Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
101 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
common causes of recurrence or failed phenol/alcohol nail procedures
|
-old phenol
-insufficient phenol application -removal of insufficient nail border -inadequate hemostasis |
|
granuloma pyogenicum refers to to
|
-granulation tissue in the medial or lateral groove
|
|
where is the hyponychium anatomically
|
lie under the free margin of the nail bed
|
|
how does an exostoses differ from an osteochondroma
|
-fibrocartilage caps the bone instead of a hyaline cap
osteochondroma: cartilage capped outgrowth connected to the bone by a stalk |
|
what is the Frost procedure and what is the advantage
|
-maximum exposure to the nail matrix
L shaped incision behind the nail plate |
|
what is the proper sequence of steps used during the sequential reduction of a dorsally subluxed MPJ
|
-release the extensor hood expansion
-release the collaterals -release the plantar joint tissues |
|
given severe OM destruction of a distal pahalnx secondary to an ulcerated distal heloma, what procedure would be indicated
|
distal symes amp
|
|
Hoffman procedure
|
resection of met heads 1-5
|
|
what is the advantage to a plantar transverse incisonal approach for RA forefoot procedures
|
-good exposure to the severely PF met heads
|
|
how many interossei are there nad where do they insert
|
- 4 dorsal, 3 plantar
-DI insert base of proximal pahlanx laterally, xcept the 1st -PI insert base of proximally phalanx medially |
|
what are the forces and functions of the interossei
|
-the pull of the interosei neutralizes the force of the flexor muscles at the MPJ's
|
|
Ext sub cause of HT's
|
EDL overpowers the instrinsics
(equinus, anterior cavus, neuropathy) |
|
common etiology of heloma molle
|
-head of prox phalanx of 5th against the base of the 4th prox phalanx
|
|
what is the relationship between the DTIL and the interossei and lumbricals
|
the plantar and dorsal interossei lie dorsal and the lumbricals plantar
|
|
what is the MC cause of flexor stabilzation
|
excessive pronation causing instability
|
|
to develop the classic HT, the pull of which tendons are needed
|
FDL and FDB
|
|
at what level should an extensor tenotomy be performed
|
proximal to the ext hood apparatus
|
|
4th IM angle that is considred symptomatic
|
9 degrees
N = 6-8 N bowing = 2 (2-4-6) |
|
Hibbs Procedure
|
EDL tendons are detached and attached at the midfoot
|
|
MC chronically dislocated joint in the foot
|
-2n MPJ
|
|
what anatomical structure is considered most sig nif facotr in stabilization of the MPJ
|
plantar plate
|
|
what is the pathophysiology of an IM neuroma
|
-perineural fibrosis
|
|
the IM neuroma most commonly invovles which nerve
|
common digital branch of MPN
|
|
what structure is cited as entrapping the IM nerve
|
DTIL
|
|
what are specific complications assoc with surgical excision of a neuroma
|
-stump neuroma
-vascular embarassment -digital or MPJ instability |
|
Joplins neuroma occurs in what nerve
|
medial plantar digital nerve (plantar proper digital nerve)
|
|
iselins neuroma
|
4th interspace
|
|
hueters neuroma
|
1st interspace
|
|
incisional planning for derotational arthroplasty of 5th digit
|
2 semi elliptical incisions from prox lateral to distal medial
|
|
epidermal inclusion cyst - etiology
|
-may follow a surgical procedure in which the epidermis is introduced subepidermally forming an intradermal foreign body and causes pain and inflammation
|
|
longitudinal ungual pigmentation in a fair skinned person
|
precursor for acral lentiginous melanoma (avlulse and biopsy)
|
|
etiology of keloids
|
-fibrous reactions at injury sites
-reaction involves myofibroblasts |
|
do digital mucoid cysts communicate with joints
|
yes, communicate with distal IPJ and will often recur after curettage
|
|
clinical presentation of a child with shortened digits and HAV may signify
|
myositis ossificans progressiva
-tendons and ligaments are replaced by bone |
|
a solitary, subungual, reddish purple pain lesions
|
glomus tumor
|
|
what is the name of the scarring nail dystrophy characteristic of lichen planus
|
-pterygium formation
|
|
Lovibonds angle is used to measure nail clubbing; explain
|
-lovibonds lateral profile sign is used to measure clubbing and is defined as the angle between the curved nail plate and the proximal nail fold
-normal is 160, clubbing exceeds 180 |
|
periungual fibromas or Koenens tumors are found in 50% of the cases of which disease
