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84 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
hypokalemia: symptoms
ileus, weakness
hyperkalemia: tx
IV calcium - stabilizes myocyte membranes

glucose + insulin: gets K into cell

Bicarbonate: shifts K+ intracellularly

(Kayexelate is ion-exchange resin)

Lasix can be used if have good kidneys.

Dialysis

Can give beta agonists (albuterol)
hyperchloremia: cause
Excess chloride in IV solutions
Chloride content of
A) normal saline
B) plasma
A) 154 mEq/L
B) 90-110 mEq/L
Composition of normal saline
A) 154 mEq/L Na+
B) 154 mEq/L Cl-

308 mOsm/L

(it's actually hypertonic)
Composition of Lactated Ringer's
A) 130 mEq/L Na+
B) 109 mEq/L Cl-
C) 2.7 mEq/L Ca2+
D) 28 mEq/L lactate
E) 4 mEq/L K+

525 mOsm/L

(hypertonic!)
typical range for maintenance fluids
100-125 mL/hour
Hypocalcemia: symptoms
Neuromuscular irritability: perioral and extremity numbness

May progress to carpopedal spasm and tetany
Why is lactated ringers given in metabolic acidosis?
The lactate is metabolized into bicarbonate by the liver, which can help correct metabolic acidosis. (it's the reason it can't be used as maintenance fluids - because patient would become alkalotic)
Why is sugar (dextrose) added to maintenance fluid?
prevent muscle braekdown
Best way to assess fluid status
Urine output
Minimal urine output for adult on maintenance IV
30 mL/hour (0.5mL/kg/hr)
Most common trauma resuscitation fluid
Lactated Ringers (or normal saline)
____ IV fluid is used to replaced duodenal or pancreatic loss (why)?
Lactated ringers

Because of bicarb loss. LR is converted to bicarb in liver
hypokalemia: ECG findings
Flat T waves

U waves (waveform immediately after the T wave)
Hypercalcemia: symptoms (acute)
Fatigue, confusion, N/V, diarrhea, dehydration, anorexia
Hypercalcemia: symptoms (chronic)
renal stones

Ulcer disease

(mostly related to hyperPTH)
HH equation
pH = pK + log ([HCO3-]/(0.03 * PCO2))
Most common cause of resp acidosis
Decreased alveolar ventilation
lactic acidosis: cause
Inadequate tissue perfusion causing increased anaerobic metabolism
most common cause of met alkalosis
loss of gastric contents
paradoxical aciduria: defn
Process in which there is volume and H+ loss (ie, vomiting) where the kidney excretes extra H+ to conserve Na+
winter's formula
expected PCO2 = 1.8([Bicarb]) + 8 (+/- 2)
winter's formula
expected PCO2 = 1.8([Bicarb]) + 8 (+/- 2)
_____ inhibits Thrombin - Xa complexes
Antithrombin III
______ degrades factors V and VIII
Protein C and S
Cleaves fibrin
Plasmin (has to be activated via t-PA or uPA from Plasminogen)
Clopidogrel - MOA
blocks ADP-mediated platelet aggregation
Vit K-dependent factors
II, VII, IX, X, Proteins C and S
lovenox/Enoxaparin - MOA
low molecular weight heparin (antithrombin III activator)
Congenital Risk Factors for DVT
1) Protein S Def
2) Protein C Def
3) Antithrombin III mutation
4) Factor V leiden mutation
What happens to packed RBCs when 2,3 DPG levels fall?
Oxygen binds too avidly
Stages/Classes of shock (4)
1) <750cc blood loss
2) 750-1500cc loss - tachycardia, decreased pulse pressure
3) 1500-2000cc blood loss - tachycardia, DECREASED SYSTOLIC BP
4) >2000cc blood lost - all the above plus confusion, lethargy, oliguria
Clean wound - defn
nontraumatic procedure

Does not enter bowel, tracheobronchial tree, GU system, or oropharynx, and isn't infected

Ex. hernia repair.

Lowest risk of infection
Clean-contaminated wound - defn
nontraumatic procedure, except that bowel, tracheobronchial tree, GU system, or oropharynx were entered.

Ex. cholecystectomy, bladder sx.
Contaminated wound - defn
Fresh traumatic wound

and/or

Contamination during procedure (eg., bowel was cut).

Wounds are LEFT OPEN
Contaminated wound - how treated?
Left open
Dirty and infected wound - defn and how treated?
Infection is established before wound is made surgically.

Eg., appendiceal abscess

Treatment by leaving open.
Normal wound healing phases and timeframe
1) Coagulation phase - immediately

2) Inflammatory phase - Cellular --> Vascular --> Mediators etc (will expound)

3) Proliferative - fibroblasts migrate and produce collagen (continues 3 weeks)

4) Remodeling - initial collagen is broken down and remade
Inflammatory phase of wound healing: What occurs and in what timeframe?
Immediately there is increased vascular permeability --> PMNs come in.

