P&p Workbook Revision

Front 1

1. Define State Aircraft.

Back 1

An aircraft of any part of the Defence Force (including any aircraft that is commanded by a member of that force in the course of his/her duties as such a member), other than any aircraft that by virtue of registration under the regulations is an Australian aircraft; and aircraft used in the military, Customs, or police services of a country other than Australia. (MATS 1.1.1.21)

Front 2

2. When aircraft are operating "Due Regard" what are ATC's responsibilities toward them

Back 2

ATS is not responsible for:
a) ATS to due regard aircraft; and
b) separation between due regard aircraft and other aircraft.

Notify other affected ATS units and aircraft when first becoming aware of due regard
operations. (MATS 5.1.11)

Front 3

3. How would you instruct an aircraft to climb to a level of 31,000 feet and report out of 27,000 feet

Back 3

CLIMB TO FLIGHT LEVEL THREE ONE ZERO REPORT LEAVING FLIGHT LEVEL TWO SEVEN ZERO (AIP GEN 3.4 - 31 5.5 2a iv)

Front 4

4. How would you phrase an urgent descent instruction to FL110 for VH-EGW

Back 4

ECHO GOLF WHISKY DESCEND TO FLIGHT LEVEL ONE ONE ZERO IMMEDIATELY (AIP GEN 3.4 - 31 5.5 2g)

Front 5

5. If you wish to provide descent clearance to QFA236 to FL210 in advance, or at the pilots leisure how would you phrase the instruction

Back 5

QANTAS TWO THIRTY-SIX WHEN READY DESCEND TO FLIGHT LEVEL TWO ONE ZERO (AIP GEN 3.4 - 32 5.5 2m)

Front 6

6. May you use the term maintain in lieu of climb or descent instructions for change level

Back 6

No, The term “MAINTAIN” must not to be used in lieu of “DESCEND” or “CLIMB” when
instructing an aircraft to change level. (AIP GEN 3.4 - 33 5.5 3)

Front 7

7. What phrase is used to advise QFA63 to change frequency to Centre 126.5 when passing over Lindberg

Back 7

QANTAS SIXTY-THREE AT LINDBERG CONTACT CENTRE ONE TWO SIX DECIMAL FIVE (AIP GEN 3.4 - 34 5.6 1c)

Front 8

8. Give an example of a pilot position report for a domestic flight.

Back 8

QANTAS FIFTY SIX, TOLAB AT FIVE SIX FLIGHT LEVEL THREE SEVEN ZERO TATOG AT THREE ONE. (Workbook ICAO 004 ATS Practices and Procedures p7, AIP GEN 3.4 - 106)

Front 9

9. Give an example of a pilot position report for an international flight.

Back 9

SPEEDBIRD ONE FORTY TWO, OVER MOUNT KING AT FOUR THREE, CLIMBING TO FLIGHT LEVEL THREE FIVE ZERO NEXT POSITION TOLAB AT ONE TWO. (Workbook ICAO 004 ATS Practices and Procedures p7, AIP GEN - 3.4 106)

Front 10

10. How would you ask QFA57 to report their distance from Mount Alexander (MXR) using DME

Back 10

QANTAS FIFTY-SEVEN REPORT DISTANCE FROM MOUNT ALEXANDER DME (AIP GEN 3.4 - 38 5.9 2e)

Front 11

11. Following a pilot's failure to report position, initially the ATC will attempt to contact the aircraft after how many minutes of the report being due?

Back 11

3 minutes after report due (MATS 4.2.3.1)

Front 12

12. Following a pilot's failure to report position, initially the ATC will attempt to contact the aircraft on what frequencies?

Back 12

i) attempt to contact the pilot direct by calling on the normal and alternative frequencies, repeating the calls with discretion;
ii) attempt to contact the aircraft through another pilot in VHF or HF range;
iii) ascertain whether the report has been received by another unit; and
iv) arrange for other ground units to call the pilot on normal and alternative frequencies. A unit instructed to call a pilot notifies the originating unit if contact is not established within a period of five minutes. (MATS 4.2.3.4)

Front 13

13. Following a pilot's failure to report position, initially the ATC will attempt to contact the aircraft, after communications checks fail to reveal any news at what time would a SAR phase be declared?

