Practice 1

Front 1

Clinical Psychology
1. Which of the following would most likely be the focus of an object-relations therapist?
A communication skills training and facilitating catharsis
B paradoxical interventions and circular questioning
C helping the client identify introjects and providing support
D exploring intergenerational transmission processes and cognitive restructuring

Back 1

ANSWER "C"
There are a variety of object-relations theories and therapies based on them. However, most focus on how introjects, or internalized images of significant others from the past, affect our current relationships and functioning. In addition to helping clients identify introjects, an objects-relations therapist would be likely to provide support and "re-parenting," in order to help the client develop new, healthier introjects.

Front 2

Industrial/Organizational Psychology
2. According to Holland, a highly differentiated person:
A is most flexible, possessing traits found in all six personality types.
B scores high on only one of the six personality types.
C scores high on two personality types that are on opposite sides of the personality hexagon.
D has the emotional maturity to effectively deal with many different personality types

Back 2

ANSWER "B"
Holland proposed that all behaviors, including career choice, are a function of personality and the social environment. He distinguished between six personality types - realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional. A highly differentiated person would be someone who scored high on only one of the personality types. Holland believed that high differentiation would best predict the outcome of a personality and occupational match.

Front 3

Social Psychology
3. According to Self Verification Theory, a person who believes that he dances poorly would prefer to be told by friends:
A "You are a pretty bad dancer"
B "You are not a bad dancer"
C "You should become a professional dancer"
D nothing about dancing

Back 3

ANSWER "A"
Self Verification theory proposes that people need and seek confirmation of their self-concept, regardless of whether their self-concept is positive or negative. Thus, people prefer to be right rather than happy. According to this theory, a person who dances poorly would prefer to be told so (assuming the other's evaluation matches the person's self evaluation).

Front 4

Clinical Psychology
4. According to recent outcome studies, which of Yalom’s therapeutic factors is the most direct indicator of group outcome success as well as growth within the individual group members?
A catharsis
B collusion
C cohesion
D universality

Back 4

ANSWER "C"
C. Recent studies indicate cohesiveness in a group, characterized by warmth and acceptance, self-disclosure and risk-taking behavior, freedom to express feelings openly (both positive and negative) is most associated with group member improvement and outcome success. As Yalom described, the therapeutic factors do not occur in isolation - they are interdependent and group cohesion serves as a necessary precondition for the other factors. Early confrontation, later positive alliance, later affective confrontation and fewer leader interventions in later sessions are also associated with successful group outcomes. (See: Burlingame, G.M., MacKenzie K.R., Strauss B. (2004). Small group treatment: evidence for effectiveness and mechanisms of change. In: Lambert, M., editor. Bergin and Garfield’s handbook of psychotherapy and behavior change. 5th ed. New York: John Wiley and Sons Inc, 647-96.)

Front 5

Ethics and Professional Practice
5. A psychologist who obtained a Ph.D. in experimental psychology wants to change her specialty to clinical psychology. To meet the requirements set forth by the General Guidelines for Providers, the psychologist must
A complete an internship in clinical psychology under the supervision of a professional clinical psychologist.
B complete appropriate doctoral-level classes and supervised post-doctoral training.
C obtain a Ph.D. in clinical psychology from an accredited college or university.
D meet her state's requirements for licensure in clinical psychology.

Back 5

ANSWER "B"
The licensing exam often contains questions such as these, and in approaching them, you should remember these buzzwords: training AND experience. Specifically, the Specialty Guidelines state that "professional psychologists who wish to qualify as clinical psychologists meet the same requirements with respect to subject matter and professional skills that apply to doctoral and postdoctoral education and training in clinical psychology." Choice "B" is the only one that includes an element of both training and experience, and is therefore the best answer. Moreover, unlike as stated by choice "C", a second Ph.D. would not be necessary -- doctoral level coursework in clinical psychology would be sufficient to meet the academic training aspect of this requirement

Front 6

Developmental Psychology
6. Children raised by parents who are very demanding but warm are likely to be highly:
A neurotic
B oppositional
C insecure
D resilient

Back 6

ANSWER "D"
Authoritative parents are very demanding but also warm and responsive to their children. Children raised by authoritative parents tend be more mature and have better coping skills, or resilience to life stressors, than children raised with other parenting styles.

Front 7

School Psychology/Intelligence
7. The WAIS-III subtest which is least affected by normal aging processes is
A comprehension.
B similarities.
C arithmetic.
D vocabulary.

Back 7

ANSWER "D"
This is a variation on the question about the "classic aging pattern" on IQ. The accepted finding is that as we get older, certain cognitive functions begin to fail, particularly those which rely on the neurochemical substructure of the nervous system. Thus our speed is not as quick, our motor skills show deficits, etc. But cognitive abilities relying on crystallized processes, such as long-term memory, show little change. Hence, of the alternatives listed here, vocabulary skills would show the least age-related decline. We tend to retain our capacity for language throughout the lifespan.

Front 8

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy
8. An individual imagining others engaging in a variety of alternative or desirable behaviors is using the technique known as:
A overcorrection
B simple modeling
C covert sensitization
D covert modeling

Back 8

ANSWER "D"
D. Covert modeling is based on its overt, simple modeling equivalent. Covert modeling involves the learning of new behaviors or the altering of existing behaviors by imagining scenes of others interacting with the environment. Overcorrection (a.) involves an individual consistently being reinforced for engaging in behaviors other than the target behavior during a predetermined period of time. Covert sensitization (c.) uses counterconditioning in imagination to reduce or eliminate a target behavior. An individual imagines he/she is engaging in the undesirable behavior and then imagines an aversive consequence for doing so.

Front 9

Diagnosis and Psychopathology
9. Which of the following is most true about individuals with Moderate Mental Retardation?
A They constitute 3-4% of the population of mentally retarded individuals.
B They can reach up to about a sixth grade level in academic skills.
C They can be trained to perform unskilled work in the competitive job market under close supervision.
D They acquire little or no communicative speech during the pre-school period.

Back 9

ANSWER "C"
Individuals with moderate retardation have an IQ between 35-40 and 50-55. According to the DSM, as adults, they can contribute to their own support by performing unskilled or semi-skilled tasks under supervision -- in sheltered workshops or in the competitive job market. They constitute 10% of the mentally retarded population, they are unlikely to progress beyond the second grade level in academic skills, and they can talk or learn to communicate during the preschool years.

Front 10

Ethics and Professional Practice
10. Continuing Education Credits (CE Credits) earned through an APA approved sponsor means that the program is:
A sanctioned by APA.
B endorsed by APA.
C approved by APA.
D the responsibility of the sponsor.

Back 10

ANSWER "D"
An organization is approved by the APA to sponsor continuing education programs. The sponsor then becomes responsible for each program. The APA periodically asks for reports from the sponsor, but the specific program is not endorsed, sanctioned, or approved by the APA. Only the overall sponsorship is approved by the APA.

Front 11

Ethics and Professional Practice
11. While attending a staff meeting at a mental health facility where you work, you learn that one of your colleagues, a psychologist, is behaving in an unethical manner toward one of her patients. Despite being advised to do so by several members of the staff, she states that she will not change her behavior. What should you do in this situation?
A Approach the colleague individually and urge her to change her behavior; if she refuses, report her to the appropriate ethics committee.
B Approach the colleague individually and urge her to change her behavior; if she refuses, recommend to the director of the facility that she be fired.
C Report the colleague to the appropriate ethics committee immediately, since she has already stated that she will not change her behavior.
D Announce in the staff meeting that you want to "go on the record" as noting that the psychologist is behaving unethically.

Back 11

ANSWER "A"
The Ethics Code states that you should deal with ethical violations by another psychologist in an informal manner, by bringing it to the attention of the psychologist. A report to an ethics committee should be made when the attempt at informal resolution has failed or if the violation is not amenable to informal resolution. Thus, you should speak to the psychologist privately and report her to an ethics committee if she still refuses to change her behavior. You may have thought that, since the psychologist has already stated her refusal to behave ethically, you should go ahead and report her, without bothering to talk to her. This actually makes sense, but the Ethics Code requires that you attempt an informal attempt at resolution first. A staff meeting is a formal setting, and does not personally give you the opportunity to attempt an informal resolution.

Front 12

Community Psychology
12. Of the following, the highest rate of suicide occurs among
A married persons.
B never-married persons.
C widowed persons.
D divorced persons.

Back 12

ANSWER "D"
Marriage, especially when reinforced with children, appears to lessen the risk of suicide. Among married people, the rate of suicide is about 11 per 100,000. This rate is higher for single, never-married persons (about 22 per 100,000), even higher for widows (24 per 100,000), and higher still for divorced individuals (40 per 100,000).

Front 13

Developmental Psychology
13. When performing cognitive tests, most older adults are able to best perform at what time of day:
A morning
B early afternoon
C late afternoon
D evening

Back 13

ANSWER "A"
A. May and Hasher (1998) referred to the beneficial effect of matching task demands and preferred time of day as the “synchrony effect.” Acknowledging age and individual differences in arousal patterns, research has found there are large differences in circadian cycles between young and older adults. The optimal time of day for successful completion of certain cognitive tasks for young children and individuals in late adulthood is primarily morning. There appears to be a shift beginning about the age of 12 away from morningness towards the peak arousal and task performance levels for young adults to the evening. Eventually, the life-span trend for time of day preference appears to come full circle. The research shows that synchrony between individual preferences and the time of testing is a powerful effect and that only highly practiced responses are invariant across the day - all others are affected. It is noted that attentional regulation over both incoming information and outgoing responses are particularly vulnerable to time of day effects. (See: May, C. P., & Hasher, L. (1998). Synchrony effects in inhibitory control over thought and action. Journal of Experimental Psychology: Human Perception and Performance, 24(2), 363-379. See: Hasher, L., Goldstein D., & May, C.P. (in press). It’s about time: Circadian rhythms, memory and aging. In C. Izawa & N. Ohta (Eds.), Human learning and memory: Advances in theory and application. Mahwah, NJ: Lawrence Erlbaum Associates, Inc.)

Front 14

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy
14. In regard to sensory memory, information is retained for
A less than two seconds.
B less than twenty seconds.
C a few minutes, if using rehearsal techinques.
D an indefinite amount of time, but it is difficult to access.

Back 14

ANSWER "A"
Sensory memory holds information from the senses for a very brief period of time--generally less than two seconds. It is not held any longer than this, even with rehearsal techniques (answer C). While some researchers hypothesize that information is retained in long-term memory indefinitely but may be difficult to acccess, this is not a characteristic of sensory memory.

Front 15

Neuropsychology
15. The Stroop Test is commonly used to assess:
A posture
B contralateral neglect
C visual problems
D attention problems

Back 15

ANSWER "D"
John Stroop, a psychologist, developed the Stroop Color Word Test in 1932 as a screening device for frontal lobe damage. The test involves the presentation of a list of color words (blue, green, red, and so forth) with each word printed in colored ink, but not in the color denoted by the word (for example, the word "yellow" is printed in blue, green or red ink). The participant's task is to name the ink color in which each word is printed as quickly as possible. A correct response requires the inhibition of reading the color name. Patients with left frontal lesions are often unable to inhibit reading the words and thus are impaired at this task. Others with attention deficits, including those with ADHD, also perform more poorly on the Stroop Test compared to those without attention deficits

Front 16

Clinical Psychology
16. Which of the following is likely to be most effective for alleviating chronic pain?
A biofeedback
B hypnotherapy
C relaxation and coping skills training
D autogenic training and contingency management

Back 16

ANSWER "C"
Most experts advocate a comprehensive treatment approach for chronic pain. Their recommended treatments involve teaching the patient a number of coping skills designed to alleviate pain and improve the patient's feelings of control. See, for example, H. Philips, The effects of behavioral treatment on chronic pain, Behaviour Research and Therapy, 1987, 25, 365-377.

Front 17

Diagnosis and Psychopathology
17. In schizophrenia, haldol is used primarily to treat:
A negative symptoms
B apathy
C psychotic symptoms
D blunted affect

Back 17

ANSWER "C"
Antipsychotic drugs such as haldol (butyrophenones) are more effective for alleviating the positive symptoms of schizophrenia: hallucinations, delusions, disordered thought, and agitation, than the negative symptoms: apathy, blunted affect, autism, and social withdrawal. In clients with schizophrenia, antipsychotics induce a “neuroleptic state” characterized by emotional quieting (decreased hallucinations and delusions), psychomotor slowing (less agitation, impulsivity, and aggressiveness), and affective indifference (lower arousability and lack of concern with the external environment).

Front 18

Industrial/Organizational Psychology
18. In terms of interviews as selection techniques, which of the following is most consistent with the research?
A Panel interviews generally have the highest levels of validity, and they are especially valid when an average (versus consensus) rating is derived.
B When interviewers are given biodata information about an interviewee prior to the interview, interviewers give less credence to interview information when the biodata is not supportive of a decision to hire than when the biodata is very supportive of a decision to hire.
C Although the research is inconsistent, the best conclusion about interviews is that future-oriented (situational) interviews are more valid than past-oriented (behavior description) interviews regardless of whether the interview is structured or unstructured.
D One of the difficulties with interviews, even when they are structured, is that they are highly susceptible to gender biases, especially when the interviewee and the interviewer are of different genders.

Back 18

ANSWER "B"
There is some evidence that interviewers place less importance on interview information when biodata is not very favorable and more importance when it is supportive of a hiring decision. Apparently, a good interview cannot make up for a bad history, but a good history can be supported or canceled out by the results of the interview.

Front 19

Clinical Psychology
19. Classical Adlerian psychotherapy:
A provides six stages as a systematic procedure
B provides twelve phases as a teaching guideline
C is a progression through twelve stages
D is a creatively practiced art without stages

Back 19

ANSWER "C"
Classical Alderian psychotherapy is characterized as a diplomatic, warm, empathetic, and Socratic style of treatment. For teaching purposes, Adlerian psychotherapy can be divided into twelve stages, and within each stage, cognitive, affective, and behavioral changes are gradually advanced. The stages reflect progressive strategies for awakening a client’s underdeveloped feeling of community. There are six different phases in this psychotherapy and within these phases there can be up to three stages. These are not rigid, systematized steps as therapy is considered a creative practice and unique for the individual. (See: Stein, H. (1988). Twelve Stages of Creative Adlerian Psychotherapy. Individual Psychology, 44, 138-143.)

Front 20

Ethics and Professional Practice
20. You have been working with a couple in marital therapy for four months, with slow but notable progress. After a session one day, the wife pulls you aside and asks to make some individual appointments with you. You should
A refer her to another therapist.
B wait until the completion of marital therapy and then see her individually.
C terminate with the couple and see the woman individually.
D encourage her to discuss any relevant issues within the context of marital therapy.

Back 20

ANSWER "A"
There is a potential for role conflict when a client in conjoint therapy asks you to see him or her individually. It's possible that there may be a conflict between your considerations as a couple's therapist and as an individual therapist. Thus, although your actions would vary depending on the parameters of the individual case, the best answer in light of the information we have is to refer the woman to another therapist for individual therapy.

Front 21

Diagnosis and Psychopathology
21. Functional nocturnal enuresis
A is associated with some physical medical disorder.
B most often occurs during REM sleep and is associated with dreaming.
C is not found in children above 12 years of age.
D is not associated with any particular stage of sleep.

Back 21

ANSWER "D"
If the wetting is associated with a physical cause, then it is not diagnosed as "functional" enuresis. This disorder is not associated with dreaming REM-sleep as one might expect. It actually is not significantly correlated with any particular sleep stage, although it is most likely to occur during the first third of the night. And, while it is less common in older than in younger children, it does exist in older children and adolescents.

Front 22

Test Construction
22. Raising the cutoff score on a predictor test would have the effect of
A increasing true positives
B decreasing false positives
C decreasing true negatives
D decreasing false negatives.

Back 22

ANSWER "B"
A simple way to answer this question is with reference to a chart such as the one displayed under the topic "Criterion-Related Validity" in the Test Construction section of your materials. If you look at this chart, you can see that increasing the predictor cutoff score (i.e., moving the vertical line to the right) decreases the number of false positives as well as true positives (you can also see that the number of both true and false negatives would be increased).
You can also think about this question more abstractly by coming up with an example. Imagine, for instance, that a general knowledge test is used as a predictor of job success. If the cutoff score on this test is raised, fewer people will score above this cutoff and, therefore, fewer people will be predicted to be successful. Another way of saying this is that fewer people will come up "positive" on this predictor. This applies to both true positives and false positives.

Front 23

Diagnosis and Psychopathology
23. The research has shown that, in the treatment of nicotine dependence, adding a behavioral intervention to nicotine replacement therapy
A has little or no effect in terms of either short- or long-term abstinence.
B has little additional effect in terms of short-term abstinence but does improve long-term abstinence.
C has some additional effect in terms of short-term abstinence but doesn't improve long-term abstinence.
D has a substantial effect on both short- and long-term abstinence.

Back 23

ANSWER "B"
This question is difficult since the research on this issue has been inconsistent. However, there is evidence that a combined treatment (behavioral intervention plus nicotine replacement therapy) is best, especially in terms of long-term abstinence (abstinence for six months or more). See, for example, R. C. Klesges et al., Smoking cessation: A successful behavioral/pharmacologic interface, Clinical Psychology Review, 1996, 16(6), 479-496.

Front 24

Diagnosis and Psychopathology
24. Bill comes to session and reports that for the last five months, his wife and employer have been poisoning his food. In addition, his next door neighbor has assisted them by switching lunch boxes with him. The local DJ is in on the scheme–telling him over the radio to "eat right to stay fit." The appropriate diagnosis is
A Schizophrenia, Paranoid Type.
B Schizophrenia, Disorganized Type.
C Brief Psychotic Disorder.
D food poisoning.

Back 24

ANSWER "A"
Bill's symptoms meet the criteria for Schizophrenia, Paranoid Type. He has one or more delusions and auditory hallucinations. He does not have the symptoms of Disorganized Type (answer B), which requires a prominence of disorganized speech, disorganized behavior, and flat affect. His symptoms have lasted for more than one month which rules out Brief Psychotic Disorder (answer C).

