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135 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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An elevated albumin may indicate: a. overhydration b. underhydration c. malnutrition d. macrocytic anemia |
b. underhydration |
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Urea excretion is related to ___ while creatinine excreation is related to___. a. muscle mass, protein intake b. protein intake, muscle mass c. protein intake, adipose reserves d. muscle mass, calcium intake |
b. protein intake, muscle mass |
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Which should be taken with meals to avoid gastric distress? a. antacids b. anticholinergics c. oral antibiotics d. iron preparations |
d. iron preparations |
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Which food must be avoided if taking an MAO inhibitor? a. yogurt b. banana c. cottage cheese d. Swiss cheese |
d. Swiss cheese
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An important dietary precaution for a person with AIDS is to: a. cover all foods b. wear disposable gloves during food preparation c. cook food at correct temperature d. use disposable eating utensils |
c. cook food at correct temperature
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For a patient with dumping syndrome, which would be the lease desirable snack: a. peanut butter on toast b. 1/2 roast beef sandwich c. dry toast with skim milk d. cheese and crackers |
c. dry toast with skim milk
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As hepatic disease progresses what dietary changes would be made: a. protein, calories, sodium b. protein, fluids, sodium c. fluids, fat, calories d. protein, fat calories |
b. protein, fluids, sodium
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What dietary components would aid a COPD patient being weaned from a ventilator? a. high fat, low carbohydrate b. high fat, high BCAA c. high protein, high carbohydrate d. low fat, low carbohydrate |
a. high fat, low carbohydrate
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A major complication factor with a hiatal hernia is: a. total closure of the esophagus b. chronic vomiting c. bleeding from the herniated portion d. blockage of the entry into the stomach |
c. bleeding from the herniated portion |
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Diverticula located in the esophagus can cause: a. dysphagia and pain b. lesions c. flatulence d. indigestion |
a. dysphagia and pain
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Most peptic ulcers occur in the: a. stomach b. duodenum c. esophagus d. jejunum |
b. duodenum
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One of the factors involved in development of a peptic ulcer is: a. eating highly-spiced foods b. the anatomical structure of the stomach c. excess secretion of gastric acid and pepsin d. excess secretion of bile |
c. excess secretion of gastric acid and pepsin
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Which of the following is omitted from the diet from treatment of peptic ulcer disease: a. alcohol b. any food that is not tolerated c. high-fiber food d. all of the above e. a and b |
e. a and b
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Which of the following is associated with irritable bowel syndrome? a. excessive use of coffee, tea, alcohol b. spastic constipation c. heartburn d. irritation of the mucous membrane e. all are associated |
b. spastic constipation
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Foods that may reduce irritable bowel syndrome are: a. soft-textured foods b. low-fiber foods c. bland foods d. high fiber foods |
d. high fiber foods
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Clinical symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy include: a. gastrointestinal problems b. confusion and impaired motor function c. urinary shutdown d. all of the above |
b. confusion and impaired motor function
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The primary source of ammonia in circulating blood is: a. bacteria acting on dietary protein b. production of ammonia in the liver from urea c. protein catabolism in the body |
b. production of ammonia in the liver from urea
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The primary objective of treatment of hepatic encephalopathy is to:a. encourage the patient to eatb. feed the patient parenterally to rest the liverc. remove sources of excess ammoniad. encourage the patient to exercise and maintain mental functions |
c. remove sources of excess ammonia |
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The nutritional therapy recommended for hepatic encephalopathy includes:
a. restricted protein intake b. increased fluid intake c. very high caloric intake d. all of the above |
a. restricted protein intake
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Factors which contribute to all stone formation are: a. female sex b. obesity c. high dietary cholesterol intake d. a and b e. a and c |
d. a and b
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The presence of gallstones in the gall bladder is called: a. cholecystitis b. cholelithiases c. cholecystectomy d. cholestyramine |
b. cholelithiases
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Nutritional therapy for gallbladder disorders may include: a. reduced cholesterol intake b. eliminate "gas forming" foods c. low fat diet d. high caloric intake |
c. low fat diet
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Dietary protein is essential for recovery from hepatitis because: a. protein catabolism is accentuated by the disease b. it is needed to produce energy c. it restores liver glycogen reserves d. it is the only food well tolerated |
