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273 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
what are the three main regions of the LRT?
1. bronchi
2. bronchioles
3. alveoli
what are the normal flora of the LRT?
none
what makes up 25% of the protein secreted in the nasophaynx?
IgA
what two options do organisms have to reach the LRT?
1. inhaled in small droplet nuclei
2. normal flora that is able to adhere to the LRT surfaces
what is a LRT disease which is characterized by cough paroxysm consiting of short expiratory bursts followed by an inspiratory gasp which causes a distinctive sound?
whooping cough
whatis the causitive angent of whooping cough? (2)
1. Bordetella pertussis (majority of cases)
2. Bordetella parapertussis
Bordetella pertussis gram + or -?
gram -
Bordetella pertussis structure?
coccobacilli
what other organism does Bordetella pertussis infect?
TRICK! Only a human pathogen
is Bordetella pertussis intra or extracellular?
extracellular
does Bordetella pertussis produce toxin?
yes
is Bordetella pertussis invasive?
no
what allows Bordetella pertussis to bind to cilia of respiratory tract and bind recepotors on PMN's that stimulate uptake?
Filamentous hemagglutinin (FHA)
what are the 4 toxins produced by Bordetella pertussis?
1. Pertussis toxin
2. Adenylate cyclase toxin
3. Dermonecrotic toxin
4. tracheal cytotoxin
describe the classification of pertussis toxin?
A/B toxin or Type III exotoxin
what two roles does pertussis toxin function in?
1. adhesion
2. G-protien ribosylation resulting in increased cAMP levels
what systemic indicator reveals the presence of pertussis toxin?
Lymphocytosis
what protective function does pertussis toxin function in for Bordetella pertussis?
inhibits phagocytosis and monocyte migration
what is the classification of adenylate cyclase toxin?
secreted A/B toxin or Type III endotoxin
what is the mode of action for adenylate cyclase toxin?
enters the cell and causes increased cAMP production
what are the effects of adenylate cyclase toxin on cells of the respiratory epithelium?
increases mucus production and damages ciliated cells
what are the effects of adenylate cyclase toxin on the immune system?
Inhibits leukocyte production, migration, and killing
what is the action of dermonecrotic toxin?
vascular smooth muscle contraction resulting in local ischemic damage
tracheal cytotoxin is said to be a by product of?
peptodiglycan synthesis in host cells
what two effects does tracheal cytotoxin have on tracheal epithelial cells?
1. interferes with DNA production
2. causes release of IL-1 which is a fever-inducing agent
of all the toxins produced by Bordetella pertussis which actually is responsible for the whooping cough?
tracheal cytotoxin
what is the main traget of Bordetella pertussis?
ciliated epithelium
how does FHA bind to PMN's?
via CR3
which two toxins are responsible for the increased mucus production seen in patients with whooping cough?
Pertussis toxin and adenylate cyclase toxin
what causes the systemic manifestations (seizures, encephalopathy) related to whooping cough?
the cough itself causes anoxia which results in the systemic manifestations
how is whooping cough mainly transported?
aerosol droplets
what is the attack rate of pertussis?
50-100%
in unvaccinated populations, what age group is most at risk for whooping cough?
ages 1-5
what are the two sources of whooping cough spreading?
unimmunized children and adults with wanning protective immunity
what is the incubation time for whooping cough?
1-3 weeks
what is the enitre time frame of the Bordetella pertussis infection?
6-10 weeks
What is the phase (whooping cough): lookis like URT infection, lasts 1-2 weeks, nonproductive dry cough develops?
catarrhal phase
what is the phase (whooping cough): characterized by whooping cough which peaks at 30 episodes per day and ends in vomiting and lasts 2-6 weeks?
paroxysmal phase
what is the phase (whooping cough): descrease in intensity and frequency of cough?
convalescent phase
when should I be clinically suspicious of whooping cough?
when patient has cough longer than 2 weeks
what serologic findins might tip me off to a Bordetella pertussis infection?
high leukocytosis with predominance of lymphocytes
what is the method of choice for diagnosing a Bordetella pertussis infection?
direct antigen testing via PCR (good sensitivity and specificity) or flourescent antibody staining (low sensitivity)
what is the DOC for treatment of whooping cough?
erythromycin
what are the two types of vaccines availible for whooping cough?
whole cell and acellular (inactivated pertussis toxoid)
what other inactivated toxoids are included in the acellular Bordetella pertussis vaccine?
inactivated toxoids from diphtheria and tetanus
what infectious disorder is characterized by inflammation of tracheobronchial tree where mucous membranes are edematous and persistant cough in absense of LRT infection?
