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84 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
hypokalemia: symptoms
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ileus, weakness
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hyperkalemia: tx
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IV calcium - stabilizes myocyte membranes
glucose + insulin: gets K into cell Bicarbonate: shifts K+ intracellularly (Kayexelate is ion-exchange resin) Lasix can be used if have good kidneys. Dialysis Can give beta agonists (albuterol) |
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hyperchloremia: cause
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Excess chloride in IV solutions
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Chloride content of
A) normal saline B) plasma |
A) 154 mEq/L
B) 90-110 mEq/L |
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Composition of normal saline
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A) 154 mEq/L Na+
B) 154 mEq/L Cl- 308 mOsm/L (it's actually hypertonic) |
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Composition of Lactated Ringer's
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A) 130 mEq/L Na+
B) 109 mEq/L Cl- C) 2.7 mEq/L Ca2+ D) 28 mEq/L lactate E) 4 mEq/L K+ 525 mOsm/L (hypertonic!) |
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typical range for maintenance fluids
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100-125 mL/hour
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Hypocalcemia: symptoms
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Neuromuscular irritability: perioral and extremity numbness
May progress to carpopedal spasm and tetany |
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Why is lactated ringers given in metabolic acidosis?
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The lactate is metabolized into bicarbonate by the liver, which can help correct metabolic acidosis. (it's the reason it can't be used as maintenance fluids - because patient would become alkalotic)
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Why is sugar (dextrose) added to maintenance fluid?
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prevent muscle braekdown
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Best way to assess fluid status
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Urine output
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Minimal urine output for adult on maintenance IV
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30 mL/hour (0.5mL/kg/hr)
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Most common trauma resuscitation fluid
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Lactated Ringers (or normal saline)
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____ IV fluid is used to replaced duodenal or pancreatic loss (why)?
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Lactated ringers
Because of bicarb loss. LR is converted to bicarb in liver |
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hypokalemia: ECG findings
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Flat T waves
U waves (waveform immediately after the T wave) |
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Hypercalcemia: symptoms (acute)
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Fatigue, confusion, N/V, diarrhea, dehydration, anorexia
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Hypercalcemia: symptoms (chronic)
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renal stones
Ulcer disease (mostly related to hyperPTH) |
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HH equation
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pH = pK + log ([HCO3-]/(0.03 * PCO2))
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Most common cause of resp acidosis
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Decreased alveolar ventilation
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lactic acidosis: cause
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Inadequate tissue perfusion causing increased anaerobic metabolism
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most common cause of met alkalosis
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loss of gastric contents
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paradoxical aciduria: defn
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Process in which there is volume and H+ loss (ie, vomiting) where the kidney excretes extra H+ to conserve Na+
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winter's formula
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expected PCO2 = 1.8([Bicarb]) + 8 (+/- 2)
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winter's formula
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expected PCO2 = 1.8([Bicarb]) + 8 (+/- 2)
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_____ inhibits Thrombin - Xa complexes
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Antithrombin III
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______ degrades factors V and VIII
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Protein C and S
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Cleaves fibrin
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Plasmin (has to be activated via t-PA or uPA from Plasminogen)
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Clopidogrel - MOA
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blocks ADP-mediated platelet aggregation
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Vit K-dependent factors
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II, VII, IX, X, Proteins C and S
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lovenox/Enoxaparin - MOA
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low molecular weight heparin (antithrombin III activator)
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Congenital Risk Factors for DVT
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1) Protein S Def
2) Protein C Def 3) Antithrombin III mutation 4) Factor V leiden mutation |
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What happens to packed RBCs when 2,3 DPG levels fall?
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Oxygen binds too avidly
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Stages/Classes of shock (4)
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1) <750cc blood loss
2) 750-1500cc loss - tachycardia, decreased pulse pressure 3) 1500-2000cc blood loss - tachycardia, DECREASED SYSTOLIC BP 4) >2000cc blood lost - all the above plus confusion, lethargy, oliguria |
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Clean wound - defn
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nontraumatic procedure
Does not enter bowel, tracheobronchial tree, GU system, or oropharynx, and isn't infected Ex. hernia repair. Lowest risk of infection |
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Clean-contaminated wound - defn
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nontraumatic procedure, except that bowel, tracheobronchial tree, GU system, or oropharynx were entered.
Ex. cholecystectomy, bladder sx. |
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Contaminated wound - defn
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Fresh traumatic wound
and/or Contamination during procedure (eg., bowel was cut). Wounds are LEFT OPEN |
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Contaminated wound - how treated?
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Left open
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Dirty and infected wound - defn and how treated?
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Infection is established before wound is made surgically.
Eg., appendiceal abscess Treatment by leaving open. |
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Normal wound healing phases and timeframe
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1) Coagulation phase - immediately
2) Inflammatory phase - Cellular --> Vascular --> Mediators etc (will expound) 3) Proliferative - fibroblasts migrate and produce collagen (continues 3 weeks) 4) Remodeling - initial collagen is broken down and remade |
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Inflammatory phase of wound healing: What occurs and in what timeframe?
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Immediately there is increased vascular permeability --> PMNs come in.
24 - 48 hours : macrophages replace and start remodeling ECM 48- 72 hours : Epithelial bridging and adherence across surgically closed wound edges has occurred |
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What happens 48- 72 hours after surgery re wound healing?
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Epithelial briding and adherence via epithelial cell migration
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Tissue growth factors (PDGF and TGF-β) promote influx of ________
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fibroblasts
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_________ enzymes promote breakdown of injured tissue and wound remodeling.