a. protein catabolism is accentuated by the disease
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Nutritional therapy for hepatitis includes: a. high protein, high carbohydrate, high fat b. low protein, high carbohydrate, low fat c. low protein, low carbohydrate, high fat d. adequate protein, high carbohydrate, moderate fat |
d. adequate protein, high carbohydrate, moderate fat
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Which of the following factors is associated with development of cirrhosis? a. biliary obstruction b. chronic alcohol abuse c. previous hepatitis d. all the above are associated |
d. all the above are associated
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Diverticulosis is best treated with a _____ diet. a. bland b. low-fiber c. high fiber d. full liquid |
c. high fiber
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Celiac disease is characterized by a sensitivity to the gliadin portion of which protein? a. lactoalbumin b. casein c. soy d. gluten |
d. gluten
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The inflammatory bowel disease confined to the colon and rectum is: a. celiac disease b. Crohn's disease c. ulcerative colitis d. diverticulitis e. b and c |
e. b. Crohn's disease & c. ulcerative colitis
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A common clinical symptom of inflammatory bowel disease is: a. chronic, bloddy diarrhea b. anemia c. dehydration d. all of the above e. a and b |
e. a and b
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An elemental formula is: a. a formula of liquid carbohydrates b. a formula that contains partially or completely digested nutrients c. a formula of amino acids, glucose, fat, minerals and vitamins d. a liquid intravenous solution |
b. a formula that contains partially or completely digested nutrients
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Foods which would NOT be allowed on a full liquid diet include: a. milkshakes b. ice cream c. strained cream soup d. pudding e. oatmeal |
e. oatmeal
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Parenteral feedings refer to feeding via a/an: a. peripheral vein b. nasogastric tube c. tube directly into the stomach d. central vein e. a and d |
e. a and d
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Patients who have had gastric surgery will usually experience the "dumping syndrome": a. in the first two weeks b. as soon as any solid food is ingested c. when they drink any liquid d. after recovery and when they are beginning to eat normally |
a. in the first two weeks
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The nutrient most likely to lead to the "dumping syndrome" is: a. protein b. fat c. simple carbohydrate d. complex carbohydrate e. vitamin supplement |
c. simple carbohydrate
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When deciding the route of parenteral nutrition (peripheral vein vs central vein), what factors should be considered? a. duration of therapy b. venous access c. provision of adequate nutrition d. all of the above e. A & C only |
d. all of the above
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What is characteristic of an elemental formula?
a. protein b. amino acids c. polysaccharides d.. non-fat milk |
b. amino acids
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Fluid needs for parenteral/enteral feedings can be estimated by: a. 0.5 ml/kcal ingested b. 1.0 ml/kcal ingested c. 3.5 ml/kcal ingested d. 4.0 ml/kcal ingested |
b. 1.0 ml/kcal ingested
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A patient develops diarrhea after receiving tube feeding for two weeks without any problems. What is the possible reason? a. hyperosmolar formula b. new medicine c. TF rate too fast d. Lactose intolerance |
b. new medicine
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A comatose patient whose head cannot be elevated >10 degree is receiving tube feeding and experiencing gastroesophageal reflux. What is the main concern? a. diarrhea b. dumping syndrome c. aspiration d. constipation |
c. aspiration
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An elderly hospitalized man is placed on tube feeding and his condition is stable. What formula would you recommend for his long-term use? a. lactose-free/isotonic b. element c. high nitrogen d. organ/disease specific |
a. lactose-free/isotonic
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A patient should be weaned off TPN slowly to prevent: a. ketoacidosis b. fatty acid c. hyperglycemia d. hypoglycemia |
d. hypoglycemia
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A patient receiving tube feeding needs 2000 kcal and 2 gm Na. What tube feeding would best meed his calorie and sodium needs? a. 1.0 kcal/cc, 500 mg Na/L b. 2.0 kcal/cc, 300 mg Na/L c. 1.5 kcal/cc, 60 mg Na/L d. 1.5 kcal/cc, 1300 mg Na/L |
d. 1.5 kcal/cc, 1300 mg Na/L
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A patient is receiving two liters of D5W; how many calories does this provide? a. 170 b. 340 c. 212 d. 195 |
b 340; 2000ml x 5% dextrose x 3.4 calories/g |
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What is the CAL:N ratio of a parenterally fed patient receiving 1500 kcal and 20% protein? a. 300:1 b. 150:1 c. 125:1 d. 100:1 |
c. 125:1; 1500 x .2 = 300 kcal PRO/4 kcal/g = 75gPRO/6.25= 12N 1500/12 = 125 |
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A transpyloric TF with 1.6 kcal/cc is to run from 10PM to 11AM. What rate is needed to deliver 1800 kcal/24 hours? |
86 ml/hr (use 85-90 ml/hr); 1800 kcal x 1ml/1.6 kcal= 1125ml/13 hr= 86.5 |
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A TPN solution contains 500ml 20% dexrose, 500ml 4% protein, 250ml 20% lipids. Total calories:______ Non protein calories: N2 |