Acute Bronchitis
when does acute bronchitis normally occur?
winter months
what LRT disease is characterized by acute, viral, ilness occuring at or before 2 years of age with wheezing, hyperaeration, cough, rhinorrhea, repiratory distress?
bronchiolitis
what are the 3 main causes of bronchiolitis in order of their prevelance?
1. respiratory synctial virus (RSV) 45-75%
2. Parainfluenza virus type 1, 2, 3 15-35%
3. Human metaneumovirus
what pathologic agent is the leading cause of LRT infections in children world-wide?
RSV
what family of viruses does RSV belong to?
paramyxoviridae
does RSV have a naked capsid or is it enveloped?
enveloped
describe the viral genome of RSV?
single negative sense strand RNA
what are the proteins which are integral to RSV infectivity and pathogenicity?
F and G glycosylated surface protiens
what is the function of the F protien of RSV?
F protein mediates viral penetration vi fusion and penetration with cell membranes and melds infected cells with uninfected cells
what is the function of the G protien?
viral attachment protien which allows virus to stay on target cells
what tests are availible for diagnosis of RSV virus?
1. ELISA or DFA (direct flourescent antibody???)
2. nasal wash culture which presents with syncytia
in unvaccinated populations, how many children are infected with RSV by age 3?
virtually all
where does inoculation with RSV occur?
nose or eyes
what is RSV incubation period?
4-5 days
there is a bias towards which type of TH cell response with RSV?
TH2, but what is needed is TH1
what immune response is most important in the defense against RSV?
cell-mediated immunity
what antibodies appear most effective against RSV?
those that bind to F and G glycoproteins
describe the first clinical manifestations of RSV infection?
nasal congestion, pharyngitis, fever, cough which deepens with LRT involvement
most common presentations of RSV infections are? (2)
1. pneumonia
2. bronchiolitis
how can you tell when LRT involvement is occuring with a RSV infection? (3)
1. dyspnea
2. increased respiration rate
3. intercostal retractions
what is a common complication of RSV infections?
Otitis media
what is the primary treatment of RSV infections in otherwise healthy children?
supportive care
what are the 2 forms of passive immunization availble fo RSV infections?
1. RSVIG immunoglobulin
2. Palivizumab - monoclonal antibodie reactive with F protein of RSV
what family does the parainfluenza virus belong to?
paramxyoviruses
describe the genome of the parainfluenza virus?
ssRNA that is negative sense
what distinguishes the parainfluenza virus from other paramxyoviruses?
envelope glycoprotien neuraminidase and presence of hemagglutinating properties
what does the hemagglutinin-neurominidase protein complex do?
allows virus to bind to sailic acid receptors
what allows for fusion and infection of target cells by the parainfluenza virus?
F protien like that found in RSV
what is the gold standared laboratory test for parainfluenza virus diagnosis?
cell culture from NS wash or respiratory secretions
what can be used for rapid diagnosis of the parainfluenza virus?
DFA
what can be added to tubes containing the virus to determine if it has hemadsorptive properties?
guinea pig RBC's
the parainfluenza virus is the leading cause of ___ in the US?
laryngitis
describe laryngitis
erythema and swelling of lateral walls of the trachea just below vocal cords
what is the most common presentation of parainfluenza virus infections?
common cold (URT infection)
where is the initial site of infection for the parainfluenza virus?
mucous membranes of nose and throat
how does the parainfluenza virus get to the LRT?
it spreads down respiratory tract just like RSV
how long does a croup cough (laryngitis) usually last?
