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118 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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An element that enables a sea dependent
nation to project its political, economic, and military strengths seaward is known as 1. sea power 2. naval power 3. global strategy 4. national strategy |
1. sea power
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The true strength of sea power can only be measured in terms of a nation’s ability to use the sea to further its
1. national objectives 2. naval power 3. aggression 4. population |
1. national objectives
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It is more feasible to send naval forces, in comparison to other military forces , into crisis areas for which of the following reasons?
1. The cost is low 2. naval forces can stay on station indefinitely 3. Naval forces leave behind no physical reminders of their presence 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
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To continue to exist as we know it today, the
United States must have a policy that recognizes its 1.economy 2.naval strengths 3.national security 4.worldwide commitments |
4.worldwide commitments
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What are the three fundamental
pillars on which United States military strategy rests? 1.Maritime superiority, deterrence, and alliance solidarity 2.Control of the seas, deterrence, and forward defense 3.Deterrence, forward defense, and alliance solidarity 4.Forward defense, control of the seas, and alliance solidarity |
3.Deterrence, forward defense,
and alliance solidarity |
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Which of the following responses could the United States take in the event of aggression by a potential enemy?
1. Meet force with force 2. Control the duration of the fighting 3. Increase the intensity of the c o n f l i c t 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
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The Navy has the ability to outlast any aggressor with
1.a great number of personnel and materials 2.secure sea-lanes 3.a large fleet 4.flexibily |
4.f l e x i b i l i t y
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In time of emergency the navy must be able to venture into harms way
1.True 2.False |
1.True
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Which of the following is NOT a component of the TRIAD of strategic nuclear forces?
1. Intercontinental ballistic missiles 2. Sea-launched ballistic missiles 3. Aircraft carrier battle groups 4. Long-range bombers |
3. Aircraft carrier battle groups
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What is the most flexible element
of the TRIAD? 1. Intercontinental ballistic m i s s i l e s 2. Sea-launched ballistic missiles 3. Long-range bombers 4. Cruise missiles |
3. Long-range bombers
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What is the sole mission and
fundamental reason for the existence of the fleet ballistic missile submarine? 1. To deter war 2. To seek out and destroy enemy submarines 3. To provide a backup for the Strategic Air Command 4. To provide the United States with a first strike capability |
1. To deter war
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The TRIAD has been developed and maintained for which of the following purposes?
1. To deter nuclear attack 2. To provide a first strike capability 3. To maintain nuclear equality with the U.S.S.R. 4. To act as an instrument of political leverage or coercion |
1. To deter nuclear attack
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Ships of the Second Fleet patrol some of the world’s most important trade routes. In what area of the world does the Second Fleet normally patrol?
1. Mediterranean Sea 2. Western Atlantic 3. Eastern Atlantic 4. Eastern Pacific |
2. Western Atlantic
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Which of the following fleets would you find in the Western Pacific and Indian Ocean regions?
1 . F i r s t 2. Second 3 . T h i r d 4. Seventh |
4. Seventh
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Which of the following terms
describes an attack that is intended to inflict damage to, seize, or destroy an objective? 1. Strike 2. Threat 3. Assault 4. Aggression |
1. Strike
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Which of the following
characteristics of a strike force is one of its greatest assets? 1. Size 2. Mobility 3. Strength 4. Weaponry |
2. Mobility
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Which of the following types of
task forces is/are organized primarily for strike force operations? 1. Carrier 2. Surface 3. Submarine 4 .All of the above |
4 .All of the above
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The primary mission of our
submarine force is to destroy which of the following types of enemy ships? 1 . Submarines 2. Destroyers 3. Carriers 4. Cargo |
1 . Submarines
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The first fleet ballistic missile
submarine was launched in what year? 1. 1955 2. 1959 3. 1960 4. 1961 |
2. 1959
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When the term “TRIDENT” is used, it is understood to include which of the following elements?
1 . T h e b a s e 2. The missile 3. The submarine 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
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Trident I missiles have a multiple warhead capability and a maximum range of how many nautical miles?
