Preston's Final

Front 1

The Oral Cavity is divided into 3 parts. The part that lies between the teeth (or alveolar processes in an edentulous patient) and the inner cheeks is called the:

Back 1

vestibule

Front 2

The opening of the parotid gland forms a small elevation of soft tissue on the cheek adjacent to the permanent maxillary first molar and is called:

Back 2

Stensen's papilla or duct

Front 3

A small, rounded extension of bone located distally to the last maxillary tooth is called the:

Back 3

maxillary tuberosity

Front 4

The transverse folds of soft tissue found in the ANTERIOR portion of the hard palate are called:

Back 4

palatine rugae

Front 5

A patient has a bony protuberance on the hard palate. This structure is likely:

Back 5

palatal tori

Front 6

To view the lingual tonsil, the tongue is____?

Back 6

pulled out and to the side

Front 7

What are the Fordyce's spots (granules) composed of?

Back 7

sebum and sebaceous tissue

Front 8

Which of the following structures divides the tongue into the body and the base?

Back 8

sulcus terminalis

Front 9

Which region of the face is the intertragic notch located in?

Back 9

temporal

Front 10

Which of the following facial features is located laterally to each naris?

Back 10

nasal ala

Front 11

which embryologic layer do the somites come from?

Back 11

mesoderm

Front 12

Which cranial nerve innervates the fungiform papilla and is responsible for taste sensation?

Back 12

Facial (7)

Front 13

The primitive streak is oriented in which direction?

Back 13

midsaggital or midline

Front 14

Which of the following is true of meiosis?

Back 14

It occurs in reproductive organs

Front 15

Which of the following is the correct order from superior to inferior of the developing embryo in bilaminar embryonic disk formation?

Back 15

amniotic cavity, epiblast, hypoblast, yolk sac

Front 16

True or False: The mandible forms in the 1st branchial arch

Back 16

TRUE

Front 17

From which embryonic layer is mesoderm derived?

Back 17

Epiblast Layer

Front 18

The first branchial groove will eventually form which structure?

Back 18

the external auditory meatus

Front 19

Which nerve controls the movement of the instrinsic (internal) muscles of the tongue?

Back 19

Hypoglossal

Front 20

The tubercle of the upper lip is formed from which embryologic process?

Back 20

medial nasal processes

Front 21

During which week of prenatal development is the palate completed?

Back 21

12th

Front 22

The primitive streak forms in the abryonic disk, causing:

Back 22

bilateral symmetry

Front 23

Neural Crest Cells formed from the neuroectoderm break off from the neural folds and are dispersed in the___?

Back 23

mesenchyme

Front 24

After the embryonic disk folds into itself, it is shaped like a hollow tube. THe inner part of the developing embryo will form the:

Back 24

digestive tract

Front 25

The stomodeum or "primitive mouth" of the embryo forms the:

Back 25

nasal and oral cavities

Front 26

which of the following do the medial nasal processes NOT form?

Back 26

alae

Front 27

cheeks are formed:

Back 27

by fusion of the maxillary and mandibular processes

Front 28

A common type of cleft lip can result from the lack of fusion between:

Back 28

medial nasal and maxillary processes

Front 29

The mandible and most of the maxilla are formed by the:

Back 29

1st branchial arch

Front 30

Neural Crest Cells migrate from which embryonic structures?

Back 30

neural folds

Front 31

The body of the tongue is formed mainly by the:

Back 31

lateral lingual swellings (lateral tubercles) of the 1st branchial arch

Front 32

which of the following phrases concerning the second branchial arch is correct?

Back 32

it contains Reichert's cartilage

Front 33

The thyroid gland has a common origin with the tongue, forming initially at the center of the 1st and 2nd branchial arches and then moving to its final position in the pharynx (throat). The depression left in the posterior part of the mature tongue where the thyroid gland formed is called:

Back 33

forament cecum

Front 34

True of False: the intermaxillary segment gives rise to the 2ndary palat

Back 34

FALSE

Front 35

True of False: the triangular median swelling, the tuberculum impar is formed from the fusion of mesenchym from mainly the 3rd and parts of the 4th branchial arches

Back 35

FALSE

Front 36

The premaxilla contains tooth buds of the:

Back 36

incisors

Front 37

which of the following structures separates the stomodeum from the foregut?