3-4 days
what is the suggested therapy?
supportive therapy with corticosteroids
what vaccines are availible to treat children with parainfluenza virus infections?
none
what is a recently discovered virus (2001) that closely resembles RSV and has a high infection rate in children?
Human metapneumovirus (HMPV)
what is the most practical method of testing for HMPV?
PCR
what is a disorder characterized by infection of lung parenchyma involving the alveoli or interstitium?
Pneumonia
describe the prevelance of acute pneumonia in the US?
6th leading cause of death
what is the leading cause of community aquired pneumonia?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
is Streptococcus pneumoniae gram + or -?
gram +
what is structure of Streptococcus pneumoniae?
cocci
are Streptococcus pneumoniae catalase positive or negative?
negative
why do Streptococcus pneumoniae sometimes appear gram negative?
the contain autolysin which destroys the bacteria and releases the gram + stain
what usually allows Streptococcus pneumoniae to get to LRT positions?
aspiration of URT secretions
what are the two main virulence factors which Streptococcus pneumoniae uses?
1. Capsul for protection
2. Causes inflammation
how does the capsul help Streptococcus pneumoniae avoid recognition by phagocytes?
more than 80 different serotypes so it is constantly changing to avoid detection
what function does the capsul play in preventing opsonization of Streptococcus pneumoniae?
it bind protein H which degrades C3b
what is the function of pneumolysin?
decreases oxidative bust which reduces effectiveness of PMNs
what does Streptococcus pneumoniae production of DNAse's allow for?
lysing of neutrophil NETs (cell traps)
how does Streptococcus pneumoniae cause massive inflammation of lung tissue?
it contains autolysin which destroys the bacteria, but releases teichoic acid which binds to TLR receptors causing the release of inflammatory cytokines
what does pneumolysin do that increases inflammation?
it activates compliment by binding near Fc regions on immunoglobulins
what plays a crucial role in eliminating Streptococcus pneumoniae from circulation?
the spleen
how does Streptococcus pneumoniae cause bacterial meningitis?
it can bind to blood brain barrier epithelium and damage it which allows bacteria in
what are the 3 major risk factors for Streptococcus pneumoniae infection?
1. loss of splenic function
2. decreased responsiveness to polysaccharide antigens
3. increased rat of decline in serum antibody cocentrations
what is the site of early IgM response to Streptococcus pneumoniae infection?
spleen
what is the DOC for treating Streptococcus pneumoniae infections?
penicillin, but decreased PBP affinity for penicillin has made Streptococcus pneumoniae resistant
what are alternative antibiotics for Streptococcus pneumoniae infection which are still very effective? (3)
1. vancymycin
2. quinilones
3. 3rd generation cephalosporins
what is very important to ensure before taking a culture of Streptococcus pneumoniae?
no antibiotics have been given yet
what distinguishes Streptococcus pneumoniae from other alpha-hemolytic strep?
solubility in bile caused by autolysin and sensitivity to optochin
are there vaccines availble for Streptococcus pneumoniae?
yes, consist of more than 23 different inactivated capsuls which represent 85% pf pneumonia infections
what is the new Streptococcus pneumoniae vaccine which is approved for young children?
Prevnar
what is the problem with vaccines against Pneumococcal agents?
the less common pathogenic types are taking over the place occupied by the ones being suppressed via vaccines
is Haemophilus influenza gram + or -?
gram -
what is the structure of Haemophilus influenza?
coccibacilli
what allow Haemophilus influenza to adhere to the mucosal epithelial cells?
fimbriae
what helps Haemophilus influenza avoid binding to IgA?
IgA proteases
as with most gram negative bacteria what antigenic component exists in the outer-membrane?
LPS
what is the key survival mechanism of Haemophilus influenza?
its ability to form a capsul
what is the capsul in Haemophilus influenzacomposed of?
PRP (polyribitol phosphate polysaccharide)
what is the most effective capsul type?
Type B -> invasive infections
what does the Hib vaccine help to make antibodies against?
