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60 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
The second largest bone in the body is?
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Tibia
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How many bones make up the leg?
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2
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What is the largest and strongest bone in the body?
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Femur
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The fibula articulates with the tibia where?
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The proximal and distal ends
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What's the position of the femoral condyles when the leg is properly positioned for an AP projection?
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Parallel to the IR
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How far should the IR extend beyond the knee or ankle joint with the AP projection of the leg?
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1 and 1/2 inches
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Which of the following objects should be available in the room when preforming a radiograph of the lower limb?
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All of the above
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Where is the IR centered for an AP projection of the knee
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1/2 in. below patellar apex
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When the knee is properly positioned for an AP projection the patella will lie where?
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slightly to the medial side
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Where is the central ray for the AP projection of the knee?
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1/2 in. distal to patellar apex
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When the ASIS to table top measurement is between 19 and 24 cm the CR angulation for AP knee is?
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0 (Or perpendicular)
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When the ASIS to table top measurement is greater than 24 cm the CR angulation for an AP knee is
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5 degrees cephalic
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When the ASIS to table top measurement is less then 19 cm the CR angulation for an AP knee is
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5 degrees caudal
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How much should the leg be flexed for the projection of the knee
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20-30 degrees
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Which of the following will ensure that the knee is properly positioned for a lateral projection
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All of the above:
a)the leg flexed 20-30 degrees b)patella is perpendicular to the IR c)epicondyles perpendicular to IR |
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The CR angulation for a lateral projection of the knee is
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5-7 degrees cephalic
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Which of the following projections of the knee best demonstrates the narrowing of joint spaces?
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Ap of both knees Weight bearing
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Valgus and varus deformity of the knee can be evaluated with which of the following projections?
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AP bilateral weight bearing
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The CR angulation for an AP bilateral weight bearing knee is
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zero
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The CR angulation for the AP projection of the knee is
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depends on ASIS to table top distance
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For an AP oblique projection of the knee the limb is rotated
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45 degrees
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Which of the following is clearly demonstrated on and AP oblique projection of the knee in medial rotation
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Tibiofibular articulation
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Which of the following is used to demonstrate the intercondylar fossa
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Holmblad and Camp-Coventry
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How much is the knee joint flexed for the PA axial projection or the Holmblad method of the intercondylar fossa
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70 degrees
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How is the central ray directed for the PA axial or Holmblad method of the intercondylar fossa
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perpendicular
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Which of the following positions can be used demonstrate the intercondylar fossa using the Holmblad method
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All of the above:
a)standing using a horizontal ray b)kneeling on the table with a vertical CR c)standing with knee on stool with horizontal CR |
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What position ideally is the patient placed for a PA projection of the patella
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prone
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In order to place the patella parallel to the plane of IR for a PA projection the heel must be rotated
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5-10 degrees laterally
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What is CR angle for a PA projection of the patella
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perpendicular
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Where should the CR be directed for the PA projection of the patella
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Mid popliteal area
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How much is the knee flexed for a lateral projection of the patella
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5-10 degrees
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The knee is in the correct position for a lateral projection of the patella if
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Combination:
a)epocondyles are superimposed b)the patella is perpendicular to the IR |
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What is the CR angle for a lateral projection of the patella
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zero
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Where does the CR enter the knee for a lateral projection of the patella
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the patella femoral joint space
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Which of the following is the essential method of demonstrating the patella in the tangential projection
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settegast
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Which of the following positions can be used to perform the settegast of the patella
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Combination:
a)seated b)prone |
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The preferred method for positioning a patient for the tangential projection of the patella is
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They are prone
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How far should the knee be flexed for the tangenital projection of the patella settegast method when done in the prone position
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Combination:
a)as much as possible b)until the patella is perpendicular |
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Where is the CR directed for the settegast method of the patella
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the patella femoral joint space
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What is the degree of angulation of the tangential projection of the settegast mothod
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variable depending on the degree of knee flexion
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What is the CR angle for the AP projection of the femur
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zero
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How many degrees should the limb be internally rotated for the AP projection of the femur
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15 degrees
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How far should the IR extend below the knee for a lateral projection of the femur
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2 inches
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If a lateral projection of the femur includes the hip joint where should the top of the IR be placed
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ASIS
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how far should the patient be rolled posteriorly from the lateral positon for a lateral projection of the hip that will include the proximal femur
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10-15 degrees
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The proximal end of the tibia includes 2 prominent process called
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condyles
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The 2 flat superior processes of the tibia are called
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tibial plateaus (which slant 10-20 degrees posteriorly)
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On the anterior surface of the tibia the prominent process caleed the
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tibial tuberosity
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When the femur is vertical, the medial condyle is lower than the lateral condyle by how many degrees
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5-7 degrees
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Posteriorly the femoral condyles are separated by a deep dperession called the
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intercondylar fossa
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Which anatomical part must be identified on lateral radiographs of the knee in order to identify under or over rotation
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Adductor tubercle
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The central fibro cartilage disc on fibro cartilage discs or pads lie on the tibial plateus are called
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meniscus
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Which leg angle is used for a PA axial intercondylar fossa Camp-Coventry method
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40-50 degrees
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If the knee is angled 40 degrees for the camp-coventry method the CR will be angled
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40 degrees
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How much is the knee flexed for a lateral projection
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20-30 degrees
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The incomplete separation or avulsion of the tibial tuberosity is called
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Osgood-Schlatter disease
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Know these:
Osteomalacia Paget's disease Osteosarcoma |
Good luck!
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Osteomalacia
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Osteomalacia is the general term for the softening of the bones due to defective bone mineralization. Osteomalacia in children is known as rickets, and because of this, osteomalacia is often restricted to the milder, adult form of the disease. It may show signs as diffuse body pains, muscle weakness, and fragility of the bones. A common cause of the disease is a deficiency in Vitamin D, which is normally obtained from the diet and/or sunlight exposure.[1]
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Paget's Disease
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is a chronic disorder that typically results in enlarged and deformed bones. It is named after Sir James Paget, the British surgeon who first described this disease[1]. The excessive breakdown and formation of bone tissue that occurs with Paget's disease can cause bone to weaken, resulting in bone pain, arthritis, deformities, and fractures. Paget's disease may be caused by a slow virus infection (i.e., paramyxoviruses such as measles, Canine distemper virus[2], and respiratory syncytial virus), present for many years before symptoms appear. Most studies have pointed at either Canine distemper virus or Measles.[3][4][5] There is also a hereditary factor since the disease may appear in more than one family member.
Paget's disease is rarely diagnosed in people less than 40 years of age. Men are more commonly affected than women. Prevalence of Paget's disease ranges from 1.5 to 8 percent depending on age and country of residence. Prevalence of familial Paget's disease (where more than one family member has the disease) ranges from 10 to 40 percent in different parts of the world.[citations needed]Because early diagnosis and treatment is important, after age 40, siblings and children of someone with Paget's disease may wish to have an alkaline phosphatase blood test every two or three years. If the alkaline phosphatase level is above normal, other tests such as a bone-specific alkaline phosphatase test, bone scan, or x-ray can be performed. |
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Osteosarcoma
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is the most common type of malignant bone cancer, accounting for 35% of primary bone malignancies. There is a preference for the metaphyseal region of tubular long bones. 50% of cases occur around the knee. It is a malignant connective (soft) tissue tumor whose neoplastic cells present osteoblastic differentiation and form tumoral bone.
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