1. 1,200 2. 2,500 3. 3,500 4. 4,000 |
4. 4,000
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The destruction or neutralization of enemy targets ashore through the
use of conventional or nuclear weapons. A. Antiair B. Antisubmarine C. Antisurface ship D. Strike E. Intelligence F. Special |
D. Strike
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The destruction or neutralization of enemy surface combatants and
merchant ships. A. Antiair B. Antisubmarine C. Antisurface ship D. Strike E. Intelligence F. Special |
C. Antisurface ship
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Naval operations generally accepted as being nonconventional in nature.
A. Antiair B. Antisubmarine C. Antisurface ship D. Strike E. Intelligence F. Special |
F. Special
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This type of warfare prevents the effective use of cargo-carrying vessels by the enemy.
A. Antiair B. Antisubmarine C. Antisurface ship D. Strike E. Intelligence F. Special |
C. Antisurface ship
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Correctly interpreted, this type of warfare permits military decisions to be based on accurate knowledge of the enemy’s forces and capabilities
A. Antiair B. Antisubmarine C. Antisurface ship D. Strike E. Intelligence F. Special |
E. Intelligence
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Which of the following types of
warfare assists in detecting and targeting hostile forces and making it more difficult for the enemy to detect and target friendly forces? 1. Special 2. Electronic 3. Intelligence 4. Ocean surveillance |
2. Electronic
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Antiship missiles can be launched several hundred miles from the t a r g e t . From which of the
following platforms can they be launched? 1. A i r c r a f t 2. Submarines 3. Surface ships 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
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The Aegis installed weapons system is on which of the following platforms?
1. F-14 aircraft 2. Submarines 3. Cruisers 4 . A l l o f t h e a b o v e |
3. Cruisers
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Capable of simultaneously tracking 24 hostile air targets and launching 6 missiles against 6 different targets .
1. Tomahawk 2. Phalanx 3. Phoenix 4. Harpoon |
3. Phoenix
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Has a very small cross section and flies at low altitude; radar
detection is difficult. 1. Tomahawk 2. Phalanx 3. Phoenix 4. Harpoon |
1. Tomahawk
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Fires 20-mm, high-density
penetrating projectiles at 3,000 rounds per minute. 1. Tomahawk 2. Phalanx 3. Phoenix 4. Harpoon |
2. Phalanx
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Has a 500-lb high-explosive warhead and a contact fuse.
1. Tomahawk 2. Phalanx 3. Phoenix 4. Harpoon |
4. Harpoon
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Provides defense against close-in, sea-skimming cruise missiles.
1. Tomahawk 2. Phalanx 3. Phoenix 4. Harpoon |
4. Harpoon
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If your ship is assigned to the
Second Fleet, it would probably conduct refresher training at which of the following locations? 1. Guantanamo Bay, Cuba 2. San Diego, CA 3. Bremerton, WA 4. Norfolk, VA |
1. Guantanamo Bay, Cuba
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Routine drills are based on ship’s bills and stem from basic bills outlined in which of the following publications?
1. U.S. Navy Regulations 2. Refresher Team Training Manual 3. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy 4 .All of the above |
3. Standard Organization and
Regulations of the U.S. Navy |
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What inspection is conducted to test the operational ability of the crew and ship in wartime
conditions? 1. Administrative Inspection 2. Propulsion Examining Board 3. Operational Readiness Inspection 4. Board of Inspection and Survey |
3. Operational Readiness
Inspection |
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What inspection is scheduled by higher authority, without the
knowledge of the commanding officer, to determine if the ship is fit for continued naval service? 1. INSURV 2. PEB 3. ORI 4. PMS |
1. INSURV
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Through the various treaties with other countries in the world, what portion of the land area are we committed to defend?
1. 25% 2. 50% 3. 75% 4. 80% |
2. 50%
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Our naval forces conduct various exercises with allied forces for which of the following reasons?
