• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/101

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

101 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
what phase are most chronic wounds stuck in?
the inflammatory phase
describe what happens in the normal inflammatory phase of wound healing
Neutrophils enter wound and begin clearing bacteria/debris and secreting lysozyme
monocytes enter the wound and transform into macrophages
the macrophages ingest the bacteria, necrotic tissue, and dead neutrophils
Exudate is at its peak in this phase
what is wrong with having exudate at its peak in the inflammatory phase
it binds things, like growth factors, or other things need for healing of the wound.
what occurs in the proliferative phase?
formation of granulation tissue
wound contraction by myofibroblasts
epithelialization
angiogenesis to form a new vascular bed
what never regenerates once removed in a wound?
dermis- this is why the it is never as strong as it once was.
The scar is only granuation tissue covered by a thin epithelial layer. Therefore it is more likely to breakdown.
what happens in the maturation phase?
fibroblasts decrease
vascularity decreases
tensile strength begins to increase
what is the cellular dysfunction seen in chronic wounds?
hyperproliferation around the wound edges, interferes with normal cell migration because it has inhibited apoptosis within the fibroblasts (don't produce collagen and the fibronectin can't bind to collagen) and keratinocytes.
what do you do with the hyperproliferation cell around the wound edge?
debridement
when would you not use debridement?
arterial disease
what biochemical imbalances are seen in a chronic wound?
abnormal overexpression of ECM components- fibronectin and thrombospondin
accumulation of fibrinogen and fibronectin in the exudate
accumulation of metalloproteinases and serine proteases- damages the ECM
how is the exudate in chronic wounds different from the exudate in acute wounds?
it slows down the proliferation phase, it contains macromolecules, and contains elevated levels of metalloproteinases
what is the most important thing to do with a neurotrophic ulcer?
offloading
what is the most important thing to do with a venous stasis ulcer?
compression- ace bandages, unna boots
what are the stages of pressure ulcers?
1- intact skin with non-blanchable erythema
2- partial thickness loss of dermis
3-full thickness loss
4- loss to bone/tendons
when do you and when do you not debreed a pressure ulcer on the heel?
dry and stable- do not
dry and unstable- debreed
what are three things that are important to remember when discussing options for heeling a decubitus wound that is dry and stable?
enzymatic debridement
VAC
hypobaric oxygen chamber
what needs to be done in wound bed preparation?
acheive a stable wound that is well vascularized and has minimal exudate.
debreed nectrotic tissue
bacterial control
exudate management
what are different methods for debridement?
surgical - selective
mechanical (wet to dry) - nonselective
enzymatic - stop once you get to granulation tissue
autolytic debreedment- use body's own fluid.
how is the bacterial burden controlled?
topical agents used to avoid using oral antibiotics.
Arglaes powder- controlled release antimicrobial silver.
Acticoat-- nanocrystalline silver used for exudative wounds. Moisten with sterile water (not saline). Protects against MRSA and VRE.
Actisorb silver
Iodosorb gel- iodine
how do you manage the exudate?
determine the color and volume of it.manage the exudate without drying out the wound.
Allevyn foam (non-inherent)
what things impair wound healing?
inadequate perfusion
infection
edema
dry wound
fibroblast senescence
inhibited keratinocyte migration
decreased growth factors
cytotoxic agents
inadequate debridement
inadequate pressure relief
what is the TIME system for wound bed preparation?
T- tissue non-viable
I- infection or inflammation
M- moisture imbalance
E- edge of the wound
what is Hypafix?
not a wound care product, but good at holding other wound care products on.
what is a hydrogel sheet used for?
to provide moisture
can be used on infected wounds if changed daily
has the potential to macerate surrounding skin
what is hydro-gel
used on non exudate re-epithilizing wounds
has the potential to macerate surrounding skin
Nu-gel
altrazeal- powder that is put on as a powder and then saline is added to it and it becomes rubbery
what is hydrocolloid?
adhesive
like a hydrogel sheet, but harder.
can cause damage to the granulation skin
do not use on infected wounds
only use on wounds with low to moderate exudate
can leave it on wound for 3-7 days
Duoderm/ Duoderm CGF
what are the foams?
used on moderate to high exudate wounds
can be used on infected wounds
change every day
can be used on venous ulcers
Allevyn/polymem/acticoat
what is different about acticoat and the other foams?
it also contains silver
Alginates
made from seaweed
gel forms with contact with wound fluid
used with granulating wounds
can leave it up to 7 days
Sorbsam
Alginates with collagen?
fibracol
90% collagen
10% alginate
alginates with honey?
expensive
active leptospernum honey
maintains exudate and moist environment
Alginates with silver?
for infected wounds
collagen based products?