Back 13

15 minutes after report due (MATS 4.2.3.1)

Front 14

14. Following a pilot's failure to report position, initially the ATC will attempt to contact the aircraft, after communications checks fail to reveal any news what Phase is declared?

Back 14

Uncertainty Phase (INCERFA) (MATS 4.2.3.1)

Front 15

15. If a pilot asks for a level should you always check that it complies with the table of cruising levels

Back 15

Yes (ICAO 004 ATC Practices and Procedures Workbook p9)

Front 16

16. Give three examples of IFR levels below FL280 for aircraft heading in an easterly direction.

Back 16

FL270
FL250
FL230 (AIP ENR 1.7 - 10 5)

Front 17

17. Give three examples of IFR levels below FL280 for aircraft heading in a westerly direction.

Back 17

FL260
FL240
FL220 (AIP ENR 1.7 - 10 5)

Front 18

18. When assigned a change of level, within what time frame must the pilot commence a level change

Back 18

The pilot in command must commence a change of level as soon as possible, but not later than one (1) minute after receiving that instruction from ATC, unless that instruction specifies a later time or
place. (AIP ENR 1.7 - 8 4.1.1)

Front 19

19. In what band is RVSM airspace

Back 19

RVSM is a published ICAO standard, which allows the use of 1,000FT separation between RVSM-approved aircraft operating from FL290 to FL410 inclusive. (AIP GEN 1.5 - 21 10.1)

Front 20

20. Do RVSM levels apply to aircraft leaving the Australia FIR boundaries

Back 20

????NFI???? Yes, RVSM is a published ICAO standard (AIP GEN 1.5 - 21 10.1)

Front 21

21. What symbol in item 10 of a flight plan indicates that an aircraft has RVSM approval

Back 21

W (AIP ENR 1.10 -16)

Front 22

22. May pilots of non-RVSM approved aircraft plan to fly within the RVSM level band

Back 22

Yes (AIP ENR 1.1 - 65 39.2.6)

Front 23

23. What is a holding procedure

Back 23

A predetermined manoeuvre which keeps an aircraft within a specified airspace whilst awaiting further clearance. (AIP GEN 2.2 - 12)

Front 24

24. What is a holding fix

Back 24

A specified location identified by visual or other means in the vicinity of which the position of an aircraft in flight is maintained in accordance with ATC Instructions. (AIP GEN 2.2 - 12)

Front 25

25. In what order are aircraft assigned levels in the holding stack

Back 25

During an instrument approach sequence, the aircraft estimated to arrive first over a holding fix will be assigned the lowest level available for assignment, and succeeding aircraft will be given priority in the order of their estimated times of arrival over such points. (AIP ENR 1.1 - 27 13.2)

Front 26

26. What must ATC provide the pilot of a holding aircraft with

Back 26

A pilot, who is holding, will be given a STACK DEPARTURE TIME, or a time at which to EXPECT ONWARDS CLEARANCE. If the aircraft is subject to further delay an EXPECTED LANDING TIME will
be advised. (AIP ENR 1.1 - 27 13.3)

Front 27

27. Does a holding instruction impose a clearance limit on aircraft

Back 27

Yes (MATS 9.2.2.9)

Front 28

28. When a clearance limit is cancelled, this includes cancellation of holding, what must be issued to the aircraft

Back 28

An onwards clearance specifying the level and route to be flown from that point (MATS 9.2.2.11)

Front 29

29. What 5 basic uses are provided by surveillance services

Back 29

i) improve airspace utilisation;
ii) reduce delays;
iii) provide for direct routings;
iv) optimise flight profiles; and
v) enhance safety; (MATS 9.8.1.1)

Front 30

30. What two surveillance systems are used in Australia to provide regular updates on aircraft position

Back 30

- Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B)
- RADAR

Front 31

31. Give four reasons for using surveillance systems for vectoring aircraft

Back 31

i) departing aircraft to facilitate an expeditious and efficient departure flow
and expedite climb to cruise level;
ii) aircraft to prevent potential conflicts;
iii) arriving aircraft to establish an expeditious and efficient approach
sequence; and
iv) assist pilot navigation; (MATS 9.8.1.1)

Front 32

32. When maintaining surveillance watch on traffic what 3 types of information can be provided

Back 32

i) improved position information regarding aircraft under control;
ii) supplementary information regarding other traffic; and
iii) information regarding any significant deviations by aircraft from the
terms of their respective clearances. (MATS 9.8.1.1)