24 - 48 hours : macrophages replace and start remodeling ECM

48- 72 hours : Epithelial bridging and adherence across surgically closed wound edges has occurred
What happens 48- 72 hours after surgery re wound healing?
Epithelial briding and adherence via epithelial cell migration
Tissue growth factors (PDGF and TGF-&beta;) promote influx of ________
fibroblasts
_________ enzymes promote breakdown of injured tissue and wound remodeling.
Matrix metalloproteinases.
What kind of dressing needs to promote epithelial migration and what does it consist of?
Large, open dermal wounds (eg. skin graft donor sites)

Petroleum-base impregnated gauze allow formation of scab, which facilitates epithelial migration.
What kind of dressing is wet-to-wet for?
Clean open wound or dirty wound that has been cleaned by wet-to-dry
wet-to-wet dressing : defn
Gauze isn't allowed to dry. Keeps tissues moist, removes exudates, and doesn't debride healthy tissue
Wet-to-dry dressing:
A) Defn
B) indication
A) Thin piece of gauze is moistened, packed in wound, and covered with dry dressing. When dry gauze is removed, it takes necrotic debris (but also some healthy tissue) with it.

B) Good for open wound with necrotic debris
It takes about ____ hours for epithelium to migrate across sutured wound and seal it.
48
Best dressing for
A) clean open wound
B) wound with necrotic debris
C) Large, open dermal wounds
A) Wet-to-wet (no healthy tissue removal)
B) wet-to-dry (removes necrosis and some healthy tissue unfortunately)
C) Petroleum-based impregnated gauze
How does Vitamin A affect wound healing?
Promotes inflammation and production of collagen
How does hyperbaric Oxygen affect wound healing?
Seems to speed and improve healing in Patients with nonhealing wounds, such as radiation, osteomyelitis.
How does severe illness affect metabolism?
1) BMR increases
2) Body becomes more dependent on glucose and less able to utilize protein and fat
3) Catabolic rate increases (ameliorate with dextrose administration)
How to assess adequacy of protein nutrition?
Measure visceral proteins (albumin, transferrin, pre-albumin)

Pre-albumin is best for reflecting protein nutrition as it has a shorter half-life than albumin.
TPN vs PPN - main differences
TPN has high osmolarity and is toxic to peripheral veins. Must be given centrally.

PPN has less glucose and is not significantly hyperosmolar.
Reasons for ICU admission
1) Airway control -
2) Ventilator support
3) Invasive monitoring - A-lines, pulmonary catheters, ICP
4) Vasoactive and antiarrhythmic drugs
5) Intensive patient care
______ determines CO2 elimination
Ventilation
What is dependent on alveolar minute ventilation?
CO2 elimination (ventilation)
What is dependent on alveolar minute ventilation?
CO2 elimination (ventilation)
Determines oxygenation or PO2
Partial pressure of alveolar oxygen and intrapulmonary shunt
What does increasing PEEP do?
Decreases shunt and increases PO2
How is vent weaning usually accomplished?
By turning down the ventilator rate and making the patient assume more work of breathing until vent is not needed.
What are factors that determine whether a patient is ready for vent weaning?
1) RR <30

2) Spontaneous tidal volume >5mL/kg

3) Rapid shallow breathing index (RR/tidal volume in liters)

4) Vital capacity

5) Negative inspiratory force - amount of negative pressure patient is able to create against a closed glottis

6) Arterial blood gases - O2 sats should be > 90%, PCO2 should be 35-45
Pulm Artery catheters monitor ______
cardiac output
Dobutamine mainly affects what receptors? What is result?
&beta;1 and &beta;2

Primary causes increase in CO plus vasodilation
Variable dosing effects of dopamine
1) Lowest doses : causes increased flow in kidneys and intestine (its own dopamine receptors)

2) Medium doses: &beta; receptor agonist leading to increase in cardiac contractility with resulting increase in CO

3) Highest doses - primarily alpha agonist and vasoconstrictor
Alpha agonist that causes pure arterial constriction (good in SEPSIS)
phenylephrine
Nitroprusside is primarily (venous, arterial) vasodilator. while nitroglycerin is primarily (venous, arterial) vasodilator.
Arterial; Venous
Neurogenic shock - cause
Loss of sympathetic tone leading to peripheral vasodilation
Tension pneumothorax - tx
Placement of chest tube on affected side
How are central venous prsesures changed in
A) cardiogenic
B) hypovolemic
shock?
A) Increased
B) decreased
Cardiogenic shock - how does tx differ from other types of shock?
Give dobutamine or dopamine (with/out nitroglycerin) instead of volume resuscitation.
In ____ intention, deep layers are closed but subcutaneous layer and skin are left open
Secondary
In _____ intention, deep layers are closed while subcutaneous layer and skin are left open and packed
delayed primary
Sump drain: defn
Double lumen catheters.

Air or other fluid can go in one lumen while suction is applied to the other lumen.
malignancies from mesoderm
Sarcoma
Highest number of cancer deaths is from ____ cancer overall.
lung
______ genes are genes expressed during cellular proliferation
Proto-oncogenes
two copies of recessive gene of _____ are inherited to result in FAP
APC
HNPCC - pathway to colon cancer
Defects in DNA repair
Steps in colon carcinogenesis
1) APC mutations
2) DCC gene lost (Deleted in Colon Cancer)
3) k-rae mutations --> small adenomatous polyposis emerges
4) loss of second normal allele of p53
TNM system - definition
For cancer stages

T - describes primary tumor

N - describes involvement of lymph nodes

M - describes distant metastases
Atelectasis occurs on days ____ postop
1-3
Wound infection occurs on days ____ postop
5-8
UTI occurs on days ____ postop
3-5