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130 Cards in this Set

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C

What is the pesticide active ingredient?


a.) The part of the pesticide that mixes easily with other chemicals


b.) The most toxic component of the pesticide


c.) The part of the formulation that has the pesticidal effect

B

Which of the following is NOT a pesticide?


a.) chemicals that control pests


b.) fertilizers


c.) plant growth regulators


d.) plant defoliants

D

Which of the following may be inert ingredients in a pesticide?


a.) solvents


b.) surfactants


c.) buffering agents


d.) all of the above

C

Which of the following formulations is applied dry?


a.) wettable powders


b.) soluble powders


c.) dusts

D

Which of the following are adjuvants?


a.) surfactants


b.) drift control agents


c.) buffering agents


d.) all of the above

B

When pesticides don't mix well together they are considered to be...


a.) compatible


b.) incompatible


c.) intolerant of each other


d.) none of the above

D

Which of the following is an advantage of liquid pesticide formulations?


a.) they require no agitation


b.) they are not a splash hazard for mixers


c.) they don't contribute to equipment wear


d.) a & c


e.) all of the above

B

Plant defoliants are used primarily to...


a.) remove dead leaves from plants after an herbicide has been used


b.) remove leave from crops prior to harvest


c.) to improve insecticide spray coverage by removing leaves


d.) none of the above

D

Which of the following are disadvantages of emulsifiable concentrates?


a.) they are easily absorbed into human skin


b.) they may be phytotoxic


c.) they are abrasive to equipment


d.) a & b


e.) all of the above

B

What type of test is done to check for pesticide incompatibility?


a.) double mix test


b.) jar test


c.) bottle test


d.) UC mix test

C

What must happen before DPR can register a pesticide?


a.) The manufacturer must prove that the pesticide is safe.


b.) The pesticide must get approved by the US Food & Drug Administration


c.) The pesticide must first be registered by the US EPA


d.) The pesticide must be used on an experimental basis for 3 years.

B

What's an SLN?


a.) a Special Legal Need registration


b.) a type of emergency pesticide registration


c.) a plant growth inhibitor


d.) a pesticide that's prohibited to use in CA

A

Which of the following is NOT true about pesticide regulations?


a.) they are signed by the Governor


b.) they are adopted by DPR


c.) they are authorized by state law


d.) All of the above are true

B

Which of the following statements is false?


a.) DPR is the primary pesticide regulatory agency in CA


b.) DPR & the State Water Board have equal regulatory authority for pesticides


c.) the EPA allows states to have their own pesticide regulatory programs


d.) the State Air Resources Board has limited pesticide regulatory authority

A

Which of the following does NOT have to report pesticide uses?


a.) homeowners using non-restricted pesticides


b.) commercial pest control companies


c.) homeowners that use restricted pesticides


d.) a & c

E

Which of the following are considered agricultural pesticide uses?


a.) an insecticide application to a cotton crop


b.) use of an herbicide in a fed wildlife area


c.) use of an herbicide along a state highway


d.) use of rodenticide bait around a poultry production factory


e.) all of the above

E

Which of the following activities requires a Pest Control Dealer's License?


a.) selling restricted pesticides


b.) selling restricted pesticides, except to homeowners


c.) selling insect traps for home pest control


d.) soliciting sales by making agricultural recommendations


e.) both a & d

E

Which of the following must be done before a company can start work at a commercial pest control operator?


a.) a responsible person must obtain QAL


b.) a responsible person must obtain PCA


c.) company must obtain PCBL from DPR


d.) company must register w/ CAC


e.) a, c & d

D

Which of the following is true?


a.) the applicator must have a complete copy of the pesticide label at the use site


b.) the applicator must have a copy of a Sec 18/SLN, if applicable


c.) pesticide label are legal documents


d.) all of the above are true

D

Which of the following items does NOT have to be included on the pesticide label?


a.) manufacturer's name


b.) common chemical name


c.) first aid procedures


d.) the pesticide's LD50

B

Which of the following is true regarding pesticide signal words?


a.) they are based on inhalation toxicity values


b.) the signal word for Category I is DANGER


c.) the signal word for Category II is CAUTION


d.) the words "Improper Use is a Federal Offense" must appear.

