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146 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
what is the most significant modifiable risk factor for AMD
SMOKING
in AMD...drusen are signs of (2)
1. RPE Abnormality
2. RPE Atrophy

-associated with RPE thinning and atrophy
what is drusen
1. RPE cells deposit collagenous basement membrane into Bruch's
2. mucopolysaccharides and lipids
what are the two types of DRUSEN
HARD
1. typically seen in DRY AMD

SOFT
1. amorphous stuff between inner and outer layers of Bruch's Membrane
2. more inclined to lead to exudative AMD (wet)
3. allows formation of CNVM
what age has the highest prevalence of AMD
75+ years
Framingham: 20/30 or worse
what type of AMD is more prevalent
DRY: 80%
WET: 20%

MACULAR DRUSEN is a risk factor in BOTH
DRY AMD is diagnosed by...
combination of...
1. drusen
2. RPE atrophy
3. functional vision loss
4. RPE pigment changes

ranging from normal aging changes to severe vision loss
what are the characteristics of Geographic Atrophy in Dry AMD
1. progressive loss of RPE and choriocapillaris
2. macrophages replace drusen with fibrous tissue/dystrophic calcification
2a. once this occurs, CNVM WILL NO LONGER FORM
3. loss of photoreceptor function and retinal layers
4. 20/25 - 20-400
management for DRY AMD
1. photodocument
2. home amsler
3. UV protection
4. anti-oxidant vitamins with zinc supplement
complications of antioxidant supplement plus zinc for AMD
1. beta carotene increases risk of lung cancer in current smokers
2. increase risk even if the patient has stopped smoking for a few years
what is the chronic inflammation theory in respects of WET AMD
1. higher number of lymphocytes, macrophages, fibroblasts found in Bruch's membranes of patients with AMD
2. inflammation causes break in Bruch's membrane
what layer does CNVM involve
1. CNVM infiltrates from the choriocapillaris
2. under the RPE and sensory retina
3. may cause RD (look for fluid and blood)
which type of CNVM is most prevalent
OCCULT CNVM
1. 90%
2. ill defined membrane on angiogram

CLASSIC CNVM
1. 10%
2. well defined membrane on angiogram
Bruch's disruption in relation to CNVM
1. diffuse thickening of Bruch's with soft drusen which predisposes to breaks in Bruch's membrane
2. presence of VEGF enhances development
CNVM in respects to imaging
1. FA/ICG: hot spot with late spread of hyperfluorence
2. must get 72hr because CNVM will grow 10 microns/day
3. OCULAR URGENCY
what is disciform scarring in wet AMD
1. fibrovascular material following CNVM development
2. disciform will replaces most of sensory retina, RPE
3. results in death of tissue (RPE HYPERPLASIA) and severe vision loss

-most cases of CNVM will lead to disciform scarring
what are all possible management options for WET AMD
1. LASER PHOTOCOAGULATION
2. PHOTODYNAMIC THERAPY
3. INTRAVITREAL STEROID INJECTION
4. ANTI-VEGF TREATMENT
5. ANTI-OXIDANT VITAMIN THERAPY
6. UV protection
7. macular drusen-home amsler
8. low vision consult
laser treatment in respects of CNVM position around the fovea in WET AMD
Krypton:
- Juxtafoveal
- specificity of choroidal layers

Argon
- Extrafoveal
- laser absorbed by the RPE and choroidal pigment
treatment of subretinal/subfoveal hemorrhage in WET AMD
NO GOOD TREATMENT

-maybe gas bubble injection into the retina to tamponade the hemorrhage and spread the blood out
what is photodynamic therapy
1. IV infusion of Verteporfin (Visudyne)
2. low power laser activates the drug
3. causes platelet aggregation and thus CNVM thrombosis
4. chemical obliteration of CNVM without damaging overlying retina and RPE
what are problems associated with photodynamic therapy
1. causes upregulation of VEGF which increase leakage and propensity to from neovascularization