Type B capsuls of the Haemophilus influenza
what are some of the localized disease that the unencapsulated Haemophilus influenza can produce?
otitis media, sinusitis, bronchitis
how does the spread of Haemophilus influenza occur?
airborne droplets or direct contagion with secretions
invasive infections with Haemophilus influenza usually occur in what age range?
3 months to 6 years
what does Haemophilus aegypticus cause?
pink eye (purulent conjunctivitis
what are some presentations of encapsulated Haemophilus influenza?
1. Pneumonia
2. Epiglottitis
3. Meningitis
4. Lesser presentation
-Cellulitis
-Septic Arthritis
what is the DOC for Haemophilus influenza and why?
Cephalosporin because Haemophilus influenza produces beta-lactamase
what is the special agar that must be used to culture Haemophilus influenza?
chocolate agar - heated blood agar
antibody specific to ___ is protective?
PRP (polyribosylribitol polysaccharide)
what is the vaccine that is currently used for ages 2 months and up?
conjugated PRP vaccine
is Klebsiella pneumoniae gram + or -?
gram -
what is the structure of Klebsiella pneumoniae?
bacilli
is Klebsiella pneumoniae extracellular or intracellular?
extracellular
where is Klebsiella pneumoniae part of the bodies normal flora?
the human GI tract
what is a large difference between most Enterobacteriaciae and Klebsiella pneumoniae?
it has a thick polysaccharide capsul
what does Klebsiella pneumoniae cause when untreated in the respiratory tract?
sever pyognic pneumonia
who is most at risk for respiratory infections with Klebsiella pneumoniae?
compromised hosts such as alcoholics, diabetics, and COPD patients
what is a major concern with Klebsiella pneumoniae infections in regards to treatment?
increasing antibiotic resistance that has left Klebsiella pneumoniae nearly resistant to all antibiotics
what is a free-living ubiquitous bacteria that is an important nosocomial opportunistic pathogen in multiple settings?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
where can Pseudomonas aeruginosa be found naturally?
decaying organic matter, water, vegetation
is Pseudomonas aeruginosa gram + or gram -?
gram -
describe the oxygen requirements of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
strict aerobe
what special characteristic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa shows up in pus at effected sites?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a pigment producer that makes pyocyanin and flourescein (gives pus a green color)
what makes infections with Pseudomonas aeruginosa hard to treat?
they are very antibiotic resistant
why do most healthy people not get infected with Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
the have a high number of functioning PMNs which is the most important defense against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
what must be lost from epithelial cells during disease, damage, or infection for Pseudomonas aeruginosa to adhere?
fibronectin
describe the "slime coat" that Pseudomonas aeruginosa produces
extracellular mucopolysaccharide termed alginate
what regulates the gene for alginate production in Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
Quorum sensing
in addition to quorum sensing, how can alginate production become stuck on?
during attack with H2)2 or activated PMNs
which patients have a high rate of alginate gene mutation causing its constituetive production?
CF patients
what is the benefit of having a slim layer for Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
it is both antiphagocytic and helps in antibiotic resistance
what pigment do Pseudomonas aeruginosa produce?
Pyocyanin
what does pyocyanin function as?
forms toxic radicals (tissue damage) and stimulates the release of IL-8 (neutrophil attractant)
is Pseudomonas aeruginosa noninvassive or invasive?
invasive
what exotoxin does Pseudomonas aeruginosa produce?
exotoxin A, but it is less potent than the form produced by diphtheria
what is critical for Ps. aeruginosa role in causing septic shock?
endotoxin
describe the defenses against antibody that Ps. aeruginosa displays?
contains beta lactamases and porin protien mutations which allow resistance to almost all antibiotics
which patient type is most likely to have antibiotic resistant Ps. aeruginosa?
CF patients
what is absolutely essentiat for the removal of Ps. aeruginosa from host?
functioning neutophils
where can Ps. aeruginosa be found?
just about anywhere water is present
what protects hosts from the exotoxin effect of Ps. aeruginosa in a immunocompetent individual?
antibody against exotoxin A
what is the LRT infection caused by Ps. aeruginosa?
pnuemonia
in addition to pnuemonia what other manifestations do Ps. aeruginosa infections take on? (4)
1. bateremia
2. meningitis
3. swimmers ear (otitis externa)
4 UTI
what are the beta lactams which might be effective in treating Ps. aeruginosa?