A
What does the signal word "Danger" without the skull & crossbones & the work "Poison" signify?
a.) the pesticide is in Category I because of special hazard to eyes or skin
b.) the pesticide is just below the Category I rating
c.) the pesticide is in the highest ranking in Category II
d.) the pesticide is not acutely hazardous but poses a serious chronic health risk

D

"Conflict with labeling" does NOT include which of the following?


a.) using a lower rate than recommended on the labeling


b.) using a lower concentration than recommended by labeling


c.) use to control a pest not listed as long as the site/crop/or commodity is on the label.


d.) all of the above

D

Which of the following is a pesticide service container?


a.) a backpack sprayer that contains a use dilution of an herbicide


b.) a 20 gallon tank that contains a use dilution of a fungicide


c.) a one pint bottle that contains an undiluted insecticide


d.) all of the above

D

Which of the following has to be included on the service container label?


a.) the name of the pesticide


b.) the pesticide's signal word


c.) the name & address of the person responsible for the container


d.) all of the above

E

Why are the words "shall" & "may" important?


a.) they are commonly used on the pesticide labels


b.) they're both used to indicate mandatory label statements


c.) they are used to indicate mandatory & permissive label statements


d.) all of the above


e.) a & c

D

What government agency designates restricted materials?


a.) US Food & Drug Administration


b.) CA DPR


c.) US EPA


d.) both b & c

E

Why are certain pesticides designated as restricted materials?


a.) they're highly toxic


b.) they pose a significant environmental hazard


c.) fewer toxicity tests have been conducted on them compared to non-restricted materials


d.) a & c


e.) a & b

C

Which agency issued restricted material permits?


a.) DPR


b.) EPA


c.) CAC


d.) all of the above

B

Who may obtain a restricted material permit?


a.) anyone


b.) only certified applicators


c.) only QAC or QAL-holders


d.) none of the above

E

Restricted material permits must include which of the following?


a.) name of permittee


b.) crops, sites or commodities that will be treated


c.) restricted materials that will be used


d.) permit conditions


e.) all of the above

C

What's the primary reason for the restricted materials permit system?


a.) to keep a record of the amount of restricted materials that are used annually


b.) to prevent pesticide illnesses


c.) to give the county & state greater regulatory authority


d.) none of the above

D

What's the primary purpose of the notice of intent?


a.) to make the restricted material permit date-specific


b.) to allow the CAC the opportunity to inspect the site


c.) to determine if the restricted pesticide is actually used


d.) a & b

D

Which of the following must be included on the NOI?


a.) the pesticide's signal word & hazard class


b.) the name of pesticide's manufacturer


c.) date restricted materials permit was issued


d.) restricted material permit number


e.) all of the above

D

Which of the following would be restricted material permit conditions?


a.) prohibitions on aerial operations


b.) restrictions on which pesticides may be used near sensitive areas


c.) restrictions on when pesticides might be used


d.) all of the above


e.) none of the above

D

Which methods can be used to submit NOIs?


a.) hand delivery


b.) fax


c.) telephone


d.) all of the above


e.) none of the above

A

DPR has more restricted materials than the EPA, true or false?


a.) true


b.) false

A

Are all federally restricted pesticides automatically CA restricted?


a.) yes


b.) no


c.) they are not automatically restricted, they must go through an evaluation process

B

What is the primary difference between the labeling of EPA-restricted pesticides and pesticides only restricted in CA?


a.) there is not difference


b.) CA-only don't indicate restricted status


c.) CA-only indicate "restricted in state of CA"


d.) none of the above

D

Which of the following are important safe work practices?


a.) having a copy of the label at the use site


b.) using an air-gap separation when mixing pesticides


c.) evaluating weather conditions before using pesticides


d.) all of the above

D

Which of the following sets of conditions increase the potential for drift?


a.) hot/humid weather & large spray droplets


b.) temperature inversions & low tank pressure


c.) large spray droplets & windy weather


d.) none of the above

B

Which of the following are effective ways to minimize drift?


a.) use high tank pressure


b.) using drift retardants


c.) spraying during temperature inversions


d.) none of the above

D

Pesticide residues are frequently reported in...?