Front 25

Diagnosis and Psychopathology
25. A patient complains that she cannot stop thinking about killing her child, though she has no intention of doing so. The patient is depressed about these thoughts and occasionally has a drink in an attempt to escape from them, though this attempt is usually unsuccessful. The most likely diagnosis for this person is
A Major Depressive Disorder.
B Substance Dependence.
C Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder.
D Delusional Disorder.

Back 25

ANSWER "C"
This person's thought seems to qualify as an obsession. Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that are experienced as intrusive and cause marked distress. A person with obsessions attempts to ignore, suppress, or neutralize them and recognizes that they are a product of one's own mind. Recurrent obsessions or compulsions are the defining feature of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder. A person with this disorder may be depressed about it and may use alcohol or other substances in an attempt to neutralize his or her distress.

Front 26

Clinical Psychology
26. From the perspective of rational emotive therapy (RET), emotional disturbances are maintained primarily by
A self-indoctrination.
B environmental consequences.
C social pressure.
D denial.

Back 26

ANSWER "A"
Ellis, the founder of RET, viewed behavioral disorders as stemming from both biological predisposition and early life experiences but argued that their maintenance was due primarily to self-indoctrination. Specifically, during early childhood, children tend to internalize the critical attitude of their parents and then perpetuate that attitude as they grow older.

Front 27

Diagnosis and Psychopathology
27. What percent of individuals diagnosed of Panic Disorder also have Agoraphobia in community samples according to the DSM-IV-TR?
A less than 10%
B 15-25%
C 33-50%
D 50-66%

Back 27

ANSWER "C"
C. The DSM-IV-TR reports prevalence rates for Panic Disorder of 1 to 2% in community samples and states that “approximately one-third to one-half of individuals diagnosed with Panic Disorder in community samples also have Agoraphobia” (p. 436).

Front 28

Industrial/Organizational Psychology
28. In industrial settings, administration of a trainability test would be done for the purposes of determining whether
A the examinee is likely to do well on the job.
B the examinee is likely to do well on a job sample.
C the examinee will be satisfied on the job.
D the examinee is suited to train others.

Back 28

ANSWER "B"
A trainability test is designed to determine whether or not potential employees are suitable for training. It is not designed to be directly predictive of how well the person will do on the job itself. Instead, it would more directly indicate how well the person would do on a job sample, which is likely to be a part of the training sessions. In fact, trainability tests typically include job samples and are described as a type of job sample.

Front 29

Neuropsychology
29. Deficits in organizational ability, decision-making, and problem-solving are most likely to be the result of damage to the
A corpus callosum.
B prefrontal lobe.
C parietal lobe.
D basal forebrain.

Back 29

ANSWER "B"
The activities listed in the question are "executive functions," which are mediated by the frontal lobes, or, more specifically, by the prefrontal lobes. (The basal forebrain connects with the temporal lobes and is involved in long-term memory.)

Front 30

Clinical Psychology
30. Despite his many accomplishments and positive feedback from his supervisor, a client believes his work performance is below average because he feels like a failure. This is an example of:
A minimization
B selective abstraction
C emotional reasoning
D personalization

Back 30

ANSWER "C"
Emotional reasoning is one of several cognitive distortions described by Beck. It refers to a person believing that because he or she feels a negative emotion, there must be a corresponding negative external situation. Minimization (A) is seeing something as less significant than it really is. Selective abstraction (B) occurs when one focuses on a detail, taken out of context, at the expense of other information. Personalization (D) is the attribution of external events to oneself without evidence of a causal connection.

Front 31

Social Psychology
31. According to the Elaboration Likelihood Model, a persuasive message processed via the peripheral rather than the central route is most likely to be successful when:
A the message is not of an urgent nature
B the listener has time to process the message
C the communicator is of high status
D the communicator is demographically similar to the listener

Back 31

ANSWER "C"
According to the Elaboration Likelihood Model, there are two routes of communication: a central route and a peripheral route. A listener is most susceptible to persuasion via the peripheral route when the communicator is appealing (e.g., is of high status), the listener is uninvolved with the message or is distracted, and/or the message appeals to fear.

Front 32

Ethics and Professional Practice
32. Fee arrangements should be made with clients
A at the beginning of treatment.
B at the end of the first session.
C on the phone before the first session.
D as soon as possible.

Back 32

ANSWER "D"
This is an example of a question with more than one good answer. Choices “A”, “B”, and “C” may all be acceptable, depending on the circumstances. But because there are a number of acceptable answers to this question, you'd hope to find one general answer, such as “D”, that covers most or all of the specific possible options. More importantly, of the choices listed, “D” is most consistent with the language of APA's Ethical Standard 6.04(a), which states: “As early as is feasible in a professional or scientific relationship, psychologists and recipients of psychological services reach an agreement specifying compensation and billing arrangements.

Front 33

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy
33. An adolescent swearing with friends but not when around adults is example of:
A response generalization
B stimulus generalization
C stimulus discrimination
D overcorrection

Back 33

ANSWER "C"
C. Discrimination and generalization refer to the differences in precision of stimulus control, or the ability of a stimulus to alter the probability of a response. Response probabilities vary with different contexts, discriminative stimuli, and reinforcement contingencies (e.g., what is likely to be rewarded, ignored, or punished). In this case, the adolescent behaves differently in one context (with friends) than in another context (with adults). Friends are a discriminative stimulus in which the response of swearing is more likely to occur. Overcorrection (d.) is a technique that is used to reduce an undesirable behavior and replace it with a more desirable one.

Front 34

Ethics and Professional Practice
34. A client suspects that she may have been sexually abused as a child, although she has no conscious recollection of the abuse. She asks her psychologist to use hypnosis to help her retrieve any repressed memories she may have of any abuse. The psychologist should:
A agree to use hypnosis only if he or she has obtained adequate training and experience in it's use.
B agree to use hypnosis but take detailed notes in the event of future legal action and avoid asking the client any leading questions.
C advise against the use hypnosis, but recommend the use of guided imagery, which may be more admissible in court.
D advise the patient that hypnosis may produce false recollections of abuse and is therefore inappropriate.

Back 34

ANSWER "D"
In a report titled "Final Conclusions of the American Psychological Association Working Group on Investigation of Memories of Childhood Abuse" [Psychology, Public Policy, and Law, 2000, 4 (4), 933-940] the authors acknowledge that "it is possible for memories of abuse that have been forgotten for a long time to be remembered." However, they recommend that "clients who seek hypnosis as a means of retrieving or confirming their recollections should be advised that it is not an appropriate procedure for this goal because of the serious risk that pseudomemories may be created in trance states and of the related risk due to increased confidence in those memories. Clients should also be informed that the use of hypnosis could jeopardize any future legal actions they might want to take."

Front 35

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy
35. Feature integration theory predicts that the perception of an object as an entity rather than as a cluster of unrelated features depends on:
A focused attention.
B integrated attention.
C selective attention.
D divided attention.

Back 35

ANSWER "A"
Feature integration theory is what it sounds like. It's a theory about how an object's features are integrated, and it proposes that focused visual attention is required for perception of an object to occur.

Front 36

Neuropsychology
36. What is the area of the brain in which lesions cause indifference or apathy?
A Corpus callosum
B Frontal
C Parietal
D Pyramidal system

Back 36

ANSWER "B"
The frontal lobe contains the prefrontal association cortex. Lesions in this area disrupts the control and regulation of cognition and planning (so-called executive functions). Individuals with such lesions show decreased initiative, deficient self-awareness and concreteness in thinking.

Front 37

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy
37. Stimulus A is paired with stimulus B. Stimulus B is then paired with stimulus C until stimulus C elicits the same response that was elicited by stimulus A. This is an example of:
A chaining
B shaping
C secondary reinforcement
D higher-order conditioning

Back 37

ANSWER "D"
Higher-order conditioning is a classical conditioning procedure in which two stimuli (CS and US) are paired until the conditioned stimulus (CS) produces the conditioned response (CR) and then the CS (which is now referred to as a US) is paired with another CS to elicit the same response. All of the other choices in this question are operant conditioning terms. Operant conditioning involves behaviors and the consequences that follow, rather than the pairing of stimuli. Chaining (A) is the operant procedure that enables complex behaviors to develop through reinforcement of a sequence of simple behaviors. That is, Behavior A is followed by a reinforcer, which serves as a discriminative stimulus for Behavior B, which is followed by a reinforcer, and so on. Shaping (B) involves reinforcing successive approximations of a desired behavior.

Front 38

Neuropsychology
38. The phenomenon of cross-modal perception, for example, hearing colors or tasting shapes is referred to as:
A achromatopsia
B sensory hallucinations
C nystagmus
D synesthesia

Back 38

ANSWER "D"
Synesthesia is a perceptual condition in which stimulation of one sensory modality is reliably perceived in one or more other senses. For example, individuals with synesthesia may hear odors or see sounds. The cause of synesthesia is unknown, but is more prevalent among women and non-right-handed people. Achromatopsia (A) is a rare form of color blindness that is accompanied by hypersensitivity to light and poor visual acuity. Hallucinations (B) are sensory perceptions that occur without external stimulation of the sensory organ. Nystagmus (C) refers to involuntary jerky eye movement.

Front 39

Industrial/Organizational Psychology
39. According to Anne Cleary's model of test fairness, a job selection test would be considered unfair if
A Based on the use of the test, a higher proportion of Caucasians than African-Americans are chosen for the job.
B the test has a higher validity coefficient for Caucasians than for African-Americans.
C the slope of the test's regression line is different for African-Americans than for Caucasians.
D the content of the test is culturally biased.

Back 39

ANSWER "C"
Under the Cleary model, a test is considered unfair if the slope and/or the y-intercept of the regression line is different for one subgroup than for another. The effect of these statistical phenomena is that differences between subgroups on predictor scores would not be reflective of differences between the groups on the criterion. For instance, low scorers in one subgroup might do just as well on the criterion as high scorers in the other subgroup.

Front 40

Ethics and Professional Practice
40. An attorney contacts a psychologist requesting that his client be given a psychological evaluation prior to appearing in court. Following the evaluation the client asks that his records not be released to the court, although his attorney believes that releasing the records would be in his client's best interest. The psychologist should:
A release the records since there is no privilege regarding forensic evaluations
B release the records since the attorney requested the evaluation
C not release the records
D seek consultation

Back 40

ANSWER "C"
Since this does not appear to be a court-ordered evaluation, the examinee remains the holder of the privilege; thus, his records should not be released to the court without his consent.

Front 41

School Psychology/Intelligence
41. The theory that proposes convergent and divergent thinking as dimensions of intelligence is associated with:
A Galton
B Thurstone
C Guilford
D Cattell

Back 41

ANSWER "C"
C. J.P. Guilford identified 120 elements using factor analysis that he proposed in sum comprise intelligence. Convergent thinking is the ability to group or analyze divergent ideas usually leading to a unifying concept or single solution. Divergent thinking is the ability to generate creative, new ideas or to elaborate or branch off from traditional approaches, such as in brainstorming or “thinking out of the box.” Galton (a.) postulated that intelligence is an inherited trait distributed normally across the population. Thurstone (b.) applied his method of factor analysis to intelligence leading to his proposed theory of Primary Mental Abilities (that individuals possess varying degrees of sub-components of intelligence). Cattell’s (d.) theory distinguished between fluid and crystallized intelligence.

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Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy
42. A loss of memory for autobiographical information is referred to as:
A functional amnesia
B anterograde amnesia
C retrograde amnesia
D malingering

Back 42

ANSWER "A"
Functional amnesia is a condition, caused by a psychological trauma, in which individuals are unable to remember significant events in their lives, i.e., autobiographical information. Anterograde amnesia (B) is an impaired ability to form new permanent memories. Retrograde amnesia (C) is an inability to recall previous memories (i.e., for events that occurred prior to a head trauma), and is not necessarily for, or limited to, autobiographical information. Someone who is malingering (D) could feign memory loss for autobiographical memories; however, most cases of autobiographical memory loss are not due to malingering.

Front 43

School Psychology/Intelligence
43. When a psychologist working out of the Adlerian model serves as a consultant in a school, they:
A Work primarily with the school
B Identify the areas of inferiority within the system
C Primarily educate the parents and teachers through an emphasis on preventive interventions
D Reverse roles--having the teachers see themselves as children and the students as parents in the family school system.

Back 43

ANSWER "C"
In general, consultants work with the teachers and parents rather than individual students. With the Adlerian model, preventive interventions are emphasized and the consultants educate the parents and teachers. (Dustin and Ehly 1992).

Front 44

Neuropsychology
44. The term "neuronal threshold" refers to the fact that
A all nerve cells fire simultaneously.
B the strength of a nerve cell's action is positively correlated with the electrical stimulation it receives.
C the strength of a nerve cell's action is negatively correlated with the electrical stimulation it receives.
D a nerve cell's stimulation must reach a certain intensity before it fires.

Back 44

ANSWER "D"
The term "neuronal threshold" refers to the minimum level of energy required for a neuron to fire. If the energy in the cell is below this threshold level, the cell will not fire at all. And increasing the energy in the cell above the threshold does not increase the intensity of firing. This is referred to as the "all-or-none" law -- either the cell fires at maximum intensity or it does not fire at all.

Front 45

Diagnosis and Psychopathology
45. For months following the break up of a relationship with her finance, a woman is very distressed and obsessed with thoughts about the former relationship. Her most likely diagnosis would be:
A Adjustment disorder
B Bereavement
C Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
D Borderline Personality Disorder

Back 45

ANSWER "A"
Based on the limited information provided, her most likely diagnosis would be Adjustment Disorder. According to DSM-IV-TR, Adjustment Disorder involves a psychological response to an identifiable stressor that results in clinically significant symptoms. Bereavement ("B") is reserved for a reaction to the death of a loved one. In OCD the obsessions must not simply be excessive worries about real-life problems and the person must experience them as intrusive and, at least at times, attempt to ignore or suppress them. Before we could diagnose Borderline Personality Disorder we would need many more symptoms of instability of relationships, self-image, and affects, along with marked impulsivity.

Front 46

Social Psychology
46. The best for group members’ reluctance to provide negative feedback to one another is:
A minority influence
B group think
C Yalom’s principle
D the mum effect

Back 46

ANSWER "D"
D. Rosen and Tesser (1970) conducted research on message transmission in different groups of people to determine how individuals respond to relaying a message that may be displeasing. They proposed there is emotional stress placed on the messenger, predicated on a fear of being infected with the emotional distress of the recipient or of having to assume an emotional state congruent with the bad news, and for this reason there may be a decrease in the transmittance of bad news. Their findings, which have been subsequently supported by others, indicated that bad news is transmitted less frequently than good news. MUM refers to the tendency to keep ‘Mum about Undesirable Messages’ (See: Rosen, S. & Tesser, A. (1970). On reluctance to communicate undesirable information: The MUM effect. Sociometry. 33, 253 - 263.) Minority influence (a.) refers to attempts by a minority to alter of attitudes and beliefs on part of the majority typically involving a break with the accepted norms and conventions; inspiring majority resistance; and creating a cognitive conflict for the majority. The effectiveness of minority influence depends on the extent that it exhibits behavioral consistency, persistence and internal coherence as well as congruency with the prevailing Zeitgeist, that is with values, norms and goals salient for the majority. Groupthink (b.) is an intensive tendency to seek agreement among members of the group, which prevents full consideration of alternative decisions, to the point where the decisions reached may become irrational. Factors which contribute to groupthink include high cohesiveness, homogeneous backgrounds and values, and a strong, directive leader.

Front 47

Clinical Psychology
47. According to Sue and Sue's Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model, a person in the dissonance stage would experience:
A appreciation of the self and depreciation of the dominant group
B depreciation of the self and appreciation of the dominant group
C appreciation of the self and the dominant group
D conflict between appreciation and depreciation of the self and the dominant group

Back 47

ANSWER "D"
Even if you were unfamiliar with Sue and Sue's Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model, you may have been able to guess correctly if you realized that the term "dissonance" refers to conflict. Sue and Sue's (1990) Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model (R/CID) is an elaboration of the Minority Identity Development model (MID) proposed by Atkinson, Morton, and Sue (1989). Both models describe the same stages (conformity, dissonance, resistance and immersion, introspection, and integrative awareness) but the R/CID model elaborates on individuals' attitudes toward self and others. During the Conformity stage, a person depreciates the self (and others of the minority group) but appreciates the dominant majority group. During the Dissonance stage, minority individuals experience conflict between appreciation and depreciation of the self and the majority group. In the Resistance and Immersion stage, the individual appreciates the self and depreciates the majority group. In the Introspection stage, the person again experiences conflict and questions the basis of his or her appreciation and depreciation of self and others. And, finally, in the Integrative Awareness stage, the person experiences self-appreciation and selective appreciation of the majority group [D. W. Sue and D. Sue, Counseling the culturally different: Theory and practice, 3rd edition, 1999, New York, John Wiley].

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Research Design and Statistics
48. Cluster sampling involves
A randomly selecting individual subjects from a larger target population.
B randomly selecting a naturally-occurring group of subjects from a larger target population.
C randomly selecting several naturally occurring groups from a larger population, and then randomly selecting individuals from each group.
D randomly selecting individuals from a larger target population and dividing subjects into groups on the basis of their status on a demographic variable.

Back 48

ANSWER "B"
In cluster sampling, naturally occurring groups of subjects, rather than individual subjects, are randomly selected for participation in research. For instance, if a researcher wants to use elementary school students in an educational study, he or she could randomly choose a school from the schools in his state, and use all the students in that school as participants in the study. That's cluster sampling. A variation of cluster sampling, known as multistage cluster sampling, involves selecting a large cluster (group) and then selecting selectively smaller clusters. For example, the researcher studying elementary school students could randomly select a school district, then randomly select a school from the chosen school district, and then randomly select a classroom from the chosen school. In this case, both forms of cluster sampling would be more practical than the alternative of simple random sampling. That would involve randomly selecting individual elementary school students from across the state.

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Developmental Psychology
49. According to Kohlberg, an individual who is concerned with obeying society's laws and rules is in which stage of moral development?
A preconventional
B conventional
C postconventional
D heteronomous

Back 49

ANSWER "B"
Kohlberg distinguishes between three levels of moral development (preconventional, conventional, and postconventional). At the preconventional level, morality is based on the consequences of an act. Good behaviors are rewarded and bad behaviors are punished. The next level is conventional, in which morality is guided by the desire to maintain existing social laws, rules, and norms. In the post-conventional level individuals view morality in terms of self-chosen principles. Heteronomous morality (D) is a term use by Piaget to describe preschool children who believe that rules are absolute and unchangeable.