Verteporfin
1. high rate of side effects
2. highly photosensitizing
3. high degree of skin necrosis

LEAKAGE REDUCTION BUT NOT STOPPED!!
PDT
stand alone or in conjunction with something else
1. PDT is a well accepted therapy for wet AMD, though the STAND ALONE RESULTS ARE NOT GREAT.
2. best used in conjunction with other therapies
what are intravitreal steroid injections used to treat

what does it do??
EDEMA SECONDARY TO...
1. vascular occlusions
2. diabetes
3. cystoid macular lesions
4. wet AMD

-stabilizes vascular membranes and reduces vascular permeability
what is the most significant complications of intravitreal steroid injections?

others?
1. ENDOPHTHALMITIS
2. IOP rise
3. cataract formations
what are the THREE anti-VEGF drugs?
which ones are FDA approved?
1. Macugen (FDA)
2. Lucentis (FDA)
3. Avastin (NOT APPROVED)

-binds to VEGF and prevents uptake by endothelial receptors
what are the main causes of CNVM formations
1. Wet AMD
2. Idiopathic CNVM
3. Degenerative Myopia
4. Ocular Histoplasmosis syndrome
what is the usual profile for central serous chorioretinopathy
1. Caucasian Male
2. mid 30's
3. type A personality
characteristics of central serous chorioretinopathy
1. serous retinal or pigment epithelial detach in macular area
2. loss of foveal reflex
3. focal conduit through RPE into sensory retina
4. NO DRUSEN!!
age in relation to central serous chorioretinopathy (ICSC)
1. ERROR to diagnose ICSC in a patient over the age of 55
2. consider CNVM!!!
management of ICSC
1. home amsler and observation
2. DISCONTINUE ALL STEROIDS!!!
what should you always consider in the case of mild paramacular hemorrhaging
IDIOPATHIC JUXTAFOVEAL RETINAL TELANGIECTASIA
compare serous and hemorrhagic RPE detachment
serous:
1. round, small, well demarcated dome with CLEAR fluid

hemorrhagic:
1. blood in sub-RPE, indicates CNVM
2. occasionally, blood goes through RPE and gives hemorrhagic RD and may even break through retina to give vitreous hemorrhage
how does RPE detachment usually look?

how does it show up on FA
RPE detach tends to be:
1. SMALL
2. well localized
3. fills early on FA
4. DOES NOT SPREAD
RPE detachment usually occurs simultaneously with what??
ICSC
what is cystoid macular edema
1. not a disease, but a FINDING
2. honeycomb appearance
3. occurs almost always from LEAKY CAPILLARIES
what layer of the retina can cystoid macular edema (CME) be seen
1. initial fluid accumulates in MULLERS CELLS
2. gets into EXTRACELLULAR SPACES
3. causes CYSTOID SPACE in OPL
how is cystoid macular edema diagnosed?
1. Petalloid appearance on FA
2. cystic appearance on OCT
3. acuity may be 20/20 (asymptomatic)
what is Irvine-Glass syndrome
CME following complicated intracapsular cataract extraction
CME Management
1. steroids (oral and topical)
2. NSAIDS (oral and topical)
3. Diamox
4. vitrectomy and/or grid photocoagulation
5. intravitreal steroid and anti-VEGF

long term CME may result in foveal cyst formation and macular hole
what are the stages of MACULAR HOLE
1. foveal cyst from CME or disruption to vitreoretinal site. LAMELLAR HOLE PARTIAL THICKNESS (late hyperfluorescence on FA)
2. lamellar hole more likely to occur and retinal tear possible
3. full thickness macular hole with REMAINING VITREOUS ATTACHMENT
4. full thickness macular hole with POSTERIOR VITREOUS SEPARATION (early hyperfluorescence on FA)
what is the main difference about stage 1 and stage 4 macular hole in respects to FA
stage 1:
late hyperfluorescence on FA