a.) mg/Kg


b.) parts per million


c.) ppm


d.) all of the above

D

The mandatory waiting period between pesticide application & harvest is the ________?


a.) restricted entry interval


b.) restricted harvest interval


c.) pre-entry restriction


d.) pre-harvest interval

B

The _________ allows pesticide residues in the crop to break down below a level that is safe for contact by workers.


a.) the pre-harvest interval


b.) the REI


c.) the regulatory interval


d.) both b & c

C

Which of the following is NOT part of the beekeeper notification system?


a.) 48 hr notification


b.) notification of applications within 1 mile


c.) all Category I pesticides


d.) pesticide that have label language that indicates high toxicity to bees


e.) all of the above

D

Which pesticides fall under the beekeeper notification system?


a.) all insecticides


b.) all restricted materials


c.) all Category I pesticides


d.) pesticides that have label language that indicates high toxicity to bees


e.) all of the above

B

Which pesticides require storage warning signs?


a.) all Category I pesticides


b.) all Category I & II pesticides


c.) all restricted materials


d.) all pesticides

C

Pesticide containers that have held a liquid and are ______ gallons or less must be triple-rinsed after use.


a.) 25


b.) 30


c.) 28


d.) 5

A
Who has the greatest responsibility to assure that pesticides are used safely?
a.) the employer
b.) the employer & the employee equally
c.) the employee

D

How often do employees have to receive pesticide safety training?


a.) annually


b.) every other year


c.) prior to handling pesticides


d.) a & c

E

Which of the following must be part of a pesticide safety training program?


a.) heat stress


b.) proper safety procedures


c.) medical supervision


d.) acute toxicity hazards


e.) all of the above

D

Who can provide pesticide safety training for production agriculture?


a.) a licensed PCA


b.) a QAL-holder


c.) a country biologist


d.) all of the above

A

Who can provide training for pesticide uses that are not production agriculture?


a.) any, there's no legal standard


b.) only a QAC-holder


c.) only the employee's supervisor


d.) only a licensed PCA

A
Which of the following does NOT have to be part of the Hazard Communication program?
a.) pesticide use recommendations
b.) pesticide use records
c.) material safety data sheets (MSDS)
d.) appropriate DPR pesticide safety leaflets
E
Which of the following requires the applicator to be at least 18 years old?
a.) using pesticides that require closed systems
b.) using restricted materials
c.) using pesticides that require air-supplied respiratory protection
d.) all of the above
e.) both a & c

A

Employees that handle Category I pesticides (signal word "DANGER") must have regular contact with another person every ___ hours during the day. If working at night, this contact must be ___.


a.) 2 & hourly


b.) 3 & hourly


c.) 2.5 & hourly

B

What is a closed system?


a.) another name for air-supplied respiratory protection


b.) a mechanism that allows for pesticide mix/loading without hand-pouring


c.) a mechanical means of triple-rinsing pesticide containers


d.) none of the above

D

Each tank larger than 49 gallons, which is used to hold Category I or II pesticides must have ______.


a.) an external means for determining when the tank is full


b.) an emergency clean-out valve


c.) an automatic shut-off device


d.) both a & c

B

The term "regularly handle" means handling a pesticide...


a.) for 6 consecutive days in a 30 day period


b.) for more than 6 days in a 30 day period


c.) for 10 consecutive days


d.) for 30% of your scheduled work hours

B

What needs to be available for pesticide decontamination at the mix & load site?


a.) a portable shower, an eye wash & a change of clothing


b.) clean water, single-use towels, liquid soap & an extra set of coveralls


c.) an eye wash, cloth towels & a first aid kit


d.) a first aid kit, clean water, paper towels & liquid soap

D

Which of the following is true concerning eye protection?


a.) the applicator must use eye protection even if the label doesn't require it


b.) the applicator must use the type of eye protection required by the label


c.) applicators in enclosed cabs don't have to use eye protection


d.) all of the above

D

Which of the following needs to be part of the respiratory protection program?


a.) written procedures on the proper care & use of respirators


b.) fit testing


c.) medical evaluations


d.) all of the above

B

Which of the following requires a greater level of responsibility for the employer & employee?


