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130 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
First manifestation of sepsis?
Hyperventilation with respiratory alkalosis
Poiseuille's law
Flow is proportional to radius^4 and pressure differential Inversely to viscosity and length
Most common cause of hypercoagulable state
Smoking
Most common bacteria in SBP
Gram-negative enteric (E coli, Klebsiella)
Tx with cefotaxime or similar 3rd generation cephalosporin
Empiric therapy of SBP, after ascitic cultures taken, if...
Fever
Abdominal pain/tenderness
Altered mental status
Ascites fluid PMN cound >250 cells/mm3
von willebrand factor is produced in
endothelium, megakaryocytes/platelets
function of von willebrand factor
platelet adhesion, carrier for factor 8
types of vWD?
Type 1: mild, decreased vWF (75%) - nosebleeds
Type 2: qualitative defect (25%)
Type 3: no vWF produced (rare) - severe bleeding
labs in vWD?
increased PTT, decreased factor 8 (sometimes), platelet count normal
manifestations of primary blast injury (from pressure wave itself)?
Eardrum perforation (most common)
Lung injury (contusion to severe ARDS)
Bowel injury
transplant types with highest risk of lymphoproliferative disease?
highest: intestinal, multiorgan
lowest: HCT, renal, liver
pathogenesis of lymphoproliferative disease in most transplant patients?
EBV-positive B cell proliferation in setting of chronic T cell suppression, though EBV-negative tumors can also occur
major risk factors for lymphoproliferative disorder in transplant pt?
Degree of overall immunosuppression
EBV status
Time post-transplant
Majority of lymphoproliferative disorders post transplant?
B cell lymphoma, non-Hodgkin's
Neoadjuvant chemo/rads in rectal ca?
For locally advanced T3/T4 rectal cancer
After neoadjuvant therapy you excise the cancer as per its initial staging, even if it appears to have disappeared entirely.
Afterwards most patients get a 5FU based chemo regimen regardless of pathology.
Pretreatment staging of colon ca by
Physical
CT
Chest imaging
Serum CEA levels
Ideally, with full colonoscopy
Surgery for pts with metastatic colorectal ca?
most are not candidates, get palliative chemo
in selected pts with limited mets to liver and/or lung, may try for cure with aggressive surgery/chemo
Most important indicator of outcome post resection of colon ca
Pathologic stage
Postresection surveillance for stage 1 colorecal ca?
periodic H+P, colonoscopy
For stage 2/3, add CEA, annual CT
Low protein diet in renal failure?
Not recommended!
Calories for nutrition?
25-30 kcal/kg per day in stable patient
Protein for nutrition?
Mild/moderate illness 0.8-1.2 g/kg per day
Critical illness 1.2-1.5 g/kg per day
Severe burns 2 g/kg per day
Define intra-abdominal hypertension, abdominal compartment syndrome
IAH = pressure >12 mmHg
ACS = pressure >20 mmHg with new organ dysfunction
Consequences of abdominal compartment syndrome?
Impaired cardiac function with decreased venous return
Hypoxemia
Hypercarbia
Renal impairment
Diminished gut perfusion
Elevated ICP
Management of ACS?
OR if pressure ~ >25mmHg
Drain fluid collections, NG, rectal tube
Supine, no HOB elevation
Adequate sedation/analgesia/paralysis
PEEP, pressure limited ventilation
No diuretics, limit fluids
time to onset of oral vitamin K? IV vitamin K?
oral: 24-48 hours
IV: 12-24 hours (10-20mg dose will fully reverse but cause refractoriness)
Time to onset of action of FFP?
onset almost immediate, but takes time to thaw and infuse. Need 3-5+ units, volume overload?
lasts 6-8 hours
what is octaplex?
vitamin K dependent factors (2, 7, 9, 10)
contains heparin (don't use in HIT)
works immediately, lasts 6-8 hours.
what level of activity of coagulation factors is required for hemostasis?
25-30% of normal
perioperative replacement in pts taking chronic steroids?
if likely to have suppressed HPA axis (> 3 weeks tx of >5 mg a day prednisone)

Minor/local procedure: no change, usual dose
Moderate stress: usual dose + 50 mg hydrocort IV before induction and 75 mg/day, divided for 24 hours
Major stress: usual dose + 100 mg hydrocort IV before induction then 150 mg/day divided, tapering to maintenance level
how does UFH work, vs LMWH?
UFH activates antithrombin and inactivates factor 10a
LMWH only inactivates factor 10a
Much less HIT with LMWH
mechanism of action of warfarin?
inhibits activation of vitamin-K dependent clotting factors, and proteins C and S

reduction of all vitamin-K dependent factors takes about a week after therapy is initiated
risk factors for surgical site infection?
NOT age