Back 37

Buccopharyngeal membrane

Front 38

The first indication of tongue development is seen as a medical elevation known as the

Back 38

Tuberculum impar

Front 39

True or False: A cleft lip is more common and more sever in males, more commonly unilateral, and on the left side.

Back 39

TRUE

Front 40

The dental sac will form the:

Back 40

periodontal ligament

Front 41

Which of the following embryonic structures becomes the dentinoenamel junction?

Back 41

Disintegrting basement membrane

Front 42

cementoblasts undergo cementogenesis laying down_____?

Back 42

cementoid

Front 43

a patient has supernumerary molars distal to her 3rd molars. These additional molars are the product of excessive inductions of the:

Back 43

primary dental lamina

Front 44

the development disturbances that result in: dens in dent, gemination, and fusion are created during which stage of tooth development?

Back 44

Cap stage

Front 45

Which of the following is formed by the cells of the enamel organ at its most cervical point and wil guide root formation?

Back 45

hertwig's epithelial root Sheath

Front 46

The Reduced Enamel Epithelium (REE) will form the primordium of which structures?

Back 46

Junctional Epithelium

Front 47

Dentinogenesis begins after which of the following occur?

Back 47

(not sure of this answer...does anyone else have it marked??)

Front 48

During which stage is the primordium of the tooth (aka "tooth germ") first manifest?

Back 48

Cap stage

Front 49

Which of the following is NOT a component of the tooth germ?

Back 49

Dental lamina

Front 50

During the process of tooth eruption the REE performs which of the following functions?

Back 50

ALL OF THESE: It fuses with th oral epithelium, it releases enzymes to help disintegrate the oral epithelium, It peels off coronally allowing the tooth to "erupt", it remains attached at the CEJ (cervix) maintaining a temporary seal

Front 51

The embryonic oral epithelium (ectoderm) develops the:

Back 51

enamel organ

Front 52

Of the 3 primary embryonic layers, the one that will form the dentin and pulp is the:

Back 52

ectoderm

Front 53

teeth are formed from which of the following embryonic tissues?

Back 53

ectoderm and mesenchyme

Front 54

Hertwig's epithelial root sheath is entirely composed of:

Back 54

inner and outer enamel epithelium

Front 55

which of the following permanent teeth are formed by the secondary dental lamina?

Back 55

incisors, canines and premolars

Front 56

the extensions of the primary dental lamina into the mesenchym form cap-like structures (cap stage). At this stage of development, the epithelial (ectoderm) extension is called the:

Back 56

enamel organ

Front 57

the outer cells of the dental papilla are induced to differentiate into:

Back 57

odontoblasts

Front 58

The enamel organ is composed of 4 layers of cells. The cells that will eventually differentiate into ameloblasts are the cells of the

Back 58

inner enamel epithelium

Front 59

the cellular extensions of the odontoblasts that remain attached to the basememnt membrane as dentin forms, are called?

Back 59

odontoblastic processes

Front 60

what is a developmental disturbance of dentin?

Back 60

dentinogenesis imperfecta

Front 61

cells foud in the periodontal ligament that can undergo proliferation under certain pathologic conditions to produce cysts and tumors of the jaw are:

Back 61

epithelial rests of Malassez

Front 62

list the order of the stages of tooth formation

Back 62

initiation, bud, cap, bell, apposition

Front 63

the 4th lobe on the lingual aspect of anterior teeth is referred to as:

Back 63

cingulum

Front 64

Using the Uninersal of ADA tooth numbering system, which of the following would represent the permanent mandibular left second premolar?

Back 64

#20

Front 65

Which of the following teeth is succedaneous?

Back 65

#13

Front 66

Which of the following is the correct order of terms used when naming teeth?

Back 66

dentition, arch, quadrant, tooth

Front 67

Using the Universal or ADA tooth numbering system, which of the following would represent the deciduous mandibular left second molar?

Back 67

K

Front 68

Using the Palmer Notation, L2 would represent the:

Back 68

permanent maxillary left lateral incisor

Front 69

which of the following are succedaneous teeth?

Back 69

Those that replace deciduous teeth, and the permanent premolars

Front 70

Of the following teeth, which are designed for biting into (cutting) foods?