a.) eye protection requirements


b.) respiratory protective requirements


c.) providing emergency medical care info


d.) none of the above

E

When must employees wear coveralls?


a.) when they handle any pesticide


b.) when handling any Category I pesticide


c.) when handling any Category II pesticide


d.) when handling pesticides with either "DANGER" or "WARNING" signal words


e.) b, c & d

D

Which of the following is exempt from the closed system requirements?


a.) when employees handle less than 1 gallon per day in original containers of less than 1 gallon


b.) when the employer is doing the mixing/loading


c.) when the use setting is NOT ag production


d.) all of the above

C

Which of the following is true?


a.) all Category I liquids require a closed system


b.) eye protection is required by all pesticide labels


c.) prescription eye wear does not satisfy the eye protection requirement


d.) rubber boots are always required by pesticide labeling

C

Each tank larger than 49 gallons, which is used to hold Category I or II pesticides must have _______.


a.) an external means for determining when the tank is full


b.) an emergency clean-out valve


c.) an automatic shut-off device


d.) either a or c

E

Which of the following topics do fieldworker supervisors need to understand?


a.) the symptoms of organophosphate & carbamate poisoning


b.) field posting


c.) where to go for emergency medical care


d.) a & b


e.) all of the above

C

Fieldworker training must be given how frequently?


a.) annually


b.) every other year


c.) every five years


d.) a & c

C

Employees are prohibited from entering treated fields until _____.


a.) the spray has dried or dust has settled


b.) until the expiration of any REI


c.) a or b


d.) until the PHI expires

E

Where are restricted entry intervals found?


a.) on pesticide labels


b.) in DPR regulations


c.) in DPR pesticide safety leaflets


d.) all of the above


e.) a & b

C

How is the REI for a tankmix of two organophosphates (with different REIs) determined?


a.) adding the two separate REIs together


b.) using only the longest REI


c.) adding 50% of the second longest REI to 100% of the longest REI


d.) none of the above

A

How is the REI adjusted when there's no foliage on the treated orchard trees?


a.) it's reduced by 50%


b.) the REI is not reduced or lengthened


c.) it's increased by 50%

B
Which of the following does NOT require field posting?
a.) fields treated with pesticides that have a label requirement for posting
b.) fields with REIs less than 3 days
c.) fields with REIs greater than 7 days
d.) a & c

A

How soon after the expiration of the REI must a posting sign be removed?


a.) within 3 days


b.) within 1 day


c.) within 5 days


d.) within 7 days

B

Which of the following is the best definition for the term "weed"?


a.) non-native plant


b.) plant growing where you don't want it to


c.) plant that interferes w/ crop production

B

Which of the following is a characteristic of grass weeds?


a.) has taproot


b.) growing point is at ground level


c.) branching leaf veins


d.) two cotyledons

A

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of broadleaf weeds?


a.) fibrous root system


b.) taproots


c.) branching leaf veins


d.) none of the above

D

Which of the following is true about biennial plants?


a.) they can take up to 2 yrs to reach maturity


b.) they are easier to control than annuals


c.) they produce flowers & seed in the 1st year


d.) none of the above

C
Which of the following is true about controlling mature plants?
a.) it is generally more successful than controlling annuals
b.) they are easier to control because they are at the end of their life cycle
c.) they often have thicker leaf cuticles & more leaf hairs
d.) none of the above

D

Which of the following is true about mechanical weed control?


a.) it must be repeated frequently


b.) it can increase fire risk


c.) mowing may throw rocks onto the road


d.) all of the above

A

Which of the following is NOT a form of cultural weed control?


a.) using an insect to feed on the weed


b.) competitive plantings


c.) fire


d.) the use of mulches

C

Why is biological control not often suitable for ROW or landscape weed control?


a.) this is false, biological control is very suitable for these sites


b.) it's too expensive


c.) there are too many weed species in the ROW settings


d.) none of the above

A

The term non-selective refers to which of the following?


a.) herbicides that control both grasses & broadleaf species


b.) herbicides that control just grasses


c.) herbicides that control just broadleaf


d.) all of the above

B
True or false? If an herbicide is grass-specific it will never harm a broadleaf plant.
a.) true
b.) false

