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118 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
An element that enables a sea dependent
nation to project its
political, economic, and military
strengths seaward is known as
1. sea power
2. naval power
3. global strategy
4. national strategy
1. sea power
The true strength of sea power can only be measured in terms of a nation’s ability to use the sea to further its
1. national objectives
2. naval power
3. aggression
4. population
1. national objectives
It is more feasible to send naval forces, in comparison to other military forces , into crisis areas for which of the following reasons?
1. The cost is low
2. naval forces can stay on
station indefinitely
3. Naval forces leave behind no
physical reminders of their
presence
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
To continue to exist as we know it today, the
United States must have
a policy that recognizes its
1.economy
2.naval strengths
3.national security
4.worldwide commitments
4.worldwide commitments
What are the three fundamental
pillars on which United States
military strategy rests?
1.Maritime superiority,
deterrence, and alliance
solidarity
2.Control of the seas,
deterrence, and forward defense
3.Deterrence, forward defense,
and alliance solidarity
4.Forward defense, control of the seas, and alliance
solidarity
3.Deterrence, forward defense,
and alliance solidarity
Which of the following responses could the United States take in the event of aggression by a potential enemy?
1. Meet force with force
2. Control the duration of the
fighting
3. Increase the intensity of the
c o n f l i c t
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
The Navy has the ability to outlast any aggressor with

1.a great number of personnel and materials
2.secure sea-lanes
3.a large fleet
4.flexibily
4.f l e x i b i l i t y
In time of emergency the navy must be able to venture into harms way

1.True
2.False
1.True
Which of the following is NOT a component of the TRIAD of strategic nuclear forces?

1. Intercontinental ballistic
missiles
2. Sea-launched ballistic missiles
3. Aircraft carrier battle groups
4. Long-range bombers
3. Aircraft carrier battle groups
What is the most flexible element
of the TRIAD?

1. Intercontinental ballistic
m i s s i l e s
2. Sea-launched ballistic missiles
3. Long-range bombers
4. Cruise missiles
3. Long-range bombers
What is the sole mission and
fundamental reason for the
existence of the fleet ballistic
missile submarine?
1. To deter war
2. To seek out and destroy enemy submarines
3. To provide a backup for the
Strategic Air Command
4. To provide the United States
with a first strike capability
1. To deter war
The TRIAD has been developed and maintained for which of the following purposes?
1. To deter nuclear attack
2. To provide a first strike
capability
3. To maintain nuclear equality
with the U.S.S.R.
4. To act as an instrument of
political leverage or coercion
1. To deter nuclear attack
Ships of the Second Fleet patrol some of the world’s most important trade routes. In what area of the world does the Second Fleet normally patrol?
1. Mediterranean Sea
2. Western Atlantic
3. Eastern Atlantic
4. Eastern Pacific
2. Western Atlantic
Which of the following fleets would you find in the Western Pacific and Indian Ocean regions?
1 . F i r s t
2. Second
3 . T h i r d
4. Seventh
4. Seventh
Which of the following terms
describes an attack that is
intended to inflict damage to,
seize, or destroy an objective?
1. Strike
2. Threat
3. Assault
4. Aggression
1. Strike
Which of the following
characteristics of a strike force
is one of its greatest assets?
1. Size
2. Mobility
3. Strength
4. Weaponry
2. Mobility
Which of the following types of
task forces is/are organized
primarily for strike force
operations?
1. Carrier
2. Surface
3. Submarine
4 .All of the above
4 .All of the above
The primary mission of our
submarine force is to destroy which of the following types of enemy ships?
1 . Submarines
2. Destroyers
3. Carriers
4. Cargo
1 . Submarines
The first fleet ballistic missile
submarine was launched in what year?
1. 1955
2. 1959
3. 1960
4. 1961
2. 1959
When the term “TRIDENT” is used, it is understood to include which of the following elements?

1 . T h e b a s e
2. The missile
3. The submarine
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Trident I missiles have a multiple warhead capability and a maximum range of how many nautical miles?