Back 70

incisors

Front 71

The degree of mineralization of normal cementum is approximately that of:

Back 71

bone

Front 72

the bulk (largest amount) of tooth structure is made up of the:

Back 72

dentinogenesis imperfecta

Front 73

the place where the anatomical crown and the anatomical root meet is called the:

Back 73

cervix

Front 74

when a tooth is just erupting into the oral cavity, only a small portion of the enamel is visible. The part of the tooth that is visible is called the:

Back 74

clinical crown

Front 75

When 2 surfaces of a tooth come together this is called a:

Back 75

line angle

Front 76

an incomplete closure of 2 or more developmental lobes is called a:

Back 76

fissure

Front 77

the mixed dentition period usually begins with what?

Back 77

eruption of the permanent mandibular 1st molar

Front 78

The rounded, elevated folds of enamel found on the mesial and distal surfaces of anterior teeth (visible from the lingual) are called?

Back 78

merginal ridges

Front 79

When comparing the arches of the 2 dentitions (primary vs permanent), one arch of the primary dentition usually contains

Back 79

six fewer total teeth

Front 80

the permanent mandibular canines erupt between ages?

Back 80

9-10 years

Front 81

The mixed dentition stage usually begins around wat age?

Back 81

6

Front 82

Which of the folllowing is true of enamel?

Back 82

ALL OF THESE: it is translucent, it contains no living cells, it is the hardest tissue in the body

Front 83

which of the following cementum-enamel relationships is most common?

Back 83

overlap

Front 84

which anterior tooth is most likely to have a lingual pit at the junction of the cingulum and fossae?

Back 84

maxillary lateral incisor

Front 85

Which of the following anomalies in NOt characteristically associated with maxillary central incisors?

Back 85

microdontia

Front 86

A transverse ridge is

Back 86

made from the joining of the 2triangular ridges separated by a groove and called an oblique ridge if it is positioned diagonally

Front 87

which molar usually has 4 functional cusps?

Back 87

mandibular 1st molar

Front 88

the teeth that have 5 developmental lobesa and 5 cusps usually are _____?

Back 88

maxillary 1st molars and mandibular 1st molars

Front 89

which of the following permanent teeth is most likely to have 2 pulp canals (root canals)?

Back 89

maxillary 1st premolar

Front 90

which of the foolowing teeth is most likely to have a buccal pit that is susceptible to caries?

Back 90

mandibular first molar

Front 91

from which view is the distal cusp of the mandibular first molar most visible?

Back 91

buccal

Front 92

Ture or False:The mandibular 2nd premolar is larger than the mandibular 1st premolar

Back 92

TRUE

Front 93

the occlusal table is MOST visible from the lingual view on which of the following permanent teeth?

Back 93

mandibular 1st premolar

Front 94

which group/type of teeth are fenerally an exception to the rule which states "the mandibular counterparts typically erupt prior to the maillary counterparts?"

Back 94

Premolars

Front 95

Of the following, which tooth is periodontally the most disadvantaged BECAUSE of its short root trunk?

Back 95

mandibular 1st molar

Front 96

which tooth and cusp is the cusp of carabelli sometimes located on?

Back 96

permanent maxillary first moler; mesial lingual cusp

Front 97

All of the following are characteristics of distal convergence EXCEPT:

Back 97

found only in the mandibular teeth

Front 98

Which are the following characteristics of the maxillary 1st premolars?

Back 98

have 2 roots that bufurcate at the apical 3rd

Front 99

Which tooth can have an acclusal pattern resembling an "H", "U" or a "Y?"

Back 99

Mandibular Second Premolar

Front 100

The first premolar in each quadrant replaces the:

Back 100

Promary first molar

Front 101

Of the following permanenet teeth, which will most likely be the last to erupt into the oral cavity?

Back 101

maxillary canine

Front 102

The oblique Ridge of the maillary first molar connects the:

Back 102

ML cusp wiht the DB cusp

Front 103

Infection of the soft tissue around a partially impacted tooth (usually mandibular 3rd molar) is called:

Back 103

periocoronitis

Front 104

The triangular ridge on each cusp of tooth #31 is inclined toward the:

Back 104

central groove

Front 105

The crown shape of the maxillary 3rd molar is usually heart shaped T or F?