Prisma - used on colonized or infected wounds. and has granulation tissue
promagran- same but without silver, not to be used with infected wounds. Only one proven to bind to bind MMP
medifil
collagen gel with silver?
silvakollagen
activated collagen
collagen segments are a fraction of the size of the native collagen. gel for minimal exudate and a powder for moderate exudate
cellerate
what is regranex?
platelet derived growth factor
attracts monocytes and fibroblasts in the inflammatory phase
keep refrigerated
was widely used, but can cause malignancy
what is procuren?
growth factor from the patient's own blood.
grafts?
apligraft- bilayered skin equivelent, must be used immediately, shipped fedex
dermagraft- human dermal replacement (no epidermis) made from newborn foreskin
oasis- non-living, small intestine submucosa of a pig. Natural occuring ECM with growth factors that recruit the patients own cells.
Integra- collagen, non-living glycosaminoglycan biodegradeable matrix.
graft jacket- non living processed human dermal membrane. a 3-D framework for the patients cells to come into. For deeper wounds.
Gammagraft- irradiated human skin allograft. Non-living. no secondary wound covering after 24 hours.
topical enzymes?
santyl- degrades collagen in necrotic tissue, but does not attack live collagen. used with powder antimicrobials.
papain urea
ziox
xenederm?
topical agent for local blood flow, balsam of peru. Caster oil maintains moist environment.
Trypsin maintains moist wound bed.
VAC?
vacuum assisted closure. externally applied negative pressure. draws wound together. removes excess fluid and reduces bacterial load.
chief complaint?
why the patient is there
what do you need to know about the cheif complaint?
nature
location
duration
onset
characteristics
alleviating/aggrivating factors
treatment
what else needs to go in the same area as the chief complaint and the HPI?
primary care physician and when last seen. Put date, not how long ago patient said.
next section?
allergies and what happens
next?
medictions, individually.
past medical history?
list all pertinent past history
make sure that medications match past medical history.
past surgical surgery
find out location and when they had the surgery. Note any complications. Must use medical terminology on this section for the procedures done.
social history?
list marital status
children para and gravida # of births
tobacco- what type, did you ever smoke.
alcohol
drug use
employment
hobbies
excersize
sexual activity
family history
parents
chidren
grandparents
review of systems
screening device to uncover potentially significant symptoms not otherwise ellicited. Only current things.
everything previously was part of which group?
subjective
what is the first step of the objective?
vitals- it has to be added in a special tab.
what do you put after that?
mental status
patient shoegear- patient is ambulating in........list assisitive devices
note if they are accompanied by a caregiver.
observe the gait.
what does the objective has to reflect?
the cheif complaint
must include all pertinent negatives
must describe all things in this section, do not give an assesment in this section
with the vascular exam, if the pulse is non-palpable, what do you have to do before presenting? what else needs to be done with the vascular exam?
doppler exam and say if it was mono, bi or triphasic
capillary fill time. specify which digits
skin temp from prox to distal.
edema- pitting or non-pitting, focal or diffuse and where.
Homan's sign
what needs to be done in the neuro exam?
vibratory- start at IPJ of hallux.
protective- note where it is absent (not diminished)
proprioception- intact or absent
reflexes- intact or absent
babinksi- absent or present
clonus- clonus - absent
sharp/dull
light touch
Tinnel or Valleix sign to check for tarsal tunnel syndrome
what needs to be done with the derm exam?
toenails- if normal put non-dystrophic. if they are dystrophic, describe it.
incurvated, severity of it?
web spaces- dry clean and intact or not. Woods lamp?
hyperkeratotic tissue- where, diffuse or local.
skin texture and turgor
ulcers- length after debridement. width, depth. what does the base of the ulcer look like. what does the rim look like. does it undermine, does it probe?
w2hat needs to be done on hte musculoskeletal exam?
muscle strength for flexors, extensors, inverters, and everters.
ROM for ankle, STJ, MTJ, 1st met. pain? crepitus?
structural deformities need to be described, not defined.
foot type- specify when weight bearing or not.
what goes in the lab results section?
radiographs
MRI/CT
PAS/fungal culture
non-invasive vascular testing
biopsy results
what causes peripheral arterial disease
systemic athersclerosis.
what are the risk factors for developing PAD?
age
smoking
diabetes
coronary heart disease
HTN
obesity
hypercholesteremia
family history
if a patient presents with gluteal pain it is usually the result of what
aortoilliac disease
if a patient presents with calf pain it is usually the result of what?
femoral disease
if a patient presents with foot disease, it is probably the result of what?
popliteal disease or trifurceal disease
what is the name of the early stage of PAD?
intermittent claudication
what symptoms are seen with intermittent claudication?
calf pain after a reproducible distance
better with rest
inabilitiy to meet the metabolic needs of the muscle with excersice.
muscle cramps
what is the name of the second stage of PAD?
rest pain
what are the symptoms seen with rest pain?
pain is constant and worse at night
pain decreases when legs are dependenttrifurcation disease
night pain relieved by walking usually indicates what kind of problem?
venous
with the rest pain stage, where is the pain normally felt?
the plantar aspect of the metatarsals
what is the difference between wet and dry gangrene?
wet- sudden occlusion due to burns, freezing, or embolism with a subsequent bacterial infection
dry- result of gradual loss of blood supply and is not associated with a bacterial infection.
what does treatment for PAD begin with?
a good history and physical
for every 1% increase in the HbA1C what is the amount of increased risk for PVD?