1. broad spectrum penicillins like piperacillin
2. 3rd and 4th generation cephalosporins (ceftazidime, cefepime)
3. Imipenem
4. Aztreonam
In addition to the penicillin based antibiotics, what other antibiotic can be used against Ps. aeruginosa?
Aminoglycosides
Atypical Pneumonia:

Describe characteristics upon culturing?
organisms don't grow on standared lab bacteriology media in 1-2 days
Atypical Pneumonia:

Describe host PMN response?
host usually has fewer PMNs than typical agents of typical pneumonia
Atypical Pneumonia:

describe antibiotic resistance?
resistant to all beta lactams unlike typical agent of pneumonia that respond to some, broad spectrum beta lactams
Atypical Pneumonia:

what are the 3 main causitive agents of atypical pneumonia?
1. Mycoplasma
2. Chlamydophila
3. Legionella
what is the smallest free-living organism that is able to pass through filters that stop normal bacteria?
Mycoplasma pneumonia
what is particulary unique about the structural makeup of Mycoplasma pneumonia?
it genetically lacks a cell wall
why does the disease incubation in Mycoplasma pneumonia tend to be longer than other respiratory infections?
it has a slower growth rate
what are the oxygen requirements of Mycoplasma pneumonia?
strictly aerobic
describe the prevelance of Mycoplasma pneumonia infections worldwide?
very common
what age group is most at risk for Mycoplasma pneumonia infection?
school age children and young adults
is Mycoplasma pneumonia invasive?
mostly not
where does Mycoplasma pneumonia adhere to its host cell and what facilitates this binding?
at the base of cilia on respirtory epithelium with the aid of tip protein (P1)
describe the direct damage to epithelial cells Mycoplasma pneumonia is responsible for?
produces H2)2 and causes ciliastasis
what are the two indirect damages that Mycoplasma pneumonia can cause to repiratory epithelium?
1. components of Mycoplasma pneumonia act as superantigens
2. Mycoplasma pneumonia stimulates antibodies cross-reactive with normal tissue antigens
would repeat infections with Mycoplasma pneumonia produce a worse or more controlled effect?
worst effect because this would stimulate production of more cross-reactive antibodies
what is the most common presentation of Mycoplasma pneumonia infections?
pharyngitis/rhinitis characterized by low grade fever, mailaze, headache and nonproductive cough for 2 or more weeks
what are two secondary respiratory manifestations of Mycoplasma pneumonia?
1. tracheobronchitis
2. pneumonia
when tracheobronchitis is associated with a prolonged nonproductive cough what might be the suspected pathogen at work?
pertussis
the type of pneumonia associated with Mycoplasma pneumonia infections is known as?
"walking pneumonia"
what percentage of community aquired pneumonia is atributed to Mycoplasma pneumonia infections?
~25%
recovery from Mycoplasma pneumonia infections are due mainly to what?
production of local IgG and IgA - enhances phagocytosis
what are the 3 choices diagnosign testing Mycoplasma pneumonia infections?
culture, cold agglutinin detection, and specific serology
which is the diagnostic test of choice for Mycoplasma pneumonia infections?
specific serology which tests for IgM or IgG titer rises
what are the three antibiotics used on all atypical pneumonia infections?
1. tetracycline
2. macrolide
3. quinolone
Describe Chlamydophila pneumoniae?
basically everything is the same with disease statust, diagnosis, and treatment as compared to Mycoplasma pneumonia
what is the biggest difference between Mycoplasma pneumonia and Chlamydophila pneumoniae?