A

Which of the following describes a pre-emergent herbicide?


a.) it's applied before weed seeds germinate & it's soil active


b.) it's applied before weed seeds germinate because it's not soil active


c.) they are always selective


d.) none of the above

C

Which of the following is true about contact herbicides?


a.) they're better at controlling perennials than annuals


b.) they're systemic


c.) they are usually non-selective


d.) all of the above

C

Translocated herbicides are also called...


a.) post-emergents


b.) metabolizers


c.) systemics


d.) all of the above

D

Which of the following is a true statement?


a.) herbicides work best when plants are actively growing


b.) rainfall can improve the performance of pre-emergent herbicides


c.) rainfall can reduce the performance of post-emergent herbicides


d.) all of the above

D

Which of the following does NOT contribute to herbicide drift?


a.) small droplet size


b.) high temperatures & low humidity


c.) temperature inversions


d.) high humidity

E

Which of the following soil types resists leaching?


a.) sandy soils


b.) clay soils


c.) soils with high organic matter content


d.) a & c


e.) b & c

B

What do herbicide solutions tend to do on leaf hairs?


a.) get stuck to them


b.) bead up on them


c.) flow down them


d.) none of the above

E

What does a surfactant do?


a.) improves the performance of herbicide products


b.) increases herbicide solution surface tension


c.) helps herbicides penetrate the leaf cuticle


d.) a & c


e.) all of the above

A

Which of the following is NOT a type of surfactant?


a.) non-systemic


b.) anionic


c.) cationic


d.) non-ionic

D

Which of the following is commonly used with herbicides?


a.) non-systemic surfactants


b.) anionic surfactants


c.) cationic surfactants


d.) non-ionic surfactants

D

What kind of damage is caused by ground squirrels?


a.) gnawing on plant stems & tree trunks


b.) chewing on plastic irrigation pipe


e.) spreading Lyme disease


d.) a & b


e.) all of the above

B

What is estivation?


a.) another word for burrow fumigation


b.) summer dormancy for ground squirrels


c.) asexual reproduction by moles


d.) high reproduction by ground squirrels when good feed is present

B

Why are poison grain baits rarely successful for controlling moles?


a.) this is false...grain baits work very well for controlling moles


b.) moles do not eat grain


c.) moles are remarkably bait shy


d.) moles readily regurgitate poisons

B

Which of the following is true about the legal status of ground squirrels?


a.) they are a protected species that cannot be killed without a permit


b.) they are a non-game species that can be taken at any time if they are destroying crops or property


c.) they are a non-game species that can be taken with the proper permission from the CAC


d.) none of the above

D

What's the difference between a mole burrow & a gopher burrow?


a.) the mole burrow is the one with the mole in it


b.) gopher burrow entrances have a crescent-shaped mounds


c.) there's no difference


d.) a & b

B

How did pocket gophers get their name?


a.) because they are so small they can fit in your pocket


b.) they have fur-lined, external cheek pouches


c.) they nest in small, pocket-shaped depressions in their burrows


d.) none of the above

D
What kind of damage is created by voles?
a.) girdling trees & shrubs
b.) they consume stored products inside homes
c.) they are vectors for human disease
d.) all of the above

A

What kind of damage is created by voles?


a.) girdling trees & shrubs


b.) they consume stored products inside homes


c.) they are vectors for human disease


d.) all of the above

B

What is the primary difference between invertebrate & vertebrate species?


a.) vertebrates have jointed feet


b.) vertebrates have backbones & invertebrates do not


c.) invertebrates have backbones & vertebrates do not

A

Which of the following is true about spiders & mites?


a.) they have 4 pairs of legs & 2 body parts


b.) they have 4 pairs of legs & 3 body parts


c.) they have chewing mouthparts


d.) a & c

C

The three types of insect metamorphosis are...


a.) complete, incomplete & 4 stage


b.) 2 stage, 3 stage & 4 stage


c.) complete, incomplete & no metamorphosis


d.) there are only two types: complete & incomplete

B

What are the four stages of complete metamorphosis?


a.) egg, nymph, pupa & adult


b.) egg, larva, pupa & adult


c.) egg, larva, nymph & adult


d.) egg, larva, instar & adult

D

Which of the following are true?