Front 33

33. In Australia, what is the lowest flight level and what altimeter pressure is set for reference for flight levels

Back 33

FL110
1013.2HPA (AIP ENR 1.7 - 2 2.1)

Front 34

34. What is the highest cruising altitude in Australia

Back 34

10,000ft (AIP ENR 1.7 - 2 2.1)

Front 35

35. What conditions apply to using the 500ft vertical separation minima

Back 35

Apply 500 FT between IFR and VFR aircraft (including SVFR), or between SVFR aircraft where SVFR clearance is due to visibility, under the following conditions:
a) both aircraft are 7000 kg MTOW or less;
b) both aircraft are at or below 10 000 FT; and
c) traffic information is provided to the IFR aircraft, unless it is impracticable. (MATS 10.5.3.1)

Front 36

36. What conditions apply to using the 1000ft vertical separation minima

Back 36

Apply 1000 FT to:
a) all aircraft, up to and including FL290; and
b) aircraft with RVSM approval except military formation aircraft, operating in airspace providing Class A service from FL290 to FL410 inclusive. (MATS 10.5.3.2)

Front 37

37. When must the 3000ft vertical separation minima be used

Back 37

Apply 3000 FT at all levels when one or more aircraft is operating at supersonic speeds. (MATS 10.5.3.4)

Front 38

38. What is the basic definition of the lateral separation standard

Back 38

The lateral separation standard is 1 NM between the possible positions of two aircraft. (MATS 10.4.1.1)

Front 39

39. When applying lateral separation what should be used in preference to manual plotting methods

Back 39

a) lateral separation diagrams;
b) tables; or
c) lateral conflict tools. (MATS 10.4.1.3)

Front 40

40. What four possible error tolerances are applied when calculating lateral separation

Back 40

Along Track Errors
Cross Track Errors
Circular Errors
Angular Errors (MATS 10.4.6.1.2)

Front 41

41. Define the term "Basic Lateral Separation Point".

Back 41

The point at which the navigation tolerances of both aircraft are no closer than 1 NM. (MATS 1.1.1.4)

Front 42

42. When applying longitudinal separation what is the maximum convergence or divergence angle between the tracks for them to be considered as the same direction

Back 42

Angle less than 45 degrees (MATS 10.3.2.1.1)

Front 43

43. When applying longitudinal time standards, which aircraft's speed is used to calculate the time between the aircraft

Back 43

Calculate the time interval between aircraft using the speed of the following aircraft. (MATS 10.3.3.1)

Front 44

44. What does 10 minutes of time relate to in distance for an aircraft flying at a speed of 300 knots (5 nm/minute)

Back 44

50nm

Front 45

45. What do controllers rely upon when using distance standards

Back 45

Pilots' ability to accurately report their distance from known geographical locations. (Workbook ICAO 004 ATS Practices and Procedures p25)

Front 46

46. What are the two types of distance standards

Back 46

DME Standards and RNAV Standards (Workbook ICAO 004 ATS Practices and Procedures p26-27)

Front 47

47. Which does not rely on ground based equipment

Back 47

RNAV Standards (Workbook ICAO 004 ATS Practices and Procedures p27)

Front 48

48. What is the simplest and most commonly used DME standard

Back 48

20 DME Standard (Workbook ICAO 004 ATS Practices and Procedures p26)

Front 49

49. What RNAV standard is used for same direction flights over mainland Australia

Back 49

30 RNAV Standard (Workbook ICAO 004 ATS Practices and Procedures p26, MATS 10.3.13.3)

Front 50

50. When assigning visual separation responsibility to a pilot;
a) Below what altitude may pilots be assigned responsibility for separation
b) What is the pilot's responsibility

Back 50

a)At or below 10,000ft
b)Maintain separation while complying with ATC instructions (MATS 10.8.1.1)

Front 51

51. When the tower is visually separating aircraft, how may aircraft be positively identified for visual separation during daytime

Back 51

a) by the use of an ATS surveillance system
b) by day:
i) identification by type;
ii) identification by distinguishing markings if aircraft are of the same type;
or
iii) identification by observing a change of heading or altitude of one of the relevant aircraft (MATS 10.7.1.1)

Front 52

52. What does a STAR clearance contain

Back 52

a) STAR identifier;
b) a transition route when applicable;
c) a runway, when a STAR includes more than one arrival track; and
d) a level assignment. (MATS 9.2.8.4)