1. 1,200
2. 2,500
3. 3,500
4. 4,000
4. 4,000
The destruction or neutralization of enemy targets ashore through the
use of conventional or nuclear
weapons.
A. Antiair
B. Antisubmarine
C. Antisurface ship
D. Strike
E. Intelligence
F. Special
D. Strike
The destruction or neutralization of enemy surface combatants and
merchant ships.
A. Antiair
B. Antisubmarine
C. Antisurface ship
D. Strike
E. Intelligence
F. Special
C. Antisurface ship
Naval operations generally accepted as being nonconventional in nature.
A. Antiair
B. Antisubmarine
C. Antisurface ship
D. Strike
E. Intelligence
F. Special
F. Special
This type of warfare prevents the effective use of cargo-carrying vessels by the enemy.
A. Antiair
B. Antisubmarine
C. Antisurface ship
D. Strike
E. Intelligence
F. Special
C. Antisurface ship
Correctly interpreted, this type of warfare permits military decisions to be based on accurate knowledge of the enemy’s forces and capabilities
A. Antiair
B. Antisubmarine
C. Antisurface ship
D. Strike
E. Intelligence
F. Special
E. Intelligence
Which of the following types of
warfare assists in detecting and targeting hostile forces and making it more difficult for the enemy to detect and target friendly forces?
1. Special
2. Electronic
3. Intelligence
4. Ocean surveillance
2. Electronic
Antiship missiles can be launched several hundred miles from the t a r g e t . From which of the
following platforms can they be
launched?
1. A i r c r a f t
2. Submarines
3. Surface ships
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
The Aegis installed weapons system is on which of the following platforms?
1. F-14 aircraft
2. Submarines
3. Cruisers
4 . A l l o f t h e a b o v e
3. Cruisers
Capable of simultaneously tracking 24 hostile air targets and launching 6 missiles against 6 different targets .
1. Tomahawk
2. Phalanx
3. Phoenix
4. Harpoon
3. Phoenix
Has a very small cross section and flies at low altitude; radar
detection is difficult.
1. Tomahawk
2. Phalanx
3. Phoenix
4. Harpoon
1. Tomahawk
Fires 20-mm, high-density
penetrating projectiles at 3,000
rounds per minute.
1. Tomahawk
2. Phalanx
3. Phoenix
4. Harpoon
2. Phalanx
Has a 500-lb high-explosive warhead and a contact fuse.
1. Tomahawk
2. Phalanx
3. Phoenix
4. Harpoon
4. Harpoon
Provides defense against close-in, sea-skimming cruise missiles.
1. Tomahawk
2. Phalanx
3. Phoenix
4. Harpoon
4. Harpoon
If your ship is assigned to the
Second Fleet, it would probably
conduct refresher training at which
of the following locations?
1. Guantanamo Bay, Cuba
2. San Diego, CA
3. Bremerton, WA
4. Norfolk, VA
1. Guantanamo Bay, Cuba
Routine drills are based on ship’s bills and stem from basic bills outlined in which of the following publications?
1. U.S. Navy Regulations
2. Refresher Team Training Manual
3. Standard Organization and
Regulations of the U.S. Navy
4 .All of the above
3. Standard Organization and
Regulations of the U.S. Navy
What inspection is conducted to test the operational ability of the crew and ship in wartime
conditions?
1. Administrative Inspection
2. Propulsion Examining Board
3. Operational Readiness
Inspection
4. Board of Inspection and Survey
3. Operational Readiness
Inspection
What inspection is scheduled by higher authority, without the
knowledge of the commanding
officer, to determine if the ship
is fit for continued naval service?
1. INSURV
2. PEB
3. ORI
4. PMS
1. INSURV
Through the various treaties with other countries in the world, what portion of the land area are we committed to defend?
1. 25%
2. 50%
3. 75%
4. 80%
2. 50%
Our naval forces conduct various exercises with allied forces for which of the following reasons?