stage 4:
early hyperfluorescence on FA
macular hole management
VITRECTOMY

stage1:
vision may improve

stage 2:
vision stabilization

full thickness:
expanding bubble flattens out the edges of the hole and the recontact with the RPE stimulate fibroblastic activity, filling in the hole.
what are the TWO types of solar retinopathy
type 1:
1. rhodopsin action spectrum
2. mediated by visual pigments
3. primary lesion on the photoreceptors

type 2:
1. RPE absorbs the radiation and converts to heat
2. burns in the RPE are often permanent
small, symmetrical foveal cysts should be investigated for...
solar retinopathy
describe what solar retinopathy will look like after several days...
1. reddish spot with pigment halo
2. progresses to red lamellar foveal depression
3. cystic change may develop
4. simulate hole or progress to hole
pathophysiology of preretinal/epiretinal membrane
aka: CELLOPHANE MACULOPATHY

1. caused by break in ILM with retinal glial cells proliferating on surface
2. occurs from VMT
what causes macular pucker
cellophane maculopathy:
3-5% of cases due to vitreous shrinkage following surgery (proliferative vitreoretinopathy)
treatment from cellophane maculopathy
1. vitrectomy with membrane peeling
2. typically has a rapidly advancing course initially, then stabilizes and doesn't change
what is the difference between CHOROIDAL FOLD and EPIRETINAL MEMBRANE
1. choroidal folds are HORIZONTAL
2. epiretinal membrane often radiate from the MACULA
choroidal folds are strongly indicative of...
1. RETRO-ORBITAL TUMOR
2. need orbital imaging
what are FUCH'S SPOTS?
what are special about them?
1. RPE hyperplasia overlying CNVM
2. FIRST SIGN of CNVM formation
3. pathognomonic for CNVM in degenerative myopia!!!!!
what are lacquer crack?
1. breaks in Bruch's Membrane
2. conduit for CNVM
3. similar to angoid streaks, but DO NOT always connect with the disc or radiate
what is degenerative myopia
1. myopic stretching of photoreceptors, posterior pole and disc area
2. true alteration of globe structure (elongation)
what percentage of android streaks are associated with systemic disease?

most common?
50%

1. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum, PXE (80-90%)
2. Ehler's Danlos syndrome (8-15%)
3. Sickle Cell Disease (1-2%)
combination of angioid streaks and PXE is known as...
Groinblad-Stanberg Syndrome
-vascular changes are most problematic
what is the difference between benign nevus and malignant melanoma
benign nevus:
1. drusen
2. shallow RD
3. minimal growth
4. less than 2mm thick
5. gradual elevation
6. focal orange pigment
7. no blood vessels

malignant melanoma
1. lipofuscin
2. bullous detachment
3. profound growth
4. more than 2mm thick
5. abrupt elevation (mushroom shape)
6. diffuse orange pigment
7. blood vessels
size and thickness of choroidal nevus?

best management
1. 5mm in size
2. no more than 2mm thick

best managed by serial photography to document growth
what is the difference between tyrosinase (-) and (+) OculoCutaneous Albinism
tyrosinase (-) OCA:
congenital inactivity of enzyme Tyrosinase prevents melanin formation

Tyrosinase (+) OCA:
enzyme activity is normal, but melanin can not be sequestered into melanosomes
what is Hermansky Pudlak syndrome
subset of Tyrosinase POSITIVE OCA which as associated abnormal bleeding patterns
describe Ocular Albinism
1. melanin NORMAL
2. melanosomes are DEFICIENT in number
3. systemic pigmentation is nearly normal BUT ocular pigmentation is variable
what are the visual dysfunctions that corresponds with albinisms
due to lack of pigmentation and hence lack of normal substrate for macular and retinal development

1. subnormal acuity
2. strabismus
3. nystagmus (due to macular hypoplasia)
4. photophobia
5. astigmatism and refractive error
what is the main cause of visual difficulty in albinism?
MACULAR HYPOPLASIA
do not confuse albinism with what?