Non-protein calories : 840 kcal
Total calories: 920 kcal Non protein calories: 263:1 |
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For patients receiving parenteral nutrition support, whart are the nutritional guidelines for appropriate amounts of dextrose and lipids? |
Dextrose 4-5 g/kg/day Lipid 2.5 g/kg/day |
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When a burned patient with ileus comes to ER, what are two medical/nutritional goals for the first 24-48 hours post trauma? a. Achieve fluid and electrolyte balance b. Achieve electrolyte balance and promote weight gain c. Achieve nitrogen balance and prevent weight loss |
a. Achieve fluid and electrolyte balance
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The magnesium lab value is useful to monitor in order to find out:
a. Risk of refeeding when insulin is given, can increase with sepsis b. Risk of refeeing; can be decreased with malnutrition c. Can increase with sepsis, is decreased with refeeding |
b. Risk of refeeing; can be decreased with malnutrition |
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The phophorus lab value is: a. Increased with refeeding b. Decreased with refeeding c. Not a parameter for refeeding |
b. Decreased with refeeding
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The triglyceride lab value is: a. Increased with sepsis b. Decreased 2degree to PM c. Decreased with sepsis d. Decreased fat load |
a. Increased with sepsis
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After establishing a TPN regimen, when reviewing a patient's lab values, what type of problems is a patient with high glucose levels experiencing? a. Refeeding b. High dextrose load c. Edema d. Sepsis |
b. High dextrose load |
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High BUN levels?
a. High gastric output b. Gl bleeding c. Sepsis d. A & B e. B & C |
e. B & C
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Those cancers which arise from epithelial tissue are called: a. neoplasms b. sarcomas c. carcinomas d. lymphomas |
c. carcinomas |
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The nutrients primarily responsible for maintaining tissue integrity and immunocompetence are: a. carbohydrates b. protein c. lipids d. vitamins e. minterals |
b. protein
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Chemotherapy agents arrest the tumors by: a. directly killing the cancer cells on contact b. acting as a barrier at the cell membrane for entrance of nutrients c. affecting the liver's utilization of nutrients d. disrupting cell processes for DNA synthesis |
d. disrupting cell processes for DNA synthesis
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The tissues of the body which are most affected by chemotherapeutic drugs are: a. the tumor cells b. bone marrow cells c. gastrointestinal mucosal cells d. hair follicle cells e. all of the above |
e. all of the above |
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Patients receiving chemotherapeutic drugs often develop problems of : a. baldness b. anemia c. nausea/vomiting d all of the above e only a & c |
d. all of the above
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A major systemic effect of the disease state of cancer is: a. edema b hypoglycemia c. jaundice d. dehydration e. negative nitrogen balance |
e. negative nitrogen balance
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Interference with normal food intake is most often associated with cancer of the: a. lung b. head and neck c. gastrointestinal tract d. a and c e. b and c |
e. b and c
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The challenge of nourishing the cancer patient so they are best able to fight cancer is especially difficult because: a. nutrient absorption is hindered b. the patient requires an exaggerated amount of vitamins c. the patient is frequently anorexic d. dietary protein must be limited to reduce the work load on the kidney e. the liver is not able to metabolize nutrients well |
c. the patient is frequently anorexic
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Taste blindness results from treatment by: a. surgery b. radiation c. chemotherapy d. b and c e. all of the above |
d. b and c
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Chemotherapy drugs cause gastrointestinal symptoms because: a. the drugs interfere with the normal cell turnover in the mucosa b. these drugs directly kill mucosal cells on contact c. the drugs are hyper osmolar and draw fluids and nutrients from the intestinal cells d. the drugs cause the mucosal cells to mutate and become tumors themselves |
a. the drugs interfere with the normal cell turnover in the mucosa
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The primary goal of nutritional care for cancer patients is to: a. prevent further growth of the tumor b. reduce nutrients that the tumor feeds upon c. prevent malnutrition d. a and b e b and c |
c. prevent malnutrition
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To counteract the hyper metabolic state of cancer it is important to increase the intake of: a. protein b. kilocalories c. vitamins d. minerals e. fats |
b. kilocalories |
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Vitamins which are essential for building new tissues for healing are: a. vitamins A and C b. vitamins B12 and D c. vitamins E and K d. folic acid and thiamin |
a. vitamins A and C
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Additional dietary protein is necessary for: a. supplying energy needs b. tissue synthesis for healing |
b. tissue synthesis for healing |