Mycoplasma pneumonia is free living and Chlamydophila pneumoniae is not
describe the location (intracellular, extraceullular, or faculatative intracellular) of Legionella pneumophila
Legionella pneumophila is a facultative intracellular pathogen
is Legionella pneumophila gram + or gram -?
gram -
what is the structure of Legionella pneumophila?
bacillus
what is the required diagnostic test of Legionella pneumophila?
direct detection done with DFA or BETTER, a urine antigen test
describe the oxygen requirements of Legionella pneumophila?
areobic
what is required to grow Legionella pneumophila in culture?
a plate containing L-cystein, iron, and charcoal (to neutrolize toxins produced by growing bacteria)
why is the it important to recognize Legionella pneumophila infections in the clinical setting?
they are not routinely tested for in normal cultures and must be specifically asked for
what is an important consideration to make when suspected Legionella pneumophila tests come back negative?
they usually only test for the serotype 1 and there are 14 other serotypes it could be
how is Legionella pneumophila transmitted?
in aerosols of water (remember hot tub steam on cruise ships)
what harbors the Legionella pneumophila as they live in water?
free-living Amoeba
what persons are most at risk for Legionella pneumophila?
those with impaired mucociliary clearance and increased risk of aspiration of oral/pharyngeal flora
how does Legionella pneumophila enter macrophages and monocytes?
after compliment C3b binds to bacteria, CR3 receptors on macrophage cause it to be phagocytized
how does Legionella pneumophila avoid degredation in the phagosome?
it block the binding to the phagozome with lysosomes
how does Legionella pneumophila kill the cell which it has infected?
produces proteolytic enzymes which trigger apoptosis
what is the most important immune response against Legionella pneumophila infections of macrophages?
CMI because of the intracellular location of Legionella pneumophila
what patients are most at risk for sever infections with Legionella pneumophila?
those that are immunosuppressed with chronic disease, age, or smoking
what is the name of the acute pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophila?
Legionnaire's disease
what is the avg. incubation time for Legionnaire's disease?
5 days
describe symptoms of Legionnaire's disease (3)
1. fever/chills
2. dry nonproductive cough initially
3. multilobar consolidation
describe the severity of Legionnaire's disease?
most deadly for of pneumonia with a 5-20% mortality rate
what is the mild, self-limiting form of Legionella pneumophila infection?
Pontiac Fever
what is the incubation time for pontiac fever?
1-2 days
what is the attack rate of Legionella pneumophila?
over 90%
describe symtpoms of pontiac fever?(3)
1. fever
2. myalgia
3. non-productive cough
what is the recovery time for pontiac fever?
2-5 days
where can Legionella pneumophila be found in nature?
biofilms in water associated areas
describe its tolerance to extreme conditions?
chlorine tolerant and heat tolerant (needs to be exposed to temps over 140 before it dies)
besides there capability to grow as free-living organisms, what other place can they live?
protozoan host cells
how is Legionella pneumophila spread?
NOT person to person, but instead from exposure to contaminated water
what is the prevention against Legionella pneumophila infections?
destroy the population in whatever water resevoir they are living in
what is the preferred diagnostic test for Legionella pneumophila?
urinary antigen ELISA
what are the antibiotics used to treat Legionella pneumophila?
same as all the other atypical pneumonia cauing agents: macrolide or quinilone family and tetracylcine
what is orthomyxoviridae family of viruses commonly know associated with?
influenza virus
how many types of influenza are there?
3, Type A-C
which Type(s) are the most important pathogens in influenza?
Type A and B
what are the 5 key structural elements of the influenza virus?
1. hemagglutinin (H) surface glycoprotien
2. Neuraminidase (N) surface glycoprotien
3. Matrix (M1) and Membrane (M2) proteins
4. Nucleocapsid
5. NS (nonstructural) proteins
what is the role of hemagglutinin glycoprotiens on the viral envelope?
allows binding of capsid to host sailic acids and promotes fusion of viral envelope to host cell membrane
is the H glycoprotein antigenic?
yes
what do antibodies to H cause to happen?
prevent infection from occuring
what is the role of nuerominidase (N) surface glycoprotien?
cleaves sailic acid from host cell surface to prevent clumping of viral particles when they are released
what does antibody to N glycoprotein cause to happen?
does not stop infection, but it does stop spread
is N glycoprotein antigenic?
yes
what are matrix (M1) proteins?
