes mellitus.
Hyperglycemia acts as an osmotic diuretic; the amount of glucose fitered by the glomeruli of the kidney exceeds that which can be re-absorbed by the renal tubules; glycosuria results accompanied by large amounts of water lost in the urine.
2. Identify the result of the lab test that would indicate a patient with type 1 diabetes is developing nephropathy (renal failure).
Microalbuminuria is the first manifestation of renal dysfunction. Later, hypoprotienemia, reduction in plasma onconic pressure, fluid overload, anasarca (generalized body edema), and hypertension may occur
3. Describe the type of anemia that can develop after a gastrectomy.
Pernicious anemia
4. Discuss the relationship of chronic hepatitis “C” with the risk for liver cancer.
Chronic hepatitis C is associated with liver cancer, caused by HBV or HVC. Co-factor is alcohol
6. Predict the structural/mechanical cause of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).
Abnormal functioning of lower esophageal sphincter
Describe the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in the small intestine.
Simple obstruction
8. Explain the accumulation of fat in the liver in alcoholic cirrhosis.
It progresses with fatty infilteration fibrosis and cirrhosis. Fat deposition within the liver is caused primarly by increased fatty acid oxidation by hepatocytes
Describe the clinical manifestations of appendicitis.
Gastric or per- umbilical pain is the typical symptom of an inflamed appendix. Nausea, vomiting, and anorexia follow the onset of pai, and a low grade fever is common. Some have constipation, but (mostly in children) have diarrhea.
Identify the most common type of renal stone.
The most common stone types include calcium oxalate or phosphate (70 to 80%), struvite (magnesium, ammonium, and phosphate) (15%), and uric acid (7%) (p. 787).
Describe how acute unilateral renal obstruction predisposes people to hypertension.
Occasionally, relief of obstruction will cause rapid excretion of large volumes of water, sodium or other electrolytes resulting in a urine output of 10L/day or more. Rapid postobstructive diuresis causes dehydration and fluid imbalances. Risk factors are Hypertention.
. Identify the most common pathogen that causes uncomplicated urinary tract infections.
The most common cause of UTI infection is Escherichia coli (E. coli) (p. 793)
Identify the kidney disorder which is characterized by low serum albumin, edema, and high level of lipids in both the serum and urine.
Nephrotic Syndrome (p. 799)
Explain how proteinuria (protein in the urine) cause generalized edema.
Increased glomerular permeability, decreased proximal tubule reabsorption results in Edema, increased susceptibility to infection from loss of immunoglobulin. (p.799)
. Name the exogenous agent that can successfully treat anemia due to renal failure.
Inadequate production of erythropoietin decrease red blood cess production and requires treatment with recombinant erythropoietin (p.780).
. Describe the clinical manifestations of dysfunctional uterine bleeding. P. 852
Unpredictable and variable bleeding in terms of amount and duration especially during premenopausal.
• Flooding and passing of large clots indicating excessive blood loss
• Anemia may occur, but healthy woman usally don't become anemic unit 1.6L of blood loss
• Amenorrhea (lack of menstruation), but can be perceived by individuals as a miscarriage
Identify a major dietary intake that provides protection against prostate cancer. P. 881
antioxidants (vitamin E, selenium, and lycopene), retinoids (vitamin A) and prostate carcinogenesis
29-32. describe the following conditions: P. 872-873
Varicocele: abnormal dilation of a vein in the spermatic cord, also known as bag of warms, most common in infertile men, less likely in obese men. Occur 95% on left side.
• Hydrocele: collection of fluid within the tunica vaginalis, most common cause of scrotal swelling. Often resolve in the 1st year of life. In adults it’s caused by imbalance between secreting and absorptive scrotal tissue. Scrotal may be grapefruit size or larger.
• Testicular torsion: p. 874. Testis rotate on its vascular pedicle, interrupting its blood supply and reducing/stopping circulation to the testis, causes acute sscrotum (testicular pain and swelling) most common among neonates and adolescents.
• Spermatocele: painless diverticulum of the epididymis located between the head of the epididymis and the testis. Its filled with milky fluid containing sperm
38. Name the virus that is a necessary precursor for developing cervical intraepithelial carcinoma and cervical cancer. P. 863
HPV Human papillomavirus
Identify the neurotransmitter that is deficient in patients with Parkinson’s disease.