1. To prepare for deployment
2. To professionally operate as
one unit
3. To develop better foreign
relations.
4. To allow less units to deploy
overseas
2. To professionally operate as
one unit
To ensure your work center meets the deadlines set for the
completion of tasks, which of the following factors must you properly manage?
1. Personnel, maintenance, and time
2. Material, maintenance, and time
3. Personnel, material, and time
4. Maintenance, watch standing,
and time
3. Personnel, material, and time
Which of the following resources within your division are the most important in accomplishing a task?
1. Personnel and time
2. Maintenance and time
3. Personnel and materials
4. Maintenance and personnel
3. Personnel and materials
A little time should be spent in
your office in the morning and
afternoon, then the rest of your
time should be spent in the work area.
1. True
2. False
1. True
As a minimum, how often should you assess your division’s personnel
and material readiness?
1. Daily
2. Biweekly
3. Monthly
4. Quarterly
2. Biweekly
When you assess your workers’ job performance, you should look at which of the following areas?
1. Knowledge, work habits, and
character
2. Attitude, knowledge, and work habits
3. Attitude, work habits, and
character
4. Attitude, knowledge, and
character
2. Attitude, knowledge, and work habits
To keep abreast of the knowledge and experience of your personnel,
you should randomly review each member’s
1. departmental record
2. divisional record
3. training record
4. service record
3. training record
At a minimum, how often should you take inventory so that you will know when to order additional supplies?
1. Daily
2. Weekly
3. Monthly
4. Quarterly
2. Weekly
Which of the following logs is used by your division or department to
maintain its supply inventory?
1. EDL
2. JSN
3. OPTAR
4. POA&M
3. OPTAR
Each command should ensure all hand and power tools are assigned serial numbers.
1. True
2 . F a l s e
1. True
The equipment deficiency list
contains all of the following
information except
1. when it was discovered and the action taken
2. the space and space location
3. the problem or deficiency
4. the PMS requirements
4. the PMS requirements
Keeping abreast of changes prevents crisis management from occurring.
1. True
2. False
1. True
When you attend department
meetings, remember to check which of the following factors before the meeting?
1. Assess personnel
2. Work progress
3. Organizing
4. Planning
2. Work progress
As major job completion dates near, you should never allow which of the following situations to happen?
1. Change the work priority
2. Shorten the work day
3. Neglect major jobs
4. Neglect minor jobs
4. Neglect minor jobs
Assigning your junior petty
officers challenging jobs will
increase which of the following
s k i l l s ?
1. Management
2. Leadership
3. Organizational
4. Administrative
2. Leadership
The work center supervisor has the complete responsibility for the completion of a job.
1. True
2. False
1. True
When delegating authority, you
should delegate to which of the
following competent levels
to develop your subordinates?
1. Highest
2. Average
3 . Lowest
3 . Lowest
You should inform your subordinates of their standing in the division in which of the following ways?
1. By giving awards
2. By the use of counseling
3. By the use of a memorandum
4. By awarding special privileges
2. By the use of counseling
Who generates letters of
instruction and command counseling sheets?
1. Work center supervisor
2. Division officer
3. Division chief
4. Both 2 and 3 above
4. Both 2 and 3 above
Counseling sheets and letters of instruction are entered in a
member’s service record.
1. True
2 .False
2 .False
A page 13 entry reflects which of the following types of job
performance?
1. Average
2. Good
3 . Bad
4. Both 2 and 3 above
4. Both 2 and 3 above
If you use a facsimile stamp of
someone’s signature, what should appear next to the signature to authenticate the facsimile?
1. Acting
2. By direction
3. Your initials
4. Your signature
3. Your initials
A naval message should be used instead of a NAVGRAM under which of the following circumstances?
1. The communication is urgent and speed is of primary importance
2. The addressee is an overseas station
3. The communication is classified
4. Its use is cost effective
1. The communication is urgent and speed is of primary importance
If a command is the “information
addressee” on a message, which of the following actions, if any, should the command take concerning the message?