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Given a choice, the preferred route of feeding a cancer patient who is unable to eat and has a functional gastrointestinal tract is: a. through normal oral intake b. with a tube feeding c. through total parenteral feeding |
b. with a tube feeding
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If salivary secretions are reduced or absent it may be helpful to: a. serve a clear liquid diet b. feed the patient via a tube feeding c. blenderize food into semi-liquid form d. serve moist foods |
d. serve moist foods
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When a cancer patient presents with anorexia, anemia, and weight loss, it is likely she has developed: a. cachexia b. vitamin deficiency c. malabsorption d. crushing disease |
a. cachexia
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Use of macrobiotic diets for cancer treatment are generally not successful and are usually: a. low in energy and low in some vitamins and minerals b. high in energy, fat and protein c. low in protein and high in fat d. none of the above |
a. low in energy and low in some vitamins and minerals
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In most instances, what is the best time of day for a cancer patient to eat. a. morning b. mid-day c. afternoon d. evening |
a. morning
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For a patient with esophageal cancer experiencing dysphagia the greatest amount of coordination and control is needed for swallowing: a. solid foods b. liquids of thin consistency c. thick liquids d. soft foods |
b. liquids of thin consistency
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If an oncology patient complains of a sore mouth, what type of recommendations will you give? a. Use hot temperature foods b. Use salty and crunchy foods c. Use soft, cold & pureed foods d. None of the above |
d. None of the above
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What nutritional recommendations would you give to a person suffering from nausea/vomiting? a. Use bright color/strong smelling foods b. Drink warm beverages c. Use clear/cold beverages |
c. Use clear/cold beverages
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The medication called Compazine is used for/as: a. Stool softener b. Antiemetic c. Narcotic |
b. Antiemetic
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The medication call Senokot is used as: a. Stool softener b. Analgesic c. Antiemetic |
a. Stool softener
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The primary goal of nutritional care for cancer patients is to: a. Prevent further growth of the tumor b. Reduce nutrients that the tumor feeds upon c. Prevent malnutrition d. a & b e. b & c |
c. Prevent malnutrition
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Patients receiving chemotherapeutic drugs often develop problems of: a. Baldness b. Anemia c. Nausea/vomiting d All of the above e. None of the above |
d All of the above
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The use of immune function tests is limited because radiation: a. Promotes Immune function b. Depresses Immune function c. Promotes malabsorption d. Increases the total lymphocyte count |
b. Depresses Immune function
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The microscopic functional unit of the kidney is called: a glomeruli b. Bowman's capsule c. nephron d. collecting tube e. loop of Henle |
c. nephron |
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The microscopic functional unit of the kidney is called: a. glomeruli b. Bowman's capsule c. nephron d. collecting tubule e. loop of Henle |
c. nephron
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The structure responsible for filtering blood in the kidneys is: a. loop of Henle b. proximal tubule c. distal tubule d. collecting tubule e. glomerulus |
e. glomerulus
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As renal function declines, reduction of which of the following is believed to show disease progression? a. carbohydrate b. protein c. phosphorus d. sodium e. b and c |
e. b and c
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A Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) of ____ is consistent with Stage 5 CKD. a. >/= 90 mL/min/1.73 m2 b. 60-89 mL/min/1.73 m2 c. 30-59 mL/min/1.73 m2 d. 15-29 mL/min/1.73 m2 e. <15 mL/min/1.73 m2 |
e. <15 mL/min/1.73 m2
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The most common cause of Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) in the United Statees today is: a. Polycystic kidney disease b. Hypertension c. Diabetes Mellitus d. Heart disease |
c. Diabetes Mellitus
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Fluid restriction in a patient with Stage 5 CKD should be based on: a. calculation of glomerular filtration rate (GFR) b. the individuals's sodium intake c. careful attention to the patient's thirst d. urine output plus 1000mL for daily insensible fluid losses e. a fluid restricition is not necessary once a patient is on dialysis |
a. calculation of glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
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A patient on Continuous Ambulatory Peritoneal Dialysis (CAPD) asks you why the diet reflects a decrease in calories. You reply: a. "The reducion in calories is necessary to reduce your blood potassium level." b. "The reduction in calories is needed to compensate for the absorption of glucose from the dialysate." c. "The decrease in allowed calories is a way to reduce nitrogenous waste that must be eliminated." d. "The lower calorie level is needed because CAPD promotes a reduction in you metabolic rate." |
c. "The decrease in allowed calories is a way to reduce nitrogenous waste that must be eliminated."