Dopamine
4. Describe the initial clinical manifestations associated with acute spinal cord injury.
Spinal shock: reflex function completely lost below the lesion including muscles, bladder, bowel, and sexual function and autonomic control.
Identify the cellular type of the most common primary tumors that occur in the CNS.
Intracerebral: Neuroglia, neurons, cells of blood vessels, and connective tissue
Extracerebral: meningiomas, pituitary and pineal glands
6. Predict the site of contrecoup damage to a person’s brain after a car accident in which his
forehead struck the windshield
Injury opposite side of brain from site of forceful impact, impact within skull shearing forces through brain
Predict the status of the pupils of the eyes in a patient with raised intracranial pressure
The pupils will end up as bilateral dilation and fixation, Small and sluggish
11. Describe the likely causes of the cerebral edema following head injuries.
Increased permeability of the capillary endothelium of the brain after injury to the vascular structure; Caused by distortion of blood vessels, displace of brain tissues, and eventual herniation of brain tissue from one brain compartment to another. Brain insult from trauma, infection, hemorrhage, tumor, ischemia, infarct, or hypoxia
13. List the possible clinical presentations of lacunar cerebral infarcts in patients.
Area of brain loses blood supply because of vascular occlusion. Abrupt vascular occlusion, gradual vessel occlusion, vessels that are stenosed (abnormal narrowing) but not completely occluded
This stroke is associated with smoking, hypertension, and diabetes mellitus. Because of the subcortical location and small area of infaction, these strokes may have pure motor and sensory deficits
Describe the likely clinical signs and symptoms of Alzheimer's disease
The initial clinical sign is often forgetfulness, emotional upset and other illnesses. Memory loss increases as the disorder advances, and the person becomes disoriented and confused and loses the ability to concentrate. Dyspraxia may appear.
18. Identify the most common site of formation of atheroma plaques in the brain arteries that are a
major contributing factor to the development of cerebrovascular accident (CVA).
Middle cerebral artery
22. Describe the outcome of improper reduction or immobilization of a fractured bone.
Unnatural alignment, swelling, muscle spasm, tenderness, pain and impaired sensation and decreased mobility.
. Describe factors that increase the risk of malunion of a fractured bone
Improper reduction or immobilization. Taking cast off early.
. Know the relationship between certain hormones, e.g., estrogens, and the protective effect
against development of osteoporosis
Post- menopausal women may have been given estrogen and progestin to prevent bone loss. However combined estrogen –progestins therapy increases the risk for invasive breast cancer, heart disease, stroke and pulmonaty embolism. PTH has been widely studied, and the results are encouraging. PTH directly stimulates bone formation, particularly in trabecular bone.
31. Describe the characteristics osteoarthritis.
Degenerative joint disease (OA) includes pain in one or more joints (1st characteristic)
5. Identify the cellular component that is most vulnerable to folate and vitamin B12 deficiency.
Intrinsic factor
Identify the type of anemia that arises as a result of defective secretion of intrinsic factor by special cells in the stomach.
Pernicious Anemia
. Identify the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia.
Normal red cell production, but insufficient amount of Iron is the clinical cause. The main cause of IDA in developed countries is because of pregnancy and the continuous loss of blood
10. Describe the Schilling test and its purpose.
A test for Pericious Anemia
12. Explain the reason why pancytopenia develops in patients with aplastic anemia.
It can be due to auto immune functions, renal failure parvovirus infection, or exposure to radiation, drugs, and toxins, and it might also be congenital
14. Describe a major clinical consequence of polycythemia vera.
Tissue injury (ischemia) and death (infarction) is the outcome of blood vessel blockage, and it occurs 40% of the time
15. Identify the most likely anemia that would be a suitable candidate for bone marrow transplantation.
Aplastic Anemia
Identify the hormone or chemical mediator that is most likely responsible for the hypertrophy of the myocardium due to chronic hypertension.
Myocardial hypertrophy in response to hypertension is mediated by several neuro-hormonal substances, including catecholanimes from SNS and angiotensin
20. Predict the usual source of pulmonary emboli.
Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a blockage of the main artery of the lung or one of its branches by a substance that has travelled from elsewhere in the body through the bloodstream (embolism). Usually this is due to embolism of a thrombus (blood clot) from the deep veins in the legs, a process termed venous thromboembolism
Identify the risk factors that are responsible for a 2-3 fold increase in the coronary artery disease.