1. Route the message to concerned officers to determine the action addressee’s responsibilities
2. Whatever action is required
within the command
3. The actions directed by the
action addressee
4. None of the above
2. Whatever action is required
within the command
After a naval message has been prepared and signed by the drafter, which of the following persons releases the message?
1. The drafter
2. The senior Radioman
3. The delegated releasing officer
4. The communications watch
officer
3. The delegated releasing officer
Who is responsible for the
validation of the contents of a
message?
1. Originator
2. Addressee
3. Releaser
4. Drafter
3. Releaser
Who is responsible for the selection of a message precedence?
1. Drafter
2. Releaser
3. Addressee
4. Originator
1. Drafter
Who is responsible for the proper addressing of messages?
1. Originator
2. Addressee
3. Releaser
4. Drafter
4. Drafter
When assigning precedence to a message, which of the following factors should you consider?
1. Importance of the subject
2. Desired delivery time
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Seniority of the originator
3. Both 1 and 2 above
What is the highest precedence normally
authorized for administrative messages?
1. Immediate
2. Priority
3. Routine
4. Flash
2. Priority
What precedence is identified by the prosign 0?
1. Flash
2. Priority
3. Immediate
4. Emergency Command
3. Immediate
A message is released at 1930 hours Greenwich mean time on 2 January 1991.
What is the correctly stated date-time group (DTG) assisgned to the message?
1. 1930Z 02JAN91
2. 02JAN91 1930Z
3. 19302Z JAN 91
4. 021930Z JAN 91
4. 021930Z JAN 91
Naval messages may have a total of (a) how many originators and (b) how many action and information addresses?
1. (a) One (b) one each
2. (a) Two (b) two each
3. (a) Three (b) unlimited
4. (a) One (b) unlimited
4. (a) One (b) unlimited
Messages addressed to address indicating
groups (AIGs) would most likely contain which of the following types of information?
1. Directive changes
2. Emergency leave requests
3. Destructive storm warnings
4. Personnel changes of station
3. Destructive storm warnings
When a message is unclassified, what word
or abbreviation should appear on the classification line?
1. UNCLASSIFIED
2. NOCLASS
3. NONCLAS
4. UNCLASS
4. UNCLASS
A message readdressal refers to what kind of message?
1. A corrected copy of the original draft
2. A duplicate copy transmitted to an
activity because the original was illegible
3. One transmitted to an activity that is not an addressee on the original draft
4. One that has been returned to the originator for additions or deletions by higher authority
3. One transmitted to an activity that is not an addressee on the original draft
Unless otherwise directed, all naval message directives are automatically canceled after what maximum period of time?
1. 12 months
2. 6 months
3. 90 days
4. 30 days
3. 90 days
Minimize requires message drafters and releasers to make which of the following
considerations?
1. Is the message as short as possible
2. Is electrical transmission essential
3. Can the message be sent at a later date
4. May the message be sent to more than one addressee
2. Is electrical transmission essential
A rough draft of naval correspondence to
be reviewed by a drafting officer should contain which of the following types of information?
1. Two ideas in each sentence and more than one central thought in each paragraph
2. One subject, clearly and concisely written
3. All information pertaining to the subject
4. The smallest details of all the facts
2. One subject, clearly and concisely written
What should be your first concern in drafting correspondence?
1. Format
2. Purpose
3. Distribution
4. Security classification
3. Distribution
When organizing a naval letter, what information should you include in the first paragraph?
1. References used
2. Listing of addressees
3. Purpose of the letter
4. Overview of the letter contents
3. Purpose of the letter
You are assigned the task of writing a piece of naval correspondence. Which of the following steps should be your first?
1. Writing an outline
2. Determining the target date
3. Determining the distribution list
4. Gathering appropriate reference material
2. Determining the target date
When preparing the rough draft of a naval letter, you should concentrate on which of
the following aspects?
1. Proper spelling and punctuation
2. Proper style and letter format\
3. The appropriate references
4. The necessary information
3. The appropriate references
When reviewing the rough draft of your correspondence for the first time, which of
the following procedures should you follow?