Back 105

FALSE

Front 106

Which of the following features are located on the lingual surfaces of all permanent anterior teeth in some level of development?

Back 106

incisal edge, marginal ridges, cingulum

Front 107

Permanent anterior teeth have ___(number) developmental lobes and are ___(shape) when viewed from either proximal surface

Back 107

4, triangular

Front 108

The functin of permanent incisors is:

Back 108

biting and cutting

Front 109

the longest tooth in the mandbular arch of the permanent dentition is the:

Back 109

mandibular canine

Front 110

Which tooth is "peg" and is smaller than normal?

Back 110

laterals

Front 111

Which of the following anterior permanent teeth is usually the smallest and has the simplest form?

Back 111

mandibular central incisor

Front 112

The number of cusps present on a permanent canine is

Back 112

one

Front 113

The number of mamelons seen on a newly erupted permanent maxillary central incisor isL

Back 113

3

Front 114

one of the functions of the permanent canines is

Back 114

tearing

Front 115

the tooth surface that is toward the anterior midline of the oral cavity is the

Back 115

mesial

Front 116

the canines have ___ cusp(s) and ___ developmental lone(s)

Back 116

1/4/2014

Front 117

The maxillary canines are larger than the mandibular canine T or F?

Back 117

TRUE

Front 118

Because of the primary posterior tooth's roots branch directly from the base of the crown, these teeth lack an identifiable:

Back 118

root trunk

Front 119

which of the following would be considered a normal molar relationship in the primary dentition?

Back 119

mesial step and flush terminal plane

Front 120

which tooth has the widest variety of occlusal shape in the deciduous dentition?

Back 120

1st mandibular molars

Front 121

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

Back 121

the decidusou molars save the space for and are replaced by the permanent molars

Front 122

Which letter from the Universal Tooth Nunbering System corresponds to the primary maxillary left 1st molar?

Back 122

I

Front 123

The deciduous maxillary canines:

Back 123

have promate space to the mesial of them

Front 124

How many erupted primary teeth does a 3 yr old child usually have?

Back 124

20

Front 125

when comparing the arches of the 2 dentitions (primary/permanent), one arch of the primary dentition usually contains:

Back 125

6 fewer total teeth

Front 126

Which of the following characteristics is noted in a patient during the primary dentition period as compared with the permanent dentition period?

Back 126

lighter enamel color

Front 127

Which of the following teeth is considered succedaneous?

Back 127

#13

Front 128

Which of the following incisors does not have mamelons, but does have acrown wider mesiodistally than incisocervically?

Back 128

primary maxillary central

Front 129

The general rule for permanent teeth eruption is lingual to the primary teeth except in the___

Back 129

maxillary anterior

Front 130

When a primary molar is lost early and the space is not maintained, what can occur?

Back 130

mesial drift

Front 131

#4 is not considered a succedaneous tooth T or F?

Back 131

FALSE

Front 132

What is considered the smallest tooth in both dentitions?

Back 132

primary mandibular central

Front 133

The period of time, approximately from 6-12 years of age is the _____ period.

Back 133

Mixed dentition

Front 134

An older dental term for primary teeth is the:

Back 134

deciduous dentition

Front 135

What is the purpose of the flared roots on primary teeth?

Back 135

Allows for development of succedaneous teeth

Front 136

Primary tooth pulp horns are usually smaller than permanent tooth pulp horns T or F

Back 136

FALSE

Front 137

How many premolars are in the primary dentition?

Back 137

0

Front 138

A functional cusp:

Back 138

Fits into the fossa of an antagonistic tooth and is on mandi ular premoars is the buccal/facial cusp

Front 139

a child has a maxillary incisor protrustion, an anterior open bite, crowded lower anteriors, and a high-palatal vault. Which of the following most likely caused this condition?

Back 139

thumb sucking

Front 140

The profile in a class I malocclusion is:

Back 140

mesognathic

Front 141

Which of the following will be found in a class II division I malocclusion?

Back 141

Mandibular permanent 1st molar is distal to the maxillary permanent first molar

Front 142

Which of the following is usually found in a Class III malocclusion?

Back 142

crossbite of the lower anteriors

Front 143

In which of the following is there an average space of 2-3 mm between the occlusal surfaces of maxillary and mandibular teeth?