how do you tell the difference?
do not diagnose BENIGN BLONDE FUNDI with ocular albinism

TRUE ALBINISM has a hypoplastic macula and nystagmus
what causes retinopathy in prematurity
1. due to changing oxygen environments immediately post natal
2. vasculature is stopped before the retina is matured
what are the three stages of retinopathy of prematurity
1. VASO-OBLITERATIVE: high oxygen content in incubation shunts normal maturation of vessels

2. VASO-PROLIFERATIVE: 2nd to return to normal oxygen levels in room air. deficiency that cant be met by the infants vessels (vitreous hemorrhage and tractional RD)

3. CICATRICIAL: vitreoretinal membranes, dragged vessels, retinal folds, retrolental mass in pupil region, and dragged macula
what are the stages of FEVR
1. zone of avascular retina is seen in 100% of patients
2. proliferative and exudative changes with neovascularization
3. tractional forces from cicatricial lesion in periphery, rhegmatogenous RD more common
when you see peripheral exudation, think...
1. FEVR
2. Coat's Disease
what characteristics should you think FEVR and NOT ROP
NO HISTORY OF PREMATURE BIRTH OR LOW BIRTH WEIGHT

BOTH:
1. ectopic macula
2. dragged retinal vessels
3. peripheral vitreoretinopathy with incomplete peripheral retinal vascularization
definition:

any full thickness disruption in the sensory retina providing a conduit for fluid to enter the potential space between the sensory retina and RPE
RETINAL BREAK
what are the three types of retinal breaks
1. rhegmatogenous (only type caused by an RD)
2. tractional
3. serous/exudative
what causes a PVD?

leading to what??
1. hyaluronic acid concentration decreases with age
2. collagen fibrils lose support, aggregate, forms pockets of liquefied vitreous
3. vitreous then collapses
4. traction exerted on areas of vitreoretinal adhesion

leading to RD
most floaters in patients under the age of 50 are due to...
benign vitreous syneresis
sudden onset of floaters could be a sign of...
1. PVD
2. vitreous hemorrhage secondary to retinal tear
3. liberated pigment cells from RD
4. vitreous cells from a posterior inflammation
PVD typically presents as...
one big ass floater
what is lattice degeneration
1. thinning of all 10 retinal layers due to dropout of peripheral retinal capillaries
2. resulting in ischemia with subsequent retinal collapse and glial fibrosis
how does lattice degeneration look
1. white fibrotic tracks across retina
2. snail tracks
3. almost always runs circumferentially around the eye
4. pigmentation in 80-90% of cases
management of lattice degeneration
**LATTICE ALONE AND ATROPHIC HOLES ARE NOT TREATED**

1. treated prophylactically if the patient previously had RD from lattice in the fellow eye
2. or lattice in the eye of a monocular patient
3. tears along the border of lattice lesions are treated
describe flap tears
1. retina is incompletely pulled away from RPE
2. base towards vitreous base and apex towards pole
3. initially symptomatic but may stop by the time pt gets to office
what type of flap tears need prophylactic therapy
1. symptomatic flap tears
2. asymptomatic flap tears with subclinical RD (fluid)
what are subclinical retinal detachments
1. retinal elevation extending more than 1DD beyond the edge of a break
2. not more than 2 DD posterior to the equator
3. any amount of subretinal fluid is bad
what are operculated breaks
1. retinal tissue is completely pulled free of RPE
2. traction may or may not remain on the edges of the hole
management of operculated breaks
DO NOT TREAT asymptomatic operculated breaks without fluid!!!