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Industrial/Organizational Psychology
50. Of the following, the best way to reduce rater errors such as the halo and leniency biases would be
A use of a forced-choice rating scale.
B use of the forced distribution rating scale.
C use of Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales.
D adequate training of raters.

Back 50

ANSWER "D"
A number of special types of rating scales designed to reduce rater bias (such as the forced-choice and the Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales) have been derived, and, in fact, there is some research to show that they are effective in doing so. However, no rating scale will be effective unless raters are trained adequately in its use. Indeed, research shows that relevant training can minimize some rating errors -- specifically, the halo effect, constant error such as the leniency or strictness bias, and contrast effects. The operative word here is "relevant": unless training focuses on matters such as the multi-dimensionality of work performance, objective recording of behavior, and rating people in terms of actual job requirements, training the raters won't work.

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Neuropsychology
51. Use of which of the following strategies is most likely to increase a person's level of chronic pain?
A biofeedback
B active coping
C passive coping
D cognitive-behavioral therapy

Back 51

ANSWER "C"
Several studies have found that passive coping strategies (e.g., depending on others, restricting social activities, use of medication for immediate pain relief) result in an increase in subjective pain among chronic pain patients. Conversely, helping patients reduce the frequency of passive coping strategies is believed to result in decreased pain. Active coping strategies (e.g., staying busy or active, distracting attention from the pain), as well as biofeedback and cognitive-behavioral therapy, have most often been found to decrease pain [A. C. Mercado, L. J. Carroll, J. D. Cassidy, & P. Cote, Coping with neck and low back pain in the general population, Health Psychology, 2000, 19(4), 333-338].

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Ethics and Professional Practice
52. The purpose of State Licensing Boards is primarily to
A educate the public.
B educate the profession.
C protect the public.
D set minimum standards of practice.

Back 52

ANSWER "C"
The State Boards derive their authority from the principle of protecting the public. That's the justification for giving exams, setting requirements for licensure, writing and enforcing regulations, and so on.

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Diagnosis and Psychopathology
53. Clonidine, an alpha-noradrenergic drug, is often preferable to dopaminergic blocking agents for treating Tourette's Disorder because it is safer for chronic use. However, clonidine does produce some undesirable side effects including:
A Parkinsonism, akathesia, and dysphoria.
B dry mouth, headache, and hypotension.
C anorexia, sexual dysfunction, and emotional blunting.
D vomiting, dizziness, and irritability.

Back 53

ANSWER "B"
Since the question mentions that clonidine is safer for chronic use, you'd want to look for less serious side effects, which narrows it down to responses b and d. In addition to dry mouth, headache, and hypotension, clonidine may also cause sedation and dizziness.

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Diagnosis and Psychopathology
54. Some experts argue that panic attacks do not occur in young children because
A children do not experience the bodily sensations associated with panic.
B children do not think catastrophically.
C children are not capable of making internal interpretations of bodily sensations.
D children are not capable of predicting that certain external events may trigger bodily symptoms.

Back 54

ANSWER "C"
Not all experts agree that children cannot experience panic attacks. However, those that do, for the most part, argue that children do not experience panic because they are cognitively incapable of making internal catastrophic interpretations (e.g., I'm going crazy) of bodily symptoms.

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Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy
55. Which of the following is NOT true regarding a variable ratio schedule of reinforcement?
A It generates a high and constant rate of responding.
B It produces behaviors that are the most resistant to extinction.
C The relationship between the behavior and reinforcement is unpredictable.
D It produces the "scallop effect," with a decreased rate of response following reinforcement.

Back 55

ANSWER "D"
In the variable ratio schedule, reinforcement occurs after a variable number of responses. The variable ratio has been found to result in a high and constant rate of response (A) and, compared to the other schedules of reinforcement, the responses are the most resistant to extinction (B). Since it is a variable schedule, the relationship between the behavior and reinforcement is unpredictable (C), which contributes to the above characteristics. However, the scallop effect (D), in which the response rate drops after each reinforcement and increases just before reinforcement is due, is characteristic of fixed schedules, especially the fixed interval schedule.

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Neuropsychology
56. According to the catecholamine hypothesis, depression is due to a deficiency in:
A dopamine
B gamma-aminobutyric acid
C acetylcholine
D norepinephrine

Back 56

ANSWER "D"
Research with drugs led to the formulation of the “catecholamine hypothesis” about the cause of mood disorders. First presented in 1965, Schildkraut et al.’s theory of depression emphasized the association of depression with a decrease in the levels of brain catecholamines dopamine (DA) and norepinephrine (NE), especially norepinephrine. This hypothesis in its simplest form, stated that depression was due to a deficiency of norepinephrine, one of the major catecholamine systems in the brain. This early hypothesis is based on evidence from three groups of drugs: reserpine, monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors, and tricyclics. Reserpine depletes the brain of dopamine and norepinephrine and is used primarily to treat hypertension. It is also used for severe agitation. MAO inhibiters and tricyclics, although they work in somewhat different ways, are used to treat depression and tend to increase the amount of norepinephrine available in the central nervous system. A variety of approaches, especially in the United States, tested this hypothesis and the results are inconclusive. Nonetheless, this theory served as the “standard” theory for depression in the United States until the 1980s. (See: McNeal, E. T., and Cimbolic, P. (1986). Antidepressants and Biochemical Theories of Depression. Psychological Bulletin, 99(3), 361-374.)

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Ethics and Professional Practice
57. You are working with a couple in marital therapy and are conducting the initial interview. You realize that although the husband doesn't remember you, the two of you once dated. You should
A speak to the husband alone, explain the situation and ask him if he feels comfortable with proceeding.
B see the wife in individual therapy only.
C refer the couple to another therapist.
D let the couple know the situation and then proceed with therapy.

Back 57

ANSWER "C"
This question is fairly easy to answer once you remember you are not obliged to provide services for all your referrals. This is an initial interview and you have a situation that involves a multiple relationship. You need to refer this couple to one of your competent colleagues.

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Industrial/Organizational Psychology
58. In contrast to traditional organizational culture, a quality-oriented culture emphasizes all of the following except:
A using cross-training so that each worker can perform a variety of tasks.
B viewing workers as requiring continuous learning and development.
C basing rewards on long-term (versus short-term) achievement.
D rewarding employees for individual (versus group) achievement.

Back 58

ANSWER "D"
This is the opposite of what is true about organizations that focus on quality where the policy is to emphasize rewarding group performance and organization-level achievement rather than individual achievement (which is characteristic of the traditional approach). The other characteristics listed in the responses are relatively new approaches and are characteristic of "total quality" organizations.

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Diagnosis and Psychopathology
59. Which of the following statements is true regarding the relationship between environmental factors and the course of Bipolar Disorders?
A Environmental factors are likely to have a greater impact during the early stages of the disorder.
B Environmental factors are likely to have a greater impact during the latter stages of the disorder.
C Environmental factors are likely to have an approximately equal impact throughout the course of the disorder.
D Environmental factors are likely to have no impact because Bipolar Disorders are entirely due to biological factors.

Back 59

ANSWER "A"
Bipolar Disorders have a strong genetic and biological component. Nonetheless, evidence suggests that environmental factors can trigger episodes. This is especially true in the early stages of the disorder; psychosocial stressors often trigger the initial mood episodes; they less frequently trigger subsequent episodes.

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Neuropsychology
60. A unilateral throbbing headache that is aggravated by light, sound, or any movement is characterized as a:
A cluster headache
B migraine headache
C tension headache
D sinus headache

Back 60

ANSWER "B"
Migraine headaches are typically unilateral, that is, felt on one side of the head and are typically throbbing in nature. Migraines are also frequently accompanied by sensitivity to light, sound, and movement, and may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Cluster headaches (A) are characterized by severe pain usually behind one eye and typically last for a few minutes to several hours and reoccur at the same time each day for several weeks, until the cluster period is over. Tension headaches (C) are described as a constant, dull, pain on both sides of the head. They are typically accompanied by tension in the head or neck muscles and begin slowly and gradually. Sinus headaches (D) are usually located in the mid-facial area and are described as a dull ache often accompanied by nasal congestion.

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Neuropsychology
61. In Huntington's Disease, the first brain structure to show signs of damage is the
A superior colliculus.
B medulla oblongata.
C nucleus cuneatus.
D caudate nucleus.

Back 61

ANSWER "D"
Huntington's Disease is due to degeneration of neurons in the basal ganglia, and the degeneration is usually first apparent in the caudate nucleus. (The basal ganglia include the caudate nucleus, the putamen, and the globus pallidus.)

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Developmental Psychology
62. In regards to learning, children generally have an advantage over adults due to their greater:
A brain plasticity
B explicit memory
C implicit memory
D metamemory

Back 62

ANSWER "A"
Brain plasticity refers to the ability of the nervous system to adapt to different circumstances and to find new ways of learning. Plasticity is particularly useful for acquiring a new skill or recovering from a brain injury. Children, as you might expect, have greater plasticity than adults, although adults maintain some degree of plasticity throughout their lives. The greater plasticity in children is attributed to their brains not being fully developed. The human brain continues its development throughout childhood and into early adulthood, with significant increases in neural connections and myelination. However, adults, having more life experience, have more explicit and implicit memories. Adults also tend to have better metamemory, that is, greater knowledge of what one knows and how one's memory works, although this ability may decline among older adults.

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Social Psychology
63. When an impulsive group decision that reflects an incomplete consideration of alternatives and consequences is the result of high stress, high group cohesiveness, and a directive leader, this is an example of:
A groupthink.
B group polarization.
C the risky shift.
D the Rosenthal effect.

Back 63

ANSWER "A"
Although group polarization and the risky shift also refer to poor decision-making, their antecedents have not been as well-defined as those associated with groupthink (i.e., only groupthink has been linked theoretically and empirically to an incomplete consideration of alternatives and consequences, high group cohesiveness, etc.).

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Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy
64. Large amounts of information can be kept in short-term memory through the use of:
A the "savings" method.
B eidetic memory.
C chunking.
D mnemonics.

Back 64

ANSWER "C"
The classic finding in the area of research into short-term memory (STM) is the "7 +/- 2" finding; i.e., that STM has the capacity of storing 7 plus or minus 2 pieces of information at one time. Chunking is a technique designed to increase the amount of information that can be kept in STM -- it involves grouping larger amount of information into single chunks. In other words, STM is used to store 7 +/- 2 chunks rather than 7 +/- 2 isolated bits of information. Mnemonics (choice D) are used to increase the efficiency of encoding newly learned information, which increases the ease with which that information is retrieved from long-term memory.

Front 65

Test Construction
65. To determine two rater's level of agreement on a test you would use:
A Kappa coefficient
B Discriminant validity
C Percentage of agreement
D Item response theory

Back 65

ANSWER "A"
There are a number of ways to estimate the interscorer reliability, but the most common involves calculating a correlation coefficient between the scores of two different raters. The Kappa coefficient is a measure of the agreement between two judges who each rate a set of objects using the nominal scales.

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Clinical Psychology
66. High-context cultures are characterized by
A reliance on elaborated (versus restricted) communication codes.
B heavy reliance on nonverbal (versus verbal) messages.
C restraint of feelings.
D emphasis on short-term goals.

Back 66

ANSWER "B"
The terms "high context" and "low context" have been used to describe cultural differences in communication. A high-context style is characterized by reliance on nonverbal and culturally-shared cues and is characteristic of a number of cultural/racial minority groups including African-, Hispanic-, and Asian-Americans.

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Social Psychology
67. Research on group performance has examined the effects of the heterogeneity of group members in terms of personality, gender, experience, and so on. Overall, these studies have found that heterogeneity is
A positively related to creativity and decision-making effectiveness.
B positively related to creativity but negatively related to decision-making effectiveness.
C negatively related to creativity but positively related to decision-making effectiveness.
D negatively related to creativity and decision-making effectiveness.

Back 67

ANSWER "A"
Most of the research on group heterogeneity has focused on its impact on creativity and problem-solving and has found it to have beneficial effects on both.

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Neuropsychology
68. If someone presents with complaints and symptoms including anxiety, irritability, and hypomania, and the diagnosed disorder is not exclusively psychogenic, the most likely non-psychiatric cause would be
A Addison's Disease.
B hyperthyroidism.
C Sleep Apnea.
D Alcohol Amnestic Disorder.

Back 68

ANSWER "B"
Hyperthyroidism, or over secretion of thyroxine by the thyroid gland, is a possible physiological cause of symptoms that resemble generalized anxiety or hypomania.

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Diagnosis and Psychopathology
69. A high level of expressed emotion by family members has been found to be predictive of relapse for which of the following disorders?
A schizophrenia
B eating disorders
C mood disorders
D all of the above

Back 69

ANSWER "D"
The relationship between a family's level of expressed emotion (EE) and the risk of relapse among patients with Schizophrenia has been known for many years; however, recently EE has also been linked to eating disorders and mood disorders. In fact, in a meta-analysis the relationship of EE to relapse in eating disorders and mood disorders was significantly greater than the relationship found for Schizophrenia (mean effect sizes were .51, .39, and .31, respectively) [R.L. Butzlaff & J.M. Hooley, Expressed emotion and psychiatric relapse: A meta-analysis, Archives of General Psychiatry, 55, 1998, 547-552].

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Developmental Psychology
70. Since his parents separated four months ago, Jessie Jr. is withdrawn, cries, and is easily angered for a day or two after visiting his noncustodial father on alternate weekends. When mom asks Jessie Jr. what's wrong, he says "nothing." Mom should interpret this as:
A a lack of attachment to dad.
B a lack of attachment to mom.
C a clear sign of sexual abuse.
D a normal response.

Back 70

ANSWER "D"
This is a difficult question because it provides so little information about Jesse Jr.'s behavior. However, it is normal for children to show distress before and after visits to the noncustodial parent, especially during the first few months after the divorce. (For sexual abuse to be the right answer, you'd want to see more severe symptoms that last for a longer period of time.)

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Diagnosis and Psychopathology
71. Individuals with the diagnosis of Seasonal Affect Disorder are most likely to respond to light if they experience:
A atypical symptoms such as carbohydrate craving and hypersomnia
B melancholic symptoms such as insomnia and weight loss
C incomplete summer remission
D more chronic forms of depression

Back 71

ANSWER "A"
A. Research on the use of light therapy for the treatment of various forms of depression has yielded the findings that for true SAD, atypical symptoms such as carbohydrate craving and hypersomnia predict a robust response, whereas melancholic symptoms such as insomnia and weight loss are generally less responsive to light (See: Terman et al., American Journal of Psychiatry, 1996, 153,:423-9). Additionally, a clear onset period with complete remission in the spring and summer months is the SAD phenotype that is most likely to respond to light. Whereas patients with more chronic forms of depression or incomplete summer remission are less likely to have a robust response, they may benefit to some extent (See: Lam et al., Journal of Affective Disorders, 2001, 63, 123-32).

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Ethics and Professional Practice
72. A manufacturing company hires a psychologist to screen job applicants using standardized cognitive ability tests. The company then asks the psychologist to train their human resources staff to administer and score the tests. The psychologist should:
A agree to do so if the psychologist is able to provide adequate training to the staff
B agree to do so if the psychologist is able to supervise the human resources staff
C refuse to do so because cognitive ability tests are not valid predictors of job performance
D refuse to do so because the human resources staff lacks the appropriate qualifications

Back 72

ANSWER "D"
Ethical Standard 9.07 states, "Psychologists do not promote the use of psychological assessment techniques by unqualified persons." A human resources staff would be unqualified to use these tests and should not be trained in their use. Contrary to C, cognitive ability tests are considered to be a relatively good predictor of job performance.

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Community Psychology
73. The leading cause of infant mortality is:
A respiratory distress
B sudden infant death syndrome
C homicide
D congenital malformations

Back 73

ANSWER "D"
Although there has been about a 75% decrease in the infant mortality rates from 1950 to 1999, the proportion of deaths caused by congenital deformities has actually increased, making it the leading cause of death during infancy (i.e., the first year of life). The next leading cause is low birthweight followed by sudden infant death syndrome (B). These three causes accounted for almost one-half of all infant deaths in 1999. Respiratory distress (A) was the 5th leading cause of infant deaths. Homicide (C) was ranked 15th (although homicide risk is higher during infancy than in any other year of childhood before age 17 years) (D. Hoyert, E. Arias, B. Smith, S. Murphy, & K. Kochanek. Deaths: Final data for 1999, National Vital Statistics Report, 2001, 49(8). Hyattsville, MD: National Center for Health Statistics. DHHS Publication No. (PHS) 2001-1120).

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Developmental Psychology
74. A 60-year old couple complains of a decrease in their sex life. Although they don't feel they need psychotherapy, they would like some information. There is no indication of medical or emotional problems. You should tell them that:
A there is nothing that you as a psychotherapist can do at this time.
B they should seek help since it is normal to continue sexual behavior.
C there is a wide variation in sexual activity depending on physical and emotional variables.
D everyone's sexual activity drops with age.

Back 74

ANSWER "C"
C is the more conservative and more appropriate answer since we don't know too much about the couple. If we knew more about why they sought help, we could make a more specific recommendation.

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Clinical Psychology
75. High levels of stress are associated with:
A tension headaches, but not migraine headaches.
B migraine headaches, but not tension headaches.
C both tension headaches and migraine headaches.
D neither tension headaches nor migraine headaches.

Back 75

ANSWER "C"
As their name suggests, tension headaches are associated with stress. The psychological correlates of migraine headaches are less clear, and more than one theory has been proposed regarding this issue; however, clinical observation has suggested that stress often plays a role in their onset.

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Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy
76. A 17-year-old male involved in a skateboarding accident suffered a head trauma resulting in deficits to his declarative memory. He would likely have the most difficulty:
A riding a skateboard
B recalling when he rode his first skateboard at 10-years-old
C recalling his own name
D recalling what he ate for lunch yesterday

Back 76

ANSWER "D"
Declarative or explicit memories are long-term memories that one can consciously recall. They include semantic (factual information) and episodic (personally experienced) memories. Riding a skateboard (A) requires procedural memory. All of the other choices require explicit memory; however, memory deficits due to head trauma or disease usually affect recent long-term memory before affecting remote long-term memory.