Back 143

interocclusal clearance?/freeway space

Front 144

The centric stops are normally located on all of the following EXCEPT?

Back 144

height of contour

Front 145

Centric Occlusion is where the teeth meet to chewT or F?

Back 145

TRUE

Front 146

An edge to edge bite in the anterior will usually have a posterior alignment called ____.

Back 146

Class III

Front 147

The basal lauer of oral mucosa generally has:

Back 147

cells undergoing mitosis

Front 148

The opening in the epithelium that contacts the taste bud is termed:

Back 148

taste pore

Front 149

Which of the following is NOT a feature that differentiates lining mucosa from masticatory mucosa?

Back 149

Rarely contains submucosa

Front 150

The cellular organelle that contains digestive enzymes is the:

Back 150

Lysosome

Front 151

Epithelium originates from which embryologic layer(s)?

Back 151

Ectoderm, Mesoderm and Endoderm

Front 152

Lining mucosa general microscopic appearance is?

Back 152

Nonkeratinized epithelium with smooth surface, few rete ridges, CT with elastic fibers in lamina propria, has a submucosa

Front 153

The buccal mucosa may contain Fordyce's granules/spots, which are:

Back 153

deposits of sebum from misplaced sebaceous gland tissue

Front 154

Immature connective tissue with few fibers and increased amount of blood vessels is called?

Back 154

granulation tissue

Front 155

Which of the following is NOT true concerning the connective tissue proper of the oral cavity?

Back 155

It is called the lamina dura

Front 156

Which of the following is NOT an example of a kind of connective tissue?

Back 156

muscle

Front 157

The function of the ribosomes is to:

Back 157

produce proteins

Front 158

Which of the following areas does NOT contain a submucosa?

Back 158

attached gingiva

Front 159

What gives the filiform paiplla their whitish color?

Back 159

keratinization

Front 160

What is the connective tissue that serves as a transport medium for cellular nutrients?

Back 160

Blood

Front 161

Which tissue has the faster turn-over time?

Back 161

Junctional epithelium

Front 162

The connective tissue (main) region of the oral mucosa is reffered to as?

Back 162

Lamina propria

Front 163

What are the 2 parts of the internal basal lamina?

Back 163

lamina densa and lamina lucida

Front 164

The sulcular epithelium is of a keratinized type, with its cells tightly packed T or F?

Back 164

FALSE

Front 165

Nuclei are still present in parakeratinized mucosa T or F?

Back 165

TRUE

Front 166

Order of basement membrane

Back 166

1. Basal Lamina (a.lamina lucida b. lamina densa) 2. Reticular Lamina

Front 167

Cellular cememntum is most likely found:

Back 167

closest to the periodontal ligament

Front 168

Which of the following is NOT true of scelrotic dentin?

Back 168

Caries progress more rapidly through it than in normal dentin

Front 169

The body of the mandible/maxilla is considered the:

Back 169

basal bone

Front 170

The relationship between enamel and cementum at the CEJ that CANNOT occur is:

Back 170

Enamel overlaps cementum

Front 171

The short dentinal tubules that extend just past the DEJ are called:

Back 171

enamel spindles

Front 172

Caries in the dentin of the tooth progress quickest through the:

Back 172

dentinal tubule

Front 173

What is the first dentin that forms and matures withinthe tooth:

Back 173

mantle dentin

Front 174

The ends of the periodontal ligament fibers that are embedded in the cementum and bone are called:

Back 174

sharpey's fibers

Front 175

Remnants of Hertwig's epithelial root sheath found in the periodontal ligament are called:

Back 175

rests of malassez

Front 176

Bone deposition increases when tension is applied; the periodontal ligament increases in width as functional activity decreases.

Back 176

The first statement is true, the second is false.

Front 177

The maxilla and the bulk of the mandible are formed through ____bone formation/

Back 177

Intramembranous

Front 178

Bone and cementum are similar in all of the following aspects EXCEPT for the presence of:

Back 178

Volkmann's canals

Front 179

Which is NOT true about Mantle dentin?

Back 179

It is the least mineralized dentin

Front 180

Which of the following terms is used correctly to describe the alveolar bone proper?