-symptomatic operculated breaks and those with subretinal fluid need prophylax
what is retinoschisis
1. splitting of the retina into an inner and outer layer
2. results from the coalescence of microcystoid degeneration of the peripheral retina
3. inner layer is thin and transparent and contains blood vessels
4. shadow case on the outer retina by the vessels
which quadrant is retinoschisis usually seen in
72% in inferiotemporal
25% in superiotemporal
82% BILATERAL

NOWHERE ELSE!!!
management of retinoschisis
DO NOT treat retinoschisis unless progressive RD is present simultaneously or macula is threatened
DDx of RD vs. Retinoschisis
Retinoschisis
1. sharp borders
2. transparent
3. no demarcation line
4. smooth

Retinal detachment:
1. graduated border
2. translucent
3. demarcation line
4. undulated and uneven
5. rhegmatogenous RD often has fixed folds (only RRD)
presence of what makes retinal breaks a little safer
1. pigment surrounding the break
- RPE becomes hyperplastic and invades the retina surrounding the break, sealing the rbeak
what is the most significant risk factor for progression to rhegmatogenous retinal detachment
PHOTOPSIA
-FLASHES OF LIGHT
management of rhegmatogenous retinal detachment
1. scleral buckle (most common)
2. pneumatic retinopexy
3. intraocular silicone oil tamponade
retinal breaks and detachment:
what do you NOT treat
1. lattice degeneration (w/o history of lattice RD)
2. atrophic holes in lattice degeneration
3. asym flap tears without fluid
4. asym flap tears without PVD
5. asym operculated breaks without fluid
6. retinoschisis (unless macula is threatened)
retinal breaks and detachment:
what DO you treat
BREAKS that are...
1. symptomatic
2. with fluid
3. in fellow eye
4. cataract extractions
5. vitreous hemorrhage
6. recent and tractional
7. trauma
management of retinal break in respects to location
1. anterior: cryoretinopexy
2. posterior: laser photocoagulation
possible complications of pars planitis
1. posterior subcapsular cataract
2. PVD
3. neovascularization (mostly posterior segment)
4. glaucoma
treatment of pars planitis
1. OBSERVATION
2. steroids
3. transscleral cryoretinopexy
4. thermal laser photocoagulation
5. vitrectomy
what is the #1 cause of pediatric vitreous hemorrhage
PARS PLANITIS
pars planitis is associated with what systemic diseases
1. crohn's disease
2. multiple sclerosis
what do you look for with pars planitis in young patients??
1. when encountering a true PVD in a young patient
2. look for vitreal cells and other signs of pars planitis
active toxoplasmosis produces retinitis that appears as...
1. "headlights in a fog" due to focal vitritis
2. arteritis
3. periphlebitis
4. lesions heal within 3wk-6mths
toxoplasmosis is the #1 cause of what??

what should you consider in acquired toxo in a young patient
1. posterior uveitis
2. focal chorioretinitis

consider AIDS in acquired young patients
what are some treatments for toxoplasmosis
1. Sulfadiazine 1g p.o. QID
2. Bactrim DS QD
3. Pyrimethamine 25mg p.o. QD (w/ folate supplement)
4. Clindamycin 250mg QID
5. Prednisone 40mg QD (only in conjunction with above)
how does toxocariasis infect the eye
1. nematode parasitic in dirt and fecal matter
2. larvae travel in blood and lymph fluid
what are the two types of toxocariasis
1. OCULAR and SYSTEMIC
2. NEVER seen together
3. occurs in CHILDREN and UNILATERAL
treatment and diagnosis of toxocariasis
1. ELISA
2. photocoagulation and cryo
3. steroids (po) for inflammation
where is histoplasmosis found?
how does it infect the body?
1. Ohio-Mississippi River Valley
2. fungal infection (soil, bird and bat feces)
3. mycelial spores inhaled and transform to yeast phase in lungs
4. spread via bloodstream
DDx between ocular histoplasmosis and multifocal choroidopathy
1. OHS never causes cells to appear in the vitreous
2. purely CHOROIDITIS
diagnosis of ocular histoplasmosis
1. **peripapillary scarring**
2. **at least one peripheral Histo spot**
3. granulomatous inflammatory mass
4. circumpapillary choroidal scarring
what are the signs of maculopathy in histoplasmosis
1. macular granuloma
2. bruch's disruption
3. 4th most common cause of CNVM
4. Sub-RPE hemorrhage with subsequent disciform scarring
5. lipid exudates
most common population for sarcoidosis
BLACK FEMALES!!!
pts. comes in with...
1. retinal periphlebitis
2. vasculitis
3. candle wax drippings