1. To prepare for deployment 2. To professionally operate as one unit 3. To develop better foreign relations. 4. To allow less units to deploy overseas |
2. To professionally operate as
one unit |
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To ensure your work center meets the deadlines set for the
completion of tasks, which of the following factors must you properly manage? 1. Personnel, maintenance, and time 2. Material, maintenance, and time 3. Personnel, material, and time 4. Maintenance, watch standing, and time |
3. Personnel, material, and time
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Which of the following resources within your division are the most important in accomplishing a task?
1. Personnel and time 2. Maintenance and time 3. Personnel and materials 4. Maintenance and personnel |
3. Personnel and materials
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A little time should be spent in
your office in the morning and afternoon, then the rest of your time should be spent in the work area. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
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As a minimum, how often should you assess your division’s personnel
and material readiness? 1. Daily 2. Biweekly 3. Monthly 4. Quarterly |
2. Biweekly
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When you assess your workers’ job performance, you should look at which of the following areas?
1. Knowledge, work habits, and character 2. Attitude, knowledge, and work habits 3. Attitude, work habits, and character 4. Attitude, knowledge, and character |
2. Attitude, knowledge, and work habits
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To keep abreast of the knowledge and experience of your personnel,
you should randomly review each member’s 1. departmental record 2. divisional record 3. training record 4. service record |
3. training record
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At a minimum, how often should you take inventory so that you will know when to order additional supplies?
1. Daily 2. Weekly 3. Monthly 4. Quarterly |
2. Weekly
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Which of the following logs is used by your division or department to
maintain its supply inventory? 1. EDL 2. JSN 3. OPTAR 4. POA&M |
3. OPTAR
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Each command should ensure all hand and power tools are assigned serial numbers.
1. True 2 . F a l s e |
1. True
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The equipment deficiency list
contains all of the following information except 1. when it was discovered and the action taken 2. the space and space location 3. the problem or deficiency 4. the PMS requirements |
4. the PMS requirements
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Keeping abreast of changes prevents crisis management from occurring.
1. True 2. False |
1. True
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When you attend department
meetings, remember to check which of the following factors before the meeting? 1. Assess personnel 2. Work progress 3. Organizing 4. Planning |
2. Work progress
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As major job completion dates near, you should never allow which of the following situations to happen?
1. Change the work priority 2. Shorten the work day 3. Neglect major jobs 4. Neglect minor jobs |
4. Neglect minor jobs
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Assigning your junior petty
officers challenging jobs will increase which of the following s k i l l s ? 1. Management 2. Leadership 3. Organizational 4. Administrative |
2. Leadership
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The work center supervisor has the complete responsibility for the completion of a job.
1. True 2. False |
1. True
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When delegating authority, you
should delegate to which of the following competent levels to develop your subordinates? 1. Highest 2. Average 3 . Lowest |
3 . Lowest
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You should inform your subordinates of their standing in the division in which of the following ways?
1. By giving awards 2. By the use of counseling 3. By the use of a memorandum 4. By awarding special privileges |
2. By the use of counseling
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Who generates letters of
instruction and command counseling sheets? 1. Work center supervisor 2. Division officer 3. Division chief 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
4. Both 2 and 3 above
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Counseling sheets and letters of instruction are entered in a
member’s service record. 1. True 2 .False |
2 .False
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A page 13 entry reflects which of the following types of job
performance? 1. Average 2. Good 3 . Bad 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
4. Both 2 and 3 above
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If you use a facsimile stamp of
someone’s signature, what should appear next to the signature to authenticate the facsimile? 1. Acting 2. By direction 3. Your initials 4. Your signature |
3. Your initials
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A naval message should be used instead of a NAVGRAM under which of the following circumstances?
1. The communication is urgent and speed is of primary importance 2. The addressee is an overseas station 3. The communication is classified 4. Its use is cost effective |
1. The communication is urgent and speed is of primary importance
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If a command is the “information
addressee” on a message, which of the following actions, if any, should the command take concerning the message? 1. Route the message to concerned officers to determine the action addressee’s responsibilities 2. Whatever action is required within the command 3. The actions directed by the action addressee 4. None of the above |
2. Whatever action is required
within the command |
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After a naval message has been prepared and signed by the drafter, which of the following persons releases the message?