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Diagnosis and Psychopathology
77. A 50-year old has memory loss as the result of her long-term heavy alcohol consumption. Most likely, she has trouble
A getting dressed.
B remembering someone she met a week ago.
C recalling her first date.
D repeating five digits forward and backward.

Back 77

ANSWER "B"
People with Korsakoff's Syndrome (amnesia due to heavy, long-term alcohol consumption) have severe anterograde amnesia along with retrograde amnesia for events that occurred in the relatively recent past. Procedural memory is undisturbed (response A); remote memories are usually intact (response C); and short-term memory is unaffected (response D).

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Industrial/Organizational Psychology
78. A leader should adopt a "telling" style if:
A The employee has low ability but high willingness to accept responsibility
B The employee has high ability but low willingness to accept responsibility
C The employee's ability to and willingness to accept responsibility are both high
D The employee's ability and willingness to accept responsibility are both low

Back 78

ANSWER "D"
The "telling style" according to Hersey and Blanchard's (1974) description, is more effective when an employee's ability and willingness to accept responsibility are low. This leadership style involves high task orientation and low relationship orientation. With A, the leader should adopt the "selling" style–high task orientation and high relationship orientation. With B, the leader should adopt a "participatory" style–low task orientation and high relationship orientation. With C the leader can use a "delegating style"; both low task and low relationship orientation.

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Industrial/Organizational Psychology
79. Which of the following work schedules would most likely result in improved job satisfaction?
A five-day fixed day shift
B compressed week
C rotating shifts on a weekly basis
D rotating shifts on a quarterly basis

Back 79

ANSWER "B"
The research on alternative work schedules is mixed, however, one consistent finding is that rotating shifts result in lowered productivity and satisfaction, higher accident rates, and more physical and mental health problems. Obviously, the more frequent the change in schedule, the more difficult it would be to adapt. On the other hand, compressed work week schedules, such as the 4/40, usually result in improved job satisfaction and decreased absenteeism. However, compressed schedules usually have no effect on productivity or, depending on the job, possibly a negative affect. (while flextime schedules result in improved productivity, absenteeism, and satisfaction).

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Research Design and Statistics
80. The risk of sampling error is greatest when a:
A sample size is small
B test has low reliability
C test has low validity
D confounding variable exists

Back 80

ANSWER "A"
Sampling error is the extent to which a sample value deviates from the corresponding population value which it is supposed to represent. Thus, the smaller the sample size, the greater the risk of sampling error. You should have been able to eliminate reliability ("B") and validity ("C"), since those are characteristics of a test – which is not applied until after the sampling procedure. Sampling error, as it's name implies, takes place during the sampling or selection of subjects. A confounding variable ("D"), is a variable that is not of interest in a study but which exerts a systematic effect on the DV. Thus it would threaten the internal validity of a test but it is not related to sampling error.

Front 81

Diagnosis and Psychopathology
81. People diagnosed with PTSD are often successfully treated with psychotherapy and don't need to be referred for medication treatment unless:
A They also have a high level of cognitive functioning
B They experience feelings of numbness
C They tolerate exploratory psychotherapy well
D Their target symptoms of avoidance and derealization interfere with daily life

Back 81

ANSWER "D"
PTSD is not usually treated with phamacotherapy unless the target symptoms of intrusive experiences, flashbacks, transient psychosis, marked derealization, and avoidance and numbing markedly interfere with daily life. With these symptoms, short-term medication is indicated. When the target symptoms of major depression, panic disorder or persistent psychotic symptoms become too intense, long term medication is indicated (Barry Pierce, R cassidy seminars, Santa Rosa CA).

Front 82

Social Psychology
82. A person making a "fundamental attribution error" would:
A overestimate the impact of the situation and underestimate dispositional factors in interpreting the behavior of others.
B overrestimate the impact of the situation and underestimate dispositional factors in interpreting one's own behavior.
C overestimate the impact of the situation and underestimate dispositional factors in interpreting one's own failures and underestimate the impact of the situation and overestimate dispositional factors in interpreting one's own successes.
D underestimate the impact of the situation and overestimate dispositional factors in interpreting the behavior of others.

Back 82

ANSWER "D"
You need to be able to differentiate between the different types of attributional errors. The fundamental attribution error or bias only refers to interpretations of others' behaviors. It occurs when we underestimate situational factors and overestimate dispositional factors in understanding the behavior of others. For example, if we see someone trip and assume it's because they're clumsy. Choice B describes the actor-observer effect. Choice C describes the self-serving bias.

Front 83

Neuropsychology
83. The inability to perform complex, purposeful movements, which cannot be explained by problems related to comprehension, coordination, or strength is referred to as:
A ataxia.
B alexia.
C agnosia.
D apraxia.

Back 83

ANSWER "D"
You may have been able to answer this one by the process of elimination if you're not familiar with apraxia. There are many forms of apraxia including ideomotor, constructional, and dressing apraxia.

Front 84

Ethics and Professional Practice
84. Utilization review, an important component of managed health care, refers to the idea that it is useful to
A review benefits to eliminate or reduce unnecessary health care resources.
B determine the adequacy of health care standards by comparing them to predetermined standards.
C make decisions on patient care by a team of medical experts rather than an individual physician.
D allow a patient to choose from several insurance plans.

Back 84

ANSWER "A"
Utilization review is concerned with conserving health care monies. It does this through having a utilization review committee assess the use of benefits and reduce or eliminate inappropriate or unnecessary use of health care resources. Answer B is a description of the concept of quality assurance and answer C is describing a medical team management approach to individual health care.

Front 85

Social Psychology
85. Which of the following is related to minority influence?
A Ambiguity
B Idiosyncracy credits
C Conformity
D Psychological reactance

Back 85

ANSWER "B"
According to Hollander (1985) in order to successfully challenge the majority opinions of a group, a person must first conform to the group in order to establish credibility as a competent insider. By becoming accepted members of the group, we accumulate idiosyncracy credits which are like brownie points.

Front 86

Industrial/Organizational Psychology
86. In regard to substance use, the Americans with Disabilities Act
A protects alcoholics and drug addicts as "qualified individuals" with a disability.
B prohibits administering a drug test to an individual who is participating in a drug rehabilitation program.
C prohibits drug testing from being administered to a prospective employee after a job offer is made.
D protects individuals participating in a drug rehabilitation program who are no longer using drugs.

Back 86

ANSWER "D"
The Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) does not consider individuals who are "currently engaging in the illegal use of drugs" as suffering from a disability on that basis. In other words, it does not protect current drug users. However, it does protect past substance addicts -- as long as the individual is currently participating in or has completed a supervised rehabilitation program, and the person is not currently using drugs.
In regard to drug testing, the act does not identify any circumstances in which drug testing is prohibited. In fact, even though it protects former substance addicts, the Act permits employers to use "reasonable means" -- including drug tests -- to verify that such persons are no longer using substances.

Front 87

Test Construction
87. Form A is administered to a group of employees in Spring and then again in Fall. Using this method, what type of reliability is measured?
A split-half
B equivalence
C stability
D internal consistency

Back 87

ANSWER "C"
Test-retest reliability, or the coefficient of stability, involves administering the same test to the same group on two occasions and then correlating the scores. Alternative forms reliability, or coefficient of equivalence (response “B”), consists of administering two alternate forms of a test to the same group and then correlating the scores. Internal consistency reliability (response “D”) utilizes a single test administration and involves obtaining correlations among individual test items. Split-half reliability (response “A”) is a method of determining internal consistency reliability.

Front 88

Ethics and Professional Practice
88. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996 applies to:
A all health care providers
B only health care providers who transmit patient information by fax and the internet
C only health care providers who employ someone, such as billing services, with access to patient information
D only health care providers who transmit patient information electronically

Back 88

ANSWER "D"
HIPAA does not apply to all health care providers. It only applies to “cover entities” — health plans, health care clearinghouses and healthcare providers — who transmit health information electronically. A provider who only communicates information by mail, phone, or fax is not a covered entity. Transmitting information electronically refers to use of the internet and includes receiving health information as well as transmitting information. For example, a provider is a covered entity even if she/he never transmits information but receives information, such as a description of benefits e-mail, via the internet. Additionally, a provider employing someone who sends or receives patient information on the provider’s behalf via the internet is also a covered entity.

Front 89

Neuropsychology
89. Following a stroke or head trauma, which of the following memory functions is most likely to be affected?
A iconic memory
B long-term store
C memory for newly learned information
D verbal memory

Back 89

ANSWER "C"
Questions like this can be frustrating because it is really impossible to make blanket generalizations. When the brain is compromised by a medical problem (or by substance use), the nature of impairment always depends on the location in the brain of damage and the extent of damage. However, if memory is impaired, the ability to retain newly learned information is most likely to be affected. Impairment in other types of memory, such as long-term episodic memory or verbal (semantic) memory, usually indicates more severe memory damage in which impairment in learning new information is also present.

Front 90

Industrial/Organizational Psychology
90. According to the Ohio State University studies from the 1950s, what are the two dimensions of leadership?
A consideration and initiating structure
B employee-centered and production-centered
C autocratic and democratic
D authoritarian and laissez-faire

Back 90

ANSWER "A"
Using a style approach, the Ohio State leadership studies identified two behavioral dimensions of leaders: initiating structure and consideration. These dimensions were treated as independent of each other in contrast to previous studies of leader behavior which placed related dimensions along a single continuum of leadership ranging from employee to production-centered (response “B”). In different models of leadership, the dimension of initiating structure is sometimes referred to as task-orientation and concern for production. The dimension of consideration has also been labeled employee orientation, relations-oriented and concern for people. (See: Stogdill, R. M., and Coons, A. E. (Eds.). (1957). Leader behavior: Its description and measurement. Columbus, OH: Bureau of Business Research, Ohio State University.)

Front 91

Clinical Psychology
91. Which of the following statements best describes the role of countertransference in the process of psychoanalytic therapy, according to current psychoanalytic thought?
A When present, countertransference is invariably detrimental to the therapy process.
B Countertransference helps the therapist identify his or her own unresolved issues and become a better clinician as a result.
C Countertransference can help the therapist identify subtle aspects of the transference and better understand the patient's experience.
D Countertransference allows the therapist to show the patient that he or she is human after all.

Back 91

ANSWER "C"
Countertransference refers to the therapist's transference responses to the patient. According to current psychoanalytic thought, a therapist's analysis of his or her own countertransference reactions can help the therapist recognize subtle aspects of the transference relationship and better understand the patient's experience.

Front 92

Neuropsychology
92. A person with agnosia is unable to identify a familiar object by sight but does identify it when it is placed in her hand. This is most likely due to
A a visual impairment.
B visual inattention.
C a deficit in iconic memory.
D visual "not knowing."

Back 92

ANSWER "D"
The type of visual agnosia described in this question is referred to as apperceptive agnosia and involves an inability to recognize familiar objects, especially in low-light conditions, when there are many shadows, when objects overlap, etc.

Front 93

Developmental Psychology
93. Which of the following is an example of assimilation?
A Arranging flowers in a vase
B Changing your clothes to please your spouse
C Calling the daisies and ferns arranged in a vase "posies"
D Putting on a coat in the winter

Back 93

ANSWER "C"
Assimilation is when a child incorporates and interprets new information in terms of his or her existing schema.

Front 94

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy
94. Thinning refers to the process of:
A switching from a fixed interval to a fixed ratio schedule
B switching from a variable interval to a variable ratio schedule
C switching from an intermittent to a continuous schedule
D switching from a continuous to an intermittent schedule

Back 94

ANSWER "D"
D. Continuous schedules, or reinforcing every response, are associated with quick learning, satiation and extinction. The process of thinning, or switching from a continuous to an intermittent schedule, is used to increase the resistance to extinction once a behavior is established.

Front 95

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy
95. Bandura's research looking at the impact of punishing a model for acting aggressively on male and female observers showed that
A when the model is punished, male and female children are more likely to act aggressively than when the model is rewarded.
B when the model is punished, performance (but not learning) of aggressive behaviors is reduced.
C when the model is punished, learning and performance of aggressive behaviors are both reduced.
D when the model is punished, male and female children are less likely to agree that aggressiveness is acceptable.

Back 95

ANSWER "B"
In his work on observational learning, Bandura found evidence for his theory that learning and performance are separate phenomena and that learning can occur without reinforcement. For example, in the study described in this question, children learned aggressive responses by watching an aggressive model (even when the model was punished) and, consequently, were able to imitate the aggressive behavior when told they would be rewarded for doing so. Interestingly, boys (but not girls) who were rewarded for imitating the aggressive model were more likely to do so when the model had been punished than when the model had been rewarded.

Front 96

Neuropsychology
96. Damage to the prefrontal cortex is most likely to cause:
A impaired motor coordination
B impaired memory and attention
C alterations in the sleep/wake cycle
D “psychic blindness”

Back 96

ANSWER "B"
B. The prefrontal cortex is associated with a variety of cognitive functions, including attention and certain aspects of memory. An individual with damage to the prefrontal cortex may exhibit distractibility, impaired working memory, a reduced attention span, and impaired prospective memory. “Psychic blindness” (d.) is associated with Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is caused by damage to certain areas of the temporal lobes.

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Ethics and Professional Practice
97. A college psychology instructor gives a battery of psychological tests to some of his students who volunteered to be participants. Based on these tests, he finds that one of the participants is at risk for emotional disturbance. He talks to this student and suggests counseling. At the same time, he informs the director of the college counseling office who is a friend of his. According to APA ethical principles, the professor acted
A unethically, because he revealed this information to a third party.
B ethically, because he acted in accord with the student's welfare.
C ethically, because he had responsibilities to the college as well as to the student.
D unethically, because he isn't a clinician.

Back 97

ANSWER "A"
Suggesting counseling to the student is ethical and appropriate. However, barring an emergency situation characterized by imminent danger, informing a third party is unethical.

Front 98

Diagnosis and Psychopathology
98. When developing a treatment plan for a client with a Specific Phobia, it is important to keep in mind that
A exposure in vivo and exposure in imagination are about equally effective as long as exposure sessions are sufficiently long in duration.
B the effectiveness of exposure is increased, especially with regard to long-term effects, when it is used in conjunction with cognitive techniques.
C for some Specific Phobias (e.g., dental and animal phobias), two to four sessions are often useful for significantly reducing phobic reactions in many people.
D systematic desensitization has recently been found to be more effective than prolonged exposure treatments, especially in terms of reducing the risk for relapse.

Back 98

ANSWER "C"
Exposure is currently considered the best intervention for most (if not all) Anxiety Disorders. However, the best way of exposing clients to stimuli that elicit anxiety depends on the particular disorder. For Specific Phobia, brief in vivo exposure is effective for many clients, and adding a cognitive component usually does not improve the effects of the intervention substantially.

Front 99

Neuropsychology
99. Medications used for the treatment of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder mostly target:
A dopamine
B GABA
C norepinephrine
D serotonin

Back 99

ANSWER "D"
Knowing that SSRIs are the most prescribed medications for the treatment of OCD should have helped you choose the correct answer. SSRIs target serotonin, which is believed to reduce the symptoms of OCD. Although the mechanism of action is not fully understood, and may differ from the mechanism involved in its antidepressant effects, serotonin is believed to be the primary target.

Front 100

Industrial/Organizational Psychology
100. Which of the following theorists related career development to ego identity development?
A Anna Freud
B Super
C Holland
D Tiedeman and O'Hara

Back 100

ANSWER "D"
Tiedeman and O'Hara based their career development model on Erikson's psychosocial theory of ego identity development. They proposed that a person develops a vocational identity through a process of many differentiations and reintegrations throughout one's lifespan. Differentiation comes from the realization that a particular career does not "fit" with one's personality. Integration involves identification with a career.

Front 101

Diagnosis and Psychopathology
101. With a diagnosis of Schizophrenia, the risk of the same diagnosis for a monozygotic twin is how many times greater than the risk for a dizygotic twin?
A one time
B two and a half times
C four times
D six and a half times

Back 101

ANSWER "B"
This is one of those questions that seems to be a favorite of the EPPP. The risk for an identical (monozygotic) twin to be diagnosed is about 46% and for fraternal (dizygotic) twins it is about 17%. You have to be able to do the basic math here, and realize that 46 is about two and a half times 17, and thus is the "closest" to correct. This question is also a good example of how the exam takes a straightforward finding and muddies the water with it.

Front 102

Industrial/Organizational Psychology
102. Which of the "Big Five" personality traits is most associated with Antisocial Personality Disorder?
A low on neuroticism, low on agreeableness, and low on conscientiousness
B low on neuroticism, low on openness, low on extroversion
C high on neuroticism, low on agreeableness, and low on conscientiousness
D high on neuroticism, low on openness, low on agreeableness

Back 102

ANSWER "C"
The Big Five personality traits: Openness, Conscientiousness, Extroversion, Agreeableness, and Neuroticism ("OCEAN") have been matched with several of the personality disorders. Antisocial Personality Disorder was found to be associated with low scores in Agreeableness and Conscientiousness and generally higher scores in Neuroticism and Extroversion. Note that "neuroticism" is sometimes referred to as its opposite: "emotional stability".

Front 103

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy
103. From the perspective of Bandura's social learning theory, "functional value" refers to:
A external reinforcements.
B anticipated consequences.
C self-efficacy beliefs.
D relationship to previous learning.

Back 103

ANSWER "B"
Functional value is pretty much what it sounds like. According to Bandura, a behavior has functional value when the person anticipates that performing it will result in desirable consequences (i.e., when the behavior serves a function).

Front 104

Clinical Psychology
104. Meta-analysis was first used in psychological research by:
A Binet
B Smith and Glass
C Eysenck
D Horn and Cattell

Back 104

ANSWER "B"
Gene Glass coined the term "meta-analysis" in 1976 and Smith and Glass first used the technique in their psychotherapy outcome studies in 1977. A prior version of the technique was actually developed by Karl Pearson in 1904 (who is better known for his correlation coefficient); however, it was Smith & Glass' classic study which modified and popularized the technique. The benefit of meta-analysis is that it allows researchers to statistically compare the results of several independent studies to yield a single effect size indicating the magnitude of an independent variable's effect.