Back 180

cribiform plate

Front 181

the fibers of the periodontal ligament:

Back 181

(all of the above) are collagen fibers, are formed by fibroblasts within the PDL, Atrophy and become elaxed and wavy on a non-functional tooth

Front 182

The most numerous fiber groups of the PDL are found in the:

Back 182

oblique group

Front 183

Which of the following fibers are not attached to the tooth?

Back 183

circular fibers

Front 184

When a tooth is being moved by orthodontic forces, the PDL will form cells that destroy bone and others that form bone. On the bony surface that the tooth is being moved TOWARDS, which of the following cells will be active?

Back 184

Osteoclasts

Front 185

Which of the following dental tissues provides the vascular mutrition for the tooth's cementum?

Back 185

PDL

Front 186

Which of the following terms associated with dentin can be used to correctly describe the largest portion of the tooth's dentin?

Back 186

circumpulpal

Front 187

Which of the following statements concerning the oblique group of the periodontal ligament is CORRECT?

Back 187

It resists intrusive forces to the tooth

Front 188

What are the 3 functions of pulp?

Back 188

Nutritive, defensive, sensory

Front 189

What layer do odontoblasts layb down first?

Back 189

pre-dentin

Front 190

Senses in the tooth felt when biting or chewing come from?

Back 190

periodontal ligament

Front 191

With age, the pulp chamber and canals ___?

Back 191

decrease

Front 192

All are characteristics of enamel EXCEPT:

Back 192

Lies next to the pulp

Front 193

What is the loss of hard tissue through tooth-to-tooth contact?

Back 193

attrition

Front 194

mature enamel is made mostly of?

Back 194

hydroxyapatite crystals

Front 195

Enamel is avascular, acellular, has no nerve endings, is nonvital and nonrenewable T/F?

Back 195

TRUE

Front 196

An attached plaque between a cell and a cellular surface/structure is called a:

Back 196

desmosome

Front 197

which of the following statements about the parotid salivary gland is false?

Back 197

it produces 60-65% of the saliva

Front 198

The stippling texture of the gingiva may be attributed to:

Back 198

rete pegs

Front 199

Which duct is associated closes to acini in salivary gland?

Back 199

intercalated duct

Front 200

the MOST permeable section of the gingiva is considered which of the following:

Back 200

Junctional epithelium

Front 201

The epithelial attachment consists of the hemidesmosomes that attach to the??

Back 201

tooth

Front 202

Which of the following is NOT true concerning the histology of salivary glands?

Back 202

Serous cells have a cloudier-looking cytoplasm

Front 203

Which of the flollowing is true concerning the submandibular salivary gland?

Back 203

(all of the above) it provides 60-65% of the total salivary volume, it secretes a mixed saliva (serous and mucous), it's duct opening opens into the oral cavity through the sublingual caruncle

Front 204

Which of the following is INCORRECT about the Thyroid Gland?

Back 204

It secretes thyrozine from it's duct

Front 205

Which of the following is a correct statement?

Back 205

Both otor and sensory nerves are present in glands

Front 206

Attached gingiva is made up of?

Back 206

masticatory mucosa

Front 207

What isthe size of the parotid salivary gland?

Back 207

largest ancapsulated

Front 208

saliva contains?

Back 208

(all of the above) immunoglobulin, minerals, enzymes, proteins

Front 209

Mumps involve which lymph nodes?

Back 209

Deep parotid lymph nodes and parotid gland

Front 210

What are the characteristics of attached gingiva?

Back 210

has no submucosa, tightly adheres to bone, and has numerous rete pegs

Front 211

The gingiva that forms a cuff surrounding the tooth (not attached) is called?

Back 211

free gingiva

Front 212

Swelling will increase the size of the free gingiva and creates a pseudopocket T or F

Back 212

TRUE

Front 213

Apical migration of the junctional epithelium can start to form a ____?

Back 213

Pocket

Front 214

The submandibular gland is the 3rd largest salivary gland T or F

Back 214

FALSE

Front 215

Minor salivary glands are:

Back 215

(B and D) Large in number and secrete mainly mucous, found in palate and floor on mouth

Front 216

The cells that surround the acini that cause contraction are:

Back 216

myoepithelial cells

Front 217

Goblet cells secrete:

Back 217

mucin