Diabetes/hyperglycemia, obesity, cirrhosis, smoking, systemic immunsuppression, malnutrition, S aureus colonization, remote focus of infection, long hospitalization, severe illness, shaving, foreign body, long surgery time, tissue trauma, blood transfusion, use of electrocautery, inordinate personnel traffic during OR
Risk factors for C Diff diarrhea
Increasing age
Renal/COPD/GI disease, NG tube
Immunosuppressed, malignancy
Preop bowel regimen
ANtibiotic use
SUrgery
Prolonged hospitalization
ICU
Caregivers
Longterm facilities

NOT carrier status
biopsy for neck mass...
FNA
local anesthetics causing methemoglobinemia?
benzocaine, prilocaine
rare with lidocaine (usually with congenital methemoglobinemia)
what is methemoglobin?
hemoglobin with iron in oxidized state; shifts curve to left, can cause lack of tissue oxidation if level high
levels > 20% symptomatic, >40% high mortality
dx/tx of methemoglobinemia?
both congenital and acquired forms (usually drugs)
blood dark-red/brownish, clinical cyanosis
tx if >20%: d/c offending agent, if symptomatic give methylene blue or ascorbic acid
Induction dose of propofol? Time to effect? Duration of action?
DOse 1.5-3 mg/kg, rapid onset, lasts 5-10 minutes.
No analgesia. Drops MAP by suppressing SNS, neuroinhibitory. Reduces airway resistance/bronchospasm.
Induction dose of ketamine? Time to effect? Duration of action?
Dose 1-2 mg/kg, rapid onset, lasts 10-20 minutes.
Analgesic properties.
Stimulates catecholamine release causing increase in HR, MAP. Prserves resp drive. Good in hypotension.
Problems with thiopental in induction?
Can induce profound hypotension in doses needed for induction. Exacerbates bronchospasm, not for use in sepsis.
Dose of midaz for RSI? Side effects?
0.2 mg/kg - causes hypotension so not good in shock.
signs of malignant hyperthermia?
rise in EtCO2, increase in minute ventilation, rigidity, tachycardia, hyperthermia
triggers for MH? inheritance?
inheritance is autosomal dominant - tell family!
Triggered by inhalational agents (not nitrous), succinylcholine
tx of MH?
Turn off triggering agents, give 100% O2, stop procedure, switch to propofol/midaz
Give dantrolene, bicarbonate
Watch for hyperkalemia, arrhythmias
Cool if temp >39
Transfer to ICU
Patients who survive clostridium septicum NF/gangrene should have....
colonoscopy to r/o associated pathology of GI tract/GI cancer.
substrates for gluconeogenesis?
LGAG
lactate, glycerol, alanine, glutamine
TRALI?
new-onset acute lung injury occurring during or within 6 hours of PRBC transfusion completion

Profound hypoxemia, bilateral pulmonary edema -> supportive tx. NO signs of circulatory overload (CVP, PCWP normal)

Pathogenesis uncertain; usually resolves in 24-72 hours

Risk per unit of blood is 1:10 000, leading cause of transfusion-related morbidity and mortality
tx to improve platelet function in uremic pts?
Hemodialysis
DDAVP
Correction of anemia
Estrogen
Cryoprecipitate

Giving platelets will NOT Help
impact of uremia on coagulation?
inhibits platelet function
perioperative mgmt of warfarin anticoagulation in pts with mechanical valves?
for any procedure with significant bleeding risk:
hold warfarin 5 days prior
begin LMWH (stop 24 hours prior to procedure) or UFH (stop 4-6 hours prior to procedure)
recommence anticoagulation as soon as possible, d/c heparin once INR in therapeutic range for 2 days
predictor of poor pulmonary function post lung resection?
predicted post-operative FEV1/DLCO <40%
hyperacute, acute, and chronic transplant rejection?
hyperacute: minutes to days, mediated by preformed antibody (prevented by crossmatching)

acute: first weeks to months, or at any time, mediated by T cells and accompanied by acquired antibody response. only type that can be completely treated/reversed