Front 105

Diagnosis and Psychopathology
105. Which of the following statements regarding the results of research into the correlates of smoking is not true?
A The majority of people who quit smoking gain weight, with typical weight gain being between 20-25 pounds.
B Fear of weight gain often inhibits people from attempting to quit smoking, and signs of weight gain often trigger relapse in quitters.
C Depression is found at a higher rate among smokers than among non-smokers.
D Cessation of smoking can trigger depressive episodes in smokers with a history of Major Depression.

Back 105

ANSWER "A"
Though 80% of quitters gain weight, the average weight gain is only between 7-9 pounds. The other choices are true statements.

Front 106

Industrial/Organizational Psychology
106. You are an organizational process consultant hired by a hospital. Several nurses tell you they feel they're being overworked and underpaid. In this case, your most likely intervention would be to
A explain the nurses' concerns to the hospital administrators.
B conduct a job analysis to determine how much the nurses deserve to be paid and present your results to the hospital administrators.
C act with the best interests of the hospital's patients in mind.
D help the nurses organize regular meetings with the physicians and administrators to discuss their concerns.

Back 106

ANSWER "D"
A process consultant, rather than merely correcting problems for his or her client, focuses on an organization's underlying processes, with the goal of making changes in processes so that individuals within the organization can solve their own problems. Thus, choice D is the best answer, as it is the only one which offers a way in which the nurses and administrators can work together to solve the problem of dissatisfaction with work conditions. By comparison, choices A and B would have the consultant diagnose and "fix" the problem; these interventions would be consistent with the medical rather than the process model of consultation.

Front 107

Ethics and Professional Practice
107. A psychologist is undertaking a research program in an elementary school on the effect of a new counseling program on enhancing children's self-esteem. The psychologist has received permission from the school's principal, the teachers, and from the parents of each student. However, when she explained the program to the children, some of them objected to being part of the study. The psychologist should
A not use these children in her study.
B call the parents of these children and ask them to try to convince the children to participate.
C use the children in her study because she has all necessary legal consents.
D re-design the study to eliminate the objection the children have to participating.

Back 107

ANSWER "A"
The best idea is to just leave out these children. Participants have the right to decline to participate in research, even if they are children. It wouldn't be practical or prudent to ask her to re-design the whole experiment because a handful of children object to being participants. Thus, the best answer is to just do the study without using the children who object to participating.

Front 108

Ethics and Professional Practice
108. You have a client who does not want their records released under any circumstances. The attorney has subpoened you. Your best course of action is to:
A Respond in-person, but don't take the records
B Take the records, but don't turn them over
C Ignore the entire matter
D Destroy the records

Back 108

ANSWER "B"
You should respond to the subpoena by asserting the psychotherapist-client privilege on the client's behalf. If you cannot be released from the subpoena, you should appear at the legal proceeding with the documents requested, however, you should not actually release any information in the records, unless the judge orders you to do so. Keep in mind that a subpoena duces tecum requires a person to appear at a designated time and place with a copy of the records. It does not necessarily require the person to release those records.

Front 109

Diagnosis and Psychopathology
109. Which of the following statements is true regarding the incidence of Major Depressive Disorder?
A The rate for prepubescent girls is twice that of prepubescent boys
B The rate for adolescent females is half that of adult females
C The rate for adolescent and adult females is half that of adolescent and adult males
D The rate for adolescent and adult females is twice that of adolescent and adult males

Back 109

ANSWER "D"
According to the DSM-IV-TR, Major Depressive Disorder occurs at twice the rate for adolescent and adult females as compared to adolescent and adult males. The rates for prepubertal boys and girls are equal.

Front 110

Research Design and Statistics
110. In a positively skewed distribution, one would most likely find, ranked from lowest to highest in value, the:
A median, mean, mode.
B median, mode, mean.
C mean, mode, median.
D mode, median, mean.

Back 110

ANSWER "D"
You have to picture the positively skewed curve in order to get this correct. Positive skewness means there are some outliers (extreme scores) way over on the positive side. That's where the tail is, way off to the right, or positive, end. Since the mean takes into account the magnitude of the scores, these outliers can be pictured as "pulling" the mean to the positive side, or the right. So, in any ordering of measures of central tendency, the mean would be the highest value. Thus, you can eliminate the two distractors that don't list the mean as the highest value. To distinguish between the remaining answers, let's go back to consider what the median is. The median is the middlemost point irrespective of value. If you've pictured the curve correctly you can see that more than half the cases fall on the right side because some are way over on the positive side. If you put a line where the highest point is on the curve, which is the mode, you'd see that more than half the cases fall to the right of that line. Hence the median, the 50% point, is to the right of the high point, the mode. This should have gotten you to the correct answer.

Front 111

Developmental Psychology
111. Signs of the personality characteristic of social inhibition are usually present
A at birth.
B by the age of four months.
C by the age of nine months.
D by the time the child attends school for the first time.

Back 111

ANSWER "B"
About ten percent of all children are socially inhibited. Typically, these children cling to their parents, are socially timid, and are scared of the unfamiliar. Reliable predictors of social inhibition have been detected in early infancy -- as early as the ages of 2-4 months. For instance, infants who display high levels of negative affect and motor activity in response to novel stimuli tend to display social inhibition later on in life. These and other findings suggest that inhibition and other personality characteristics related to basic temperament are stable and have a strong genetic basis.

Front 112

Test Construction
112. Which statement is most true about validity?
A Validity is never higher than the reliability coefficient.
B Validity is never higher than the square of the reliability coefficient.
C Validity is never higher than the square root of the reliability coefficient.
D Validity is never higher than 1 minus the reliability coefficient.

Back 112

ANSWER "C"
A test's reliability sets an upper limit on its criterion-related validity. Specifically, a test's validity coefficient can never be higher than the square root of its reliability coefficient. In practice, a validity coefficient will never be that high, but, theoretically, that's the upper limit.

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School Psychology/Intelligence
113. Using the deviation IQ is preferred to using the ratio IQ because the deviation IQ:
A can be ascertained more easily by simply referring to the IQ tables.
B is a more reliable measure of performance for the lower and upper ranges than was the ratio IQ.
C is comparable across all ages because the standard deviations are the same for all ages.
D all of the above.

Back 113

ANSWER "C"
The ratio IQ was a simple formula used when mental tests were first developed. It was a way of determining how the child's mental age differed from his or her chronological age. A problem with the ratio IQ is that IQ scores are not comparable across age groups. For this reason, the deviation IQ was developed. Here the IQs are related to the average score for each age group and the derived IQ is presented in terms of how far the score deviates from that average. In this way, the scores can be more easily compared across ages.

Front 114

Diagnosis and Psychopathology
114. Reactive Attachment Disorder, Inhibited Type involves
A indiscriminate attachments.
B hypervigilance.
C over-attachment to a primary caretaker and fear of others.
D symptoms of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder in children.

Back 114

ANSWER "B"
Reactive Attachment Disorder occurs in children below the age of 5 and is characterized by disturbed social relatedness. There are two subtypes: inhibited and disinhibited type. This question is about the former, which involves inhibition, hypervigilance, and ambivalent responses in social situations. The other subtype, disinhibited type, involves indiscriminate attachments and sociability (e.g., familiarity with strangers, lack of selectivity in choice of attachment figures). In both subtypes, evidence of pathogenic care (e.g., disregard for the child's basic physical or emotional needs) must be present before the diagnosis can be made.

Front 115

Test Construction
115. An athlete is requested to take a drug screening test used to identify individuals with performance enhancing substances in their systems. Despite the player’s actual usage of steroids, the test fails to identify the substances. In the context of decision-making theory, this individual is a:
A false positive
B false negative
C true positive
D true negative

Back 115

ANSWER "B"
B. Based on performance on the predictor and the criterion, individuals may be classified as false positives, true positives, false negatives, or true negatives. False negatives, like the athlete, are not identified as having used substances when, in fact, they have. Conversely, false positives (a.) are identified by the drug screening test as having used or having substances present, when they have not. True positives are individuals identified by the screening test as having substances present and they do. True negatives are individuals not identified by the screening test to have substances present and do not.

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Ethics and Professional Practice
116. A 16-year-old girl tells her therapist that she wants to kill herself and that she's been thinking of using her mother's prescription pain pills to overdose. The therapist then tells her that he will have to tell her parents about her suicide risk. The girl becomes enraged and says that she would not have disclosed the information if she knew that the therapist would tell her parents. The therapist should:
A agree not to tell the parents if the girl agrees to a no-harm contract
B agree not to tell the parents, but tell them without the girl's knowledge
C tell the parents and refer the girl to another therapist because she will probably not be able to trust the therapist again
D tell the parents and apologize to the girl for having to do so

Back 116

ANSWER "D"
According to both ethics and law, a psychologist may disclose confidential information without the client's consent to protect the client from harm. This applies to minors and adults alike. In this case, it would most likely be appropriate to inform the girl's parents about her suicide risk. The reasons for this should be explained to the girl and the therapist should apologize for the breach of confidentiality. Given the apparent level of risk involved, it would probably not be sufficient to rely on a no-harm contract (A). It would certainly be inappropriate and countertherapeutic to lie to the client (B). And it may not be necessary to refer the client (C). If handled empathically, it is likely that the girl will come to understand the therapist's reasons for disclosing to the parents and may come to appreciate that her safety was his overriding concern.

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Clinical Psychology
117. A minority group member who is a client of yours expresses very strong negative feelings towards her own culture in a therapy session. This client is most likely in which stage of the Minority Identity Development model developed by Atkinson, Morten, and Sue?
A resistance
B dissonance
C conformity
D denial

Back 117

ANSWER "C"
The authors mentioned in the question have developed a model of cultural identity development in minority group members, called the Minority Identity Development (MID) model. The model's five stages are conformity, dissonance, resistance and immersion, introspection, and synergetic articulation and awareness. Individuals in the conformity stage prefer the dominant culture's values to those of their own culture. They are likely to have feelings of racial self-hatred, negative beliefs about their own culture, and positive feelings toward the dominant culture.

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School Psychology/Intelligence
118. According to current research, the most predictive variable for adult IQ scores among infant responses would be
A scores on the Bayley Scale of Infant Development.
B scores on the Gesell Development Schedule.
C attention to a visual recognition task.
D auditory orientation.

Back 118

ANSWER "C"
While standard developmental scales don't predict later IQ score, a baby's responses to a visual attention task do. How much time it takes the baby to assimilate a novel stimulus is moderately predictive of later IQ score since, it is hypothesized, the mental functioning involved is similar.

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Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy
119. Overcorrection typically involves:
A restitution, guided movement, and positive practice.
B restitution, positive practice, and negative reinforcement.
C positive practice, cognitive reattribution, and community reintegration.
D restitution, negative reinforcement, and cognitive reattribution.

Back 119

ANSWER "A"
Overcorrection is a behavioral technique designed to eliminate undesirable behaviors and promote alternative ones. In overcorrection, the person is required first to correct the consequences of a negative behavior (e.g., clean up the shards of a vase he broke); this is called restitution. Then, the person must repeatedly practice alternative behaviors; this is referred to as positive practice. In many cases, the person is physically guided through the restitution and/or positive practice phases.

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Social Psychology
120. The tendency of sports teams to win more often when they are playing on their home court is referred to as the “home advantage.” This phenomenon is best explained by:
A home court familiarity
B expectations of the players
C social support from fans
D demoralization of the visiting team

Back 120

ANSWER "C"
C. The home advantage in team sports has generated various ////s; however, it most consistently has been linked to a supportive home audience. (See: B. Schwartz and S. F. Barsky, The home advantage, Social Forces, 1977, 55, 641-661; and K. S. Courneya and A. V. Carron, The home advantage in sports competitions: A literature review, Journal of Sport & Exercise Psychology, 1992, 14, 13-27.)

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Developmental Psychology
121. Prenatal alcohol exposure is most likely to adversely affect the fetus during the:
A first trimester
B second trimester
C third trimester
D the first or third trimester

Back 121

ANSWER "A"
Drinking alcohol anytime during pregnancy can have adverse effects on the fetus. However, alcohol consumption during the first trimester is more likely to cause structural and anatomical defects, characteristic of fetal alcohol syndrome. Consumption during the second and third trimesters is more likely to result in growth restriction and functional impairment. (Health Canada, population and public health branch, Canadian perinatal surveillance system: Alcohol and pregnancy, 1998, retrieved from http://www.hc-sc.gc.ca/hpb/lcdc/brch/factshts/alcprg_e.html).

Front 122

Community Psychology
122. What is the most stressful thing abut staying in a hospital for a child?
A Fear of death
B The hospital environment itself
C Separation from their parents
D The hospital food

Back 122

ANSWER "C"
The most stressful thing about staying in a hospital for a child is separation from parents. Many hospitals are beginning to institute "sleeping rooms" for parents to spend the night in.

Front 123

Developmental Psychology
123. What is the least helpful suggestion you can give to parents when they are going through a divorce or marital conflict?
A avoid exposing the children to any conflicts
B allow the children to participate in decisions regarding visitation rights
C in the long run, it is better for the children if you divorce than if you remain in an unhappy marriage
D remarry as soon as possible

Back 123

ANSWER "D"
Research has identified a number of factors associated with poorer adjustment in children whose parents divorce. For instance, rapid remarriage of one or both parents is predictive of poorer adjustment. The other suggestions are likely to be helpful (or at worst, benign): exposure to parental conflict, parental continuance of an unhappy marriage, and failure to allow children to establish a relationship with the noncustodial parent are all factors associated with poorer long-term adjustment in children of divorce.

Front 124

Developmental Psychology
124. In terms of divorce, the "sleeper effect" refers to:
A the gradual improvement of children (especially males) who initially displayed a high degree of maladjustment after the divorce.
B the persistence of symptoms in males who exhibited a high degree of maladjustment at the time of the divorce ten years earlier.
C the appearance of symptoms in females who seemed to be doing well at the time of the divorce ten years earlier.
D the appearance of symptoms in husbands and wives who seemed to be doing well at the time of the divorce ten years earlier.

Back 124

ANSWER "C"
The term "sleeper effect" has been used by Wallerstein and others to describe the finding that some children (especially girls) who seemed well-adjusted immediately after the divorce of their parents show significant problems in adolescence and early adulthood. Note that not all research has found evidence of this sleeper effect.

Front 125

Diagnosis and Psychopathology
125. The most effective treatment for Generalized Anxiety Disorder is:
A systematic desensitization
B flooding
C cognitive-behavioral therapy
D benzodiazepines

Back 125

ANSWER "C"
Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) has been found to be the most effective treatment for Generalized Anxiety Disorder, probably because it combines a number of behavioral and cognitive interventions.

Front 126

Diagnosis and Psychopathology
126. Which of the following techniques will exacerbate of chronic pain rather than reduce it?
A Religious coping
B Cognitive therapy
C Active coping
D Passive coping

Back 126

ANSWER "D"
D. Passive pain-coping strategies, a category described in Brown and Nicassio’s (1987) dichotomy of active versus passive coping strategies, are associated with worse pain and adjustment among chronic pain patients. Passive coping strategies are those that involve giving responsibility for pain management to an outside source or allowing other areas of life to be adversely affected by pain. They may also serve as psychological enforcers of pain. Examples of passive coping strategies are focusing on where the pain is and how much it hurts, restricting or cancelling social activities, or thoughts such as “ There’s nothing I can do to lessen this pain,” or “I wish my doctor would prescribe me better pain medication.” In contrast, active coping strategies entail the patient taking responsibility for pain management including attempts to control the pain or to function in spite of it. Examples of active coping strategies include engaging in physical therapy or exercise, staying busy/active, relaxation techniques, clearing distracting thoughts and attention from the pain. Cognitive (b.) and cognitive behavior therapy has been shown to be effective in reducing the experience of pain and improving positive behavior expression, appraisal and coping in individuals with chronic pain. (See: Morley S, Eccleston C, Williams A. (1999) Systematic review and meta-analysis of randomised controlled trials of cognitive behaviour therapy and behaviour therapy for chronic pain in adults, excluding headache. Pain, 80, 1-13.) Evidence supports a relationship between positive health outcomes and the use of religious coping to manage pain. Pargament (1990) identified three possible interactions between religion and coping: religion can influence the parts of the coping process (appraisal, coping activities, results, assistance, and motivation); contribute to the coping process by influencing perception (attribution of meaning and the feeling of control) and preventing certain events from happening (through a beneficiary life style); and it can be the resultant of the coping process through religious attributes. (See: Pargament, K.I. (1997) The psychology of religion and coping, Guilford, New York.)

Front 127

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy
127. Which of these pairs is most similar?
A posttraumatic amnesia and retroactive inhibition.
B retrograde amnesia and proactive inhibition.
C anterograde amnesia and proactive inhibition.
D anterograde amnesia and retroactive inhibition.

Back 127

ANSWER "C"
To answer this you need to know two concepts in forgetting: one related to neuropsychological functioning, and the other related to cognitive psychology. If amnesia starts from a time of trauma and extends forward into new experiences (e.g., the person can't remember anything occurring after a head trauma), it's anterograde. If the amnesia extends backwards into experiences before the trauma, it's retrograde. So keep this in mind: anterograde for new experiences, retrograde for past experiences. Now let's move to cognitive psychology and compare memory inhibitory processes. Retroactive inhibition occurs when new learning interferes with previous learning. Proactive inhibition occurs when previous learning interferes with new learning. Now, if we make a comparison between the two sets of terms, we will combine proactive inhibition with anterograde amnesia. This is because, in proactive inhibition, the forgetting is for information occurring after a particular event, and in anterograde amnesia, the person cannot retain any information that occurs after a trauma. Retroactive inhibition and retrograde amnesia are analogous for similar reasons, except that the word "before" rather than "after" applies.

Front 128

Test Construction
128. Which statement is most correct?
A High reliability assumes high validity.
B High validity assumes high reliability.
C Low validity assumes low reliability.
d Low reliability assumes low validity.

Back 128

ANSWER "B"
This question is difficult because the language of the response choices is convoluted and imprecise. We don't write questions like this because we're sadistic; it's just that you'll sometimes see this type of language on the exam as well, and we want to prepare you. What you need to do on questions like this is bring to mind what you know about the issue being asked about, and to choose the answer that best applies. Here, you should bring to mind what you know about the relationship between reliability and validity: For a test to have high validity, it must be reliable; however, for a test to have high reliability, it does not necessarily have to be valid. With this in mind, you should see that "high validity assumes high reliability" is the best answer. This means that a precondition of high validity is high reliability. The second best choice states that low reliability assumes low validity. This is a true statement if you interpret the word "assume" to mean "implies" or "predicts." But if you interpret the word "assume" to mean "depends on" or "is preconditioned by," the statement is not correct. So B is the best answer.