28%
what dou you check for in a physical exam when testing for PAD?
pulses
hair
temp
skin integrity
wounds
pedal deformities
what is a normal ABI ratio?
what ABI ratio indicates claudation?
what ABI ratio indicates rest pain?
what ABI ratio is usually indicative of probably tissue loss?
>0.9
0.5-0.9
0.21-0.49
<0.2
what is the limitation of the ABI?
limited to the ankle, doesn't say what is happening further down in the toes
when do you give an ABI?
>50 years with diabetes
<50 years with diabetes and other risk factors
repeated every 5 years if normal, if abnormal refer to
what shape of a reading do you want to see on a PVR?
teepees, not igloos
transcutaneous oxygen monitoring?
increases vasodilation at skin surfaces
what factors affect the TCOM?
obesity
edema
cellulitis
bony prominence
thickened skin
drugs
inflammation
what is a normal value with TCOM, what are the bad values?
60 mmHg - normal
>40mmHg- still likely to heal
30-40- moderate
20-30 maybe
<20 - unlikely
what is SPP
skin perfusion pressure test- doppler laser is used to check perfusion, it it NOT affected by calcified vessels. It is faster and can be used on the plantar foot.
what is the rutherford classification system?
grade 0 - asymptomatic homodynamic manifestations
grade I - 1-mild cladation, 2-moderate claudation, 3 - severe claudation
grade II - 4- pain at resting, 5- minor tissue loss, chronic ulcer, focal gangrene with diffuse ulcer
grade III - 6- major tissue loss behind transmetatarsic level. Unrecoverable foot functionality
if you drain the superficial veins in the leg, apply a tourniquet ,and then allow them to stand and the leg fills quickly from the top, what is the problem?
incompetant great saphenous vein.
what if it rapidly fills up from the bottom?
the communicating veins are incompetant
what is the standard problems that cause DVTs?
venous dilation
stagnation of flow
when is the unna boot not recommended?
when the patient is on bed rest or non-ambulatory.
what are some other methods used in treating venous ulcers?
skin grafts
integuous bilayer matrix (no harvest sight)
cool touch - shrinks veins
PPG
APG
duplex ultrasound
Describe the CEAP system
0- no signs of venous disease (no testing needed)
1- telangectasias or reticular veins (no testing needed)
2- vericose veins (duplex reflux exam)
3- edema (APG, PPG)
4- skin changes (APG, PPG)
5- healed ulceration (evaluate for surgery)
6- active ulceration (evaluate for surgery)
what are the criteria to be a surgical candidate for superficail venous problems?
symptomatic varicose veins with or without swelling
recurrent superficiil phlebitis
varicosity bleeding or erosion
chronic skin discoloration or induration
active or recurrent venous stasis ulcer
what are the criteria that evclude people from surgery?
DVT
outflow obstruction
PAD
planned future pregnancy
non-compliance
severe obesity
what is the difference between primary and secondary CVI?
primary- superficial or deep veins
perforating veins may be involved
combo of the two

secondary- post thrombotic syndrome
destruction of the valves
what are the causes of CVI?
venous outflow obstruction
previous DVT
persistent aambulatory venous hypertension
what is virchow's triad?
3 things that can cause a DVT
1- endothelial injury- trauma
2- stasis - immobility
3- hypercoagubility - cancer, coag, deficiency
is atherosclerosis a factor in causing a DVT?
NO
what is the pharmacological prophylaxix for DVT?
heparin (5000 U SQ 2 hr pre-op, 8-12 hours post op)
adjusted dose heparin
low molecular weight heparin (lovenox - 30mg SQ pre-op, 40 mg SQ qd for 2-4 weeks)
what are the advantages to using a low molecular weight heparin?
improved bioavailability
longer half life
more predictable anticoalgulant effect
less platelet binding
what people should not get DVT prophylaxis?
active major bleeding
known hypersensitivity
epidural or spinal
spinal or eye surgery
what Test has a very strong negative predictive value?
D-dimer test (under 500 is good, over 500 means you have to get more testing)
what are the 2 cardinal symptoms of PE?
dyspnea
pleuritic chest pain

other symptoms include - tachypnea, tachycardia, cough, hemoptysis, hypotension