1. The drafter 2. The senior Radioman 3. The delegated releasing officer 4. The communications watch officer |
3. The delegated releasing officer
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Who is responsible for the
validation of the contents of a message? 1. Originator 2. Addressee 3. Releaser 4. Drafter |
3. Releaser
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Who is responsible for the selection of a message precedence?
1. Drafter 2. Releaser 3. Addressee 4. Originator |
1. Drafter
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Who is responsible for the proper addressing of messages?
1. Originator 2. Addressee 3. Releaser 4. Drafter |
4. Drafter
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When assigning precedence to a message, which of the following factors should you consider?
1. Importance of the subject 2. Desired delivery time 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Seniority of the originator |
3. Both 1 and 2 above
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What is the highest precedence normally
authorized for administrative messages? 1. Immediate 2. Priority 3. Routine 4. Flash |
2. Priority
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What precedence is identified by the prosign 0?
1. Flash 2. Priority 3. Immediate 4. Emergency Command |
3. Immediate
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A message is released at 1930 hours Greenwich mean time on 2 January 1991.
What is the correctly stated date-time group (DTG) assisgned to the message? 1. 1930Z 02JAN91 2. 02JAN91 1930Z 3. 19302Z JAN 91 4. 021930Z JAN 91 |
4. 021930Z JAN 91
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Naval messages may have a total of (a) how many originators and (b) how many action and information addresses?
1. (a) One (b) one each 2. (a) Two (b) two each 3. (a) Three (b) unlimited 4. (a) One (b) unlimited |
4. (a) One (b) unlimited
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Messages addressed to address indicating
groups (AIGs) would most likely contain which of the following types of information? 1. Directive changes 2. Emergency leave requests 3. Destructive storm warnings 4. Personnel changes of station |
3. Destructive storm warnings
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When a message is unclassified, what word
or abbreviation should appear on the classification line? 1. UNCLASSIFIED 2. NOCLASS 3. NONCLAS 4. UNCLASS |
4. UNCLASS
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A message readdressal refers to what kind of message?
1. A corrected copy of the original draft 2. A duplicate copy transmitted to an activity because the original was illegible 3. One transmitted to an activity that is not an addressee on the original draft 4. One that has been returned to the originator for additions or deletions by higher authority |
3. One transmitted to an activity that is not an addressee on the original draft
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Unless otherwise directed, all naval message directives are automatically canceled after what maximum period of time?
1. 12 months 2. 6 months 3. 90 days 4. 30 days |
3. 90 days
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Minimize requires message drafters and releasers to make which of the following
considerations? 1. Is the message as short as possible 2. Is electrical transmission essential 3. Can the message be sent at a later date 4. May the message be sent to more than one addressee |
2. Is electrical transmission essential
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A rough draft of naval correspondence to
be reviewed by a drafting officer should contain which of the following types of information? 1. Two ideas in each sentence and more than one central thought in each paragraph 2. One subject, clearly and concisely written 3. All information pertaining to the subject 4. The smallest details of all the facts |
2. One subject, clearly and concisely written
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What should be your first concern in drafting correspondence?
1. Format 2. Purpose 3. Distribution 4. Security classification |
3. Distribution
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When organizing a naval letter, what information should you include in the first paragraph?
1. References used 2. Listing of addressees 3. Purpose of the letter 4. Overview of the letter contents |
3. Purpose of the letter
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You are assigned the task of writing a piece of naval correspondence. Which of the following steps should be your first?