Front 129

Clinical Psychology
129. From the perspective of Beck's cognitive therapy, suicidal individuals are characterized by a high degree of hopelessness coupled with:
A maladaptive interpretations.
B poor problem-solving skills.
C the "cognitive triad."
D impulsivity.

Back 129

ANSWER "B"
This is a difficult question if you are not familiar with Beck's work on suicide. Maladaptive interpretations and beliefs are, of course, an important focus in Cognitive Therapy regardless of the client's problem. However, since this question is asking specifically about suicide, you'd want to choose the response that fits that problem. According to Beck, suicide risk is heightened by a combination of hopelessness and poor problem-solving skills.

Front 130

Developmental Psychology
130. An adolescent is unhappy with her recent haircut and feels that everyone is looking at her and laughing about her "bad hair." This is an example of
A a social trap.
B social referencing.
C personal fable.
D imaginary audience.

Back 130

ANSWER "D"
Elkind identified two aspects of the adolescent's renewed egocentrism. The imaginary audience is the belief that one is always "on stage"; the personal fable is the belief that one is unique and invulnerable.

Front 131

Community Psychology
131. Which of the following statements best reflects the research findings on suicide risk among adolescents?
A Males from dual-parent families have a higher suicide rate than males from single-parent families
B Females from dual-parent families have a higher suicide rate than females from single-parent families
C Males and females from single-parent families have a higher suicide rate than those from dual-parent families
D There is no significant relationship between adolescent suicide rates and family configuration

Back 131

ANSWER "C"
Several studies have found that the risk for suicide and suicide attempts is higher among both male and female adolescents in single-parent homes as compared to dual-parent homes.

Front 132

Diagnosis and Psychopathology
132. The differential diagnosis between Schizoid Personality Disorder and Avoidant Personality Disorder is based on
A degree of isolation.
B odd behaviors.
C self-centeredness.
D fear of rejection.

Back 132

ANSWER "D"
Schizoid Personality Disorder is characterized by a pattern of indifference to social relations and a limited range of emotional expression in social situations. Avoidant Personality Disorder is characterized by social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation. Individuals with both these disorder are likely to avoid social relationships. However, those with Avoidant Personality Disorder do so due to timidity and fear of criticism, disapproval, or rejection. Individuals with Schizoid Personality Disorder, by contrast, do so out of indifference to social relationships and a preference for solitary activities.

Front 133

Diagnosis and Psychopathology
133. During the sixth month of group therapy, two co-leaders have a disagreement in session about how to run the group. According to Yalom, they should
A allow the senior therapist to take control of the group.
B divide the group into two sub-groups, each led by one of the co-leaders.
C resolve the conflict in front of the group.
D agree to discuss the conflict later, outside the presence of the group.

Back 133

ANSWER "C"
Yalom believes that co-leaders should not express conflict in front of the group during the early stages of therapy. However, in his book The Theory and Practice of Group Psychotherapy, he notes that mature resolution of conflict in the later stages can serve as a healthy model for the group members.

Front 134

Test Construction
134. Differential prediction is one of the causes of test unfairness and occurs when:
A members of one group obtain lower scores on a selection test than members of another group, but the difference in scores is not reflected in their scores on measures of job performance
B a rater’s knowledge of ratees’ performance on the predictor biases his/her ratings of ratees’ performance on the criterion
C a predictor’s validity coefficient differs for different groups
D a test has differential validity

Back 134

ANSWER "A"
A. As described in the Federal Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection, differential prediction is a potential cause of test unfairness. Differential prediction occurs when the use of scores on a selection test systematically over- or under-predict the job performance of members of one group as compared to members of another group. Criterion contamination occurs when a rater’s knowledge of ratees’ performance on the predictor biases his/her ratings of ratees’ performance on the criterion (b.). Differential validity, also a possible cause of adverse impact, occurs when a predictor’s validity coefficient differs for different groups (c.). When a test has differential validity (d.), there is a slope bias. Slope bias refers to differences in the slope of the regression line.

Front 135

Clinical Psychology
135. A therapist working from the perspective of Beck's cognitive therapy would approach the treatment of Panic Disorder by
A having the client identify maladaptive thoughts that precede panic attacks and then restructuring those thoughts.
B connecting the panic attacks to the client's overall attributional styles.
C teaching the client methods of self-reinforcement to use when he or she is not having a panic attack and methods of self-punishment to use when he or she is having one.
D identifying and modifying the client's interpretation of panic attacks and their associated physical symptoms.

Back 135

ANSWER "D"
Cognitive therapists believe that Panic Disorder is connected to "catastrophic misinterpretations" of bodily sensations, symptoms, and mentation. The client's "overcastrophization" of early signs of the attack such as hyperventilation results in a full-blown attack. Thus, at least initially, therapy focuses on identifying and modifying the client's misinterpretations of symptoms and thoughts immediately before and during the attack.

Front 136

Clinical Psychology
136. It is estimated that 60 percent of children with Tourette’s syndrome also have AD/HD. In treating Tourette’s and other Tic Disorders, which of the following medications requires the greatest caution when used for treatment?
A pimozide
B fluoxetine
C clonidine
D methylphenidate

Back 136

ANSWER "D"
D. Tourette’s syndrome is a chronic tic disorder that involves vocal and motor tics. Recent estimates indicate 60 percent of children with Tourette’s have AD/HD, and approximately 7 percent of children with AD/HD have tics or Tourette’s syndrome. The symptoms are often mild, and a significant social impact only occurs in rare severe cases. According to recent research, psychostimulant medication is not related to the development of Tourette’s syndrome in children with AD/HD. However, when there is a family history of tics or Tourette’s syndrome, a cautious treatment approach is recommended as some individuals will experience worsening of their tics with stimulant treatment.

Front 137

Diagnosis and Psychopathology
137. An elderly male displays paranoid ideations. Dementia and psychosis have been ruled out. The best intervention in this case would likely be to
A refer him to a psychiatrist for phenothiazines.
B challenge his dysfunctional thought disturbances.
C alter his environment to make it seem less threatening.
D explore his early experiences to determine the roots of the problem.

Back 137

ANSWER "C"
Questions like this are certainly frustrating, since in real life you would conduct a comprehensive assessment of the person before planning interventions. For the exam, however, you must do your best with the information you have at hand.
Paranoid ideations in elderly clients are often wholly or partially due to what is happening around them. For instance, elderly people often live in high crime areas, are victimized by unscrupulous businessmen, and are plotted against in various ways by family members. If the person is mildly memory impaired, depressed, and/or hearing impaired, these events can seem even more threatening and the ideations can intensify. Thus, of the choices listed, the best option would be to alter the environment to make it seem less threatening.

Front 138

Developmental Psychology
138. Rutter (1985) believes that there are six family risk factors that are particularly accurate predictors of child psychopathology. They include all of the following except:
A low socioeconomic status.
B paternal psychopathology.
C severe marital discord.
D large family size.

Back 138

ANSWER "B"
For answer B to be correct, the answer should be maternal psychopathology. Rutter listed low socioeconomic status, severe marital discord, large family size, parental criminality, and placement of children outside the home, to be predictors of child psychopathology.

Front 139

Clinical Psychology
139. According to Nancy Chodorow (1978) roles in society will change only when we have a system of parenting in which men and women are equally responsible for child rearing. Chodorow feels:
A The present system doesn't reflect the gendered division of labor
B The present system teaches girls to remain attached to their mothers
C The present system teaches boys to remain attached to their mothers
D The present system cannot be explained through object relations theory

Back 139

ANSWER "B"
Chodorow uses the principles of object relations theory (thus D is incorrect) to show that girls are taught to stay attached to their same sex mother while boys are taught to differentiate (opposite of answer C) from their mothers. Chodorow argues that the present system represents a gendered division of labor and that changes in gender relations will only occur when men and women are equally responsible for child rearing.

Front 140

Neuropsychology
140. Huntington's Disease is most associated with decreased amounts of:
A dopamine
B epinephrine
C GABA
D norepinephrine

Back 140

ANSWER "C"
Huntington's Disease is believed to begin when cells within the striatum (caudate and putamen) of the basal ganglia begin to be destroyed. The striatum is responsible for producing GABA, which regulates the levels of dopamine in the brain through an inhibitory process. The death of the striatum cells causes decreased amounts of GABA which leads to an overproduction of dopamine and results in chorea (uncontrollable and irregular muscle movements, especially of the arms, legs, and face).

Front 141

Clinical Psychology
141. According to the APA’s Guidelines for Psychological Practice with Older Adults, which of the following statements regarding psychotherapy effectiveness is most accurate?
A older adults do not respond as well as younger adults
B older adults respond better than younger adults
C older adults respond similarly to younger adults, although older adults tend to respond quicker
D older adults respond similarly to younger adults, although older adults tend to respond slower

Back 141

ANSWER "D"
D. The American Psychological Association, in its Guidelines for Psychological Practice with Older Adults [American Psychologist, 2004, 59(4), 236-260] concluded that older adults may respond more slowly to various forms of psychotherapy but there are few significant differences in effectiveness relative to younger adults. Additionally, tailoring an intervention to the specific needs of an older client may increase its effectiveness. (See: M. Gatz, et al., Empirically validated psychological treatments for older adults, Journal of Mental Health and Aging, 1999, 4(1), 9-46.)

Front 142

Neuropsychology
142. Of the following, which would be the most important factor to keep in mind when deciding whether to prescribe tricyclic anti-depressants to a patient?
A the patient's suicide risk.
B the patient's history of treatment success or failure with tricyclics.
C whether or not the patient's symptoms are atypical.
D whether or not the patient's symptoms are primarily vegetative.

Back 142

ANSWER "A"
All of these factors would be important to consider in deciding whether to prescribe tricyclics to a patient. However, safety considerations generally supercede all others; thus, choice "A" is the best answer. The risk of suicide in depressed patients must always be considered by physicians when writing prescriptions -- particularly for potentially dangerous drugs such as tricyclics.

Front 143

Neuropsychology
143. Complex Partial Seizure Disorder, formerly known as Temporal Lobe Epilepsy, is known to originate in the temporal lobe. However, absence seizures, formerly known as petit mal seizures, are believed to originate in the:
A cerebelum
B thalamus
C occipital lobe
D parietal lobe

Back 143

ANSWER "B"
Absence or Petit Mal Seizures are very brief (30 seconds or less) and are characterized by minimal motor activity and a lack of awareness. Absence seizures usually begin in childhood and most outgrow the condition by adulthood. Researchers believe that absence seizures originate in the thalamus (the central relay station for sensory information going to the cortex).

Front 144

Neuropsychology
144. Following a stroke involving the MCA (middle cerebral artery), an elderly man experiences weakness and loss of sensation in his left arm and leg. In addition, he exhibits
A left visual field loss.
B Wernicke's aphasia.
C left-right disorientation.
D finger agnosia.

Back 144

ANSWER "A"
Because this man's symptoms involve the left side of his body, this indicates that the stroke affected the right side of his brain. Depending on the location of the brain damage, the man may also be experiencing left visual field loss, anosognosia (denial of deficits), and left-sided neglect. The symptoms listed in answers B, C, and D are caused by damage to the left side of the brain.

Front 145

Clinical Psychology
145. According to Bowen, to reduce tension between them, family members often resort to:
A scapegoating.
B retribalization.
C triangulation.
D emotional divorce.

Back 145

ANSWER "C"
Of the terms listed in the responses, only two are associated with Bowen (triangulation and emotional divorce). Bowen described triangles as a means of reducing tension and conflict between two family members who refocus their attention on the triangulated member.

Front 146

Diagnosis and Psychopathology
146. The findings of the National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) research project regarding the relative effectiveness of cognitive-behavioral therapy and antidepressant medication in the treatment of depression indicate that
A both treatments are about equally effective.
B cognitive/behavioral therapy is more effective in the short-term, while medication is more effective in the long-term.
C cognitive-behavioral therapy has an immediate effect, while medication has a delayed effect.
D cognitive-behavioral therapy is more effective.

Back 146

ANSWER "A"
The findings of the NIMH research project were that, on an overall level, cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) and antidepressant medication are about equally effective in the treatment of depression. There was some evidence that the treatments differed in the types of depression for which they are most effective. Specifically, some evidence suggested that CBT is more effective for milder forms of depression, while medication is more effective for relatively severe forms. But in terms of overall effectiveness, both treatments were found to be about equal.

Front 147

Industrial/Organizational Psychology
147. At the beginning of the work day, an employer tells Salesperson A to "do the best he can" but Salesperson B to make at least 20 sales in order to break his previous record. At the end of the eight-hour shift, Salesperson A has made 15 sales and Salesperson B has made 22 sales. This outcome is predicted by
A goal-setting theory
B need for achievement theory
C two-factor theory
D path-goal theory

Back 147

ANSWER "A"
In this situation, Salesperson A has been given an ambiguous goal, while Salesperson B has been given a specific and, presumably, difficult goal. Goal-setting theory predicts that the latter results in the greatest effort and performance.

Front 148

Neuropsychology
148. Research investigating the brain areas that may be linked to the symptoms of ADHD suggests that degree of impulsivity is associated with the
A size of the caudate nucleus.
B extent of neural abnormalities in the thalamus.
C extent of structural abnormality of the corpus callosum.
D size of the RAS.

Back 148

ANSWER "A"
The size of the caudate nucleus (especially in the right hemisphere) has been linked to impulsivity in children with ADHD – the smaller the caudate, the greater the impulsivity. (Abnormalities in the corpus callosum are also found at higher-than-normal rates in children with ADHD, but they have not been consistently linked to impulsivity.)

Front 149

Test Construction
149. Kuder-Richardson reliability applies to
A split-half reliability.
B test-retest stability.
C Likert scales.
D tests with dichotomously scored questions.

Back 149

ANSWER "D"
The Kuder-Richardson formula is one of several statistical indices of a test's internal consistency reliability. It is used to assess the inter-item consistency of tests that are dichotomously scored (e.g., scored as right or wrong).

Front 150

Social Psychology
150. An actress portrays a philanthropist in a TV series. In each show, she performs an act of kindness toward a downtrodden individual or group. The actress receives a great deal of mail from fans who tell her what a fantastic person she is because she is so willing to share her time and wealth with others who are in need. The response of the actress's fans illustrates which of the following.
A the ultimate attribution error
B the fundamental attribution bias
C the self-serving bias
D the selectivity bias

Back 150

ANSWER "B"
The fundamental attribution bias (error) refers to the tendency of people to overestimate the contribution of dispositional factors to an actor's behavior. In the situation described in the question, the actress's fans attribute her good deeds to her rather than to the role she plays in the TV series.

Front 151

Developmental Psychology
151. Children’s memory for early events:
A cannot be recalled by most after age 3
B is limited and constant
C changes after age 2
D changes as it develops over time

Back 151

ANSWER "D"
D. Recent research has found that babies memories are not lost, rather they are updated continually as learning progresses. Their ability to recall is influenced by the same factors and conditions that impact recall in older children and adults. These include: the nature of the events; the number of times they experience them; and the availability of cues or reminders. Children from ages one to three are all capable of both immediate and long-term recall of specific events in their lives. Infants tested at two, four, and six months can recall details about hidden objects, their location, and size. The failure in retrieving memories from the first years of life (a.) refers to the phenomenon of infantile amnesia. Infantile amnesia has been theorized to be the result of a lack of schematic organization of experience, a different in way of encoding in early childhood, and, more recently, the importance of language development. Studies on memory and language development suggest that memories are made initially as the result of the child talking about them with someone else. As the ability to reason develops, the memory securing conversations are carried out within the child him/herself (See: Bauer, P. J. (1996). What do infants recall of their lives? Memory for specific events by one- to two-year-olds, American Psychologist, 51 (1), 29-41. and Meltzoff, A. N. (1995). What infant memory tells us about infantile amnesia: Long-term recall and deferred imitation. Journal of Experimental Child Psychology, 59, 497-515.)

Front 152

Ethics and Professional Practice
152. Which of the following best describes the ethical requirements of a licensed clinical psychologist who tests positive for HIV?
A inform clients of his/her medical condition “as early as is feasible”
B obtain supervision to ensure that the medical condition does not interfere with the performance of work-related duties
C refrain from initiating any professional activities that might be adversely affected by the medical condition
D there is no obligation to take precautions or special actions in this situation

Back 152

ANSWER "C"
C. Being diagnosed with HIV, when considering the ethical obligations of a psychologist, would be considered a health-related personal issue. Personal problems, including emotional, social, health-related and other personal issues, are addressed in Standard 2.06: Psychologists “refrain from initiating an activity when they know or should know there is a substantial likelihood that their personal problems will prevent them from performing their work-related activities in a competent manner.” If a psychologist thinks the condition may impair his/her ability to provide effective services or perform work-related duties then the psychologist would “take appropriate measures.” However, there is no evidence that this is the case, so (b.) is not the best answer. Informing clients of the condition (a.) is not necessary and may not be in the best interests of some of the clients to do so.

Front 153

Neuropsychology
153. Tumors, head injuries, viral infection, vascular or other neurological disorders that damage the medial temporal region of the brain affect:
A retrograde and anterograde memory
B retrograde memory and general intellectual abilities
C anterograde memory and general intellectual abilities
D retrograde and anterograde memory and general intellectual abilities

Back 153

ANSWER "A"
A. Neurological disorders that damage the medial temporal region can cause organic amnesia. In organic amnesia, anterograde amnesia (an impaired ability to form new permanent memories) is often the outstanding cognitive impairment, though retrograde amnesia (impairment of memory for events that occurred before the onset of amnesia) can also occur. Despite the severe impairment in new learning ability, general intellectual or language abilities and short-term memory are generally intact.

Front 154

Diagnosis and Psychopathology
154. ECT would most likely be given to
A an older depressed woman.
B a female schizophrenic threatening suicide.
C a male schizophrenic during an acute psychotic episode.
D an elderly person with Dementia.

Back 154

ANSWER "A"
ECT is used to treat depression that has not responded to other forms of treatment. Since choice A is the only one that directly refers to depression, it is the best answer. It's also a good answer since women are more likely than men to suffer from the major depressive disorders, and because it's more likely that this situation would occur in middle and late adulthood, when the symptoms become more intractable to other treatments. Dementia might have a depressive component along with it, but one wouldn't recommend ECT strictly for Dementia.