1. Review your accomplishments
2. Remove unnecessary introductory phrases
3. Rework paragraphs that are difficult to understand
4. Make brief notes at points where the text can be improved
4. Make brief notes at points where the text can be improved
Before presenting smooth
correspondence for signature, you should check for accuracy in which of the following areas.
1. Standard subject identification codes
2. Properly labeled and attached enclosures
3. Correct titles of all addressees
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
The security classification you assign to naval correspondence is determined by which of the following factors?
1. The number of information addressees
2. The information contained in the
correspondence
3. The security classification of related
documents
4. The security classification of
references contained in the
correspondence
4. The security classification of
references contained in the
correspondence
An endorsement may be placed on the signature page of a naval letter under which of the following circumstances?
1.The text of the endorsement
consists of a maximum of three
lines.
2.The basic letter and the
endorsement bear the same
security classification.
3.The security classification of
the endorsement is lower than
that of the basic letter.
4.The space on the signature page of the basic letter is
sufficient to accommodate the
entire endorsement.
4.The space on the signature page of the basic letter is
sufficient to accommodate the
entire endorsement.
Correspondence that is used as informal communication between subordinates within the same activity can be accomplished by using which of the following methods?
1. NAVGRAM
2. Speedletter
3. “Memorandum For”
4. “From-To” memorandum
4. “From-To” memorandum
What is the purpose of a NAVGRAM?
1.Urgent communications between DOD addressees
2.To ensure priority handling of
the communication by the
addressee
3.To transmit urgent
correspondence by electrical
means
4.To ensure special handling by postal authorities
1.Urgent communications between DOD addressees
Our Navy uses a standard filing
system for which of the following reasons?
1. Frequent rotation of personnel
2. Saves the Navy space
3. Saves the Navy money
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Which, if any, of the following
classified material does not
require controlled routing?
1. Confidential
2. Top secret
3. Secret
4. None of the above
1. Confidential
When filing material you should
include all of the following except
1. the incoming document
2. a copy of the outgoing
correspondence
3. any essential supporting
documents
4. all early drafts and extra
copies
4. all early drafts and extra
copies
Standard subject identification
codes (SSICs) provide which of the following standard systems throughout the Navy?
1. Colors
2. Numbers
3. Symbols
4. Alphabets
2. Numbers
When writing a naval letter, you
should ensure it is well organized and orderly. Which of the following writing methods is NOT in the correct order?
1.Stating requests before
justifications
2.Stating explanations before
answers
3.Giving conclusions before
discussions
4.Giving summaries before details
2.Stating explanations before
answers
The order that references appear in the reference block of a naval letter is based on which of the following factors?
1. The OPNAV/SECNAV number assigned
2. The length of the title of the
reference
3. The order in which they appear in the text
4. The numerical listing
3. The order in which they appear in the text
Paragraphs in a naval letter should be short and contain roughly what maximum number of sentences?
1. 4 to 5
2. 6 to 7
3. 8 to 10
4. 10 to 12
1. 4 to 5
For an idea to gain emphasis within a sentence, where should it appear?
1. At the start or the end of the
sentence
2. At the end of the sentence only
3. At the start of tie sentence
only
4. In the middle of the sentence
1. At the start or the end of the
sentence
To save words, clarify ideas, and provide balance when you wish to express two or more equally important ideas in a sentence, you should use which of the following types of sentence construction?
1. Mini sentences
2. Topic sentences
3. Rambling sentences
4. Parallel sentences
4. Parallel sentences
To make your writing more like
speaking, you should use which of the following writing techniques?
1. Use personal pronouns
2. Use everyday words
3. Use short sentences
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Which of the following writing
practices is the best approach to a subject when writing a directive?
1. Write in the “third person”
style
2. Write directly to a user
3. Write in terms of “how to”
instructions
4. Write in terms of “how to”
checklists
3. Write in terms of “how to”
instructions
As a subordinate writing to a
senior, which of the following
approaches should you avoid when setting the tone of the letter?