1. Writing an outline 2. Determining the target date 3. Determining the distribution list 4. Gathering appropriate reference material |
2. Determining the target date
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When preparing the rough draft of a naval letter, you should concentrate on which of
the following aspects? 1. Proper spelling and punctuation 2. Proper style and letter format\ 3. The appropriate references 4. The necessary information |
3. The appropriate references
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When reviewing the rough draft of your correspondence for the first time, which of
the following procedures should you follow? 1. Review your accomplishments 2. Remove unnecessary introductory phrases 3. Rework paragraphs that are difficult to understand 4. Make brief notes at points where the text can be improved |
4. Make brief notes at points where the text can be improved
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Before presenting smooth
correspondence for signature, you should check for accuracy in which of the following areas. 1. Standard subject identification codes 2. Properly labeled and attached enclosures 3. Correct titles of all addressees 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
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The security classification you assign to naval correspondence is determined by which of the following factors?
1. The number of information addressees 2. The information contained in the correspondence 3. The security classification of related documents 4. The security classification of references contained in the correspondence |
4. The security classification of
references contained in the correspondence |
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An endorsement may be placed on the signature page of a naval letter under which of the following circumstances?
1.The text of the endorsement consists of a maximum of three lines. 2.The basic letter and the endorsement bear the same security classification. 3.The security classification of the endorsement is lower than that of the basic letter. 4.The space on the signature page of the basic letter is sufficient to accommodate the entire endorsement. |
4.The space on the signature page of the basic letter is
sufficient to accommodate the entire endorsement. |
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Correspondence that is used as informal communication between subordinates within the same activity can be accomplished by using which of the following methods?
1. NAVGRAM 2. Speedletter 3. “Memorandum For” 4. “From-To” memorandum |
4. “From-To” memorandum
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What is the purpose of a NAVGRAM?
1.Urgent communications between DOD addressees 2.To ensure priority handling of the communication by the addressee 3.To transmit urgent correspondence by electrical means 4.To ensure special handling by postal authorities |
1.Urgent communications between DOD addressees
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Our Navy uses a standard filing
system for which of the following reasons? 1. Frequent rotation of personnel 2. Saves the Navy space 3. Saves the Navy money 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
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Which, if any, of the following
classified material does not require controlled routing? 1. Confidential 2. Top secret 3. Secret 4. None of the above |
1. Confidential
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When filing material you should
include all of the following except 1. the incoming document 2. a copy of the outgoing correspondence 3. any essential supporting documents 4. all early drafts and extra copies |
4. all early drafts and extra
copies |
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Standard subject identification
codes (SSICs) provide which of the following standard systems throughout the Navy? 1. Colors 2. Numbers 3. Symbols 4. Alphabets |
2. Numbers
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When writing a naval letter, you
should ensure it is well organized and orderly. Which of the following writing methods is NOT in the correct order? 1.Stating requests before justifications 2.Stating explanations before answers 3.Giving conclusions before discussions 4.Giving summaries before details |
2.Stating explanations before
answers |
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The order that references appear in the reference block of a naval letter is based on which of the following factors?
1. The OPNAV/SECNAV number assigned 2. The length of the title of the reference 3. The order in which they appear in the text 4. The numerical listing |
3. The order in which they appear in the text
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Paragraphs in a naval letter should be short and contain roughly what maximum number of sentences?
1. 4 to 5 2. 6 to 7 3. 8 to 10 4. 10 to 12 |
1. 4 to 5
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For an idea to gain emphasis within a sentence, where should it appear?
1. At the start or the end of the sentence 2. At the end of the sentence only 3. At the start of tie sentence only 4. In the middle of the sentence |
1. At the start or the end of the
sentence |
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To save words, clarify ideas, and provide balance when you wish to express two or more equally important ideas in a sentence, you should use which of the following types of sentence construction?
1. Mini sentences 2. Topic sentences 3. Rambling sentences 4. Parallel sentences |
4. Parallel sentences
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To make your writing more like
speaking, you should use which of the following writing techniques? 1. Use personal pronouns 2. Use everyday words 3. Use short sentences 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
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Which of the following writing
practices is the best approach to a subject when writing a directive? 1. Write in the “third person” style 2. Write directly to a user 3. Write in terms of “how to” instructions 4. Write in terms of “how to” checklists |
3. Write in terms of “how to”
instructions |
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As a subordinate writing to a
senior, which of the following approaches should you avoid when setting the tone of the letter? 1. Directing 2. Suggesting 3. Requesting 4. Recommending |
1. Directing
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Which of the following words hurt naval writing by stretching
sentences, delaying meaning, and hiding responsibility? 1. Request you 2. You are 3. It is 4 . I a m |
3. It is
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For economy in writing, you should use as many abbreviations as possible .