chronic: poorly understood, fibrosis and atherosclerosis of organ secondary partially to T and B cell processes
contraindications for liver transplant
Cardiopulmonary disease that cannot be corrected and is a prohibitive risk for surgery.
Malignancy outside of the liver within five years of evaluation (not including superficial skin cancers) or not meeting oncologic criteria for cure.
Active alcohol and drug use. Most programs require a minimum period of abstinence of at least six months with participation in a structured rehabilitation and abstinence program and adequate social support to help maintain sobriety.
effect of enteral or parenteral nutrition in severely malnourished preoperative patient
decreases mortality
enternal nutrition...
decreases infectious complications in critically ill patients
routine postoperative use of enteral and/or parenteral nutrition after cancer resection: effect on mortality?
none
electrolyte content of ringers lactate?
130 mEq of sodium ion
109 mEq of chloride ion
28 mEq of lactate
4 mEq of potassium ion
3 mEq of calcium ion
role of steroids in icp mgmt?
associated with worse outcome in head injury, cerebral infarction, intracranial hemorrhage

(only role to manage ICH in tumors and infections)
lower icp?
sedate/paralyze/intubate
mannitol
raise HOB
prevent hypotension
hyperventilate to pCO2 30 (brief periods only)
EVD/shunt
greatest risk of death from a blood transfusion is due to...
ABO incompatibility
features of ATN on urinalysis?
muddy/granular casts, uOSM <350, sodium >40, FENa >2%
adrenal insufficiency - effect on BP, K, Na?
hypotension
hyperkalemia
hyponatremia
4 Ts for HIT?
Thrombocytopenia (50% reduction)
Timing of fall (within 5-15 weeks of initiation)
THrombosis (white clots, arterial or venous, skin necrosis)
other causes for Thrombocytopenia
risk factors for HIT?
longer duration of therapy
use of UFH
surgical or female patient
triad of fat embolism syndrome
resp/cardiac changes (hypoxia, tachycardia, tachypnea)
neurological abnormalities
petechial rash

24-72 hours after initial insult
alternative to benzos in DTs
propofol
Genetics of lynch syndrome?
Cancers?
autosomal dominant, mutations in DNA mismatch repair genes
Right-sided colon cancers, endometrium, ovary
Dx by blood genetic test
familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)?
autosomal dominant, mutation in APC gene
thousands of colorectal adenomas by age 20-40, 100% risk of colon ca, also other GI cancers, thyroid ca
annual colonoscopy, total colectomy by age 20
Gardner's syndrome?
FAP + extraintestinal lesions (sebaceous cysts, osteomas, desmoid tumors
Turcot's syndrome?
FAP + CNS tumor
typical regimen for immunosuppression post kidney transplant?
calcineurin inhibitor (cyclosporine or tacrolimus) +
antimetabolite (mycophenolate or azathioprine) +
corticosteroid
use of PEEP affects paO2 or paCO2?
paO2
torsades des pointes?
drugs, hypomagnesemia, hypokalemia
factors controlling aldosterone secretion?
plasma K, plasma Na, ACTH, angiotesin
pretreatment for reducing risk of contrast induced nephropathy?
hydration with IV sodium bicarbonate (better than saline)
PO acetylcysteine
5 year risk of rupture in 5.5cm AAA?
25%
Factors increasing central line infection
Femoral placement
>3-6 days
Non anti-microbial line
Content of chyle?
Triglycerides
T cells, immunoglobulin
Electrolytes, protein
Fat soluble vitamins from intestine
Mgmt of postoperative chylothorax
Initial observation with chest tube and TPN/high protein and low fat diet
If persists >14 days, thoracic duct ligation +/- pleurodesis
Rate of posterior urethral injury in pelvic #?
5-10%
risk factor for subglottic stenosis in trach?
placement through 1st tracheal ring
where is hydrocele
tunica vaginalis
best prognosticator of TBI recovery
initial GCS
contraindication to aminoglycosides
neuromuscular blockade (potentiates)
organisms in post splenectomy sepsis
pneumococcus, H flu, meningococcus
timing to stop/start LMWH in pt with neuraxial catheter
stop 24 hours before
wait 6 hours after
four major predictors of cardiac risk in preoperative assessment
MI in last 3-6 months
Recent PCI
Decompensated CHF or severe valvular disease
Significant arrhythmias (Vtach, uncontrolled SVA, high grade AV block)
what tissue is most immunogenic? least?
most = bone marrow, skin
least = liver
mutation in MEN2
RET oncogene
extrahepatic manifestations of chronic hepatitis c?
hematologic: cryoglobulinemia, lymphoma
renal: MPGN
autoimmune: thyroiditis
dermatologic: porphyria cutanea tarda, lichen planus
endocrine: diabetes
major HLA antigens for kidney matching?
DR > B > A
C not used
marker for recurrence of thryoid cancer
thyroglobulin
likelihood of NSAIDs causing GI bleed?
ketorolac > naproxen > ibuprofen > coxibs
tx of brain mets in recurrent breast ca
surgical excision +/- whole brain irradiation
stereotactic rads if surcially inaccessible
cancers where link with smoking not proven
breast, skin
scarless fetal wound healing
increased hyaluronic acid
fibroblasts produce more collagen, less degraded
reduced immune response (less neutrophils, macrophages)
lower levels of TGF-B, FGF-2, PDGF
what causes sickling in sickle cell?
low pO2 -> polymerization of HbS
Aggravated by acidemia, increased CO2, increased 2,3-DPG, increased temperature and osmolality
Decreased by presence of HbF (hydroxyurea)
prophylaxis for splenectomy
for elective splenectomy: pneumococcal, meningococcal, Hib vaccines 14 days before surgery