immediately think...
1. sarcoidosis
2. syphilis
how do you diagnose for sarcoidosis...(if you dont know this...just kill yourself)
1. ACE
2. chest xray (hilar adenopathy)
3. Gallium scan
4. biopsy
Eale's disease targets what population
YOUNG HEALTHY MALES
what are the two key features in diagnosing Eale's Disease
1. venous peri-phlebitis
2. venous obstruction
you should suspect Eales Disease when you see a patient with...(5)
1. posterior segment neovascularization
2. vitreous hemorrhage
3. tractional detachment
4. symptoms in young healthy male with no diabetes
5. perivascular scarring
what must you rule out with Eale's Disease
TUBERCULOSIS
-high association to tuberculoprotein sensitivity
Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome is characterized by...
rare systemic disease involving various melanocyte-containing organs


**PRECEDED BY PRODROMAL STAGE (headache, touch sensitivity, vertigo, nausea, nuchal rigidity, vomiting, fever)**

1. bilateral granulomatous panuveitis
2. serous retinal detachment
3. optic disc edema
4. neurological abnormalities
5. skin pigmentary changes
what causes APMPPE

what is seen in the retina
1. obstructive choroidal vasculitis
2. post viral autoimmune disorder
3. spirochete disease

WHITE PLACOID LESIONS
what test highly correlates to birdshot retinochoroidopathy
(+) HLA A29
FA: filling delay and vessel leakage
what are the A/R in congenital fundus dystrophies
1. Retinitis Pigmentosa
2. Stargardt
3. Reticular Dystrophy
4. Gyrate Atrophy
what are the A/D in congenital fundus dystrophies
1. Adult Vitelliform
2. Best Disease
3. Butterfly Dystrophy
4. Cone Dystrophy
5. Central Areolar Dystrophy
6. Reticular Dystrophy
7. Retinitis Pigmentosa (Sectoral)
what are the X Linked in congenital fundus dystrophies
1. Cone Dystrophy
2. Choroideremia
what is the most common
hereditary dystrophy
retinitis pigmentosa
in terms of vision what will the patient complain of in Cone Dystrophy vs. Retinitis Pigmentosa
Retinitis Pigmentosa:
NIGHT BLINDNESS

Cone Dystrophy:
DAY BLINDNESS
clinical triad for retinitis pigmentosa
1. arteriolar attenuation
2. waxy pallor of ONH
3. retinal bone spicule pigmentation along perivascular area
(SALT AND PEPPER FUNDUS)
pathophysiology of retinitis pigmentosa
defect of RPE metabolism:
disturbance in the disc renewal process of the outer segment of photoreceptors and lipofuscin accumulation within the RPE with eventual death of photoreceptors
what are the two notable systemic associations with retinitis pigmentosa
1. Usher's Syndrome
RP with hearing loss

2. Bardet-Biedl Syndrome
RP with obesity, mental retardation, polydactyly, hypogenitalism and renal disease
diagnostic test for retinitis pigmentosa
1. VF:
-ring scotoma

2. ERG
-abnormal dark adapation
-decrease A or B amplitudes
-increased latency for scotopic responses
retinitis pigmentosa management
1. vitamin A palmitate
2. DHA in patients beginning Vitamin A therapy
3. Lutein in NON SMOKERS
4. hearing test
5. test associated conditions
clinical appearance of Cone Dystrophy
1. bull's eye maculopathy
2. golden reflex due to atrophic RPE surrounding darker macula
3. pigment clumping
4. geographic atrophy
5. loss of color vision
diagnostic test for Cone Dystrophy
1. ERG
-reduced or absent photopic and cone response