Front 53

53. With reference to separation between arriving and departing aircraft what is the definition of a segregated flight path

Back 53

A segregated flight path exists when the departing aircraft will not be manoeuvring within 45 degrees either side of the final approach path of the arriving aircraft. (MATS 10.9.2.1)

Front 54

54. What is the basic cut-off distance for arriving aircraft on final approach to allow a departure to take place

Back 54

The distance between the two arriving aircraft needs to be 5nm to allow the departure to depart in sufficient time prior to the next arrival. (Workbook ICAO 004 ATS Practices and Procedures p32)

Front 55

55. Within what distance of an aerodrome, by day, may an aircraft commence a visual approach

Back 55

Within 30NM (MATS 11.1.11.1)

Front 56

56. May level restrictions be placed on aircraft when cleared to make a visual approach

Back 56

Do not assign a level restriction to aircraft cleared for a visual approach. (MATS 11.1.11.2)

Front 57

57. Give an example of a clearance for visual approach

Back 57

SPEEDBIRD TWELVE CLEARED VISUAL APPROACH (AIP GEN 3.4 - 45 5.12 3e)

Front 58

58. At what point does an instrument approach begin

Back 58

The initial approach fix or the beginning of a defined arrival route (STAR) (Workbook ICAO 004 ATS Practices and Procedures p46)

Front 59

59. At what point does an instrument approach end

Back 59

A point from which the landing can be completed or
A position at which holding or en-route obstacle clearance criteria apply (Workbook ICAO 004 ATS Practices and Procedures p46)

Front 60

60. A Minimum Sector Altitude is provided for each aerodrome where instrument approach procedures are published. What obstacle clearance does it provide and within what radius

Back 60

1000ft Clearance above all objects located in an area within a 25NM radius (MATS 1.1.1.16)

Front 61

61. What is the definition of an instrument approach procedure

Back 61

A series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to flight instruments with specified protection from obstacles from the initial approach fix; or where applicable, from the beginning of a defined
arrival route to a point from which a landing can be completed; and thereafter, if a landing is not completed to a position at which holding or en route obstacle clearance criteria apply. (MATS 1.1.1.11)

Front 62

62. What is an Initial Approach Fix

Back 62

The fix at the commencement of an instrument approach. (MATS 1.1.1.11)

Front 63

63. Define the final approach segment.

Back 63

That segment of an instrument approach procedure in which alignment and descent for landing are accomplished. (AIP GEN 2.2 - 9)

Front 64

64. When must a pilot carry out a missed approach procedure

Back 64

A Missed Approach is the procedure to be followed if the approach cannot be continued. That could be because the aircraft has not established visual reference. A missed approach commences at either the:
- Missed Approach Point (MAPt)
- Decesion Altitude/Height (DA/H) (Workbook ICAO 004 ATS Practices and Procedures p50)

Front 65

65. What is the Minimum Descent Altitude

Back 65

A specified altitude/height in a non-precision approach or circling approach below which descent may not be made without visual reference. (MATS 1.1.1.15)

Front 66

66. What are the Vat speeds for the following performance categories

Back 66

CATA: Up to 90kt IAS
CATB: From 91kt to 120kt IAS
CATC: From 121kt to 140kt IAS
CATD: From 141kt to 165kt IAS
CATE: From 166kt to 210kt IAS (AIP ENR 1.5 - 1 1.2.1)

Front 67

67. What is the difference between a precision approach and a non-precision approach

Back 67

Non-precision approaches are instrument approaches and landings which utilise lateral guidance but do not utilise vertical guidance.

Precision approaches are instrument approaches using precision azimuth and glide path guidance with minima determined by the category of operation (AIP GEN 2.2 - 13)

Front 68

68. Provide two examples a precision approach and a non-precision approach

Back 68

PA: ILS Approach, Microwave Landing System
NPA: VOR/DME Approach, GNSS Approach

Front 69

69. Is the Apron area considered part of the manoeuvring area

Back 69

No. The manouevring area is defined as "That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, handing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding aprons." (MATS 1.1.1.15)

Front 70

70. When is Pushback Approval required

Back 70

When pushing back would bring the aircraft onto the manoeuvring area

Front 71

71. Give an example of a pushback approval for an aircraft that will head south along the taxiway.

Back 71

PUSHBACK APPROVED TAIL NORTH (AIP GEN 3.4 - 48 5.14.3 1a)