asplenic children: daily prophylaxis with oral pen or amox until age 5 and at least 1 year following splenectomy
anticholinergic toxidrome
blind as a bat, mad as a hatter, red as a beet, dry as a bone, hot as a hare, bowel and bladder lose tone
cholinergic toxidrome
SLUDGE (salivation, lacrimation, urination, diarrhea, GI distress, emesis)
kilocalories in 20% lipid emulsion for TPN?
about 2 kcal/mL (half that for 10%)
when to use TPN?
critically ill malnourished patient who cannot use enteral route for > 1 week

higher incidence of infectious complications with TPN overall
initial nutrition goal in critically ill patient?
18 kcal/kg per day and 1.5 g of protein/kg per day
dosing of fat in TPN?
1-2.5 g/kg/day
should not exceed 60% of total calories
perioperative tx of new dx/uncontrolled hyperthyroidism
delay surgery until controlled (3-8 weeks)
if emergent, give beta blocker +/- thionamide (PTU/methimazole - inhibits de novo synthesis of hormone so takes a few days to start working, give for postop control) +/- iodine (caution in toxic goiter, inhibits thyroid release)
tight glucose control in cardiac surgery...
decreases deep sternal wound infection
hx of CABG with fixed perfusion defect and no evidence of reversable ischemia, preop meds?
beta blockers
sx severe hypophosphatemia
myocardial depression
muscle weakness with resp failure
confusion, coma, seizures
causes of SIADH
lung tumor
closed head injury
alcohol withdrawal
RQ of carbs, protein, fat
carbs 1.0
protein 0.8-0.9
fat/ketones 0.6-0.7
most infectious of hep b, hep c, HIV?
hep b - small inoculum, remains viable for days
head trauma in anticoagulated patient
if strong suspicion ICH and clear head injury, reverse without waiting for CT or INR

can also get delayed bleed
emergency surgery, took significant steroid in past year?
could have HPA suppression - IV hydrocortisone
hypocalcemia EKG?
prolonged QT
triggering of endocrine response after injury via
afferent nerve stimuli from injured area
what are acute phase proteins
increase or decrease by >25% in inflammation
major cytokine inducer of most acute phase reactants
IL-6
CRP and inflammation?
sensitive but not specific (also up in metabolic malfunction)
glucagon release stimulated by
exercise
hypoglycemia
epinephrine

INHIBITEd by somatostatin
cells most responsible for il-1 production
monocytes, macrophages
effects of IL-1
increase wound healing
fever
vasodilation
VTE prophylaxis in pt with antithrombin-3 deficiency who cannot be given heparin?
Antithrombin III concentrate to maintain levlels 80-120% of normal
tx of non severe c diff
Flagyl
highest risk patients in which IE prophylaxis is probably a good idea
Prosthetic heart valves, including bioprosthetic and homograft valves.
A prior history of IE.
Unrepaired cyanotic congenital heart disease
Completely repaired congenital heart defects with prosthetic material or device during the first six months after the procedure.
Repaired congenital heart disease with residual defects
Cardiac valvulopathy in a transplanted heart.
cell target of radiation damage
nucleus
best test for nutritional status
clinical assessment (H+P)
protein loss source in critical illness
skeletal muscle
FeNa in hemorrhagic shock
<1-2%
preop prep of pheochromocytoma
alpha blocker (phenoxybenzamine)
then beta blocker