Front 155

Clinical Psychology
155. One of the most consistent findings of the research on client factors in the therapy process is that
A more seriously disturbed clients have better outcomes in therapy.
B higher levels of intelligence predict better therapy outcomes.
C age is significantly related to therapy outcome.
D men are more likely to seek therapy.

Back 155

ANSWER "B"
One of the most consistent findings of the research on client factors is that higher levels of intelligence predict better therapy outcome (Luborsky, 1989). Answer A is incorrect because seriously disturbed individuals actually have poorer outcomes (Garfield, 1994). In regard to answer C, age appears to be unrelated to therapy outcome and answer D would have to state that women are more likely to seek therapy to be correct (Luborsky et al., 1989).

Front 156

Developmental Psychology
156. All of the following are true regarding young children's long-term recall except:
A children 6 months old can retain learned responses 14 days later
B children exposed to an event at 14 months can remember it 8 months later.
C preschoolers can provide verbal reports of events that occurred during their second year of life.
D children under the age of 2 years old can not recall past events

Back 156

ANSWER "D"
Contrary to previous beliefs that children under the age of 3 years old are unable to recall events in their lives, more recent research has found early childhood memories to be more enduring. By the end of the first year of life, children have the capacity to recall at least some aspects of past events. [See P. J. Bauer, What do infants recall of their lives? Memory for specific events by one- to two-year-olds, American Psychologist, (1996), 51(1), 29-41].

Front 157

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy
157. Bandura completed the classic study on aggression in children and learned that:
A children tend to imitate the aggressive behavior of adults
B children are less likely to imitate adults they admire
C children only imitate aggression seen on television
D children only imitate live models

Back 157

ANSWER "A"
Bandura (1963) showed the effect on children of witnessing either live or filmed models. He showed that not only do children imitate the aggressive behaviors of adults, but that the more important, liked, and familiar the adults are, the more the children will imitate them.

Front 158

Neuropsychology
158. The statement "I'm afraid because I run" would be supported by the theory of
A Cannon and Bard
B James and Lange
C Yerkes and Dodson
D Miller and Dollard

Back 158

ANSWER "B"
Historically, two competing theories of emotion have been the Cannon and Bard theory and the James and Lange theory. Cannon and Bard (A) proposed that emotions and thoughts occur more or less simultaneously. William James in America and Lange in Europe had a different idea. They contended that we first observe our behavior and then we make an attribution of that behavior in terms of some emotion. Therefore, the notion that if we observe ourselves running we must have felt afraid is most consistent with the James and Lange theory. Yerkes and Dodson (C) are known for identifying the inverted "U" relationship between arousal and performance. Miller and Dollard (D) are known for a few theories including the frustration-aggression hypothesis, which proposed that frustration always precedes aggression.

Front 159

Research Design and Statistics
159. Protocol analysis typically involves
A specifying the unstated rules of communication between two individuals.
B analyzing a behavior in terms of its antecedents and consequences.
C recording specific behaviors that allow one to understand the subject's problem-solving methodology.
D standardizing psychotherapy procedures.

Back 159

ANSWER "C"
Protocol analysis is sort of an umbrella term used to refer to qualitative research studies that involve collecting verbatim reports. These reports could consist of an examinee's verbal statements, a descriptive account of a subject's behavior, or both. The term is commonly applied to research where the subject is asked to "think aloud" as he or she is performing a task. The researcher then records what the subject does and says, and analyzes the data to determine what cognitive processes are used to solve the problem. The analysis, by the way, is not quantitative or statistical; rather, it is qualitative, or based on the researcher's own interpretations.

Front 160

Research Design and Statistics
160. When a multiple regression analysis is employed to predict outcome, there should be
A low intercorrelations among the predictors and high correlation of each predictor with the criterion.
B high intercorrelations among the predictors and high correlation of each predictor with the criterion.
C low intercorrelations among the predictors and low correlation of each predictor with the criterion.
D high intercorrelations among the predictors and low correlation of each predictor with the criterion.

Back 160

ANSWER "A"
This question has come up in other examples throughout the tests. Simply stated, we need to have a high correlation between the predictor and the criterion we're making predictions about (this eliminates two of the four alternatives). Also, we need to have the predictors themselves be more or less independent of each other. That is, they shouldn't intercorrelate. If they do, then there's no point in using all of them -- if they all measure the same thing, why not use just one? So, you don't want the predictors to intercorrelate.

Front 161

Developmental Psychology
161. The most resilient children are raised by parents who are:
A low in control and high in warmth
B high in control and high in warmth
C high in demandingness and low in responsiveness
D low in demandingness and low in responsiveness

Back 161

ANSWER "B"
According to the research of Baumrind, authoritative parents, who are described as being high in control (demandingness) and high in warmth (responsiveness) tend to raise children who are most resilient to the stresses of life. These children have better coping skills, are more mature, responsible, and perform better on cognitive measures. Permissive or Laissez fairre parents (A) express warmth but use little discipline. Their children have difficulty controlling their impulses and, although they are intelligent, they are not motivated to achieve. Authoritarian parents (C) are high in control, but low in warmth. Their children are often insecure, dependent, and perform more poorly on cognitive tests. Finally, uninvolved/rejecting/neglecting parents (D) are low in both control and warmth and their children have the worst coping skills. The children tend to be antisocial, lack self-regulation, are more immature, and score lower on cognitive tests. [D. Baumrind, The influence of parenting style on adolescent competence and substance use, Journal of Early Adolescence, 1991, 11(1), 56-95].

Front 162

Industrial/Organizational Psychology
162. Which of the following is not true about work samples as a selection technique?
A less likely to discriminate against members of minority groups
B good predictor of job performance
C work samples of motor skills have more validity than work samples of verbal skills
D work samples of verbal skills have more validity than work samples of motor skills

Back 162

ANSWER "D"
D. Work samples provide standardized, job-like conditions to measure work behavior. They are used as a selection technique, as an indicator of individuals likely to benefit from training, and as a means of reducing turnover through a job preview. Research indicates that work samples are generally good predictors of job performance; however, work samples of motor skills have more validity than work samples of verbal skills. Additionally, work samples are less likely to discriminate against individuals from different groups and are acceptable to applicants.

Front 163

Research Design and Statistics
163. Which of the following is a statistical measure of the degree of difference among scores of subjects within the same experimental or treatment group?
A F ratio
B mean square between
C mean square within
D standard error of the mean

Back 163

ANSWER "C"
Mean square within (or MSW) is a measure of within-group variance -- the degree to which subjects within the same experimental group differ from each other. MSW is the denominator of the F ratio, and is referred to as the error term. The larger the magnitude of MSW, the less likely the F ratio will be significant.

Front 164

Developmental Psychology
164. A sixteen-year-old has just received her driver's license and drives the new car her parents have given her as fast as possible in all situations. This is an example of:
A Imaginary audience
B Personal fable
C Acceleration
D Decentration

Back 164

ANSWER "B"
This type of thinking is an example of the "personal fable" or the idea that one is unique and not subject to the natural laws that govern others (such as the concept of mortality). Elkind (1984) "All Grown Up and No Place to Go" Reading, MA. Addison-Wesley, wrote about the personal fable and also the "imaginary audience" which is the idea that one is always the center of other's attention.

Front 165

Clinical Psychology
165. Psychodrama seeks to examine and resolve difficult situations through guided dramatization and the release of creative forces inherent in the individual. The issue or problem to be explored in the psychodrama is chosen by the:
A protagonist
B antagonist
C director
D audience

Back 165

ANSWER "A"
A. Most associated with Jacob L. Moreno, psychodrama employs experiential methods, role theory, sociometry and group dynamics to facilitate insight, personal growth, and integration on cognitive, behavioral and affective levels. Psychodrama provides participants a safe, supportive environment in which to practice new and more effective roles and behaviors. There are three distinct components of group interaction in a classically structured psychodrama session: the warm-up, the action and the sharing phases. In the warm-up phase, the group theme is identified and a protagonist (a.), individual(s) who represents the theme in the drama, is selected. In the action phase the problem is dramatized and the protagonist explores new methods of resolving it. Then in the sharing phase, group members or the audience (d.) may express or share their associations, experience or connection with the protagonist's work. The other components of psychodrama include: auxiliary egos (b.), or group members who assume the roles of significant others in the drama; the director (c.), a trained psychodramatist who guides participants through each phase of the session; and the stage, the physical space in which the drama is conducted.

Front 166

Neuropsychology
166. The four main stages of neural development are:
A meiosis, mitosis, migration, myelination
B mitosis, meiosis, differentiation, myelination
C differentiation, mitosis, migration, myelination
D proliferation, migration, differentiation, myelination

Back 166

ANSWER "D"
D. Neural development involves the stages of proliferation, migration, differentiation, and myelination. The proliferation stage includes the production of cells. Migration is the second stage of development during which the cells move or migrate to its ultimate destination in the nervous system. Following migration is differentiation, in which cells develop the unique characteristics of nerve cells. During the fourth stage, myelination, the axons of some cells become surrounded (insulated) by glial cells. Meiosis is the process of cell division that produces cells with one-half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell. Mitosis is the process of cell division that produces cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

Front 167

Clinical Psychology
167. From the perspective of Beck's cognitive-behavioral model, automatic thoughts are
A basic irrational beliefs that underlie depression and other maladaptive behaviors.
B interpretations of a situation that determine one's behavioral and emotional responses.
C central, firmly-held beliefs about the self.
D misinterpretations of situations that reflect some type of cognitive distortion.

Back 167

ANSWER "B"
According to Beck, everyone has automatic thoughts – they're not necessarily associated with cognitive distortions or psychological distress. However, when automatic thoughts provide an unrealistic interpretation of the situation ("This is awful!"), they may lead to maladaptive behavioral or emotional responses.

Front 168

Industrial/Organizational Psychology
168. Communication networks in which information passes along a chain of command are associated with:
A complex job tasks
B simple job tasks
C increased individual satisfaction
D collaborative job tasks

Back 168

ANSWER "B"
Centralized communication networks, where all communication passes through one position or person, have been shown to be more efficient when tasks are mundane and simple. Formal communication networks where information moves between many positions or people (decentralized communication networks) work best with complex and/or collaborative job tasks. Research indicates decentralized networks also result in more individual satisfaction.

Front 169

School Psychology/Intelligence
169. Which of the WAIS-III factors is most stable across the lifespan?
A perceptual organization
B processing speed
C verbal comprehension
D working memory

Back 169

ANSWER "C"
Of the four WAIS-III factors, Verbal Comprehension is the most stable across the lifespan, followed by Working Memory, Perceptual Organization, and Processing Speed.

Front 170

Social Psychology
170. The idea that watching violent television shows reduces aggressive impulses is predicted by
A catharsis theory.
B negative affect theory.
C the model of incompatible responses.
D the deindividuation model.

Back 170

ANSWER "A"
The catharsis model of aggression holds that an aggressive act (or witnessing an aggressive act) can reduce a person's inclination to engage in other aggressive acts. The idea, first put forth by Dollard and his colleagues as an outgrowth of the frustration-aggression hypothesis, is that activities such as observing fictional violence or making hostile jokes could drain energy away from violent tendencies. However, this theory has not been supported by empirical research, which suggests that engaging in or witnessing aggression may actually increases aggressive behavior.

Front 171

Ethics and Professional Practice
171. Therapists who become sexually involved with their clients
A usually do so because they believe they are in love with the client as a result of the client's unique and desirable characteristics.
B usually do so as a result of a lack of experience and poor judgment.
C usually do so to fulfill personal needs resulting from events in their own life.
D do not show any characteristics that distinguish them from therapists who do not become sexually involved with their clients.

Back 171

ANSWER "C"
The experts generally agree that therapists who have sexual relationships with their clients are not only exhibiting poor judgment but are also usually suffering from some type of impairment, often related to boundary issues or unfulfilled needs. See J. D. Guy, The Personal Life of the Psychotherapist, New York, John Wiley & Sons, 1987.

Front 172

Ethics and Professional Practice
172. During the course of a research experiment, subjects witness someone who is apparently hurt, needing immediate help, and are unable to help or know if the person is assisted. The subjects become immediately distressed. In this situation:
A debriefing occurs at the conclusion of participation
B group debriefing occurs at the conclusion of collection of data
C debriefing occurs when subjects become distressed
D debriefing occurs at the conclusion of research

Back 172

ANSWER "A"
A. This question involves deception in research, distress and debriefing. Due to the use of deception and the resultant participant distress, debriefing immediately following participation is the best option as described by Standard 8.07(c) Deception in Research: “Psychologists explain any deception that is an integral feature of the design and conduct of an experiment to participants as early as is feasible, preferably at the conclusion of their participation, but no later than at the conclusion of the data collection.” The Ethics Code on Debriefing, Standard 8.08(a), notes, “Psychologists provide a prompt opportunity for participants to obtain appropriate information about the nature, results, and conclusions of the research, and they take reasonable steps to correct any misconceptions that participants may have of which the psychologists are aware,” and in Standard 8.08(c) “When psychologists become aware that research procedures have harmed a participant, they take reasonable steps to minimize the harm.”

Front 173

Clinical Psychology
173. Reduced incidence of substance abuse among Native American adolescents would most likely result from:
A normalizing substance use within tribal communities
B increasing the legal consequences of substance use
C aversive conditioning
D increasing bicultural competence

Back 173

ANSWER "D"
Interventions designed to increase "bicultural competence" have been found effective in preventing substance abuse among Native American adolescents. These interventions help individuals develop coping skills that "blend the adaptive values and roles of both the culture in which they were raised and the culture by which they are surrounded" (LaFromboise, Assertion training with American Indians: Cultural/behavioral issues for trainers. Las Cruces: New Mexico State University, 1982, p. 12). Normalizing substance use (A) would likely increase the incidence of substance abuse and has been regarded as one of the factors that contributes to the high rate of substance abuse among Native Americans. Increasing legal consequences of substance use has not been found to be a very effective deterrent for adolescents presumambly because adolescents do not always make rational decisions based on consideration of the perceived consequences of committing a crime. (D. M. Kahan, Between economics and sociology: The new path of deterrence. Michigan Law Review, 1997, 95, 2477-2497). Finally, aversive conditioning (C) is more likely to be used as a treatment, rather than a method of prevention.

Front 174

Diagnosis and Psychopathology
174. The primary associated feature of the Somatoform Disorders is
A panic attacks.
B anxiety and depression.
C addiction to analgesics or mild tranquilizers.
D somatic delusions.

Back 174

ANSWER "B"
The Somatoform Disorders (such as Somatization Disorder, Conversion Disorder, Somatoform Pain Disorder, Hypochondriasis, and Body Dysmorphic Disorder) are characterized by physical symptoms which have no known physical cause and are believed to be caused by psychological factors. The DSM identifies anxiety and depression as associated features of each of these disorders. You might have gone for addiction to analgesics or tranquilizers, since it seems to make sense. However, excessive use of analgesics (which are not addictive anyway) is identified as a possible associated feature of Somatoform Pain Disorder only.

Front 175

Industrial/Organizational Psychology
175. A "needs assessment" is used to:
A identify the worth of a job so that an equitable wage can be determined.
B determine if and what kind of training is needed in an organization.
C describe the requirements of a job.
D identify which type of job would be most satisfying for an individual.

Back 175

ANSWER "B"
A "needs assessment" or "needs analysis" is the first step in developing a training program. Not surprisingly, this involves identifying the needs of the organization. This is very different than a job evaluation (A), which is used to determine the relative worth of a job, or a job analysis (C) which is used to describe the requirements of a job.

Front 176

Research Design and Statistics
176. When a study has two or more independent variables the research design used is:
A MANOVA
B ANOVA-one way
C Factorial ANOVA
D ANCOVA

Back 176

ANSWER "C"
The factorial ANOVA is used when a study involves more than one independent variable. A one way ANOVA is used when a study has one independent variable and more than two independent groups. MANOVA is used when the study has two or more dependent variables and ANCOVA is used to adjust dependent variable scores to control for the effectiveness of an extraneous variable.

Front 177

Clinical Psychology
177. An external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility are characteristic of:
A a self-confident person
B a hostile person
C a depressed person
D most minorities

Back 177

ANSWER "C"
The locus of control/locus of responsibility model adds another element to the learned helplessness model in regards to depression. As you know, the learned helplessness model views depressed people as making internal, stable, and global attributions to negative events. However, the "internal" factor in the helplessness model refers only to locus of responsibility. As seen in the cognitive distortion called "personalization," a depressed person uses an internal locus of responsibility to blame him or herself for negative events. Paradoxically, depressed people also feel a lack of control over events, that is, they have an external locus of control – seeing external factors such as fate, luck, or other people as the cause of what happens to them. A self-confident person (A) is most likely to have an internal locus of control and responsibility. A hostile person (B) is more likely to blame others, that is, would have an external locus of responsibility. And, contrary to D, only marginalized minorities are likely to have an external locus of control and an internal locus of responsibility.

Front 178

Clinical Psychology
178. Individuals who recall memories under hypnosis, compared to non-hypnotized individuals,
A have more confidence in their memories and are more likely to recall events accurately.
B have more confidence in their memories but are less likely to recall events accurately.
C have less confidence in their memories and are less likely to recall events accurately.
D have less confidence in their memories but are more likely to recall events accurately.

Back 178

ANSWER "B"
Research shows that memories retrieved under hypnosis tend to be less accurate than other memories. Nonetheless, individuals who recall information while under hypnosis have greater confidence in their memories as compared to controls. In some research studies, hypnotized subjects were reluctant to admit that their memories were inaccurate even when confronted with clear evidence demonstrating this to be the case.

Front 179

Research Design and Statistics
179. In principal components analysis, an eigenvalue would indicate
A the amount of variability in a group of variables accounted for by an independent statistical component.
B the amount of variability in a group of variables accounted for by a statistical component that shares variability with other statistical components in the analysis.
C the amount of variability in one measured variable accounted for by all the independent statistical components in the analysis.
D the amount of variability in all measured variables accounted for by all the statistical components in the analysis.