|
tuberous sclerosis
|
|
what diagnostic test is considered gold std for detecting a glomus tumor of the nail bed
|
arteriography
|
|
hutchinsons sign
|
-brown to black discolration of the nail bed spreading to nail fold skin suggesting melanoma
|
|
what poisoning can cause transverse lines in the nails
|
arsenic - mee's lines
|
|
what is the MC cause of isolated splinter hemorrhages of the nail bed
|
trauma
|
|
what specific form of onychomycosis is associated with HIV
|
proximal subungual onychomycosis
|
|
in onychomycosis how long should one wait to see the full therapeutic effect of a 3 month course of oral itraconazole or terbinafine
|
ten months
|
|
responsible for 90% of cases of onychomycosis
|
trichophytum
|
|
MC lab test for onychomycosis
|
nail clip biopsy with PAS stain (periodic acid Schiff)
|
|
what are shallow transverse grooves of the nail plate
|
beaus lines
|
|
patzakis classification for zones of plantar aspect of foot
|
zone 1- digits to neck of mets
2 - area between the met necks and calcs 3 - calcaneus 1 and 3 are associated with increased incidence of OM from puncture wound |
|
in a puncture wound with a retained foreign body, how long does it take for an infection to manifest
|
24 hours
|
|
why are structures such as instrinsic tendons, extrinsic tendons, IM bursa, and MPJ capsule of worry with puncture wounds
|
-if puncture wounds extends to these structures , infection can be established easily due to their decreased vascularity and slower metabolic rate
|
|
what type of imaging study is best for detecting wood fragments
|
CT with use of narrow window
|
|
when does OM become evident on xray, on bone scan?
|
xray - 14 days
bone scan - 24 hours |
|
gold std for OM diagnosis
|
-bone biopsy
|
|
puncture wounds from dog and cat bites, organism and tx
|
-pasturella multocida
-augmentin |
|
OM in a puncture wound bacteria
|
-pseudomonas aeruginosa
|
|
most common site for OM in puncture wound of the foot
|
calcaneus
|
|
MC object for foot puncture wound
|
nail (98%)
-wood, metal, glass |
|
3 classes of pseudomonas infection in children described by Green and Bruno
|
1- early diagnosis and surgical drainage with abx coverage results in complete healing
2 - diagnosis delayed in 9-24 days. debridement and abx eradicate infection but pt may have residual bone or joint deformity 3 - diagnosis delayed over 3 weeks results in chronic infection with necessary bone resection |
|
3 classes of pseudomonas infection in children described by Green and Bruno
|
1- early diagnosis and surgical drainage with abx coverage results in complete healing
2 - diagnosis delayed in 9-24 days. debridement and abx eradicate infection but pt may have residual bone or joint deformity 3 - diagnosis delayed over 3 weeks results in chronic infection with necessary bone resection |
|
tetanus prophylaxis consists of what 4 components
|
-wound care
-tetanus toxoid -immune globulin -abx |
|
how often should tetanus boosters be administered
|
-when last injection was greater then 1 yr and the wound is tetanus prone; give the booster
-if the wound is not tetanus prone, booster should be given every 5 yrs |
|
tetanus prophylaxis consists of what 4 components
|
-wound care
-tetanus toxoid -immune globulin -abx |
|
MC encountered foreign body in the foot
|
pin or needle
|
|
how often should tetanus boosters be administered
|
-when last injection was greater then 1 yr and the wound is tetanus prone; give the booster
-if the wound is not tetanus prone, booster should be given every 5 yrs |
|
MC encountered foreign body in the foot
|
pin or needle
|
|
necrotic arachnidism - clinical progression and cause
|
-brown recluse of genus Loxosclese
-severe necrotic tissue destruction -blue gray halo peri wound -progresses to necrosis, eschar foration and large ulceration |
|
necrotic arachnidism - clinical progression and cause
|
-brown recluse of genus Loxosclese
-severe necrotic tissue destruction -blue gray halo peri wound -progresses to necrosis, eschar foration and large ulceration |
|
3 classes of pseudomonas infection in children described by Green and Bruno
|
1- early diagnosis and surgical drainage with abx coverage results in complete healing
2 - diagnosis delayed in 9-24 days. debridement and abx eradicate infection but pt may have residual bone or joint deformity 3 - diagnosis delayed over 3 weeks results in chronic infection with necessary bone resection |
|
tetanus prophylaxis consists of what 4 components
|
-wound care