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Renal osteodystrophy develops in CKD because of the kidney's inability to: a. excreate calcium b. activate vitamin D c. absorb vitamin D d. excrete urea and creatinine e. reabsorb protein |
b. activate vitamin D
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A common side effect of phosphate binding medication to control serum phosphorus levels is: a. diarrhea b. constipation c. dry mouth d. burping e. altered taste sensation |
a. diarrhea
b. constipation |
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The anemia of CKD is primarily due to: a. iron-deficient diet b. excess parathyroid hormone levels c. chronic blood loss d. decline in erythropoietin production e. poor heme iron absorption |
d. decline in erythropoietin production
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Which of the following is the most appropriate advice for a patient on a 2-3 gm sodium diet? a. A limited amount of salt (1/4 tsp. is allowed in cooking b. No salt is allowed in cooking c. Omit all frozen vegetables d. Omit vegetables such as beets, carrots, and kale e. Eliminate only processed foods |
e. Eliminate only processed foods
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The massive edema of Nephrotic Syndrome is due to: a. too high of sodium intake b. blockage of nephron tubules c. excess fluid intake d. large protein losses in the urine e. a and c |
e. a and c
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The most current thought on nutritional therapy for Nephrotic Syndrome includes: a. high protein intake (>1.5 gm protein/kg) b. reduced sodium intake c. moderate protein intake (0.8-1.0 gm protein/kg) d. a and b e. b and c |
e. b and c
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For patients who have experienced kidney stones, general guidelines would include which of the following: a. Decrease fluid intake to keep urine output to less than 1000 mL/day b. Decrease intake of magnesium-containing antacids c. Use sodium bicarbonate to alkalinize the urine d. Increase intake of high purine foods e. Increase intake of fluid to maintain urine output of at least 2000 mL/day |
e. Increase intake of fluid to maintain urine output of at least 2000 mL/day
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A reduction in urine calcium may be achieved by a reduction in: a. animal protein b. carbohydrate c. fat d. water e. calcium |
e. calcium
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A common side effect of immunosuppressant therapy for kidney transplant patients includes: a. fluid retention b. hyperglycemia c. hyperkalemia d. hyperphagia e. all of the above |
a. fluid retention
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True or False For the patient on hemodialysis, a low albumin level is not a concern since the patient is on a protein-restricted diet. |
False |
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T or F Anorexia is a common side effect of inadequate dialysis. |
False |
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T or F Glucose absorption in CAPD may promote a feeling of satiety and decrease oral food intake. |
True |
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T or F Serum potassium levels may be low with anabolism. |
True |
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True or False In general, the diet is more liberalized for the peritoneal versus the hemodialysis patient. |
True |
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A hemodialysis patient has a Ca++ level of 8.0 and Alb level of 3.4. What is the adjusted calcium value? a. 8.5 b. 10.5 c. 7.5 d. 7.0 |
a. 8.5; 8 + 0.8(4 - 3.4) |
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Which hormone is responsible for reabsorption of sodium by the kidney and controlling blood pressure? a. insulin b. aldosterone c. ADH d. glucagon |
b. aldosterone
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Which dialysate bath removes the most potassium: a. 1 K+ b. 2 K+ c. 3 K+ d. Each removes the same amount |
a. 1 K+
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The protein requirement for a CAPD patient is: a. 1.0-1.3 mg/kg IBW b. 1.2-1.5 mg/kg IBW c. 1.5-2.0 mg/kg IBW d. 2.0-2.5 mg/kg IBW |
b. 1.2-1.5 mg/kg IBW
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Which of the following foods would be appropriate on a low phosphorous diet? a. beef, carrots, green beans b. chicken, fish, milk c. eggs, oranges, broccoli d. green beans, broccoli, carrots |
a. beef, carrots, green beans
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What would increase Renal Solute Load the most: a. Protein, sodium b. Carbohydrate, protein c. Protein, fluid d. Fluid, carbohydrate |
a. Protein, sodium
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True or False A dialysis patient who receives a kidney transplant is absolved of all dietary restrictions. |
False
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True or False A chronic generalized itchiness in a dialysis patient may indicate high serum calcium levels. |
False |
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True or False Prolonged immobilization may predispose an individual to calcium stone formation due to calcium withdrawal from the bones. |
True |