Back 179

ANSWER "A"
Principal components analysis and factor analysis are two complex statistical techniques designed to determine the degree to which a large set of variables can be accounted for by fewer, underlying constructs (referred to as "factors" or "principal components"). In principal components analysis and factor analysis, an eigenvalue is a statistic that indicates the degree to which a particular factor is accounting for variability in the variables studied. In other words, a factor's eigenvalue indicates its strength or explanatory power. The reason choice "A" rather than "B" is correct is that in principal components analysis, the factors or components are always independent, or uncorrelated.

Front 180

Ethics and Professional Practice
180. You have been court-ordered to evaluate a prisoner who is being tried for murder. You explain the purpose of the evaluation and complete it. As you are packing up your testing materials, the prisoner smirks, and says, "I agreed to this but I didn't sign anything. You are out of luck, doctor."
A You should go ahead and complete the report, but leave out the prisoner's comments.
B The prisoner is correct -- you should refer for a new assessment.
C You should add this verbal comment to the report, noting the prisoner's passive-aggressive tendencies.
D You should have read the case file because you would have learned that the accused is also an attorney; this would affect how you would treat this prisoner.

Back 180

ANSWER "A"
Because this evaluation was court-ordered you were not actually required to obtain informed consent. However Standard IV.E.1 of the Speciality Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists states that "if the client appears unwilling to proceed after receiving a thorough notification of the purposes, methods, and intended uses of the forensic evaluation, the psychologist should take steps to place the client in contact with his or her attorney for the purpose of legal advice on the issue of participation." Remember, you always want to take the most careful and conservative approach if possible. While you may be tempted to choose answer C and add the client's comments to your report, this would contradict Standard V.C. of the Forensic Guidelines which states that, "In situations where the right of the client to confidentiality is limited, the forensic psychologist makes every effort to maintain confidentiality with regard to any information that does not bear directly upon the legal purpose of the evaluation."
Finally, as a thorough evaluator you should have read the case file closely; however, you would not proceed with an evaluation differently just because your client is an attorney.

Front 181

Clinical Psychology
181. A family seeks therapy due to on-going conflicts between the parents and their 16-year-old daughter. A solution-focused therapist would LEAST likely:
A use direct and indirect compliments
B tell them to solve the conflict by themselves
C work with the family to generate solutions to the conflict
D ask future-oriented questions

Back 181

ANSWER "B"
Solution-focused therapy is a form of brief therapy that focuses on solutions rather than problems or their causes. Underlying this approach is the assumption that clients possess the resources needed to achieve their goals. However, contrary to Choice B, a solution-focused therapist would not likely tell clients to solve the conflict by themselves. Rather, the therapist would work with them to generate solutions to their problem (C). Solution-focused therapists also use direct and indirect compliments (A) and future-oriented questions (D) -- such as the miracle question.

Front 182

Developmental Psychology
182. Kubler-Ross proposed people go through which of the following stages when faced with their own death:
A denial, anger, depression, acceptance and hope
B denial, anger, bargaining, acceptance and hope
C denial, anger, bargaining, depression and hope
D denial, anger, bargaining, depression and acceptance

Back 182

ANSWER "D"
Kubler-Ross (1969) proposed five stages: denial, anger, bargaining, depression and acceptance (DABDA). Research indicates that these feelings don’t necessarily occur in a fixed sequential order. Although the feeling of hope was not identified by Kubler-Ross, it is a common emotion in the terminally ill.

Front 183

Ethics and Professional Practice
183. As a successfully licensed psychologist, you are supervising your first intern. You need to
A inform your intern that he should use your name as a pseudonoym.
B inform your intern that he needs to let his clients know he is in supervision.
C let his clients know his limitations as a clinician.
D have the intern get informed assent from the clients; you are responsible for informed consent.

Back 183

ANSWER "B"
Your intern needs to let his clients know his professional status, just as you as a licensed psychologist would explain your own status. According to Standard 10.01(c) “When the therapist is a trainee and the legal responsibility for the treatment provided resides with the supervisor, the client/patient, as part of the informed consent procedure, is informed that the therapist is in training and is being supervised and is given the name of the supervisor.” Your intern is responsible for getting informed consent, not assent (answer D) from the clients.

Front 184

Diagnosis and Psychopathology
184. Alzheimer's Dementia often results in problems in the executive functions such as:
A aphasia and agnosia
B apraxia and disorientation
C planning and organizing
D recalling and recognizing

Back 184

ANSWER "C"
According to the DSM-IV-TR, a diagnosis of Dementia of the Alzheimer's type, or any other type, requires evidence of impairment in memory, and at least one other cognitive impairment such as aphasia (language disturbance), apraxia (impaired ability to carry out motor activities), agnosia (failure to recognize objects), or disturbance in executive functioning. All the choices in this question are symptoms of dementia, however, problems with executive functions refers specifically to planning, organizing, and abstract thinking.

Front 185

Neuropsychology
185. The medication considered most effective for the treatment of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is:
A Lithium
B Clomipramine
C Disulfiram
D Diazepam

Back 185

ANSWER "B"
Most of the antidepressant drugs such as clomipramine, imipramine, as well as the SSRIs are believed to increase serotonin activity which seems to lessen the effects of OCD. Lithium is often used in treating mood disorders, (C) disulfiram is the generic name for Antabuse and (D) diazepam as well as the other "pams" are benzodiazephines– sometimes used in the treatment of anxiety.

Front 186

Industrial/Organizational Psychology
186. According to Donald Super, career development can be described in terms of progress through a developmental sequence of vocational stages. One's standing in this developmental sequence, in relation to where one should be, given his or her chronological age, is referred to as
A vocational maturity.
B vocational consistency.
C vocational resolution.
D vocational level.

Back 186

ANSWER "A"
Super postulated a developmental sequence of vocational development occurring through the life span and consisting of five stages: growth, exploration, establishment, maintenance, and decline. Each of these stages also consists of a number of substages. Super coined the term "vocational maturity" to refer to the degree to which a person's progress in this sequence is appropriate given the person's chronological age. In fact, Super and his colleagues constructed a number of assessment instruments specifically designed to measure vocational maturity.

Front 187

Clinical Psychology
187. Research on psychotherapy outcomes suggest that, overall, culturally diverse groups do about as well as Anglo clients. However, as a specific group, less favorable outcomes are shown by
A African-Americans.
B Asian-Americans.
C Hispanics.
D Anglo-Americans.

Back 187

ANSWER "A"
Using a Global Assessment Scale, Sue (1991) found that patients from all groups show improvement in scores following therapy, but as a group, African-Americans have less favorable outcomes than Asian, Hispanic, or Anglo Americans.

Front 188

Industrial/Organizational Psychology
188. In a job selection decision, age can be used as an exclusionary criterion
A never.
B if there is a ruling from the appropriate federal agency allowing it.
C if there is a significant difference in mean ages of incumbents and applicants.
D if age is directly related to job performance.

Back 188

ANSWER "D"
Any limiting criterion is acceptable in a job selection procedure as long as the criterion is shown to be job-related. For instance, you could exclude people with very poor eyesight as air traffic controllers, you could exclude people with very little stamina and strength as firefighters, and so forth. Thus, if an employer can empirically demonstrate that being a certain age is a bona-fide occupational requirement, it could be used as a job criterion. Let's say you were hiring painters to work on the Golden Gate Bridge. You might very well find that people over age 60 couldn't do the job safely and well. If you could prove this finding empirically, you could use age as a criterion. Note, however, that if an employer is challenged on the use of a discriminatory exclusionary criterion, the employer bears the legal burden of demonstrating that it is job relevant.

Front 189

School Psychology/Intelligence
189. A child receives a Performance IQ score that is higher than her Verbal IQ score on the WISC-III. When interpreting this difference, it is important to keep in mind that:
A the difference is not significant unless it is 20 points or more.
B the difference may be significant if it is 12 points or more.
C the difference may be significant if it is 12 points or more and the scatter on the Performance subtests is less than 9 points and the scatter on the Verbal subtests is less than 7 points.
D the difference may be significant if it is 18 points or more and the scatter on the Performance subtests is 9 points or more and the scatter on the Verbal subtests is 7 points or more.

Back 189

ANSWER "C"
In general, a 12 point difference between Verbal IQ and Performance IQ on the WISC-III is considered significant. For example, a Performance IQ that is 12 or more points higher than the Verbal IQ might indicate autism, a learning disability, or delinquency. However, if there is also wide scatter of the Verbal and/or Performance subtest scores, the difference between Verbal and Performance IQ may be meaningless.

Front 190

Developmental Psychology
190. In children, positive outcome following a traumatic event is most likely if the child:
A has adequate social support and a high level of skill in at least one activity.
B has a high level of intelligence.
C is male.
D has experienced a traumatic stressor.

Back 190

ANSWER "A"
In both children and adults, high levels of social support is one of the best predictors of positive psychological outcome following a traumatic event. Having skill in at least one activity is associated with self-efficacy beliefs, which are also associated with positive outcome following a trauma in both children and adults.

Front 191

Research Design and Statistics
191. The error inherent in the best fit regression line is called the standard error of the:
A estimate.
B mean.
C measurement.
D coefficient.

Back 191

ANSWER "A"
The standard error of estimate tells us how far we can expect to be off when making predictions based on a regression (prediction) equation. It's a way to assess how well the equation "fits" the data. Try to keep the term "standard error of the estimate" in a box in your mind labeled "correlation coefficient" since, the higher the correlation coefficient, the lower the error of estimate.
The other errors relate to different situations. The standard error of the mean tells us how closely our sample mean approximates the population mean. Keep this one in a box in your mind labeled "experiments and samples." The standard error of measurement tells us how accurately an obtained score on a test estimates someone's true score on that test, if a true score were ever possible to obtain. So keep this one in a box labeled "reliability of a test." And the fourth choice, standard error of the coefficient is a foil. There is no such thing.

Front 192

Community Psychology
192. National surveys comparing rural and urban areas rates of mental disorders indicate:
A prevalence rates are not statistically different
B prevalence rates are significantly higher in rural areas for most mental disorders
C prevalence rates are significantly higher in urban areas for most mental disorders
D prevalence rates are statistically different with some disorders more common in rural or urban areas

Back 192

ANSWER "A"
A. While study to study reported rates of mental illness have varied somewhat, the most consistent finding is that there are few statistically significant differences in the rates of mental disorders in urban and rural areas. Epidemiological surveys like the National Comorbidity Survey, the Epidemiologic Catchment Area Study and a recent Healthcare for Communities (HCC) survey of 9,585 individuals living in rural and urban areas, found no significant differences in the prevalence of the major types of mental illness (See: Tang, L., et al., (2001), Report on the Survey Method for the Household Survey of Healthcare for Communities, 1997-1998, Los Angeles, Health Sciences Research Center, UCLA).

Front 193

Ethics and Professional Practice
193. With parental consent, a psychologist has been providing therapy to a 12-year-old boy for a couple of months. Unexpectedly, both parents suddenly withdraw their consent. The psychologist believes that continuing therapy is in the best interests of the boy. The psychologist’s best course of action would be to:
A seek judicial intervention
B obtain a signed consent from the girl and continue treatment
C stop the treatment because both parents have withdrawn their consent but provide them with referrals to other therapists
D continue to see the girl without the parents’ consent

Back 193

ANSWER "A"
A. The psychologist’s ethical obligation is to serve the best interests of the child, but legally, he/she cannot proceed with treatment if the parents do not give consent to do so. While some states have laws that allow psychologists to provide services without parental consent, no information is given in this question regarding the relevant law or whether the child’s problem(s) would be covered by this type of law. The Ethics Code Standard 1.02 states that “If psychologists? ethical responsibilities conflict with law, psychologists make known their commitment to the Ethics Code and take steps to resolve the conflict in a responsible manner.” Therefore, the psychologist would not just terminate without attempting to advocate for the patient (c.); nor continue to treat the child without the parents consent (d.), as violating the law is not consistent with resolving the conflict in a responsible manner. (See: M. DeKrai and S. D. Sales in Liability in child therapy and research, Journal of Consulting and Clinical Psychology, 59(6), 1991, 853-860.)

Front 194

Industrial/Organizational Psychology
194. Which of the following best describes universality of the transactional-transformational leadership theory?
A universality has been observed in a wide range of organizations within Western culture.
B universality has been observed in a wide range of organizations and cultures
C universality has been observed in business and government organizations within Western culture.
D universality has been observed in business and government organizations in a wide range of cultures.

Back 194

ANSWER "B"
B. Research indicates the transactional-transformational leadership paradigm transcends organizational and national boundaries. The same relationships and conception of phenomena can be observed in a wide range of cultures and organizations. Studies of organizations such as business, education, the military, the government, and the private sector have provided evidence supporting universality across a variety of organizations. The applicability of the paradigm has also received evidence of wide support internationally in most continents. Unusual attributes of the organizations or cultures have been indicated as the source of exceptions to the universality of the leadership paradigm. (See: Bass, Bernard M. (1997). Does the transactional-transformational leadership paradigm transcend organizational and national boundaries? American Psychologist, 52(2),130-139.)

Front 195

Developmental Psychology
195. A distinguishing characteristic of the Montessori teaching method is
A children are grouped by developmental level rather than by age.
B children are free to select their own learning activities.
C it emphasizes emotional development and academic achievement.
D its focus on group activities and learning experiences.

Back 195

ANSWER "B"
In the Montessori classroom, children are encouraged to select their own activities; the teacher observes the children and assists them when they truly need help. There is very little didactic group teaching. The method is based on the assumption that the child is an active learner whose drive for self-development is aided by an orderly but stimulating environment. Regarding the other choices, "A" is incorrect because the Montessori classroom is heterogeneous in regard to both age and developmental level -- older children are viewed as good role models for younger children. Choice "C" is not an incorrect statement about the Montessori method, but it is not something that distinguishes it from other educational methods. And contrary to choice "D", critics of the
Montessori method have cited its lack of opportunity for group learning experiences as one of its weaknesses.

Front 196

Diagnosis and Psychopathology
196. Alcohol Abuse and Dependence has a male to female ratio of about:
A 10 to 1
B 1 to 10
C 5 to 1
D 2 to 1.

Back 196

ANSWER "C"
Alcohol Abuse and Dependence are more common in males than females with a male to female ratio as high as 5 to 1 according to DSM-IV. However, the ratio varies substantially, depending on the age group. Females tend to start drinking heavily later in life than do males and may develop Alcohol-Related Disorders later.

Front 197

Clinical Psychology
197. George Kelly emphasized that:
A people view the world through cognitive schemas
B individuals progress from infantile dependency to mature interdependency
C psychopathology is caused by past traumatic events
D psychopathology is caused by a maladaptive "style of life"

Back 197

ANSWER "A"
George Kelly was perhaps the first cognitive theorist and introduced his "psychology of personal constructs" in 1955. A construct, which is synonymous with a schema, is a cognitive template through which the world is interpreted. Choice B represents a major tenet of Self-in-Relation Theory. Choice D uses the language of Adler. And choice C is contrary to what Kelly believed. He believed that individuals' interpretations of events are more important than the events themselves.

Front 198

Research Design and Statistics
198. In a normal distribution of scores, the range of raw scores represented by the percentile rank range of 50 to 55 is _______ the range of raw scores represented by the percentile rank range of 90 to 95.
A less than
B greater than
C the same as
D depending on the standard deviation, either less than, greater than, or the same as

Back 198

ANSWER "A"
This question is a bit tricky and requires careful reading and a good grasp of the concepts of percentile rank and normal distribution. The easiest way to understand it is in terms of an example. Say that you have a test, with a mean of 70 and a range of possible raw scores from 0-100. The raw score mean is 70; in a normal distribution, the mean is equivalent to a percentile rank of 50 and is in the exact middle of the distribution (if you don't know why this is, go back and review the Statistics section before attempting to understand this question). In a normal distribution, most of the raw scores are near or at the middle of the distribution; thus, most of the raw scores will be near or at 70. Similarly, the PR score range of 50 to 55 is in the middle part of the distribution, which is to say that most of the raw scores in this part of the distribution will be at or near 70. So the raw score range set by PR 50 to PR 55 will not be wide.
Now if you look at a normal curve, you will see that in the high end of the raw score distribution, there is a long tail spread across the bottom. This reflects the fact that there are relatively few high scorers, and the scores of these individuals are spread out (over the length of this tail). Since the 90 to 95 PR range is in the high end of the distribution, the range of raw scores here will be relatively higher than the range of raw scores in the middle of the distribution.
If you chose C, you probably did so based on the fact that the percentile rank distribution is flat. This means that the same amount of people will score between 50 and 55 and 90 and 95. However, the question is not about how many people will score within this PR range. Instead, it's asking about the raw score ranges these PR ranges correspond to.
If you didn't understand the above ////, it might be useful to read it again with the normal curve in front of you. As you're looking at the curve, remember that it is a raw score distribution, and try to approximate where the percentile ranks in the question would be placed on this distribution. If you still don't understand, don't worry too much. As you review this concept and practice with more questions, these things will be come clearer and clearer. Remember that difficult technical content requires repeated review, so you should keep track of those particular concepts you need to review on a regular basis.

Front 199

Developmental Psychology
199. According to Erik Erikson, an adolescent who is unsuccessful in resolving the identity vs. identity confusion psychosocial conflict will exhibit:
A fidelity
B repudiation
C mainstream behaviors
D hopelessness

Back 199

ANSWER "B"
According to Erikson, adolescents who are unsuccessful in resolving the identity vs. identity confusion stage experience either the extreme of "fanaticism" or "repudiation." Fanaticism occurs when the person becomes overzealous in identification to a particular role to the point that he or she is intolerant of others. Repudiation is the other maladaptive tendency in which the adolescent compensates for a lack of identity by fusing with a group that eagerly provides its members with details of an identity: religious cults, military organizations, or hate groups. The adolescent repudiates his or her membership in the world of adults. Successful resolution of the conflict, on the other hand, results in the virtue Erikson called "fidelity" (A). Fidelity refers to loyalty, although not blind loyalty, to society's standards.

Front 200

Developmental Psychology
200. A child who is not putting together two-word phrases, by which of the following ages, should be taken in for an evaluation?
A 12 months
B 18 months
C 24 months
D 30 months

Back 200

ANSWER "D"
The use of two-word sentences, called telegraphic speech, normally appears between the age of 1-2 years. It would rarely be absent by the age of 30 months; if it is, a developmental evaluation is justified.