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Matrix metalloproteinases.
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What kind of dressing needs to promote epithelial migration and what does it consist of?
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Large, open dermal wounds (eg. skin graft donor sites)
Petroleum-base impregnated gauze allow formation of scab, which facilitates epithelial migration. |
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What kind of dressing is wet-to-wet for?
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Clean open wound or dirty wound that has been cleaned by wet-to-dry
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wet-to-wet dressing : defn
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Gauze isn't allowed to dry. Keeps tissues moist, removes exudates, and doesn't debride healthy tissue
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Wet-to-dry dressing:
A) Defn B) indication |
A) Thin piece of gauze is moistened, packed in wound, and covered with dry dressing. When dry gauze is removed, it takes necrotic debris (but also some healthy tissue) with it.
B) Good for open wound with necrotic debris |
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It takes about ____ hours for epithelium to migrate across sutured wound and seal it.
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48
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Best dressing for
A) clean open wound B) wound with necrotic debris C) Large, open dermal wounds |
A) Wet-to-wet (no healthy tissue removal)
B) wet-to-dry (removes necrosis and some healthy tissue unfortunately) C) Petroleum-based impregnated gauze |
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How does Vitamin A affect wound healing?
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Promotes inflammation and production of collagen
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How does hyperbaric Oxygen affect wound healing?
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Seems to speed and improve healing in Patients with nonhealing wounds, such as radiation, osteomyelitis.
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How does severe illness affect metabolism?
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1) BMR increases
2) Body becomes more dependent on glucose and less able to utilize protein and fat 3) Catabolic rate increases (ameliorate with dextrose administration) |
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How to assess adequacy of protein nutrition?
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Measure visceral proteins (albumin, transferrin, pre-albumin)
Pre-albumin is best for reflecting protein nutrition as it has a shorter half-life than albumin. |
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TPN vs PPN - main differences
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TPN has high osmolarity and is toxic to peripheral veins. Must be given centrally.
PPN has less glucose and is not significantly hyperosmolar. |
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Reasons for ICU admission
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1) Airway control -
2) Ventilator support 3) Invasive monitoring - A-lines, pulmonary catheters, ICP 4) Vasoactive and antiarrhythmic drugs 5) Intensive patient care |
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______ determines CO2 elimination
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Ventilation
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What is dependent on alveolar minute ventilation?
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CO2 elimination (ventilation)
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What is dependent on alveolar minute ventilation?
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CO2 elimination (ventilation)
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Determines oxygenation or PO2
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Partial pressure of alveolar oxygen and intrapulmonary shunt
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What does increasing PEEP do?
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Decreases shunt and increases PO2
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How is vent weaning usually accomplished?
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By turning down the ventilator rate and making the patient assume more work of breathing until vent is not needed.
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What are factors that determine whether a patient is ready for vent weaning?
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1) RR <30
2) Spontaneous tidal volume >5mL/kg 3) Rapid shallow breathing index (RR/tidal volume in liters) 4) Vital capacity 5) Negative inspiratory force - amount of negative pressure patient is able to create against a closed glottis 6) Arterial blood gases - O2 sats should be > 90%, PCO2 should be 35-45 |
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Pulm Artery catheters monitor ______
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cardiac output
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Dobutamine mainly affects what receptors? What is result?
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β1 and β2
Primary causes increase in CO plus vasodilation |
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Variable dosing effects of dopamine
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1) Lowest doses : causes increased flow in kidneys and intestine (its own dopamine receptors)
2) Medium doses: β receptor agonist leading to increase in cardiac contractility with resulting increase in CO 3) Highest doses - primarily alpha agonist and vasoconstrictor |
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Alpha agonist that causes pure arterial constriction (good in SEPSIS)
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phenylephrine
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Nitroprusside is primarily (venous, arterial) vasodilator. while nitroglycerin is primarily (venous, arterial) vasodilator.
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Arterial; Venous
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Neurogenic shock - cause
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Loss of sympathetic tone leading to peripheral vasodilation
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Tension pneumothorax - tx
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Placement of chest tube on affected side
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How are central venous prsesures changed in
A) cardiogenic B) hypovolemic shock? |
A) Increased
B) decreased |
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Cardiogenic shock - how does tx differ from other types of shock?
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Give dobutamine or dopamine (with/out nitroglycerin) instead of volume resuscitation.
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In ____ intention, deep layers are closed but subcutaneous layer and skin are left open
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Secondary
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In _____ intention, deep layers are closed while subcutaneous layer and skin are left open and packed
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delayed primary
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Sump drain: defn
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Double lumen catheters.
Air or other fluid can go in one lumen while suction is applied to the other lumen. |
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malignancies from mesoderm
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Sarcoma
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Highest number of cancer deaths is from ____ cancer overall.
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lung
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______ genes are genes expressed during cellular proliferation
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Proto-oncogenes
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two copies of recessive gene of _____ are inherited to result in FAP
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APC
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HNPCC - pathway to colon cancer
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Defects in DNA repair
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Steps in colon carcinogenesis
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1) APC mutations
2) DCC gene lost (Deleted in Colon Cancer) 3) k-rae mutations --> small adenomatous polyposis emerges 4) loss of second normal allele of p53 |
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TNM system - definition
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For cancer stages
T - describes primary tumor N - describes involvement of lymph nodes M - describes distant metastases |
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Atelectasis occurs on days ____ postop
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1-3
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Wound infection occurs on days ____ postop
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5-8
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UTI occurs on days ____ postop
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3-5
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