Advanced age, male gender or women after menopause, and family history. Modifiable major risks includes dyslipidemia, hypertension, cigarette smoking, diabetes and insulin resistant, obesity, sedentary lifestyle, and atherogenic diet
Identify the serum lipoprotein that is protective or preventive for the development of atherosclerosis.
HDL
27. Identify the clinical manifestations of acute pericarditis.
low-grade intermittent fever, dyspnea/tachypnea (a frequent complaint and may be severe with myocarditis, pericarditis, and tamponade), cough, and dysphagia. In tuberculous pericarditis, fever, night sweats, and weight loss were commonly noted (80%)
29. Identify the common cause of infective endocarditis.
Bacteria
Differentiate atherosclerosis from arteriosclerosis.
Atherosclerosis is the most common form of arteriosclerosis. Arteriosclerosis is characterized by soft deposits of intra-arterial fat and fibrin in the vessel walls that harden over time.
1. Name the pathological condition involving infection the pleural cavity.
Pneumothorax or Empyema
2. Describe acute respiratory distress syndrome.
Acute lung inflammation and diffuse alveolocapilary injury. Most common predisposing factors are sepsis and multiple traumas. All disorders causing ARDS cause massive pulmonary inflammation that injures the alveolcapillary membrane and produces severe pulmonary edema, shunting, and hypoxia. Initial lung injury also damages to alveolar.
3. Identify the inflammatory mediators that are produced as a result of asthma.
IgE
4. Relate decreased exercise tolerance, wheezing, shortness of breath, and productive cough to the most likely chronic lung disease.
Bronchitis
5. Describe major clinical manifestations of pneumonia.
Upper respiratory infection, which is often viral. Fever, chills, productive or dry cough, malaise, pleural pain, and sometime dyspnea and hemoptysis. Physical examination may show signs of pulmonary consolidation, such as dullness to percussion, inspiratory crackles, increased tactile fremitus, egophony, and whispered pectoriloquy. Sepsis
Define hypoxemia versus hypoxia.
Hypoxemia is abnormally low oxygen concentration in blood. Hypoxia is deficiency in amount of oxygen reaching tissues
Justify whether or not persons with Alpha-antitrypsin deficiency are predisposed to emphysema
Primary emphysema is commonly linked to an inherited deficiency of the enzyme -antitrypsin. Deficiency increases likelihood of emphysema because proteolysis in lung tissues is not inhibited
8. Identify the greatest single risk factor for reactivation of tuberculosis.
HIV
22. Explain the reason why obese people are at greater risk for dehydration than lean people.
Individuals who are comatose or paralyzed continue to have insensible water losses through the skin and lungs with minimal obligatory formation of urine. Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH)
ADH secretion in the absence of hypovolemia or hyperosmolality
Hyponatremia with hypervolemia
Manifestations: cerebral edema, muscle twitching, headache, and weight gain
Identify the buffers that work rapidly (within minutes to hours) to establish blood pH.
Carbonic acid-bicarbonate and the protein hemoglobin
Explain why insulin is used to treat hyperkalemia (too much potassium in blood).
Insulin promotes cellular entry of potassium, insulin deficits are accompanied by hyperkalemia
22. Identify the populations (e.g., infants, normal adults, elderly, obese persons, thin women or men, teanagers, etc) who at higher risk for fluid imbalance and provide reasons.
AGE
Infants and growing children have much greater fluid turnover than adults because their higher metabolic rate increases fluid loss. Infants lose more fluid through the kidneys because immature kidneys are less able to conserve water than adult kidneys.
GENDER AND BODY SIZE
Total body water also is affected by gender and body size. Because fat cells contain little or no water and lean tissue has a high water content, people with a higher percentage of body fat have less body fluid. Women have proportionately more body fat and less body water than men. Water accounts for approximately 60% of an adult man’s weight, but only 52% for an adult woman. In an obese individual this may be even less, with water responsible for only 30% to 40% of the person’s weight.
ENVIRONMENTAL TEMPERATURE
People with an illness and those participating in strenuous activity are at risk for fluid and electrolyte imbalances when the environmental temperature is high. Fluid losses through sweating are increased in hot environments as the body attempts to dissipate heat. These losses are even greater in people who have not been acclimatized to the environment.
Explain why patients with metabolic acidosis breathe deeply and rapidly (Kussmaul respiration).
The respiratory system’s efforts to compensate for the increase in metabolic acids result to kussmaul respiration. This represents the body to compensate for the increase pH by blowing off carbon dioxide, which decreases carbonic acid.