major structural proteins
what is the role of M1 proteins?
promotes viral assembly
what are membrane (M2) proteins?
ion channel proteins
what is the function of M2?
promotes uncoating and viral release
what are the antibiotics which target N glycoproteins? (2)
1. zanamivir
2. oseltamivir
what are the antibiotic which target M2 proteins of influenza A? (2)
1. amantadine
2. rimantadine
what is special about the influenza capsid that allows it a unique evasion capability?
it is composed of 8 ssRNA segments which can be assembled randomly
what is the result of the random assembly of the influenza virus capsid?
many rearrangements produce non-active viruses, but the upside is that the ones which are active are highly variable and thus highly pathogenic
when is the highest variability present in ssRNA reassortment during production of influenza virus in host cells?
when host cell is infected by more than one strain which can swap ssRNA with each other
what are the 3 functions of NS proteins of the influenza virus?
1. RNA splicing
2. Suppression of IFN production
3. stimulates release of inflammatory cytokines
what actually causes the symptoms of influenza?
the release of inflammatory cytokines caused by NS proteins
describe the naming of influenza viruses (nomenclature organization)?
type/place of original isolation/strain/year of original isolation,H and N antigens
what is the term refering to the relatively minor changes to RNA H or N glyocproteins within an influenza subtype?
antigenic drift
why do strains which result from antigenic drift become more prevelant than previous strains?
they are less susceptible to the current antibiotics
what is major change in which in H and/or N glycoproteins which results in a new strain which almost no one in the population is immune to?
antigenic shift
antigenic shift only occurs in which influenza type?
Type A
what is the most likely host for the generation of these antigenic shifts that have lead to influenza pandemics in the past?
swine
how often does antigenic shift result in a pandemic?
in the 20th century about once every 30 years
what are the most severe antigenic shifts?
when both H and N glycoproteins change
what is the H and N makeup of avian influenza?
H5N1
what keeps the avian influenza from binding to human nonciliated epithelium?
its sialic acid has alpha-2,6 linkages rather than the 2,3 linkages for sialic acid in birds
why can humans still get infected with avian influenza?
because we do have alpha-2,3 linkages on a small number of sialic acids in our respiratory epithelium
what is the time frame for an epidemic?
outbreak confined to s a specific region peak within 2-3 weeks and end withing 6 weeks
when do influenza outbreaks almost exclusively occure>
winter months
what is the primary means of spread of the influenza virus?
person to person via transfer of respiratory droplets
what is the incubation period for the influenza virus?
18-72 hours
what allows influenza virus to get through mucous to underlying respiratory epithelial cells?
N glycoprotein cleaves sailic acids of mucin allowing passage through it
how do cells infected with influenza viruses trigger the innate immune response?
activate TLR recoptors on macrophages
describe the damage done to the respiratory epithelium with a severe pneumonia?
desquamates respiratory epithelium down to one cell layer (basement membrane)making colonization by bacteria much more prevelant
when does the shedding of viruses peak with an influenza virus infection?
24-48 hours
what time frame after infection are viral levels undetectable by?
5-10 days
what is the illness caused by infleunza primarily due to?
cytokine release and local cell damage
what is the key immune response to removing influenza virus from the body?
production of cytotoxic T cells (CMI)
what prevent reinfection with influenza viruses?
antibodies to H and N glycoproteins
describe uncomplicated influenza?
1. Incubation
2. Symptoms
3. Resolution Time Frame
1. 1-4 days incubation
2. high fever/chills, dry cough, extreme malaise for several days
3. ~3 days of symptoms, completely cleared up by 7-10 days
describe onset of complicated, primary influenza viral pneumonia?
rapid progression of
1. fever
2. cough
3. dyspnea
4. cyanosis
who is most commonly affected by primary influenza viral pneumonia?
people with cardiovascular disease, pregnant women, and other chronic disorders
who are secondary bacterial pneumonias most common in?
elderly poeple with underlying lung or debilitating disease
what are the most common secondary bacterial pneumonias?
1. Strep pneumoniae
2. Haemophilus influenza
3. Staph aureus