Front 72

72. Give an example of a taxi clearance request at a controlled aerodrome by a heavy jet.

Back 72

QANTAS SIXTY THREE HEAVY RECEIVED FOXTROT REQUEST TAXI RUNWAY THREE FOUR

[flight number] [aircraft type] [wake turbulence category if “Super or Heavy”] [POB (number)]
[DUAL (or SOLO)] RECEIVED (ATIS identification) [SQUAWK (SSR code)] [aircraft location] [flight rules, if IFR] [TO (aerodrome of destination)] REQUEST TAXI [intentions]. (AIP GEN 3.4 - 49 5.14.4 1a)

Front 73

73. If the controller wishes the aircraft to enter the runway and wait, but be prepared for departure what phrase is used

Back 73

LINE UP [AND WAIT] [RUNWAY (number)] [BE READY FOR IMMEDIATE DEPARTURE] (AIP GEN 3.4 - 53 5.14.6 2b)

Front 74

74. When multiple runways are being used what phrase should be used for take-off clearance to ensure there is no confusion

Back 74

Whenever more than one runway is in use, include the runway number in the take-off clearance. (MATS 12.3.1.26.2)

Include in clearance "RUNWAY (number) CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF" (AIP GEN 3.4 - 53 5.14.6 3b)

Front 75

75. When may a take-off clearance be issued

Back 75

Issue a take-off clearance when:
a) the aircraft is at or approaching the runway in use;
b) the traffic situation permits;
c) the aircraft has reported 'READY';
d) a visual check of the take-off path has been completed;
e) no obstructions or collision risk exists; and
f) there is reasonable assurance that the required separation will exist when the aircraft commences take-off. (MATS 12.3.1.26)

Front 76

76. What are the functions of Aerodrome Control

Back 76

When performing aerodrome control functions, issue information, clearances and instructions to achieve a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic on and in the vicinity of the aerodrome, with the object of preventing collisions between:
a) aircraft flying in the aerodrome traffic circuits around an aerodrome;
b) aircraft operating on the manoeuvring area;
c) aircraft landing or taking off;
d) aircraft and vehicles operating on the:
i) manoeuvring area; and
ii) helicopter movement area, but excluding HLS situated on apron areas or beyond the sight of the tower controller; and
e) aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on this area. (MATS 12.1.1.1)

Front 77

77. When may an aircraft be cleared to take-off behind a preceding landing aircraft on the same runway

Back 77

Apply the ‘take-off behind a preceding landing aircraft’ standard to fixed wing aircraft provided that:
a) you do not permit the departing aircraft to commence take-off until the preceding aircraft has vacated and is taxiing away from the runway; and
b) if wake turbulence separation is necessary, the appropriate arrival wake turbulence separation standard has been achieved. (MATS 10.9.3.2)

Front 78

78. When may an aircraft be cleared to take-off after the departure of an aircraft departing in the opposite direction

Back 78

Apply the ‘take-off after an aircraft has departed in the opposite direction’ standard to fixed wing aircraft, provided that you do not permit a departing aircraft to commence take-off until:
a) the preceding aircraft has crossed the point at which the following aircraft will commence take-off; and
b) if applicable, the appropriate wake turbulence separation standard has been achieved. (MATS 10.9.3.4)

Front 79

79. What does the term LAHSO stand for

Back 79

Land and Hold Short Operations: A procedure involving dependent operations conducted on two
intersecting runways whereby aircraft land and depart on one runway
while aircraft landing on the other runway hold short of the
intersection. (MATS 1.1.1.14)

Front 80

80. When must essential information be passed to arriving aircraft

Back 80

Ensure all aircraft under your control are given the appropriate details when essential aerodrome information has not been fully covered by NOTAM. (MATS 12.5.1.1.2)

Front 81

81. When may a landing clearance be issued

Back 81

Only issue a clearance to land after:
a) the aircraft has commenced final approach of a straight-in instrument approach or has been sighted by the tower controller:
i) on the late downwind leg of the circuit pattern;
ii) on base leg; or
iii) on final in the case of a straight-in visual approach;
b) a visual check of the landing path has been completed;
c) no obstructions or collision risk exists; and
d) there is reasonable assurance that separation will exist when the aircraft crosses the runway threshold to land. (MATS 12.5.3.1)