-tetanus toxoid -immune globulin -abx |
|
how often should tetanus boosters be administered
|
-when last injection was greater then 1 yr and the wound is tetanus prone; give the booster
-if the wound is not tetanus prone, booster should be given every 5 yrs |
|
MC encountered foreign body in the foot
|
pin or needle
|
|
necrotic arachnidism - clinical progression and cause
|
-brown recluse of genus Loxosclese
-severe necrotic tissue destruction -blue gray halo peri wound -progresses to necrosis, eschar foration and large ulceration |
|
tx for brown recluse bite
|
-controversial
-but intralesional and oral steroids, surgical debridement and use of dapsone |
|
diff between low velocity and high velocity trauam
|
-low is <2000 ft/sec
-high is >2000 ft/sec |
|
what formula describes the amt of energy posessed by a projectile
|
KE = 1/2 mv ^2
|
|
describe the classificationn for shotgun wounds and name its developers
|
sherman and parrish
1 - penetrates subcut tissue or deep fascia, occur at distance greater then 7 yards 2 - occur at 3-7 yards; viscera bones and vascular system violated 3 - occur at less then 3 yards; severe local destruction and loss of tissue |
|
Ordogs classification for gunshot wounds
|
0 - no injury
1 - blunt injury (non penetrating gunshot wound) 2 - graze injury 3 - blast effect w/o missile penetration 4 - blast effect with missile penetration 5 - penetrating 6 - perforating 7 - penetration with missile embolization |
|
lead intoxication
|
plumbism
|
|
abx of choice for type 1 gunshots
|
cephalosporin
|
|
is cavitation associated with low or high velocity gunshot wounds
|
high velocity
|
|
classification for burn injury
|
1st degree - sunburn, partil thickness
2 - blister formation, into deep epidermis 3 - full thickenss, leathery |
|
fluid replacement for first 24 hours after a burn
|
Baxters formula
-4 ml crystalloid per percent of total body surface area per kg of weight |
|
describe the stages of skin graft healing
|
1. plasmatic
2. inosculation 3. revascularization 4. reinervation |
|
what is the number of organisms per gram of TISSUE that define infection
|
10^5
|
|
what is the number of organisms per gram of BONE that define infection
|
10^6
|
|
what is the number of organisms per gram of bone or soft tissue when a foreign body is present
|
10^2
|
|
what are the stages of wound healing and what goes on in each stage
|
1. substrate (lag) phase; formation of platelet-fibrin plug and PMN are main WBC
2. proliferation phase; fibroblasts lay down collagen, new vessels cross the defect, presence of myofibroblasts which have contractile ability (macrophage is main cell) -remodeling phase; collagen is realigned |
|
MC fracture orientation in a lesser digit
|
closed spiral oblique
|
|
why is the area around the ankle prone to formation of fracture blisters
|
-lack of epidermal anchoring structures such as hair follicles and swear glands
-extensive veins -sparse subcutaneous tissue -flatter opidermal papillae |
|
what locations other then the foot are prone to fracture blister formation
|
elbow
distal tibia |
|
what are 2 types of fracture blisters
|
clear (serous) - more common
hemorrhagic - common in more severe injuries |
|
between what two skin layers do fracture blisters form
|
dermal-epidermal jxn
|
|
osteochondrosis of the base of the phalanges
|
theimans
|
|
what are two broad catergories of compartment syndrome etiology
|
-those that cause increase in compartment contents
-those that cause decrease in compartment size |
|
MC etiology of compartment syndrome
|
fracture
|
|
name the compartments of the foot
|
-medial
-lateral -central -interosseous |
|
what percentage of nail plate should be invovled with sunungual hematoma before a nail is avulsed
|
-greater then 25%
-any lacerations should be repaired with fine suture -check for nail bed lacerations when over 25% of nail bed is involved |
|
what % of puncture wounds to the bottom of the foot develop complications
|
10%
|
|
what percentage of complications following puncture wounds to the bottom of the foot develop OM
|
<2%
|
|
when should you use tetanus immunoglobulin following a puncture wound to the foot
|
-in a case where basic active immunity has not been attained or where it has been attained but is greater then 10 yrs old and no boosters given since then; and the wound is very dirty and tetanus prone
|
|
in terms of trauma, what does the "golden period" refer to
|
the first 6-8 hour after an injury before significant contamination developes
|