1. True 2. False |
2. False
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CMEO is an equal opportunity
management system controlled primarily at which of the following l e v e l s ? 1. Command 2. Secretary of Defense 3. Secretary of the Navy 4. Chief of Naval Operations |
1. Command
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Which of the following supervisors supports the Navy’s Equal Opportunity program?
1. The one who relates positively and directly with all people equally 2. The one who only listens to one point of view 3. The one who stereotypes people 4. The one who feels it necessary to intimidate some people to achieve goals |
1. The one who relates positively and directly with all people equally
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To manage and supervise people effectively, you must have which of the following leadership skills?
1. The ability to ignore conflicts among various groups 2. The ability to listen to and understand what people have to say 3. The ability to place people in correct racial, ethnic, and religious categories 4. The ability to substitute generalized ideas about people when you aren’t sure of their motives |
2. The ability to listen to and
understand what people have to say |
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To help your subordinates grow both personally and professionally, you must use which of the following supervisory practices?
1. Provide timely feedback on performance 2. Provide on-the-job training 3. Identify their strengths and weaknesses 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
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If a person commits an act of
arbitrary discrimination, the commanding officer may take which of the following disciplinary actions? 1. Assign lower evaluation marks 2. Award nonjudicial punishment 3. Submit a recommendation for separation 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
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The Navy Rights and Responsibilities workshop is
conducted by which of the following groups? 1.Command Training Team (CTT) 2.Command Assessment Team (CAT) 3.Command Rights and Responsibilities Team 4.Striker Board |
1.Command Training Team (CTT)
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Which of the following subjects is
NOT covered during the Navy Rights and Responsibilities workshop? 1. Navy Regulations 2. Combatant skills 3. Enlistment contract 4. Grievance and redress |
2. Combatant skills
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Information concerning equal
opportunity contained in command records may NOT be obtained through which of the following methods? 1. Surveys 2. Training 3. Interviews 4. Observations |
1. Surveys
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What two methods of data collecting by the CAT require other data sources to be used to draw conclusions and produce findings that can be validly interpreted?
1. Command records and Interviews 2. Interviews and observations 3. Observations and surveys 4. Surveys and interviews |
3. Observations and surveys
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Nonjudicial punishment is better known in the Navy by which of the following titles?
1. Mast 2. Court-martial 3. Captains mast 4. Executive officers investigation |
3. Captains mast
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Without using court-martial
intervention. what article of the UCMJ empowers a commanding officer to impose punishment for minor offenses on both officer and enlisted personnel? 1. 5 2. 10 3. 15 4. 20 |
3. 15
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Under the UCMJ, punishment must be imposed within 2 years of the offense .
1. True 2. False |
1. True
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The Report and Disposition of
Offense(s), NAVPERS 1626/7, contains all of the following information except 1. preliminary inquiry report 2. action of the XO at screening mast 3. record of any pre-mast restraint 4. all of the required pre-mast advice that must be given to the accused |
4. all of the required pre-mast
advice that must be given to the accused |
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Who must ensure that within a Confinement on bread and water has reasonable amount of time of the report of an offense that the
accused is fully advised of his or her rights concerning a possible NJP? 1. Legal officer 2. Chief Master-at-Arms 3. Officer contemplating imposing NJP 4. Department head and division officer of the accused |
3. Officer contemplating imposing NJP
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Your rights are found under what UCMJ article?
1. 15 2. 31 3. 37 4. 38 |
2. 31
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The preliminary inquiry officer (PIO) completes which part of the NAVPERS 1626/7?
1.C 2.E 3.G 4.I |
2.E
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