1. Directing
2. Suggesting
3. Requesting
4. Recommending
1. Directing
Which of the following words hurt naval writing by stretching
sentences, delaying meaning, and hiding responsibility?
1. Request you
2. You are
3. It is
4 . I a m
3. It is
For economy in writing, you should use as many abbreviations as possible .
1. True
2. False
2. False
CMEO is an equal opportunity
management system controlled
primarily at which of the following l e v e l s ?
1. Command
2. Secretary of Defense
3. Secretary of the Navy
4. Chief of Naval Operations
1. Command
Which of the following supervisors supports the Navy’s Equal Opportunity program?
1. The one who relates positively and directly with all people equally
2. The one who only listens to one point of view
3. The one who stereotypes people
4. The one who feels it necessary to intimidate some people to achieve goals
1. The one who relates positively and directly with all people equally
To manage and supervise people effectively, you must have which of the following leadership skills?
1. The ability to ignore conflicts
among various groups
2. The ability to listen to and
understand what people have to
say
3. The ability to place people in
correct racial, ethnic, and
religious categories
4. The ability to substitute
generalized ideas about people
when you aren’t sure of their
motives
2. The ability to listen to and
understand what people have to
say
To help your subordinates grow both personally and professionally, you must use which of the following supervisory practices?
1. Provide timely feedback on
performance
2. Provide on-the-job training
3. Identify their strengths and
weaknesses
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
If a person commits an act of
arbitrary discrimination, the
commanding officer may take which of the following disciplinary actions?
1. Assign lower evaluation marks
2. Award nonjudicial punishment
3. Submit a recommendation for separation
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
The Navy Rights and Responsibilities workshop is
conducted by which of the following groups?
1.Command Training Team (CTT)
2.Command Assessment Team (CAT)
3.Command Rights and
Responsibilities Team
4.Striker Board
1.Command Training Team (CTT)
Which of the following subjects is
NOT covered during the Navy Rights and Responsibilities workshop?
1. Navy Regulations
2. Combatant skills
3. Enlistment contract
4. Grievance and redress
2. Combatant skills
Information concerning equal
opportunity contained in command records may NOT be obtained through which of the following methods?
1. Surveys
2. Training
3. Interviews
4. Observations
1. Surveys
What two methods of data collecting by the CAT require other data sources to be used to draw conclusions and produce findings that can be validly interpreted?
1. Command records and Interviews
2. Interviews and observations
3. Observations and surveys
4. Surveys and interviews
3. Observations and surveys
Nonjudicial punishment is better known in the Navy by which of the following titles?
1. Mast
2. Court-martial
3. Captains mast
4. Executive officers
investigation
3. Captains mast
Without using court-martial
intervention. what article of the
UCMJ empowers a commanding officer
to impose punishment for minor
offenses on both officer and
enlisted personnel?
1. 5
2. 10
3. 15
4. 20
3. 15
Under the UCMJ, punishment must be imposed within 2 years of the offense .
1. True
2. False
1. True
The Report and Disposition of
Offense(s), NAVPERS 1626/7,
contains all of the following
information except
1. preliminary inquiry report
2. action of the XO at screening
mast
3. record of any pre-mast
restraint
4. all of the required pre-mast
advice that must be given to
the accused
4. all of the required pre-mast
advice that must be given to
the accused
Who must ensure that within a Confinement on bread and water has reasonable amount of time of the report of an offense that the
accused is fully advised of his or her rights concerning a possible NJP?
1. Legal officer
2. Chief Master-at-Arms
3. Officer contemplating imposing NJP
4. Department head and division officer of the accused
3. Officer contemplating imposing NJP
Your rights are found under what UCMJ article?
1. 15
2. 31
3. 37
4. 38
2. 31
The preliminary inquiry officer (PIO) completes which part of the NAVPERS 1626/7?
1.C
2.E
3.G
4.I
2.E