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True or False Daily multiple vitamins for dialysis patients include fat- and water- soluble vitamins since these are lost in the dialysate. |
False; water-soluble vitamins |
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The Cooperative Extension System (CES) works in all the following areas except: a. natural resource b. family & consumer sciences c. community and economic development d. purchasing of wholesale goods |
d. purchasing of wholesale goods |
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After Joe reviewed the existing programs in his community, he realized that he needs to design a new program about food safety. Which of the following should be considered when designing the program? |
1. definite course of action 2. a process act of exploring a situation 3. deciding on a situation 4. designing actions to create the desired outcome |
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All of the following are different types of public policies that can impact food, nutrition and health: |
1. Agricultural policy 2. Health policy 3. Environmental policy 4. Science policy 5. Socioeconomic 6. Educational policy |
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Which is not characteristic of a policy? a. policy is a course of action chosen by public authorities to address a given problem b. policy is what governments and organization intend to accomplish c. a policy can be a law or other regulation d. all of these are characteristics of policy |
a. policy is a course of action chosen by public authorities to address a given problem b. policy is what governments and organization intend to accomplish c. a policy can be a law or other regulation d. all of these are characteristics of policy |
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The___ includes a moral duty to weigh and balance benefits against harms to increase benefits and reduce the occurrence of harm. |
rule of unity |
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Which of the following fats is associated with increased risk of myocardial infarction and increased inflammatory response? a. saturated fat b. monounsaturated fat c. trans fatty acid d. unsaturated fat |
c. Trans fatty acid |
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Health care resources and the use of these resources are types of ___ data. |
community health data |
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The customary way of acting is the definition of: |
mortality |
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Which of the following is not component of health risk appraisal (HRA)? a. nutrition screening b. consist of questionnaire c. calculations that predict risk of disease d educational message to the participant |
a. nutrition screening |
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___ provide RD with different lenses through which to see situations; each lens provides a different view and understanding. |
Theories |
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Abnormal findings commonly seen in metabolic syndrome includes: |
increase TG, weight, bp |
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Focus group data is usually ___ in nature. |
qualitative |
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The distinctive character of acting is the definition of: |
Ethics |
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Atherosclerosis begins as a ___, and progresses to a(n) ___. |
foam cell, fibrous plaque |
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The first step in planning a survey is to determine: |
purpose of survey |
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Which of the following would be considered a high-protein snack? |
veggies & tofu crumbles |
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Which of these agencies maintains the Cancer Mortality Maps and Graph websites? |
National Institute of Health (NIH) |
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Which of the following is a well-stated objective? |
Differentiate between low fiber & high fiber. -clear and quantifiable |
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Community nutritionists can argue for reimbursable nutrition services by highlight the benefits, which include all of the following except that nutrition service: |
benefits attract subscribers with chronic disease |
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Community nutrition focuses on all of the following except: |
practices |
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What is the most important time for constituent involvement in the legislative process? |
subcommittee stage |
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A special SNAP for WIC is not based upon the following premise: |
? food interventions during critical times of growth & development can prevent future medical developmental problem |
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Healthpromotion is defined as the process of enabling people to increase controlover, and to improve, their health. The approach for identifying individualsat risk is/are:
A:Population approach B: Collaborationapproach C:Interdisciplinary team approach D: Individualapproach |
D: Individual approach
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