2. OCT
-retinal atrophy in macula area

3. Visual field
-central scotoma
what are the the type of Cone Dystrophy

characteristics?
use what test to DDx?
STATIONARY:
-rod monochromatism
-no progression
-associated with nystagmus

PROGRESSIVE:
-ONLY CONES
-gradually worsens

CONE-ROD DISEASE:
-eventually affects rods
what is the most common macular dystrophy?

second most??
MOST COMMON:
-Stargardt's Macular Dystrophy

SECOND MOST COMMON:
-Best's Vitelliform Macular Dystrophy
what are the FIVE stages of Best's Vitelliform Macular Dystrophy
1. Pre-Vitelliform: abnormal EOG in asymptomatic patients
2. Vitelliform: elevated "egg-yolk" macular lesion
3. Pseudo-Hypopyon: part of lesion reabsorbed
4. Vitelliruptive: "scramble egg" appearance
5. End Stage Atrophy: moderate to sever acuity loss with macular scar
diagnostic test for Best's Vitelliform Macular Dystrophy
1. EOG: SEVERELY ABNORMAL
2. OCT may reveal lipofuscin just about RPE
3. FA hypofluorecent due to block by lipofuscin in macula (R/O CNVM)
what causes Stargardt's Macular Dystrophy
1. enzymatic defect within RPE
2. enlarged RPE with lipofuscin
what is the clinical presentation for Stargardt's Macular Dystrophy
1. oval macular lesion with a BEATEN BRONZE appearance
2. mottling of fovea
diagnostic test for Stargardt's Macular Dystrophy
1. FA: DARK CHOROID
2. ERG: flash ERG normal and mfERG ABNORMAL
3. OCT reveals thinning
4. visual field will have central defect but normal periphery
what is adult vitelliform
1. bilateral and symmetric
2. abnormal accummulation of lipofuscin in RPE
3. GOOD PROGNOSIS
4. EOG USUALLY NORMAL
diagnostic testing for Gyrate Atrophy

management?
1. Ornithine levels are highly elevated
2. ERG and EOG both abnormal

management:
1. B6 (pyridoxine) in attempt to normalize plasma and urine ornithine levels
2. reduce protein intake and restrict arginine (AA)
what does central areolar dystrophy present as...
bilateral and symmetric destruction of CHORIOCAPILLARIS within the posterior pole
what are the two types of mechanism for traumatic retinopathy
1. Coup:
-local trauma at the sit of impact

2. Contrecoup:
COMMOTIO RETINAE
-injuries at the opposite side of the skull caused by shock waves that traverse the brain
what is seen in COMMOTIO RETINAE
1. trauma induced swelling and disorganization of outer retinal layers
2. white and opaque (confused with white without pressure)
what do you do if you see peripapillary hemorrhage associated with head trauma?

what is the syndrome called?
TERSON'S SYNDROME:

1. EMERGENCY
2. IMMEDIATE RADIOLOGICAL SCAN
what is Valsalva Hemorrhage
preretinal hemorrhages arising from sudden increases in internal pressure through exertion or strangling
what type of maculopathy is significant with Plaquenil
BULL'S EYE MACULOPATHY
-fine pigmentary mottling within the macular area
what are the FOUR main risk factors for PLAQUENIL
a FAT OLD (60+) person taking 1000g HCQ or 460g CQ for more than FIVE YEARS

1. DOSAGE:
>1000g HCQ or >460g CQ

2. OBESITY:
CQ/HCQ is not retained in fat tissue, standard 400mg/day may represent overdosage. should be dosed based on height of pt

3. DURATION:
greater than 5 years

4. age >60yrs

5. liver/renal impairment or preexisting retinal condition
Tamoxifen Maculopathy
1. reversible early, IRREVERSIBLE LATE
2. white crystalline macular deposits
3. visual acuity decreases are usually secondary to foveal cyst development