Front 82

82. With reference to wake turbulence seperation:
During full length runway operations, how many minutes are required between a departing A380 and an arriving A320

Back 82

A380 - Super
A320 - Medium (MATS 10.6.1.1)
3 minutes required (MATS 10.6.2.1)

Front 83

83. What are required VFR visibility and distance from cloud required in Class C airspace

Back 83

Distance from cloud: 1,500m horizontal
Distance from cloud: 1,000ft vertical
Visibility at or above 10,000ft AMSL: 8km
Visibility below 10,000ft AMSL: 5,000m (AIP ENR 1.2 - 2 2.2)

Front 84

84. May ATC initiate a Special VFR clearance or must is be requested by the pilot

Back 84

Must be requested by the pilot (MATS 9.2.7.1)

Front 85

85. What are the conditions for an aeroplane flying Special VFR

Back 85

A Special VFR clearance may be issued, at pilot request, for a VFR flight within a CTR, or in CTA next to the CTR for the purpose of entering or leaving the CTR, provided:
a) it is by day;
b) VMC does not exist; and
c) an IFR flight will not be unduly delayed. (MATS 9.2.7.1)

Front 86

86. What circumstances would warrant the issue of a safety alert according to MATS

Back 86

Unless the pilot has advised that action is being taken to resolve the situation or that the other aircraft is in sight, issue a Safety Alert when you become aware that an aircraft is in a situation that places it in unsafe proximity to:
a) terrain;
b) obstruction;
c) active restricted or prohibited areas; or
d) other aircraft (MATS 9.1.4.2)

Front 87

87. When may you discontinue issuing a safety alert

Back 87

You may discontinue issuing further Safety Alerts or avoiding action advice when the pilot advises action is being taken to resolve the situation or has reported the other aircraft in sight. (MATS 9.1.4.7)

Front 88

88. In what classes of airspace may safety alerts be issued

Back 88

You may issue Safety Alerts in all classes of airspace both within and outside ATS surveillance system coverage. (MATS 9.1.4.3)

Front 89

89. When is the prefix "Suggest" used when issuing collision avoidance advice for aircraft in close proximity

Back 89

Prefix advice to turn or change level with 'SUGGEST' unless Safety Alerts are for controlled flights with reference to other controlled flights. (MATS 9.1.4.6)

Front 90

90. What is expected of the controller upon becoming aware of information such that it would be reasonable to conclude that an unsafe situation has occurred, or may occur

Back 90

Take all necessary action to remove that risk

Front 91

91. What is the pilot expected to do in the case of a Resolution Advisory

Back 91

Flight crew will:
a) follow the RA even if there is a conflict between the RA and an ATC instruction to manoeuvre; and
b) when deviating from an ATC instruction or clearance in response to any RA:
i) notify the appropriate ATC unit as soon as permitted by flight crew workload; and
ii) immediately inform ATC when they are unable to comply with a clearance or instruction that conflicts with an RA. (MATS 4.1.1.3)

Front 92

92. What are the ATC's responsibilities in the event of the pilot advising an RA

Back 92

When a flight crew advises they are responding to a ‘TCAS RA’:
a) do not issue instructions that contradict those issued by the RA; and
b) acknowledge the report by using the phrase '(callsign) ROGER'. (MATS 4.1.1.3)

Front 93

93. List 5 factors that could contribute to the arrival and departure rates.

Back 93

a) Number of runways available or runway modes.
b) Airport efficiency - layout of taxiways and high speed exits.
c) Current or anticipated weather - Weather can cause large variations in capacity because strong winds may limit the number of runways available, and poor visibility may necessitate an increase in spacing between aircraft.
d) Air traffic control workload
e) Air traffic control facilities - radar or non radar procedures
f) Equipment - radar maintenance or equipment faults can lower the capacity of an ATC unit.

Front 94

94. Why can more aircraft land at an airport per hour when there are only arrivals as opposed to arrivals and departures?

Back 94

When there are only arriving aircraft, the separation standard applied to the arriving aircraft is normally 3NM.

When there are arriving and departing aircraft, the separation standard applied to the arriving aircraft needs to be 5NM to allow the departure in sufficient time prior to the next arrival. (Workbook ICAO 004 ATS Practices and Procedures p32)