a.) larvae often cause more damage than adults


b.) all adult insects can fly


c.) all adult insects have 3 body parts


d.) a & c

A

A cocoon is another name for what insect life stage?


a.) pupa


b.) instar


c.) nymph


d.) none of the above

E

Which of the following are important insect control strategies?


a.) monitoring


b.) sanitation


c.) chemical & non-chemical control


d.) exclusion


e.) all of the above

D

Which of the following are true about mites?


a.) they are related to spiders


b.) they have 4 pairs of legs


c.) mite-damaged plants may appear bleached, stippled, deformed or defoliated


d.) all of the above


e.) a & c only

B

True or false, fumigation is the best control method for nematodes in landscaped settings.


a.) false, fumigation will not control nematodes


b.) false, fumigation will control nematodes, but it is impractical in landscape settings


c.) true


d.) true, but only for tree species

D

Which of the following insect orders have members that can be serious pests of landscaped areas?


a.) caterpillar


b.) beetles & weevils


c.) ants, bees & wasps


d.) a & b

D

Which of the following is true about wasps?


a.) they are rarely serious pests of ornamental plants


b.) some species are beneficial because they control plant pests


c.) they are related to ants


d.) all of the above

A

Which of the following are serious agricultural pests but rarely serious pests of landscaped areas?


a.) grasshoppers


b.) moth larva


c.) beetle adults


d.) mites


e.) aphids

D

Which of the following is a good control method for aphids?


a.) biological control


b.) systemic insecticides


c.) trapping


d.) a & b


e.) b & c

C

An insecticide that controls a wide number of insect species is called...


a.) a systemic insecticide


b.) a narrow spectrum insecticide


c.) a broad spectrum insecticide


d.) a translocated insecticide

B

Which of the following is a serious disadvantage to using broad spectrum insecticides?


a.) they are usually very expensive


b.) they often kill beneficial insect species


c.) they have a long residual


d.) none of the above

A

How do biotic factors in plant disorders differ from abiotic factors?


a.) biotic factors are living while abiotic factors are not living


b.) biotic factors cannot live apart from their host species


c.) biotic factors can always be controlled by biological control agents


d.) abiotic factors are living while biotic factors are not living

C

What are the three primary disease-causing agents?


a.) insect vectors, fungi & physical injury to plants


b.) fungi, mycoplasms & viruses


c.) fungi, bacteria & viruses


d.) warm weather, moist conditions & insect vectors

D

Which of the following would be a good control method for Dutch Elm disease?


a.) avoiding overhead irrigation


b.) removing infected plants


c.) planting resistance species


d.) b & c

B

How is Dutch Elm disease primarily spread?


a.) spider mites


b.) elm bark beetles


c.) used of contaminated soils


d.) none of the above

D

Which of the following are symptoms of Fusarium blight on turfgrass?


a.) a "frog-eyed" appearance to infected area (dead patched with live grass in the center)


b.) dead foliage appears bleached


c.) crown area may have a reddish rot


d.) all of the above

D

Which of the following are common hosts of powdery mildew?


a.) pine


b.) roses


c.) euonymus


d.) b & c

C

Which of the following are NOT symptoms of powdery mildew?


a.) grayish or white powdery growth on leaves


b.) leaf distortion


c.) rust-colored pustules on underside of leaf


d.) premature leaf drop

A

Which of the following is responsible for the majority of plant diseases in CA?


a.) fungi


b.) bacteria


c.) viruses


d.) insect vectors

B
Which of the following is NOT true about bacterial disease?
a.) bacteria are one-celled, microscopic organisms
b.) well-timed chemical sprays are the best control method
c.) they usually enter plants through woulds
d.) cankers & oozing are important symptoms

D

Which of the following is true about fireblight?


a.) it's caused by a bacteria


b.) it causes oozing from stem cankers


c.) you can control the spread of the disease by disinfecting pruning tools


d.) all of the above

D

Which of the following is true about viruses?


a.) there is not good chemical control for viral diseases


b.) most viruses do not kill their plant hosts


c.) they cannot live apart from their host plants


d.) all of the above